Ch. 22 pharmacological and parenteral therapies during childbearing

the nurse is caring for the infant diagnosed with PDA. BY which route should the nurse expect to administer indomethacin? 1) IV 2) orally 3) rectally 4) IM

1) IV the preferred administration route of indomethacin for treatment of a PDA is IV so the medication can quickly enter the vascular system. Indomethacin is given to infants with PDA to stimulate closure of the effect

the client who is 28 weeks pregnant and experiencing heartburn is prescribed to take omeprazole. in teaching the client, the nurse should explain that omeprazole reduces heartburn by which action? 1) blocks the action of the enzyme that generates gastric acid 2) blocks the H2 receptor located on the parietal cells of the stomach 3) neutralizes the gastric acid in the stomach 4) coats the upper stomach and esophagus to decrease irritation from stomach acid

1) blocks the action of the enzyme that generates gastric acid Omeprazole, a PPI, produces irreversible inhibition of H+, K+- ATPase, which is the enzyme that induces gastric acid production

the nurse is assessing a newly pregnant client. Which findings indicates that the client may need iron supplementation? 1) gave birth a year ago 2) over 35 years of age 3) first pregnancy 4) primary infertility

1) gave at birth a year ago pregnancy depletes iron stores, which are generally replaced with a well-balanced diet b/w gestation periods. When the second pregnancy is closely spaced, the iron stores have not been adequately replaced

the nurse administers erythromycin ophthalmic solution to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum. Which actions should the nurse take after administration of the erythromycin? select all that apply 1) gently massage the newborn's eyelids 2) immediately wipe away excess medication 3) clean the eyelids with a cotton swab and sterile water 4) provide comfort for the infant by swaddling 5) wait 1 minute to wipe excess medication 6) repeat the ophthalmic solution dose in 1 hour

1) gently massage the newborn's eyelids 4) provide comfort for the infant by swaddling 5) wait 1 min to wipe excess medication 1)once the erythromycin ophthalmic solution has been instilled, the nurse should gently massage the eyelids to ensure the spreading of the medication 4) after any procedure, the psychological needs of infant should be a focus by the nurse; swaddling is a comforting technique 5) the nurse should wait 1 min and then wipe away excess medication with a sterile cotton swab.

the laboring client is to receive nalbuphine hydrochloride 20 mg IM. Nalbuphine hydrochloride 10 mg/mL is available. The nurse should plan to administer how many milliliters

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the client at 41 weeks gestation is having labor induced by IV oxytocin. The nurse titrates the oxytocin to a rate of 4 milliunit/min. the oxytocin solution is labeled 10 units in 1000 mL of D5W. At what rate, in mL per hour, is the IV pump currently programmed?

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the client who is 8 weeks pregnant, tells the nurse that she wants to try an herbal remedy for treating nausea. Which herb should the nurse suggest? 1) ginger 2) milk thistle 3) black cohosh 4) echinacea

1) ginger ginger capsules of 250 mg taken four times a day have been demonstrated to be effective against nausea and vomiting associated pregnancy, as well as hyperemesis. There is no evidence of significant side effects or adverse effects on pregnancy outcomes

the laboring client is receiving bupivacaine per epidural route of analgesia. The nurse should closely monitor the client for which adverse effects of bupivacaine? select all that apply 1) hypotension 2) elevated temperature 3) nausea 4) urinary retention 5) sedation

1) hypotension 2) elevated temp 4) urinary retention 1) Bupivacaine is a local anesthetic agent. The medication blocks sympathetic nerve fibers in the epidural space, which caused decreased peripheral resistance. This, in turn causes hypotension 2) maternal temp may be elevated to 100 F or higher due to sympathetic blockage from bupivacaine that may decrease sweat production and diminish heat loss 4) Bupivacaine alters transmission of impulses to the bladder, thus causing urinary retention

a 6 day old infant is to receive nystatin to treat adherent white patches on the tongue, palate, and inner aspect of the cheeks. Which most important information should the nurse teach the parent about nystatin? 1) look in the infant's mouth for signs of improvement 2) check the infant's skin for signs of contact dermatitis 3) have the infant "swish" nystatin before swallowing 4) adverse effects include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

1) look in the infant's mouth for signs of improvement the most important for use of nystatin is whether the oral area is improving. Thrush can be self-limiting and can have a spontaneous resolution, although it could take up to 2 months; it is much quicker with nystatin use

The nurse is assessing the female client who is taking clomiphene. Which finding should an adverse effect of the medications 1) pelvic pain 2) nipple discharge 3) weight gain 4) watery diarrhea

1) pelvic pain pelvic pain may indicate ovarian enlargement from overstimulation of the ovary

Benazepril is added to the antihypertensive medication regimen of and African American client who is 30 weeks pregnant. Which nursing intervention is most important? 1) withhold the benazepril and contact the HCP 2) monitor for diminished effect in lowering her BP 3) notify the HCP if the serum bilirubin level increases 4) notify the HCP if the serum potassium level increases

