CFI FIA exam

8. Based on this information, the CG would be located how far aft of datum?Weight A........120 lb at 15" aft of datumWeight B.......200 lb at 117" aft of datumWeight C........75 lb at 195" aft of datum A. 100.8 inches. B. 109.0 inches. C. 121.7 inches.

A. 100.8 inches.

20. (Refer to figure 36.) Determine the condition of the airplane:Pilot and copilot............375 lbPassengers - aft position....245 lbBaggage.......................65 lbFuel.........................70 gal A. 185 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located within limits. B. 162 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located within limits. C. 162 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located aft of the aft limit.

A. 185 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located within limits.

19. (Refer to figure 24.) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 3,563 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.96. A. 3,527 feet MSL. B. 3,556 feet MSL. C. 3,639 feet MSL.

A. 3,527 feet MSL

18. GIVEN:True course ..............................330°Variation ................................15° EIndicated airspeed .......................160 ktsAmbient temperature ......................-10 °CPressure altitude ........................4,500 ftForecast wind ............................090° at 25 ktsUnder these conditions, the magnetic heading and groundspeed would be approximately A. 323° and 177 knots. B. 332° and 166 knots. C. 340° and 177 knots.

A. 323° and 177 knots.

10. Although not required, supplemental oxygen is recommended for use when flying at night above A. 5,000 feet. B. 10,000 feet. C. 12,500 feet.

A. 5,000 feet.

6. In a twin-engine airplane, the single-engine service ceiling is the maximum density altitude at which VYSE will produce A. 50 feet per minute rate of climb. B. 100 feet per minute rate of climb. C. 500 feet per minute rate of climb.

A. 50 feet per minute rate of climb.

19. What is the primary pitch instrument when establishing a constant altitude standard rate turn? A. Altimeter. B. VSI. C. Airspeed indicator.

A. Altimeter.

What is the primary pitch instrument when establishing a constant altitude standard rate turn? A. Altimeter. B. VSI. C. Airspeed indicator.

A. Altimeter.

15. When warm air moves over a cold lake, what weather phenomenon is likely to occur on the leeward side of the lake? A. Fog. B. Showers. C. Cloudiness.

A. Fog.

1. Which instrument would be affected by excessively low pressure in the airplane's vacuum system? A. Heading indicator. B. Airspeed indicator. C. Pressure altimeter.

A. Heading indicator.

13. What is the duration of a Student Pilot Certificate? A. Indefinite. B. 60 calendar months after the month in which it was issued. C. 24 calendar months after the month in which it was issued.

A. Indefinite.

12. Which middle level clouds are characterized by rain, snow, or ice pellets posing a serious icing problem if temperatures are near or below freezing? A. Nimbostratus. B. Altostratus lenticular. C. Altocumulus castellanus.

A. Nimbostratus.

12. Which characteristic of a spin is not a characteristic of a steep spiral? A. Stalled wing. B. High rate of rotation. C. Rapid loss of altitude.

A. Stalled wing.

14. Your student, who is preparing for a Private Pilot practical test in a single-engine airplane, received 3.5 hours of cross-country flight training including flights of 1.9 hours, 1.0 hours, and 0.6 hours. Is your student eligible to take the practical test? A. Yes. B. No. C. Yes but, if test is satisfactory, certificate will have an ICAO limitation on it.

A. Yes.

6. For a flight instructor to give instruction for a type rating in a CE-500 (an aircraft requiring the pilot in command to have a type rating), the instructor must hold A. a type rating for a CE-500 on their pilot certificate. B. a type rating for a CE-500 on their flight instructor certificate. C. a type rating for any aircraft.

A. a type rating for a CE-500 on their pilot certificate.

14. A common student error in straight-and-level flight is A. attempting to establish correct attitude using instruments instead of outside visual references. B. using pressure on flight controls rather than positive movement to cause attitude change. C. attempting to use engine power to correct airspeed deviation.

