CH 1-4 and 17 TEST

1-Biot 2-Kussmaul 3-Cheyne's strokes

1- Increased Cranial pressure 2-Metabolic Acidosis, DKA 3-Brain Stem Injury

1-purlent 2-yellow ,green ,brown 3-frothy pink tinged 4-blood streaked 5-thick

1- Infection 2- decomposing of cells 3- CHF 4- tumor 5- dehydrated

1- solumedrol 2- albuterol 3- Atrovent 4- EPI 5- furosemide 6- Nitro

1- corticosteroid 2- beta 2 agonists 3- parasympatholytic 4-non selective beta agonists 5- loop diuretic 6- Vaso dilator

A 39-year-old man with severe dehydration requires IV fluid therapy to treat his condition. The patient is conscious, alert, and oriented to person, place, time, and event. You should: a. ask him if you can start an IV and explain the reason for the IV as well as the potential risks of IV therapy. b. tell the patient that you are going to start an IV on him in order to replenish his body with lost fluid and electrolytes. c. establish the IV line based on the law of implied consent, because his c

A

A DNR order is defined as a(n): a. written order designed to tell health care providers when resuscitation is or is not appropriate. b. oral directive that is executed by the patient while he or she still has decision-making capacity. c. written or oral directive that stipulates the care that a patient should receive at the end of his or her life. d. legal document signed by at least four physicians that prohibits resuscitative efforts in terminally ill patients.

A

A known heroin abuser is found unconscious on a park bench. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are slow and shallow, and his pulse is slow and weak. You should: a. assist ventilations with a bag-mask device, administer naloxone, and reassess his ventilatory status. d. apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, administer naloxone, and be prepared to assist ventilations.

A

Abnormal breath sounds associated with pneumonia and congestive heart failure are most often heard in the: a. bases of the lungs. b. apices of the lungs. c. midaxillary line. d. right middle lobe.

A

An elderly woman with COPD presents with peripheral edema. The patient is conscious but agitated. She is breathing with slight difficulty but has adequate tidal volume. During your assessment, you note that her jugular veins engorge when you apply pressure to her right upper abdominal quadrant. a. suspect acute right-sided heart failure and administer oxygen. b. expect to hear crackles when you auscultate her lungs.

A

Bedridden patients who are immunocompromised and have excessive pulmonary secretions are prone to developing: a. pneumonia. b. bronchospasm. c. a pneumothorax. d. a pulmonary embolism.

A

Frothy sputum that has a pink tinge indicates: a. congestive heart failure. b. antihistamine use. c. chronic bronchitis. d. tuberculosis.

A

He is on oxygen via nasal cannula, is semiconscious, and is breathing inadequately. The patient's daughter tells you that her father has an out-of-hospital DNR order, for which she is frantically looking. You should: a. recognize that he is experiencing end-stage COPD, begin assisting his ventilations, and contact medical control as needed. b. apply a nonrebreathing mask, assess his oxygen saturation level, and prepare for immediate transport.

A

Paradoxical respiratory movement is characterized by: a. the epigastrium and thorax moving in opposite directions. b. bulging of the intercostal muscles during deep inhalation. c. pulling upward of the suprasternal notch during inhalation. d. a marked decrease in movement in one of the hemi thoraces.

A

Patients with respiratory failure require immediate: a. ventilation support. b. passive oxygenation. c. bronchodilator therapy. d. tracheal intubation.

A

The classic presentation of chronic bronchitis is: a. excessive mucus production and a chronic or recurrent productive cough. b. a thin adult with pursed-lip breathing and a history of heavy cigarette smoking. c. expiratory wheezing and jugular venous distention due to pulmonary hypertension. d. a dry, hacking cough and a barrel chest due to chronic pulmonary air trapping.

A

Wheezing is resolved with medications that: a. relax the smooth muscle of the bronchioles. b. dry up secretions in the lower airway. c. cause bronchoconstriction and improved airflow. d. reduce soft-tissue swelling in the larynx.

A

Which of the following is a typical function of the EMS medical director? a. Developing protocols in cooperation with other EMS experts b. Responding to an emergency scene with the paramedics c. Referring patients to new medical facilities d. Responding to emergency calls

A

Which of the following patients is an emancipated minor? a. 17-year-old woman who has a child, lives on her own, and is financially independent b. 16-year-old woman who lives with her boyfriend c. 17-year-old woman who goes to college and lives with her parents d. 17-year-old man who works more than 20 hours a week

A

While caring for a conscious and alert 49-year-old man with a suspected myocardial infarction, you start an IV prior to obtaining the patient's consent. This action constitutes: a. battery. b. assault. c. appropriate care. d. gross negligence.

