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(Refer to Area 3.) What is the airspace classification around Findlay (FDY) airport? A. E. B. D. C. C.

Answer A is correct. A magenta dashed line surrounding an airport identifies it as Class E airspace that extends to the surface. The presence of this dashed magenta line indicates that this airport offers a precision instrument approach.

Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace? A. The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff. B. The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace. C. The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure.

Answer A is correct. Aircraft departing from a satellite airport within Class C airspace with an operating control tower must establish and maintain two-way radio communication with the control tower and thereafter as instructed by ATC. When departing a satellite airport without an operating control tower, the pilot must contact and maintain two-way radio communication with ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.

With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with A. an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability. B. an operable VOR or TACAN receiver. C. instruments and equipment required for IFR operations.

Answer A is correct. All aircraft within 30 nautical miles of a Class B primary airport must be equipped with an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability. The exception is any aircraft that was not originally certificated with an engine-driven electrical system or that has not subsequently been certified with such a system installed, balloon, or glider may conduct operations in the airspace within 30 nautical miles of a Class B airspace primary airport provided such operations are conducted (1) outside any Class A, Class B, or Class C airspace area; and (2) below the altitude of the ceiling of a Class B or Class C airspace area or 10,000 feet MSL, whichever is lower.

What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted? A. "A" may be used for taxi and takeoff; "E" may be used only as an overrun. B. "A" may be used only for taxiing; "E" may be used for all operations except landings. C. "A" may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landings; "E" may be used only as an overrun.

Answer A is correct. Area A in Fig. 48 is the paved area behind a displaced runway threshold, as identified by the ww symbol pointed to by B. This area may be used for taxiing, the landing rollout, and the takeoff of aircraft. Area E is a stopway area, as identified by the lighter shade. This area, due to the nature of its structure, is unusable except as an overrun.

(Refer to Area 2.) Identify the airspace over Bryn Airport. A. Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace -- 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. B. Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. C. Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL; Class E airspace -- 700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL.

Answer A is correct. Bryn Airport is located 1.5 in. south of 2 on Fig. 26. There is no specific airspace designation around Bryn. Therefore, the airspace over the airport is Class G airspace up to the next overlying airspace. Unless the floor is designated otherwise, Class E airspace exists from 1,200 ft. AGL, up to but not including 18,000 ft. MSL.

(Refer to Area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)? A. 1,300 feet MSL. B. 1,200 feet AGL. C. 1,700 feet MSL.

Answer A is correct. Class C airspace consists of a surface area and a shelf area. The floor of the shelf area is 1,200 feet above the airport elevation. The Savannah Class C airspace (Fig. 23, Area 3) is depicted by solid magenta circles. For each circle there is a number over a number or SFC. The numbers are in hundreds of feet MSL. The bottom number represents the floor of the airspace. Thus, the floor of the shelf area of the Class C airspace is 1,300 feet MSL (41/13).

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is A. 1,000 feet. B. 1,500 feet. C. 500 feet.

Answer A is correct. Controlled airspace is the generic term for Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace. Only in Class C, D, or below 10,000 feet MSL in Class E airspace are the minimum flight visibility and vertical distance from clouds for VFR flight required to be 3 SM, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds. NOTE: AGL altitudes are not used in controlled airspace. In Class E airspace, the visibility and distance from clouds are given for (1) below 10,000 feet MSL and (2) at or above 10,000 feet MSL.

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace? A. Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements. B. Commercial Pilot Certificate. C. Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

Answer A is correct. No person may take off or land aircraft at an airport within Class B airspace or operate an aircraft within Class B airspace unless (s)he is at least a private pilot or, if a student pilot, (s)he has the appropriate logbook endorsement required by 14 CFR 61.95.

When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Bishop Airport (Area 4) to McCampbell Airport (Area 1) at an altitude of 2,000 feet MSL? A. Entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace. B. Leaving and entering the alert areas, entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace, and passing through the Cabaniss Field Class D airspace. C. Leaving and entering the alert areas and entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace.

Answer A is correct. On Fig. 69, Area 4 is near the center and Area 1 is in the upper right-hand corner of the chart. A flight from Bishop Airport to McCampbell Airport at 2,000 feet MSL will pass through the Corpus Christi Class C airspace. Two-way radio communications and transponder with encoding altimeter are required when operating within Class C airspace.