1) withhold the benazepril and contact the HCP Benazepril may cause fetal injury and death. it is most important for the nurse to withhold and contact HCP

the client, at 25.2 weeks gestation in preterm labor, is given nifedipine and then magnesium sulfate to stop her contractions. When assessing the client, which findings indicate that she is experiencing an adverse effect from the magnesium sulfate? select all that apply 1) shortness of breath 2) flushing 3) hypertension 4) hyporeflexia 5) insomnia

1, 2, 4 1) shortness of breath is an adverse effect of magnesium sulfate 2) flushing is an adverse effect of magnesium sulfate due to its direct dilating effects 4) hyporeflexia is an adverse effect of magnesium sulfate due to its toxic effect on the CNS. The magnesium dose should be reduced or eliminated

The 28 y/o client at 28 weeks gestation presents with uterine contractions every 2 to 3 minutes. Which medications should the nurse prepare to administer for preterm labor? select all that apply 1) terbutaline 2) nifedipine 3) magnesium sulfate 4) atenolol 5) oxytocin

1,2,3 1) terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic receptor agonist that causes relaxation of the uterus, stopping preterm labor 2) nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is frequently used for the treatment of preterm labor by relaxing the smooth muscle in the uterus 3) magnesium sulfate is a tocolytic agent primarily used to treat preeclampsia and also commonly used to treat preterm labor

The pregnant client who is prescribed supplemental vitamin D during pregnancy asks the nurse why vitamin D is so important. Which responses by the nurse are correct? select all that apply 1) almost 50% of pregnant women lack sufficient vitamin D levels during late pregnancy 2) a low level of vitamin D is associated with reduced bone-mineral accumulation during your child's growing years 3) a low level of vitamin D may predispose you to premature rupture of your membranes 4) a low level of vitamin D causes a breakdown of cervical collagen, causing early cervical dilation 5) vitamin D supplements taken during pregnancy may reduce your child's risk for osteoporosis-related fractures

1,2,5 1) this response is correct. research has shown that vitamin D levels during late pregnancy were insufficient in 31% and deficient in 18% of pregnant women 2) this response is correct. a low level of vitamin D is associated with a child's reduced bone-mineral accumulation at age 9 years 5) this response is correct supplements taken during pregnancy may reduce the child's risk for osteoporosis-related fractures

the pregnant client with HIV is receiving highly active antiretroviral therapy. the nurse should monitor the client for which potential pregnancy-related problems associated with HAART therapy? select all that apply. 1) preterm labor 2) preeclampsia 3) low birth weight 4) gestational diabetes 5) birth defects

1,3,4 1,3,4) women receiving HAART during pregnancy are at higher risk for preterm labor, low-birth-weight babies, and gestational diabetes

The client is receiving IV oxytocin for labor induction. Which findings require the nurse to discontinue the IV infusion and notify the HCP? select all that apply 1) consistent uterine resting tone of 18 mm Hg 2) uterine contractions occurring every 4 minutes 3) BP was 100/60, now 130/85 mm Hg 4) urine output of 60 mL for the past 2 hours 5) FHR 88 bpm with decreased variability

1,5 1) IV oxytocin should be discontinued and the HCP notified if there is insufficient uterine relaxation between contractions. Expected resting uterine tone is 10 to 12 mm Hg, not 18 mm Hg. 5) the IV infusion should be discontinued if a non-reassuring fetal status develops. fetal bradycardia is an FHR consistently below 90 bpm. When this is accompanied by decreased variability, it is considered an ominous sign of fetal distress.

prior to delivery, the client had prolonged rupture of her membranes. Since delivery 48 hours ago, she has been receiving IV cefotaxime. Which outcome is the most important for the nurse to establish? 1) moderate amount of lochia rubra 2) absence of high fever 3) voiding in good quantities 4) large, soft bowel movement

2) Cefotaxime is indicated for intra-abdominal or pelvic infection and septicemia. Absence of high fever indicates resolving infection

the nurse is checking the medical records of second-trimester clients for newly prescribed medications. Which prescription requires the nurse to contact the HCP? 1) methyldopa 250 mg bid by mouth for elevated BP 2) MgSO4 5 g IM for bp> 160/90. 3) terbutaline 5 mg q6h by mouth for preterm labor 4) prenatal vitamins one tablet daily by mouth

2) MgSO4 5 g IM for bp > 160/90 according to JC, certain abbreviations should not be used because of different meanings. MgSO4 (magnesium sulfate) can be confused with MSO4 (morphine sulfate) and should be written out as magnesium sulfate. The > and < symbols may be added to the list in the near future and should be avoided when writing orders or other medical documentation

the client with severe preeclampsia has been receiving IV magnesium sulfate for 24 hours. Which nursing assessment findings indicates that the medication has been effective in treating preeclampsia? 1) an increase in BP 2) an increase in urine output 3) a decrease in platelet count 4) an increase in hematocrit