A

While providing care to a seriously ill public official who is semiconscious, a media representative arrives at the scene and asks about the patient's condition. You should: a. tell the media representative that you cannot disclose any information. b. give the media representative the patient's name and age only. c. obtain consent from the patient before releasing any personal information. d. advise the media representative to obtain the information at the hospital.

A

You are dispatched to a residence for a 59-year-old man with difficulty breathing. The patient, who has a history of COPD, is conscious and alert. During your assessment, he tells you that he developed chills, fever, and a productive cough 2 days ago. Auscultation of his lungs reveals rhonchi to the left lower lobe. This patient is likely experiencing: a. pneumonia. b. bronchitis. c. end-stage COPD. d. COPD exacerbation.

A

A 76-year-old woman with emphysema presents with respiratory distress that has worsened progressively over the past 2 days. She is breathing through pursed lips and has a prolonged expiratory phase and an oxygen saturation of 76%. She is on home oxygen at 2 L/min. Your initial action should be to: a. increase her oxygen flow rate to 6 L/min. b. place her in a position that facilitates breathing. c. auscultate her lungs for adventitious breath sounds. d. administer a beta-2 agonist via nebulizer.

B

A hyperventilating patient: a. should rebreathe their carbon dioxide to effect resolution. b. may be acidotic and trying to increase their pH level. c. is most effectively treated by administering a sedative drug. d. presents with tachypnea and marked use of accessory muscles.

B

Although the technicalities of EMS DNR orders vary from state to state, they all: a. must be renewed every 5 years or they will expire and become null and void. b. are designed to tell EMS providers when resuscitation is or is not appropriate. c. require the patient to wear a DNR insignia such as a bracelet or necklace. d. are completely irrevocable by the patient's immediate family members.

B

Hepatojugular reflux occurs when: a. a patient's jugular veins are markedly engorged when lying in a supine position. b. mild pressure placed on the patient's liver further engorges the jugular veins. c. left-sided heart failure causes blood to accumulate in the patient's liver. d. the jugular veins collapse in response to palpation of the right upper quadrant.

B

If a conscious patient with decision-making capacity refuses care for a potentially life-threatening condition: a. implied consent will allow you to treat the patient. b. he or she cannot be treated without a court order. c. medical direction can overrule the patient's decision. d. you must begin lifesaving treatment at once.

B

If a patient's hemoglobin level is 8 g/dL due to hemorrhage and all of the hemoglobin molecules are attached to oxygen, the patient's oxygen saturation would likely read: a. between 90% and 95%. b. above 95%. c. between 85% and 90%. d. significantly lower than 85%.

B

Implied consent is based on the premise that a patient: a. would refuse any emergency medical care if he or she were unconscious. b. would consent to care because of the seriousness of his or her injury. c. will die unless emergency medical treatment is provided immediately. d. is of legal age and is able to make rational decisions regarding his or her care.

B

Informed consent involves: a. explaining the rationale for an invasive procedure to a patient after you have already performed it. b. ensuring that a patient understands the potential risks involved in performing a particular procedure. c. a patient verbally expressing his or her wishes for you to proceed with emergency medical treatment. d. carefully explaining the potential ramifications of refusing emergency medical treatment.

B

The Good Samaritan law was originally passed in order to: a. encourage paramedics to respond while on duty. b. encourage the public to help at emergency scenes. c. provide immunity from liability to the paramedic. d. discourage EMS systems from billing the patient.

B

The barrel-chest appearance classically seen in patients with emphysema is secondary to: a. carbon dioxide retention. b. air trapping in the lungs. c. widespread atelectasis. d. chest wall hypertrophy.

B

Use of an automated transport ventilator is contraindicated for patients who are: a. in cardiac arrest. b. breathing spontaneously. c. apneic with a pulse. d. chemically paralyzed.

B

What is the typical order of the stages of the grieving process? a. Depression, denial, anger, bargaining, acceptance b. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance c. Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance d. Denial, bargaining, anger, acceptance, depression

B

When transferring a patient between medical facilities, it is important for the paramedic to: a. request another paramedic if the patient's clinical condition is too unstable for one paramedic to manage effectively. b. ensure that a physician or nurse accompanies the patient if the patient requires care beyond the paramedic's scope of practice. c. request that a member of the patient's family accompanies the patient. d. request a basic life support ambulance.