The controlled airspace located at the Corpus Christi VORTAC (Area 5) begins at A. 700 feet AGL. B. the surface. C. 1,200 feet MSL.

Answer A is correct. On Fig. 69, Area 5 is 9 NM north of Corpus Christi. The Corpus Christi VORTAC is just inside the magenta-shaded area. This indicates that Class E (controlled) airspace extends upward from 700 feet AGL to the base of the overlying airspace [here Class C airspace at 1,200 feet MSL, as indicated by the magenta solid lines and the "40" above the "12" (separated by a line), 5 NM west of the VORTAC].

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR flight is A. 1 mile. B. 3 miles. C. 5 miles.

Answer A is correct. One statute mile is the minimum day flight visibility in Class G airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL.

According to the airport diagram, which statement is true? A. Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B. B. The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position B. C. Position E on Runway 30 is available for landing.

Answer A is correct. Position A indicates a displaced threshold by the arrows located along the centerline in the area between the beginning of the runway and displaced threshold. Arrow heads are located across the width of the runway just prior to the threshold bar. A displaced threshold is located at a point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway. The portion of runway behind a displaced threshold is available for takeoffs in either direction and landings from the opposite direction. These markings are white in the real environment.

(Refer to Area 8.) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area southwest of Dallas Executive? A. 3,549 feet MSL. B. 2,731 feet MSL. C. 3,349 feet MSL.

Answer A is correct. The Cedar Hill TV towers (Fig. 25, west of 8) have an elevation of 2,549 feet MSL. The minimum safe altitude over a congested area is 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. Thus, to vertically clear the towers, the minimum altitude is 3,549 feet MSL (2,549 + 1,000).

(Refer to Area 6.) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of A. both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL. B. 2,100 feet AGL. C. 10,000 feet MSL.

Answer A is correct. The Class C airspace at OAK (Area 6) is shown in solid magenta lines. The surface area over the airport indicates the Class C airspace extends from the surface (SFC) upward to T, which means the ceiling ends at the base of the San Francisco Class B airspace. The base of the Class B airspace changes over OAK. To the left of OAK the base is 2,100 feet MSL and to the right of OAK the base is 3,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet AGL are A. 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud. B. 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud. C. 1 mile and clear of clouds.

Answer A is correct. The airspace around Sandpoint Airport is Class G airspace from the surface to 700 ft. AGL and Class E airspace from 700 ft. AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 ft. MSL (indicated by the magenta shading). Therefore, 1,200 ft. AGL is within Class E airspace. The VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements for operations in Class E airspace below 10,000 ft. MSL are 3 miles and a distance of 1,000 ft. above, 500 ft. below, and 2,000 ft. horizontally from each cloud.

(Refer to Area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are A. 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds. B. 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds. C. 1 mile and clear of clouds.

Answer A is correct. The airspace over the town of Cooperstown (Fig. 26, north of 2) is Class G airspace up to 700 feet AGL, and Class E airspace from 700 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL (indicated by the magenta shading). Therefore, the visibility and cloud clearance requirements for daylight VFR operation over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the visibility and ceiling to be at least A. 1,000 feet and 3 miles. B. 1,000 feet and 1 mile. C. 2,500 feet and 3 miles.

Answer A is correct. The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are a 1,000-foot ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility.

(Refer to east of Area 5.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is A. Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL. B. Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying Class E airspace. C. Class E airspace from the surface to 1,200 feet MSL.

Answer A is correct. The magenta shading surrounding Barnes County Airport indicates that Class E airspace starts at 700 feet AGL. Therefore, Class G airspace exists from the surface to 700 feet AGL.

(Refer to Area 1.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International? A. Mode C transponder and two-way radio. B. Mode C transponder and omnireceiver. C. Mode C transponder, omnireceiver, and DME.

Answer A is correct. The minimum equipment to land and take off at Norfolk International (Fig. 20) is a Mode C transponder and a two-way radio. Norfolk International is located within Class C airspace. Unless otherwise authorized, a pilot must establish and maintain radio communication with ATC prior to and while operating in the Class C airspace area. Mode C transponders are also required in and above all Class C airspace areas.

That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for A. taxiing and takeoff. B. taxiing and landing. C. landing.

Answer A is correct. The portion of the runway identified by the letter A is a displaced threshold. A displaced runway can be distinguished from a regular runway by the arrow heads that run across the width of the displaced runway (just before the white threshold bar) as identified on the diagram by the ww symbol indicated by B. A displaced threshold means the runway may be used for taxiing or takeoffs but not for landings.