A. attempting to establish correct attitude using instruments instead of outside visual references.

9. One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and A. below rotor clouds. B. above rotor clouds. C. below lenticular clouds.

A. below rotor clouds.

If the nosewheel of an airplane moves aft during gear retraction, how would this aft movement affect the CG location of that airplane? It would A. cause the CG location to move aft. B. have no effect on the CG location. C. cause the CG location to move forward.

A. cause the CG location to move aft.

19. Flat skidding turns at low altitudes such as in the traffic pattern are often the result of A. conscious or subconscious effort to avoid banking close to the ground. B. attempting to execute a turn solely by reference to instruments. C. fixating on nose reference while excluding wing reference.

A. conscious or subconscious effort to avoid banking close to the ground.

17. The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture control at altitude is to A. decrease the fuel flow to compensate for decreased air density. B. decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for increased air density. C. increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.

A. decrease the fuel flow to compensate for decreased air density.

20. While in flight, an alternating red and green light directed at you from the control tower means A. exercise extreme caution. B. give way to other aircraft; continue circling. C. return for landing; expect steady green light at proper time.

A. exercise extreme caution.

6. Fouling of spark plugs is more apt to occur if the aircraft A. gains altitude with no mixture adjustment. B. descends from altitude with no mixture adjustment. C. throttle is advanced very abruptly.

A. gains altitude with no mixture adjustment.

13. Action of the elevators moves the plane on its A. lateral axis. B. longitudinal axis. C. vertical axis.

A. lateral axis.

If severe turbulence is encountered, the aircraft's airspeed should be reduced to A. maneuvering speed. B. normal structural cruising speed. C. the minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.

A. maneuvering speed.

11. Students should be taught that throughout a level, 720° steep turn to the right, the rudder is normally used to A. prevent yawing. B. control the rate of turn. C. hold the aircraft in the turn once it is established.

A. prevent yawing.

3. A particular VORTAC station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidenced by A. removal of the identification feature. B. removal of the voice feature of the TACAN. C. transmitting a series of dashes after each identification signal.

A. removal of the identification feature.

7. No person may act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with a minimum blood alcohol level of A. any detectable amount. B. .04 percent or greater. C. 0.2 percent or greater.

B. .04 percent or greater.

16. (Refer to figure 6.) The Chicago FA forecast section is valid until the twenty-fifth at A. 1945Z. B. 0800Z. C. 1400Z.

B. 0800Z.

(Refer to figure 45.) What are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements in an airplane at night when conducting takeoffs and landings at McCampbell Airport (area 1) if the pattern altitude is 600 feet AGL? A. 3 SM visibility and clear of clouds. B. 1 SM visibility and clear of clouds if remaining within one-half mile of the airport. C. Remain clear of clouds and operate at a speed that allows adequate opportunity to see other traffic and obstructions in time to avoid a collision.

B. 1 SM visibility and clear of clouds if remaining within one-half mile of the airport.

7. Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6,000 feet AGL? A. 0. B. 1. C. 1.3.

B. 1.

(Refer to figure 14.) At what altitude is the freezing level over the middle of Florida on the 12-hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart? A. 4,000 feet. B. 12,000 feet. C. 8,000 feet.

B. 12,000 feet.

3. The type and date of each student pilot endorsement given shall be maintained by each flight instructor. For what period of time is this record required to be retained? A. 1 year. B. 2 years. C. 3 years.

B. 2 years.

16. What is the duration of a Flight Instructor Certificate? A. Indefinite, unless suspended or revoked. B. 24 calendar months from the month in which it was issued or renewed. C. Indefinite, as long as the holder has a current pilot and medical certificate appropriate to the pilot privileges being exercised.

B. 24 calendar months from the month in which it was issued or renewed.

5. What is the maximum time period during which a person may use an ATC transponder after it has been tested and inspected? A. 12 calendar months. B. 24 calendar months. C. 36 calendar months.

B. 24 calendar months.

3. (Refer to figure 3.) What is the reported duration of the rain at the time of the observation at KAUS? A. 25 minutes. B. 26 minutes. C. 36 minutes.