B

Which of the following is an example of slander? a. Asking a patient if he or she is under psychiatric care b. Telling the receiving facility that a patient is drunk c. Documenting that you noted the possible smell of alcohol d. Asking a family member if the patient uses drugs

B

Which of the following scenarios is an example of abandonment? a. A mentally competent adult with shortness of breath adamantly refuses to be transported to the hospital via EMS, so you arrange for a friend or family member to stay with the patient and call 9-1-1 if it becomes necessary. b. A patient with a possible fracture of the radius wishes to go to the hospital, but does not have transportation, so you arrange for a friend to take him to the emergency department the next day.

B

Which of the following statements regarding the harm element of a negligence lawsuit is correct? a. Serious injury must have occurred in order for harm to be established. b. A loss of earning capacity is a form of harm that the patient may claim.. c. The burden of proof for establishing harm rests with the defendant. d. Loss of income is the most common form of harm proven in a lawsuit.

B

Which of the following statements would be inappropriate when documenting your care of a patient with an emotional problem? a. "The possible smell of ETOH was noted at the scene." b. "The patient's actions suggest the use of illicit drugs." c. "The patient was uncooperative during the exam." d. "There was no evidence of suicidal behavior."

B

Without obtaining her consent, you transport a mentally competent young woman to the hospital because you suspect she is experiencing internal bleeding. This action: a. reflects an act of gross negligence. b. constitutes false imprisonment. c. is justifiable because of your suspicions. d. is defensible in a court of law.

B

You are transporting a middle-aged man on a CPAP unit for severe pulmonary edema. An IV line of normal saline is in place. Prior to applying the CPAP the oxygen saturation of 90%. you note that his respirations have increased and his oxygen saturation has dropped to 84 b. remove the CPAP unit, assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device, and prepare to intubate him. c. continue the CPAP treatment and administer a diuretic to remove fluids from his lungs quickly.

B

You arrive at the scene of a shooting. The patient, a 19-year-old woman, has a gunshot wound to the side of her head with a large amount of exposed brain matter. Further assessment reveals that the patient is apneic and pulseless. a. begin CPR immediately, cover the wound with a bulky dressing, and prepare to transport the patient. b. avoid unnecessary contact with the patient and document the findings of your visual assessment of the patient and scene.

B

21-year-old woman experienced an acute onset of pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea while playing softball. She is dyspneic, is 93% on room air, and has diminished breath sounds to the upper right lobe. a. applying a CPAP unit and starting an IV line en route to the hospital. b. assisting with ventilations in order to increase her oxygen saturation. c. administering high-flow supplemental oxygen and transporting at once. d. performing a needle decompression to the right side of her chest.

C

A 29-year-old woman is experiencing a severe asthma attack. Her husband reports that she was admitted to an intensive care unit about 6 months ago, and had a breathing tube in place. Prior to your arrival, the patient took three puffs of her rescue inhaler without effect. She is anxious and restless, is tachypneic, and has audible wheezing. b. apply a CPAP unit, transport immediately, and attempt to establish vascular access en route to the hospital. c. begin assisting her ventilations with a ba

C

A 66-year-old man with chronic bronchitis presents with severe respiratory distress. The patient's wife tells you that he is on home oxygen therapy, and has recently been taking an over-the-counter antitussive. She further tells you that he has not been compliant with his oxygen therapy. Auscultation of his lungs reveals diffuse rhonchi. a. Oxygen noncompliance b. Acute right heart failure c. Recent antitussive use d. An underlying infection

C

A patent airway: a. should be prophylactically suctioned. b. is characterized by adequate tidal volume. c. does not equate to adequate ventilation. d. is evidenced by visible chest rise.

C

A patient who is coughing up purulent sputum is likely experiencing: a. pulmonary edema. b. dehydration. c. an infection. d. emphysema.

C

A patient with quiet tachypnea suggests: a. alkalosis. b. airway swelling. c. shock. d. asthma.