(Refer to Area 2.) The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is A. 19 feet. B. 360 feet. C. 36 feet.

Answer A is correct. The question asks for the elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport (Fig. 20). East of 2, note that the second line of the airport identifier for Chesapeake Regional reads "19 L 55 123.075." The first number, in bold type, is the altitude of the airport above MSL. It is followed by the L for lighted runway(s), 55 for the length of the longest runway (5,500 ft.), and the CTAF frequency (123.075).

The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally A. 4,000 feet AGL. B. 1,200 feet AGL. C. 3,000 feet AGL.

Answer A is correct. The vertical limit (ceiling) of Class C airspace is normally 4,000 feet above the primary airport elevation.

All operations within Class C airspace must be in A. an aircraft equipped with a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability. B. accordance with instrument flight rules. C. compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.

Answer A is correct. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, an operable radar beacon transponder with altitude reporting equipment is required.

What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace? A. Air Traffic Control Tower. B. Air Route Traffic Control Center. C. Automated Flight Service Station.

Answer A is correct. When special VFR is needed, the pilot should contact the Air Traffic Control Tower to receive a departure clearance in Class D airspace.

What must a pilot do or be aware of when transitioning an Alert Area? A. Non-participating aircraft may transit the area as long as they operate in accordance with their waiver. B. Be aware that the area may contain unusual aeronautical activity or high volume of pilot training. C. All pilots must contact the controlling agency to ensure aircraft separation.

Answer B is correct. Alert areas are depicted on aeronautical charts with an "A" followed by a number (e.g., A-211) to inform non-participating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. Pilots should exercise caution in alert areas. Both pilots of participating aircraft and pilots transiting the area are equally responsible for collision avoidance.

The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is A. 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally. B. 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

Answer B is correct. An airway includes that Class E airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet AGL to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL. The minimum distance from clouds below 10,000 feet MSL in Class E airspace is 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Gnoss Airport (DVO) (Area 4) to Livermore Airport (LVK) (Area 5) at an altitude of 3,500 ft. MSL? When entering A. the Class B airspace. B. the Livermore Airport Class D airspace. C. both the Class B airspace and the Livermore Airport Class D airspace.

Answer B is correct. Area 4 is in the upper left hand-corner, and Area 5 is in the center of the right-hand side of Fig. 70. A flight from Gnoss Airport (DVO) to Livermore Airport (LVK) will pass beneath the sections of Class B airspace extending upward from 4,000 ft. MSL and 6,000 ft. MSL, as indicated by the "100" above the "40" (separated by a line) and the "100" above the "60" (separated by a line), respectively. Livermore Airport is encircled by blue dashed lines, indicating Class D airspace extending upward from the surface to a specified altitude (here 2,900 ft. MSL). Two-way radio communications must be established prior to entry and thereafter maintained while in Class D airspace.

With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include, A. 14,500 feet MSL. B. 18,000 feet MSL. C. 10,000 feet MSL.

Answer B is correct. Beginning at either 700 ft. AGL or 1,200 ft. AGL, Class E airspace extends up to, but not including, the base of the overlying controlled airspace. With the exception of Class B and Class C airspace, Class E airspace extends up to, but not including, 18,000 ft. MSL, i.e., the floor of Class A airspace.

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours? A. 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds. B. 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.

Answer B is correct. Below 1,200 feet AGL in Class G airspace during daylight hours, the VFR weather minimum is 1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds.

The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is A. 3 miles. B. 5 miles. C. 1 mile.

Answer B is correct. Controlled airspace is the generic term for Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace. Of these, only in Class E airspace is the minimum flight visibility 5 statute miles for VFR flights at or above 10,000 feet MSL. NOTE: In Class E airspace, the visibility and distance from clouds are given for (1) below 10,000 feet MSL and (2) at or above 10,000 feet MSL.

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is A. 1,500 feet. B. 2,000 feet. C. 1,000 feet.

Answer B is correct. Controlled airspace is the generic term for Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace. Only in Class C, D, or below 10,000 feet MSL in Class E airspace is the minimum horizontal distance from clouds for VFR flight required to be 2,000 feet. NOTE: AGL altitudes are not used in controlled airspace. In Class E airspace, the visibility and distance from clouds are given for (1) below 10,000 feet MSL and (2) at or above 10,000 feet MSL.