B. 26 minutes.

When using a Constant Pressure Analysis Chart for planning a flight at 10,000 feet MSL, a pilot should refer to the A. 850-millibar analysis. B. 700-millibar analysis. C. 500-millibar analysis.

B. 700-millibar analysis.

20. Concerning the advantages of an aircraft generator or alternator, select the true statement. A. A generator always provides more electrical current than an alternator. B. An alternator provides more electrical power at lower engine RPM than a generator. C. A generator charges the battery during low engine RPM; therefore, the battery has less chance to become fully discharged, as often occurs with an alternator.

B. An alternator provides more electrical power at lower engine RPM than a generator.

16. What type of oxygen should be used to replenish an aircraft oxygen system? A. Medical. B. Aviation. C. Industrial.

B. Aviation.

What would cause the 45° point to be reached before the maximum pitchup attitude during a lazy eight? A. Beginning with too slow a rate of roll. B. Beginning with too rapid a rate of roll. C. Allowing the airspeed to remain too high causing the rate of turn to increase.

B. Beginning with too rapid a rate of roll.

14. What action is necessary to make an aircraft turn? A. Yaw the aircraft. B. Change the direction of lift. C. Change the direction of thrust.

B. Change the direction of lift.

7. Which statement is true about the effect of temperature changes on the indications of a sensitive altimeter? A. Warmer-than-standard temperatures will place the aircraft lower than the altimeter indicates. B. Colder-than-standard temperatures will place the aircraft lower than the altimeter indicates. C. Colder-than-standard temperatures will place the aircraft higher than the altimeter indicates.

B. Colder-than-standard temperatures will place the aircraft lower than the altimeter indicates.

13. What is the purpose of the taxiway ending marker sign? A. Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited. B. Indicates taxiway does not continue beyond intersection. C. Provides general taxiing direction to named taxiway.

B. Indicates taxiway does not continue beyond intersection.

9. Which statement about longitude and latitude is true? A. Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator. B. Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles. C. The 0° line of latitude passes through Greenwich, England.

B. Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles.

2. What is one requirement for an aircraft furnished for a practical test? A. All flight instruments must be fully functioning. B. Must have no prescribed operating limitations that prohibit its use in any required area of operation. C. Dual flight controls and engine power controls must be operable and easily reached by both pilots in a normal manner.

B. Must have no prescribed operating limitations that prohibit its use in any required area of operation.

5. What does the lower limit of the white arc on an airspeed indicator represent? A. Minimum controllable airspeed with flaps extended. B. Poweroff stall speed in a landing configuration. C. Poweroff stall speed in a specified configuration.

B. Poweroff stall speed in a landing configuration.

13. Which is the correct sequence for recovery from a spiraling, nose-low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude? A. Increase pitch attitude, reduce power, and level wings. B. Reduce power, correct bank attitude, and raise nose to a level attitude. C. Reduce power, raise nose to a level attitude, and correct bank attitude.

B. Reduce power, correct bank attitude, and raise nose to a level attitude.

18. Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A. Avoid steep turns and rough control movements. B. Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C. Reduce head and eye movements to the greatest extent possible.

B. Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.

4. Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing? A. PIREP. B. SIGMET. C. CONVECTIVE SIGMET.

B. SIGMET.

5. What recent flight experience must be met before a commercial airplane pilot may fly solo in an airplane? A. Three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an airplane. B. Satisfactorily accomplished a flight review in any aircraft for which rated within the preceding 24 calendar months. C. Satisfactorily accomplished a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months, but this review must be in an airplane.

B. Satisfactorily accomplished a flight review in any aircraft for which rated within the preceding 24 calendar months.

8. (Refer to figure 44.) Select the correct statement concerning the obstruction 7 SM west of McKinney Airport (area 5). A. The obstruction is unlighted. B. The obstruction has high-intensity lights. C. The elevation of the top of the obstruction is 729 feet AGL.