C

A patient's wife called 9-1-1 because the patient was complaining of a severe headache and nausea. The patient is conscious and alert, but obviously upset that his wife called 9-1-1 without consulting with him first. As you present the blood pressure cuff, the patient folds his arms and turns away from you. From this patient's actions, you should conclude that: a. he will only consent to EMS transport. b. he is not mentally competent. c. you do not have consent to treat him. d. consent to treat

C

Abandonment occurs when: a. a patient refuses care and subsequently dies of his condition. b. an emergency nurse takes a verbal report from a paramedic. c. care of a patient was terminated without his or her consent. d. a patient is released and did not require further medical care.

C

An increase in the number of EMS calls for patients with chronic respiratory problems commonly occurs: a. when people travel during a holiday. b. during an influenza outbreak. c. during sudden weather changes. d. when the relative humidity is low.

C

Burnout is defined as: a. cynicism after being a paramedic for many years. b. an acute reaction to an overwhelming situation. c. the exhaustion of physical or emotional strength. d. a person's emotional reaction to a stressful event.

C

Carpopedal Spasm related to hyperventilation is cuased by a reduction in a. Sodium b. Magnesium c. Calcium d. Potassium

C

Documenting a false statement that injures a person's good name or reputation constitutes: a. gross negligence. b. assault and battery. c. libel and defamation. d. slander and defamation.

C

Hepatomegaly and jugular venous distention are suggestive of: a. left-sided heart failure. b. severe pneumonia. c. right-sided heart failure. d. pulmonary edema.

C

If a conflict arises between a paramedic and a physician bystander in the field, the paramedic should: a. politely ask the physician to leave the scene. b. become subordinate to the physician. c. contact medical control to seek resolution. d. involve law enforcement in the incident.

C

If a patient makes a decision regarding his or her own health care and the paramedic does not agree with that decision, the paramedic should: a. accept the patient's decision, but advise him or her that you do not agree. b. ensure that the EMS medical director agrees with the patient's decision. c. respect the patient's wishes, assuming he or she has decision-making capacity. d. try to convince the patient that the decision is not in his or her best interest.

C

If you must deviate from your protocols because of unusual circumstances, you should first: a. advise the patient. b. apprise the receiving hospital. c. notify medical control. d. document the event.

C

The best way for the paramedic to evaluate a patient's decision-making capacity is to: a. ensure that pulse oximetry and blood glucose readings are within normal limits. b. determine if the patient knows what care is appropriate for the situation. c. talk to the patient to determine if he or she understands what is happening. d. confirm that the patient is at least 18 years of age or otherwise emancipated.

C

The diaphragm of the stethoscope is designed to auscultate: a. heart tones. b. low-pitched sounds. c. high-pitched sounds. d. bowel sounds.

C

The husband of a terminally ill woman called 9-1-1 because he thinks his wife is about to die. The patient has a valid living will and an out-of-hospital DNR order. You should: a. ask the husband why he called EMS if his wife is not to be resuscitated. b. assume that the husband has revoked the DNR order and begin treatment. c. treat the husband and his wife with respect and provide emotional support. d. contact medical control and request permission to provide emergency care.

C

The presence of diffuse rhonchi (low-pitched crackles) in the lungs indicates: a. air being forced through narrowed airways. b. right-sided congestive heart failure. c. thick secretions in the large airways. d. isolated consolidation of secretions.

C

Use of a spacer device in conjunction with a metered-dose inhaler: b. requires the patient to time their inhalation to coincide with the discharge of the metered-dose inhaler. c. collects medication as it is released from the canister, allowing more to be delivered to the lungs and less to be lost to the environment. d. may be required when assisting a patient who is breathing inadequately, but generally results in less medication delivery to the lungs.

C

Which of the following charges are infrequently prosecuted in EMS? a. Battery b. False imprisonment c. Inadequate patient care d. Assault

C

Which of the following conditions would likely present with a rapid onset of dyspnea? a. COPD b. Asthma c. Pulmonary embolism d. Pneumonia

C

Which of the following general statements regarding violent patients is correct? a. You must rule out hypoglycemia before restraining a violent patient. b. Most patients become violent because of a severe psychiatric condition. c. Benzodiazepines are acceptable to use as a means of chemical restraint. d. Ideally, violent patients should be restrained in a facedown position.

C

Which of the following is a required element needed to prove negligence? a. The patient's condition was life threatening. b. An act of omission did not cause of the patient's injury. c. The paramedic committed a breach of duty. d. The paramedic was not on duty.