You would like to enter Class B airspace and contact the approach controller. The controller responds to your initial radio call with "N125HF standby." May you enter the Class B airspace? A. You may continue into the Class B airspace and wait for further instructions. B. You must remain outside Class B airspace until controller gives you a specific clearance. C. You may continue into the Class B airspace without a specific clearance, if the aircraft is ADS-B equipped.

Answer B is correct. In order to operate an aircraft within a Class B airspace, pilots must receive an ATC clearance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for that area before entering the Class B airspace.

When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff? A. When visibility is less than 1 mile. B. When departing from a runway intersection. C. When parallel runways are in use.

Answer B is correct. Intersection departures are often performed at busy, tower-controlled airports. When notifying the tower that you are ready for departure, you must inform the controller of your location so that (s)he can positively identify you before clearing you for takeoff.

The Devils Lake East MOA (Area 1) is a A. meteorological observation area. B. military operations area. C. military observation area.

Answer B is correct. Military operations areas are shown on the sectional chart surrounded by magenta hashed lines. Devils Lake East MOA is labeled in the top left of Fig. 26. All the magenta hashed lines around the label are the boundaries of the MOA.

Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace? A. Class E. B. Class C. C. Class G.

Answer B is correct. No person may operate an aircraft in Class C airspace unless two-way radio communication is established with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the airspace prior to entering that area.

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace? A. Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating. B. Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements. C. Recreational Pilot Certificate.

Answer B is correct. No person may take off or land aircraft at an airport within Class B airspace or operate an aircraft within Class B airspace unless (s)he is at least a private pilot or, if a student pilot, (s)he has the appropriate logbook endorsement required by 14 CFR 61.95.

No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the A. ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile. B. ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles. C. flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.

Answer B is correct. No person may take off or land an aircraft at any airport that lies within Class D airspace under basic VFR unless the ground visibility is 3 statute miles. If ground visibility is not reported, flight visibility during landing or takeoff, or while operating in the traffic pattern, must be at least 3 statute miles.

(Refer to Area 3.) When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than A. 2,500 feet AGL. B. 2,000 feet AGL. C. 3,000 feet AGL.

Answer B is correct. On Fig. 26, Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge is to the west of Area 3. All aircraft are requested to maintain a minimum altitude of 2,000 feet above the surface of a national wildlife refuge except if forced to land by emergency, landing at a designated site, or on official government business.

Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts? A. Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta. B. Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue. C. Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue; Class D and E airspace are magenta.

Answer B is correct. On sectional charts, airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, E, or G airspace are shown in blue. Airports with no control towers are shown in magenta.

What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day? A. 0 statute miles, clear of clouds. B. 1 statute mile, clear of clouds. C. 3 statute miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds, 1,000 feet above the clouds, and 2,000 feet horizontally from the clouds.

Answer B is correct. Onawa, IA, (K36) airport is surrounded by Class G airspace. The VFR weather minima in Class G airspace below 1,200 feet AGL (regardless of MSL altitude) is 1 statute mile of visibility and clear of clouds.

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is A. 1,500 feet. B. 500 feet. C. 1,000 feet.

Answer B is correct. Outside controlled airspace (i.e., Class G airspace) at altitudes above 1,200 feet AGL and less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is 500 feet.

The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately A. 008° and 026° true. B. 080° and 260° magnetic. C. 080° and 260° true.

Answer B is correct. Runway numbers are determined from the approach direction. The runway number is the whole number nearest one-tenth the magnetic direction of the centerline. Thus, the numbers 8 and 26 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately 080° and 260° magnetic.

(Refer to Area 4.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302A? A. Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers. B. Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles. C. High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.

Answer B is correct. See Fig. 20. Restricted areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as military firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles.

(Refer to Area 3.) Identify the airspace over Sprague Airport. A. Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. B. Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. C. Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL; Class E airspace - 700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL.

Answer B is correct. Sprague Airport is the private airport located between Areas 3 and 4 on Fig. 26. There is no specific airspace designation around Sprague. Therefore, the airspace over the airport is Class G airspace up to the next overlying airspace. Unless the floor is designated otherwise, Class E airspace exists from 1,200 ft. AGL, up to but not including 18,000 ft. MSL.

Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than A. 3,000 feet AGL. B. 2,000 feet AGL. C. 1,000 feet AGL.

Answer B is correct. The Fish and Wildlife Service requests that pilots maintain a minimum altitude of 2,000 ft. above the terrain of national wildlife refuge areas.