B. The obstruction has high-intensity lights.

What airspeed indicator marking identifies the maximum structural cruising speed of an aircraft? A. Red radial line. B. Upper limit of the green arc. C. Upper limit of the yellow arc.

B. Upper limit of the green arc.

8. Coolant in a liquid cooled engine is normally circulated by A. an electric pump. B. an engine driven pump. C. capillary attraction.

B. an engine driven pump.

7. An altitude reporting coded transponder is required for all airspace A. from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL within a 10 NM radius of any airport traffic pattern. B. at and above 10,000 feet MSL and below the floor of Class A airspace (excluding airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL). C. within 25 NM of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL (excluding airspace below 1,200 feet AGL).

B. at and above 10,000 feet MSL and below the floor of Class A airspace (excluding airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL).

14. Excessively high engine temperatures will A. cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins. B. cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage. C. not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.

B. cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

6. To operate an aircraft within Class C airspace from a satellite airport without an operating control tower, a pilot must A. monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace. B. contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff. C. secure prior approval from ATC before takeoff at the airport.

B. contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.

12. At high altitudes, an excessively rich mixture will cause the A. engine to overheat. B. fouling of spark plugs. C. engine to operate smoother even though fuel consumption is increased.

B. fouling of spark plugs.

17. A go-around from a poor landing approach should A. not be attempted unless circumstances make it absolutely necessary. B. generally be preferable to last minute attempts to prevent a bad landing. C. not be attempted after the landing flare has been initiated regardless of airspeed.

B. generally be preferable to last minute attempts to prevent a bad landing.

20. Flight through a military operations area (MOA) is A. never permitted. B. permitted anytime, but caution should be exercised because of military activity. C. permitted at certain times, but only with prior permission from the appropriate authority.

B. permitted anytime, but caution should be exercised because of military activity.

11. A surface inversion can A. indicate the chance of gusty winds. B. produce poor visibility. C. mean an unstable air mass.

B. produce poor visibility.

10. To act as pilot in command of an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower, a person holding a Private or Commercial Pilot Certificate is required to A. successfully complete a practical test in such an airplane. B. receive ground and flight training in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower. C. make three takeoffs and landings with an instructor in an airplane of the same make and model.

B. receive ground and flight training in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower.

14. A moist, cold air mass that is being warmed from below is characterized, in part, by A. fog and drizzle. B. showers and thunderstorms. C. continuous heavy precipitation.

B. showers and thunderstorms.

2. Conviction of an offense involving alcohol or drugs is grounds for A. permanent revocation of all certificates and ratings. B. suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under FAR Part 61. C. denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued under FAR Part 61 for a period of up to 24 months after date of conviction.

B. suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under FAR Part 61.

4. A private pilot with an airplane single-engine land rating may act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider if, within the preceding 12 months, this pilot has made A. ten actual or simulated glider tows. B. three flights as pilot in command of a glider towed by an aircraft. C. at least six flights as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider.

B. three flights as pilot in command of a glider towed by an aircraft.

16. To help manage cockpit stress, a pilot should A. think of life stress situations that are similar to those in flying. B. try to relax and think rationally at the first sign of stress. C. avoid situations that will degrade the ability to handle cockpit responsibilities.

B. try to relax and think rationally at the first sign of stress.

An illusion, that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is, is produced by A. atmospheric haze. B. upsloping terrain. C. downsloping terrain.

B. upsloping terrain

17. (Refer to figure 50.) In which positions will the groundspeeds be equal? A. 2 and 5. B. 1 and 6, 2 and 5. C. 1 and 6, 2 and 5, 3 and 4.

C. 1 and 6, 2 and 5, 3 and 4.

18. (Refer to Figure 19.) The lift/drag at 2° angle of attack is approximately the same as the lift/drag for A. 9.75° angle of attack. B. 10.5° angle of attack. C. 17.2° angle of attack.