C

Which of the following is an example of a protocol? a. Verbal order by a physician b. Online medical control c. Standing orders d. Radio orders

C

Which of the following statements regarding epiglottitis is correct? b. Most cases of epiglottitis are progressive in their onset and result in severe swelling of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi. c. Epiglottitis has become relatively rare in children due to vaccinations against the Haemophiles influenzae type b bacterium. d. Characteristic signs of epiglottitis include a low-grade fever, a seal-like barking cough, and varying degrees of respiratory distress.

C

You are transporting a patient with a long history of emphysema. The patient called 9-1-1 because his shortness of breath has worsened progressively over the past few days. The cardiac monitor shows sinus tachycardia and the pulse oximeter reads 89%. When you reassess the patient, you note that his respiratory rate and depth have decreased. b. insert a nasal airway, apply a CPAP unit, and notify medical control. c. begin assisting his ventilations with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen.

C

You are called to a community center for a 40-year-old woman who is "acting strange." Upon your arrival, you assess the patient and determine that she is conscious, alert, and oriented to person, place, time, and event. She does not appear to be mentally impaired. The patient's husband tells you that his wife has bipolar disorder and takes medication for it. The patient tells you that she is fine and does not want to go to the hospital. You should:

C-recognize that this patient has decision-making capacity at the present time and that you cannot force her to go to the hospital.

A 36-year-old man with a history of asthma presents with severe respiratory distress. You attempt to administer a nebulized beta-2 agonist, but his poor respiratory effort is inhibiting effective drug delivery via the nebulizer and his mental status is deteriorating. a. start an IV of normal saline and administer a steroid. b. assist him with a metered-dose inhaler bronchodilator. c. apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. d. assist his ventilations and establish vascular access.

D

A legal obligation of public and certain other ambulance services to respond to a call for help in their jurisdiction is called: a. negligence. b. proximate cause. c. immunity. d. duty.

D

A patient with a history of asthma is at greatest risk for respiratory arrest if they: a. were recently evaluated in an emergency department. b. have used their inhaler twice in the previous week. c. take a bronchodilator and a corticosteroid. d. were previously intubated for their condition.

D

A patient with respiratory distress who is willing to lie flat: a. has minimal fluid in the lungs. b. likely has basilar pneumonia. c. should be intubated at once. d. may be acutely deteriorating.

D

An otherwise healthy adult whose normal hemoglobin level is 12 to 14 g/dL typically will begin to exhibit cyanosis when: a. hemoglobin levels fall below 12 g/dL. b. their oxygen saturation falls below 50%. c. 10% of their hemoglobin is desaturated. d. about 5 g/dL of hemoglobin is desaturated.

D

Assault on a patient occurs when the EMS provider: a. carries out a harmful physical act against a patient. b. defames a patient's character in his or her report. c. touches another person without obtaining consent. d. instills the fear of immediate bodily harm in a patient.

D

Because a lawsuit may not begin until several years after the paramedic cares for a patient: a. all paramedics should carry malpractice insurance. b. the paramedic should follow up with the patient regularly. c. the paramedic should place an attorney on retainer. d. it is essential to maintain good documentation on any call.

D

Before asking a patient to sign a refusal form, the paramedic must: a. ask a police officer to determine if the patient is competent. b. ask an impartial observer to sign the refusal form first. c. tell the patient that he or she will die without treatment. d. ensure the patient is aware of the risks of his or her refusal.

D

Digital clubbing is indicative of: a. peripheral vascular disease. b. right heart failure. c. acute hypoxemia. d. chronic hypoxia.

D

Historically, most EMTALA violations occurred when: a. hospitals refused to accept clinically stable patients. b. paramedics functioned above their scope of practice. c. paramedics transported a woman in active labor. d. the patient did not have medical insurance.

D

If a paramedic receives an order from a physician that he or she feels is detrimental to the patient's best interests, the paramedic should: a. tell the patient that the physician's order is appropriate for him or her. b. not carry out the order and discuss the issue with the physician later. c. carry out the order, but factually and carefully document the event. d. immediately discuss with the physician why the paramedic feels that way.

D

If a patient's hemoglobin level is only 10 g/dL, what percent would have to be desaturated before they would appear cyanotic? a. 10% b. 25% c. 30% d. 50%

D

In which situation would Cheyne-Stokes respirations be considered an ominous finding? a. Apneic periods less than 5 seconds b. Alcohol intoxication c. Obstructive sleep apnea d. Traumatic brain injury

D

Most civil cases are resolved during a settlement process because: a. trial juries can be very unpredictable and are often misinformed. b. the paramedic is found responsible during the discovery phase. c. the plaintiff is typically awarded a larger amount of money. d. it is expensive and time consuming to take the case to trial.