At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized? A. Fort Worth Meacham and Fort Worth Spinks. B. Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field. C. Addison and Dallas Executive.

Answer B is correct. The first (top) line of the airport data for Dallas-Ft. Worth Int'l. and Dallas Love Field (Fig. 25, Areas 5 and 6) indicates NO SVFR, which means no special VFR permitted for a fixed-wing aircraft.

The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on A. the number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace. B. the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established. C. 5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport.

Answer B is correct. The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based upon the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.

An aircraft takes off from Gnoss Airport (Area 4) and flies southeast 25.4 NM to Buchanan Airport. What maximum elevation figure would assure obstruction clearance during the flight? A. 4,200 feet MSL. B. 3,200 feet MSL.

Answer B is correct. The maximum elevation figure (MEF) is shown in each quadrangle bounded by latitude and longitude tick marks. The MEF in the quadrangle that is just east of Gnoss Airport consists of a large "3" and a somewhat smaller "2," which mean the MEF is 3,200 feet MSL. In the quadrangle that contains Buchanan Airport, the MEF is south of the airport. The large "2" and the somewhat smaller "4" mean the MEF is 2,400 feet MSL. Thus, on a flight from Gnoss Airport to Buchanan Airport, the MEF that would ensure obstacle clearance is 3,200 feet.

What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night? A. The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace. B. The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped. C. The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder.

Answer B is correct. To operate under special VFR within Class D airspace at night, the pilot must be instrument rated and the airplane must be IFR equipped.

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has A. filed a IFR flight plan. B. received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base. C. received prior authorization from the controlling agency.

Answer C is correct. Before an aircraft penetrates a restricted area, authorization must be obtained from the controlling agency. Information pertaining to the agency controlling the restricted area may be found at the bottom of the En Route Chart appropriate to navigation.

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited? A. Class C. B. Class B. C. Class A.

Answer C is correct. Class A airspace (from 18,000 ft. MSL up to and including FL 600) requires operation under IFR at specific flight levels assigned by ATC. Accordingly, VFR flights are prohibited.

VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of A. 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace. B. 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes. C. 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.

Answer C is correct. Controlled airspace is the generic term for Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace. Only in Class C, D, or below 10,000 feet MSL in Class E airspace are the minimum flight visibility and vertical distance from cloud for VFR flight required to be 3 statute miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds. NOTE: AGL altitudes are not used in controlled airspace. In Class E airspace, the visibility and distance from clouds are given for (1) below 10,000 feet MSL and (2) at or above 10,000 feet MSL.

During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is A. 500 feet. B. 1,500 feet. C. 1,000 feet.

Answer C is correct. During operations in Class G airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is 1,000 feet. NOTE: The FAA question fails to specify what type of airspace. Since AGL altitudes are not used in controlled airspace (Class A, B, C, D, and E), that implies Class G airspace.

A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the A. associated Flight Service Station. B. satellite airport's UNICOM. C. primary airport's control tower.

Answer C is correct. Each pilot departing a non-tower satellite airport, within Class D airspace, must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the primary airport's control tower as soon as practicable after departing.

(Refer to Area 1.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet? A. 1,283 feet MSL. B. 1,010 feet MSL. C. 1,273 feet MSL.

Answer C is correct. Find Airpark East, which is near 1 in Fig. 24. Remember to locate the actual airport symbol, not just the name of the airport. It is the third of three airports in a southwesterly line from the 1. The elevation of the top of the obstacle on the northeast side of the airport is marked in bold as 773 feet MSL. Minimum altitude to clear the 773-foot obstacle by 500 feet is 1,273 feet MSL.

For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is A. 2,000 feet. B. 1,000 feet. C. 1 mile.

Answer C is correct. For VFR flight operations in Class G airspace at altitudes more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is 1 statute mile. NOTE: The FAA question fails to specify what type of airspace. Since AGL altitudes are not used in controlled airspace (Class A, B, C, D, or E), that implies Class G airspace.

(Refer to Area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is A. at the surface. B. 3,200 feet MSL. C. 4,000 feet MSL.

Answer C is correct. Hicks Airport (T67) on Fig. 25 is northeast of 4. Class B airspace is depicted by a solid blue line, as shown just west of the airport. Follow the blue line toward the bottom of the chart until you find a number over a number in blue, 110 40 . The bottom number denotes the floor of the Class B airspace as 4,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 3.) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644? A. VFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds less than 250 knots. B. Instrument training flights below 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 150 knots. C. IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots.