C. 17.2° angle of attack.

(Refer to figure 45, area 5.) What is the elevation of the Thomas (T69) Airport? A. 122.8 feet MSL. B. 43 feet MSL. C. 48 feet MSL.

C. 48 feet MSL.

15. What is the wind shear forecast in the following TAF?TAFKCVG 231051Z 231212 12012KT 4SM -RA BR OVC008 WS005/27050KTTEMPO 1719 1/2SM -RA FG FM1930 09012KT 1SM -DZ BR VV003 BECMG 2021 5SM HZ= A. 5 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT. B. 50 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT. C. 500 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.

C. 500 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.

3. What physical change would most likely occur to occupants of an unpressurized aircraft flying above 15,000 feet without supplemental oxygen? A. Gases trapped in the body contract and prevent nitrogen from escaping the bloodstream. B. The pressure in the middle ear becomes less than the atmospheric pressure in the cabin. C. A blue coloration of the lips and fingernails develop along with tunnel vision.

C. A blue coloration of the lips and fingernails develop along with tunnel vision.

Which training time must be certified by the instructor from whom it was received? A. Flight training. B. Flight training and training in a flight training device. C. All flight training, flight simulator training, and ground training.

C. All flight training, flight simulator training, and ground training.

9. As power is reduced to change airspeed from high to low cruise in level flight, which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively? A. Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer. B. Altimeter, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator. C. Altimeter, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.

C. Altimeter, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.

19. Which of the following incidents with a turbine aircraft requires immediate NTSB notification? A. An engine fire that occurs on the ground. B. Sustained loss of thrust in one engine of a large multiengine aircraft. C. Compressor blade failure that penetrates the cowling but does not impact any other part of the aircraft.

C. Compressor blade failure that penetrates the cowling but does not impact any other part of the aircraft.

12. What could be a result of a student focusing too far ahead during a landing approach? A. Reactions will be either too abrupt or too late. B. Rounding out too high and developing an excessive sink rate. C. Difficulty in judging the closeness of the ground resulting in a nose-first touchdown.

C. Difficulty in judging the closeness of the ground resulting in a nose-first touchdown.

6. What precautions should be taken with respect to aircraft oxygen systems? A. Ensure that only medical oxygen has been used to replenish oxygen containers. B. Prohibit smoking while in an aircraft equipped with a portable oxygen system. C. Ensure that industrial oxygen has not been used to replenish the system.

C. Ensure that industrial oxygen has not been used to replenish the system.

13. Which action will result in a stall? A. Flying at too low an airspeed. B. Raising the aircraft's nose too high. C. Exceeding the critical angle of attack.

C. Exceeding the critical angle of attack.

18. What is the purpose for the runway hold position markings on the taxiway? A. Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited. B. Allows an aircraft permission onto the runway. C. Holds aircraft short of the runway.

C. Holds aircraft short of the runway.

5. What is the purpose for the runway hold position markings on the taxiway? A. Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited. B. Allows an aircraft permission onto the runway. C. Holds aircraft short of the runway.

C. Holds aircraft short of the runway.

10. If both the ram-air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what airspeed indication can be expected? A. Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb. B. Zero indicated airspeed until blockage is removed. C. No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight even if large power changes are made.

C. No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight even if large power changes are made.

8. If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport? A. Select 7700 on your transponder, fly a normal traffic pattern, and land. B. Flash your landing lights and make shallow banks in opposite directions while circling the airport. C. Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.

C. Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.

17. Which of the following is the accurate perception of the operating and environmental factors that affect the aircraft, pilot and passengers during a specified period of time? A. Aeronautical Decision Making. B. Crew resource management. C. Situational awareness.

C. Situational awareness.

15. If an accelerated stall occurs during a steep turn, in which direction would the aircraft tend to roll? A. Toward the inside of the turn. B. Toward the outside of the turn. C. The direction of roll depends on whether the airplane is slipping, skidding, or in coordinated flight.