D

Patients with decompensated asthma or COPD who require positive-pressure ventilation: a. should be ventilated routinely at a rate that is slightly faster than the rate for a patient without an underlying pulmonary disease. b. should be given forceful positive-pressure breaths because their primary problem is difficulty with inhalation. d. may develop a pneumothorax or experience a decrease in venous return to the heart if they are ventilated too rapidly.

D

The best legal protection for the paramedic is to: a. routinely obtain more than the minimum number of continuing education credits required by the state department of health. b. treat all patients with respect and remain aware that patients' cultural beliefs may differ from those of the paramedic. c. always transport the patient to the hospital of the patient's choice, regardless of the patient's clinical condition. d. provide a detailed patient assessment and appropriate medical care, followed

D

The most clinically significant finding when questioning a patient with a chronic respiratory disease is: a. a recent medication regimen change. b. a recent emergency department visit. c. medication use prior to your arrival. d. prior intubation for the same problem.

D

The statement "If I can just live long enough to see my son's wedding, I can die in peace" is indicative of which stage of the grieving process? a. Depression b. Denial c. Anger d. Bargaining

D

When functioning at a crime scene, it is important for the paramedic to: a. avoid performing patient care until cleared by the police. b. collect and safeguard any and all evidence. c. carefully question witnesses as to what they saw. d. use caution and not disturb the scene unnecessarily.

D

Which of the following is addressed in the EMTALA? a. Requiring EMS to transport all patients to the closest medical treatment facility b. Allowing a woman who is in active labor to be transported to a distant hospital c. Discouraging private individuals from suing if a hospital has violated the law d. Preventing medical facilities from denying medical screening and stabilization

D

Which of the following statements regarding emergency vehicle laws is correct? a. Most states allow an emergency vehicle to exceed the speed limit by 20 miles per hour if it is safe to do so. b. An ambulance must use its lights and siren when transporting any acutely ill or injured patient. c. The Star of Life insignia permits an ambulance to run a red light or stop sign if it is safe. d. All state statutes require emergency vehicles to be operated in a safe and prudent manner.

D

Which type of inspiratory and expiratory sounds are both loud, but the inspiratory sounds are shorter than the expiratory sounds? a. Tracheal b. Bronchovesicular c. Vesicular d. Bronchial

D

Which type of respirations are characterized by a grossly irregular pattern of breathing that may be accompanied by lengthy periods of apnea? a. Agonal b. Eupneic c. Cheyne-Stokes d. Biot

D

While caring for an 80-year-old man with a possible fractured arm, you discover other injury patterns that are suggestive of abuse. The patient is conscious and alert. You should: a. treat the patient's injury appropriately and then obtain his consent to report your suspicions to the emergency department physician. d. splint the patient's arm, transport him to the hospital, and report your suspicions to the emergency department physician.

D

While en route to a call for an emotionally disturbed patient, law enforcement notifies you by radio that the patient has become extremely violent. You should: a. continue to the scene and assist law enforcement in restraining the patient. b. carefully enter the scene and administer a benzodiazepine to sedate the patient. c. advise law enforcement to handcuff the patient and transport her to the hospital. d. wait for law enforcement to advise you that they have the patient under control.

D

You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle versus pedestrian accident. The patient is a 12-year-old girl who was struck by a car while riding her bike. She is conscious but combative. As a police officer attempts to contact the child's parents, you should: c. provide supportive care only but do not transport the child until the parents arrive and give consent.This answer is incorrect. d. assume that her parents would consent to emergency treatment and initiate the appropriate care for the child.

D

You have been attempting resuscitation of a middle-aged woman for approximately 20 minutes; however, she has not responded to any of your treatment. There is no evidence of hypothermia or drug ingestion, and the cardiac monitor shows asystole. You should: a. determine if she has an advance directive. b. pronounce the patient dead and call the coroner. c. perform CPR only and try to contact her family. d. consider terminating your resuscitative efforts.

D

you would likely observe a grossly low respiratory rate and volume in a patient who overdosed on: a. ibuprofen. b. Prozac. c. LSD. d. heroin.

D

A DNR can be revoked by a family member only if they are the one that signed the order on behalf of the patient. True False

True