Answer C is correct. In Fig. 21, IR 644 is below Area 3. Military training flights are established to promote proficiency of military pilots in the interest of national defense. Military flight routes below 1,500 ft. are charted with four-digit numbers; those above 1,500 ft. have three-digit numbers. IR means the flights are made in accordance with IFR. (VR would mean they use VFR.) Thus, IR 644, a three-digit number, is above 1,500 ft., and flights will be flown under IFR rules.

(Refer to Area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are A. 7,500 feet MSL to 17,999 feet MSL. B. 700 feet MSL to 12,500 feet MSL. C. 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.

Answer C is correct. Magee Airport on Fig. 22 is northwest of 3. The question asks for the vertical limits of the Class E airspace over the airport. Class E airspace areas extend upwards but do not include 18,000 ft. MSL (base of Class A airspace). The floor of a Class E airspace designated as an airway is 1,200 ft. AGL, unless otherwise indicated.

(Refer to Area 2.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA? A. High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. B. Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. C. Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.

Answer C is correct. Military Operations Areas (MOAs), such as Devils Lake East in Fig. 26 consist of defined lateral and vertical limits that are designated for the purpose of separating military training activities from IFR traffic. Most training activities necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers, i.e., air combat tactics, aerobatics, and formation training. Therefore, the likelihood of a collision is increased inside an MOA. VFR traffic is permitted, but extra vigilance should be exercised in seeing and avoiding military aircraft.

What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)? A. Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA. B. Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA. C. Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.

Answer C is correct. Military operations areas consist of airspace established for separating military training activities from IFR traffic. VFR traffic should exercise extreme caution when flying within an MOA. Information regarding MOA activity can be obtained from flight service stations (FSSs) within 100 mi. of the MOA.

(Refer to Area 3.) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International? A. 1,531 feet AGL. B. 1,498 feet MSL. C. 1,548 feet MSL.

Answer C is correct. On Fig. 23, find the lighted obstacle noted by its proximity to Savannah International by being outside the surface area of the Class C airspace, which has a 5-NM radius. It is indicated by the obstacle symbol with arrows or lightning flashes extending from the tip. According to the numbers to the northeast of the symbol, the height of the obstacle is 1,548 ft. MSL or 1,534 ft. A

Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace? A. Contact the tower and request permission to enter. B. Contact the FSS for traffic advisories. C. Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.

Answer C is correct. Prior to entering Class C airspace, a pilot must contact and establish communication with approach control on the appropriate frequency.

(Refer to Area 6.) Sky Way Airport is A. an airport restricted to use by private and recreational pilots. B. a restricted military stage field within restricted airspace. C. a nonpublic-use airport.

Answer C is correct. Sky Way Airport (southeast of 6) is a private, i.e., nonpublic-use, airport as indicated by the term "(Pvt)" after the airport name. Private airports that are shown on the sectional charts have an emergency or landmark value.

(Refer to Area 1.) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace? A. 3,297 feet MSL. B. 2,503 feet MSL. C. 2,901 feet MSL.

Answer C is correct. The Class D airspace at Livermore Airport extends from the surface to 2,900 feet MSL, as indicated by the following symbol within the blue segmented circle: Thus, the minimum altitude to fly over and avoid the Livermore Airport Class D airspace is 2,901 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 6.) The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace? A. Class C. B. Class G. C. Class E.

Answer C is correct. The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is surrounded by a dashed magenta line, indicating Class E airspace from the surface.

(Refer to Area 4.) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is A. Class C airspace to 5,000 feet MSL. B. Class B airspace to 10,000 feet MSL. C. Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL.

Answer C is correct. The airspace overlying Fort Worth Meacham (Fig. 25, southeast of 4) is Class D airspace as denoted by the segmented blue lines. The upper limit is depicted in a broken box in hundreds of feet MSL northeast of the airport. Thus, the Class D airspace extends from the surface to 3,200 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 7.) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to A. 700 feet AGL. B. 2,500 feet MSL. C. 2,900 feet MSL.

Answer C is correct. The airspace overlying Mc Kinney airport (TKI) (Fig. 25, northeast of 7) is Class D airspace as denoted by the segmented blue lines. The upper limit is depicted in a broken box in hundreds of feet MSL to the left of the airport symbol. The box contains the number "29," meaning that the vertical limit of the Class D airspace is 2,900 feet MSL.