C. The direction of roll depends on whether the airplane is slipping, skidding, or in coordinated flight.

10. As density altitude increases, which will occur if a constant indicated airspeed is maintained in a no-wind condition? A. True airspeed increases; groundspeed decreases. B. True airspeed decreases; groundspeed decreases. C. True airspeed increases; groundspeed increases.

C. True airspeed increases; groundspeed increases.

5. Which is the most probable result if a pilot initiates the climbing turn portions of the lazy eight with banks that are too steep? A. Completing each 180° change of direction with a net gain of altitude. B. Attaining a pitch attitude that is too steep and stalling at the top of the climbing turn. C. Turning at a rate too fast for the rate of climb and therefore, completing each 180° change of direction with excessive airspeed.

C. Turning at a rate too fast for the rate of climb and therefore, completing each 180° change of direction with excessive airspeed.

11. When are ATIS broadcasts updated? A. Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value. B. Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below basic VFR; otherwise, hourly. C. Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.

C. Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.

1. A military airfield can be identified by A. a white and red rotating beacon. B. white flashing sequence lights (strobes). C. a green and dual-peaked white rotating beacon.

C. a green and dual-peaked white rotating beacon.

20. An aircraft's operating limitations may be found in the A. FAA-approved aircraft flight manual. B. owner's handbook published by the aircraft manufacturer. C. aircraft flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.

C. aircraft flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.

2. The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the A. measurement of the fuel flow into the induction system. B. difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the throttle valve. C. increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing a decrease in air pressure.

C. increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing a decrease in air pressure.

15. (Refer to figure 20.) At an airspeed represented by point B, in steady flight, the pilot can expect to obtain the aircraft's A. maximum coefficient of lift. B. minimum coefficient of lift. C. maximum glide range in still air.

C. maximum glide range in still air.

9. A slightly low indication on a PAPI glidepath is indicated by A. four red lights. B. one red light and three white lights. C. one white light and three red lights.

C. one white light and three red lights.

If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, you may have been A. operating with the mixture set too rich. B. using fuel that has a higher-than-specified fuel rating. C. operating with too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

C. operating with too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

18. Prior to starting the engine, the manifold pressure gauge usually indicates approximately 29" Hg. This is because the A. pointer on the gauge is stuck at the full-power indication. B. throttle is closed, trapping high air pressure in the manifold. C. pressure within the manifold is the same as atmospheric pressure.

C. pressure within the manifold is the same as atmospheric pressure.

2. When beginning a rectangular course, the determining factor in deciding the distance from the field boundary at which an aircraft should be flown is the A. windspeed. B. size of the rectangular area chosen. C. steepness of the bank desired in the turns.

C. steepness of the bank desired in the turns.

4. A Flight Instructor Certificate may be renewed by A. passing both a knowledge and a practical test. B. providing a record of training showing evidence the applicant has given at least 80 hours of flight training in the last 24 months. C. successfully completing a flight instructor refresher course within 3 calendar months prior to renewal.

C. successfully completing a flight instructor refresher course within 3 calendar months prior to renewal.

3. Aeronautical decision making (ADM) can be defined as a A. mental process of analyzing all available information in a particular situation, making a timely decision on what action to take, and when to take the action. B. decision making process which relies on good judgment to reduce risks associated with each flight. C. systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances.

C. systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances.

12. The angle between the chord line of the wing and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft is known as A. dihedral. B. the angle of attack. C. the angle of incidence.

C. the angle of incidence.

19. Class E airspace within the contiguous United States extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but not including A. 3,000 feet MSL. B. 14,500 feet MSL. C. the base of the overlying controlled airspace.

C. the base of the overlying controlled airspace.

11. To add a multiengine rating to an existing pilot certificate the specified number of training hours required is A. 15. B. 5. C. the regulations do not specify any number of hours.

C. the regulations do not specify any number of hours.

16. Leaving the carburetor heat on while taking off A. leans the mixture for more power on takeoff. B. will decrease the takeoff distance. C. will increase the ground roll.

C. will increase the ground roll.