The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are A. clear of clouds and 2 miles visibility. B. 500-foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility. C. 1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.

Answer C is correct. The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are a 1,000-foot ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility.

(Refer to Area 2.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet? A. 1,013 feet MSL. B. 823 feet MSL. C. 1,403 feet MSL.

Answer C is correct. The first step is to find the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport on Fig. 24, near 2. The elevation numbers to the right of the obstruction symbol indicate that its top is 903 feet MSL or a height of 323 feet AGL. Thus, the clearance altitude is 1,403 feet MSL (903 feet MSL + 500 feet of clearance).

(Refer to Area 3.) For information about glider operations at Ridgeland Airport, refer to A. notes on the border of the chart. B. the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication. C. the Chart Supplement.

Answer C is correct. The miniature glider near the Ridgeland Airport (at 3 on Fig. 23) indicates a glider operations area. The Chart Supplement will have information on the glider operations at Ridgeland Airport.

(Refer to Area 3.) The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 010° radial is A. 429 feet AGL. B. 417 feet MSL. C. 454 feet MSL.

Answer C is correct. To determine the height of the lighted stack, first find it on Fig. 23. Locate the compass rose and look along the 010° radial, knowing that the compass rose has a 10-NM radius. Just outside the compass rose is a group obstruction (stacks). Its height is 454 ft. MSL; AGL height is not shown.

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is A. 5 miles. B. 1 mile. C. 3 miles.

Answer C is correct. When operating outside controlled airspace (i.e., Class G airspace) at night at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility is 3 statute miles.

The radius of the procedural outer area of Class C airspace is normally A. 20 NM. B. 30 NM. C. 10 NM.

Answer A is correct. A 20-NM radius procedural outer area surrounds the primary airport in Class C airspace. This area is not charted and generally does not require action from the pilot.

The airspace surrounding the Gila Bend AF AUX Airport (GXF) (Area 6) is classified as Class A. D. B. C. C. B.

Answer A is correct. The GXF airport is surrounded by a dashed blue line, which indicates it is within Class D airspace.

What is the dotted outlined area northeast of Gila Bend Airport, near Area 3? A. Wilderness area. B. Military operations area. C. Restricted airspace.

Answer A is correct. The area just to the west of Area 3 represents an area that is a national park, wildlife refuge, primitive and wilderness area, etc. To the northwest of this area is the name, North Maricopa Mountains Wilderness Area.

(Refer to Area 1.) Dubey Airport is A. an airport restricted to use by sport pilots only. B. a privately owned airport restricted to use. C. a restricted military stage field within restricted airspace.

Answer B is correct. Dubey Airport (south of 1) is a private, i.e., nonpublic-use, airport as indicated by the term "(Pvt)" after the airport name. Private airports that are shown on the sectional charts have an emergency or landmark value. The airport symbol with the letter "R" in the center means it is a nonpublic-use airport.

Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a A. stabilized area. B. closed runway. C. multiple heliport.

Answer B is correct. The runway marked by the arrow C in Fig. 48 has Xs on the runway, indicating it is closed.

No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the A. flight can be conducted 500 feet below the clouds. B. airplane is equipped for instrument flight. C. flight visibility is at least 3 miles.

Answer B is correct. To operate under special VFR within Class D airspace at night, the pilot must be instrument rated and the airplane equipped for instrument flight.

(Refer to Area 2.) What kind of airport is Deshler (6D7)? A. An abandoned paved airport having landmark value. B. A private airport with a grass runway. C. A public airport with a runway that is not a hard surface.

Answer C is correct. According to the Sectional Chart Legend, a magenta circle with nothing indicated on the inside of the circle indicates that airport is not hard-surfaced.

(Refer to Area 5.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a A. VOR/DME. B. VOR. C. VORTAC.

Answer A is correct. On Fig. 25, DFW is located at the center of the chart and the navigation facility is 1 NM south of the right set of parallel runways. The symbol is a hexagon with a dot in the center within a square. This is the symbol for a VOR/DME navigation facility.

Your VFR flight will be conducted above 10,000 ft. MSL in Class E airspace. What is the minimum flight visibility? A. 1 SM. B. 5 SM. C. 3 SM.

Answer B is correct. At or above 10,000 ft. MSL in Class E airspace requires at least 5 SM flight visibility.

The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately A. 009° and 027° true. B. 090° and 270° magnetic. C. 090° and 270° true.

Answer B is correct. Runway numbers are determined from the approach direction. The runway number is the whole number nearest one-tenth the magnetic direction of the centerline. Thus, the numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately 090° and 270° magnetic.

(Refer to Area 1.) For information about the parachute jumping at Caddo Mills Airport, refer to A. the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication. B. the Airport/Facility Directory section of the Chart Supplement. C. notes on the border of the chart.

Answer B is correct. The miniature parachute near the Caddo Mills Airport (at 1 on Fig. 24) indicates a parachute jumping area. In Legend 1, the symbol for a parachute jumping area instructs you to see the Airport/Facility Directory section of the Chart Supplement for more information.

The terrain elevation of the light tan (light colored) area between Minot (Area 1) and Audubon Lake (Area 2) varies from A. 2,000 feet to 2,700 feet MSL. B. 2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL. C. sea level to 2,000 feet MSL.

Answer B is correct. The tan area indicates terrain between 2,000 ft. and 3,000 ft. The elevation contours on sectionals vary by 500 ft. increments. The 2,000 ft. contour line is located where the color changes from light green to light tan. Since there is no other contour line in the light tan area, the terrain elevation is between 2,000 ft. and 2,500 ft. MSL. Also, Poleschook Airport (halfway between 1 and 2) indicates an elevation above MSL of 2,245.

A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is A. less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet. B. at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds. C. at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.

Answer B is correct. To operate within Class D airspace under special VFR clearance, visibility must be at least 1 statute mile. There is no ceiling requirement, but the aircraft must remain clear of clouds.

What is the base of Class B airspace at Lakeview (30F) Airport (Area 2)? A. 1,700 B. 3,000 C. 4,000

Answer B is correct. To the southwest of Lakeview Airport, there are numbers 110 over 30 in blue color. This indicates the base of Class B airspace between the blue airspace lines is 3,000 ft. MSL and the top is 11,000 ft. MSL.

Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs at all towered airports A. only when weather conditions are less than VFR. B. regardless of weather conditions. C. within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.

Answer B is correct. Two-way radio communications with air traffic control (ATC) are required for landing and taking off at all tower controlled airports, regardless of weather conditions. However, light signals from the tower may be used during radio failure.

Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only A. when the weather minimums are below basic VFR. B. when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation. C. when the associated control tower is in operation.

Answer C is correct. A Class D airspace area is automatically in effect when and only when the associated part-time control tower is in operation regardless of weather conditions, availability of radar services, or time of day. Airports with part-time operating towers only have a part-time Class D airspace area.

What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL? A. 4 miles. B. 1 mile. C. 3 miles.

Answer C is correct. An airway includes that Class E airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet AGL to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL. The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight operations in Class E airspace less than 10,000 feet MSL is 3 statute miles.

(Refer to Area 3.) The floor of Class B airspace at Dallas Executive Airport is A. at the surface. B. 3,100 feet MSL. C. 3,000 feet MSL.

Answer C is correct. Dallas Executive Airport (Fig. 25, Area 3) has a segmented blue circle around it depicting Class D airspace. Dallas Executive Airport also underlies Class B airspace as depicted by solid blue lines. The altitudes of the Class B airspace are shown as 110 30 to the southeast of the airport. The bottom number denotes the floor of the Class B airspace to be 3,000 feet MSL.

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the A. Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data. B. NOTAMs. C. Chart Supplement.

Answer C is correct. Information concerning parachute jump sites may be found in the Chart Supplement.

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is A. 3 miles. B. 5 miles. C. 1 mile.

Answer C is correct. Outside controlled airspace (i.e., Class G airspace) at altitudes above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight during the day is 1 statute mile.

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace? A. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and a VOR or TACAN receiver. B. Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder. C. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.

Answer C is correct. To operate within Class B airspace, the aircraft must have 1. Two-way radio communications equipment, 2. A 4096-code transponder, and 3. An encoding altimeter.

What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace? A. Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder. B. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and DME. C. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.

Answer C is correct. To operate within Class C airspace, the aircraft must have 1. Two-way radio communications equipment, 2. A 4096-code transponder, and 3. An encoding altimeter.

When a control tower located on an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation? A. The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available. B. The airspace designation normally will not change. C. The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.

Answer C is correct. When a tower ceases operation, the Class D airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class G and Class E.


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