2) an increase in urine output diuresis within 24 to 48 hours is an excellent sign indicating that perfusion of the kidneys has improved as a result of relaxation of arteriolar spasms. this finding indicates that the magnesium sulfate is effective in treating preeclampsia

the nurse receives medication orders for the client who is 28 weeks pregnant and experiencing CHF. Which medication should be clarified with the HCP before administration? 1) furosemide 40 mg IV bid 2) captopril 25 mg PO daily 3) digoxin 0.125 mg IV daily 4) metoprolol SR 50 mg PO daily

2) captopril 25 mg PO daily the nurse should clarify captopril an ACE inhibitor. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy. They can cause oligohydramnios, intrauterine growth retardation, congenital structural defects, and renal failure

the client who is at 40 weeks gestation is prescribed mistoprostol 25 mcg per vagina one time. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask this client before administering misoprostol? 1) at what time did you eat your breakfast 2) have you had a previous c section birth 3) when did you last request an analgesic 4) have you emptied your bladder recently

2) have you had a previous c section birth the nurse should check the record and question the client for past history of c section birth. mistoprostol is contraindicated in clients with certain types of uterine scars because uterine rupture can occur

The client who is 5 weeks pregnant asks the nurse for information about mifepristone use for medical abortion. Which statements, if made by the nurse, are accurate? select all that apply 1) it must be taken immediately after your last menstrual cycle to be effective 2) it will block the action of progesterone on the uterus so that the fetus is aborted 3) mifepristone must be followed up with a vaginal douce of vinegar and water 4) the success rate is very high, esp if taken within 42 days of conception 5) mifepristone is given IV in the HCP's office 6) many develop a transient temperature elevation after taking mifepristone

2) it will block the action of progesterone on the uterus so that the fetus is aborted 4) the success rate is very high, esp if taken within 42 days of conception 2) mifepristone blocks the uterine progesterone receptors in the uterus, thereby altering the endometrium and causing the detachment of the conceptus 4) the abortion success rate for mifepristone is 96-98% when taken within 42 days of conception

while the nurse is assessing the client in labor at 38 weeks gestation the client asks for pain medication. At which stage is it most appropriate for the nurse to administer narcotic analgesics? 1) stage1, first phase 2) stage 1, second phase 3) throughout stage 2 4) throughout stage 3

2) stage 1, second phase cervical effacement and dilation occur during stage 1 of labor. the second phase of stage 1 occurs when the cervix dilates from 3 to 7 cm. narcotic analgesia is given during this phase to assist the client to relax and better tolerate the discomfort. When analgesia is given too close to birth, the newborn can have a higher serum drug concentration

Prior to assisting with an external cephalic version on the client who is 38 weeks gestation, the nurse is preparing to administer terbutaline sulfate subcutaneously. Which explanation should the nurse provide about terbutaline? 1) terbutaline will decrease uterine sensation 2) terbutaline will relax your uterus 3) terbutaline will cause you to feel sleepy 4) terbutaline will stimulate labor contractions

2) terbutaline will relax your uterus terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic agonist that, in pregnant women, causes uterine relaxation. This greatly enhances the comfort of the women during the version and facilitates the maneuver

the client, who is 40 weeks gestation, is being induced with IV oxytocin. Which actions should the nurse take immediately when the client develops uterine tachysystole and non-reassuring fetal status? select all that apply 1) place the client in knee-chest position 2) administer an IV fluid bolus 3) apply oxygen at 10 liters via facemask 4) stop the infusion of oxytocin promptly 5) notify the HCP regarding the client's status

2, 3, 4, 5 2) the IV fluids should be increased by at least giving a 500 mL bolus as an intrauterine resuscitation measure 3) oxygen at 10 L via facemask is needed to increase oxygenation of the fetus 4) oxytocin should be promptly stopped. too high a dose of oxytocin or increasing the dose of oxytocin at incremental intervals less than 30 minutes can cause tachysystole 5) the HCP should be advised of the client's status and the contraction pattern because intrauterine resuscitation measures are necessary

the nurse is caring for the client who is receiving magnesium sulfate IV to treat severe preeclampsia. When reviewing the client's serum magnesium levels, which value should the nurse conclude is therapeutic? 1) 0.5 mg/dL 2) 2 mg/dL 3) 6 mg/dL 4) 10.1 mg/dL

3) 6 mg/dL a serum magnesium level of 6 mg/dL is therapeutic. the therapeutic magnesium levels should be between 4.8 and 9.6 to prevent seizure activity in the client with preeclampsia

the nurse in a large urban hospital lis admitting a 2-hour-old infant whose mother is positive for HIV. The infant is to receive zidovudine. Which laboratory tests should the nurse analyze before administering zidovudine? 1) complete blood count with differential and prothrombin time 2) cluster of differentiation 4 count, CBC, and lactate 3) CBC with differential and alanine aminotransferase 4) CBC, CD4 count, ALT, and serum protein

3) CBC with differential and aminotransferase the nurse should analyze the CBC with differential and ALT to obtain the newborn's baseline Hgb and liver function and to identify if significant anemia or alteration in liver function is present before initiating therapy.

the client who is 2 days post-c section has all of following prn prescribed medications. Which medication should the nurse administer when the client reports painful ulcerations on the perineum? 1) ritonavir 2) zidovudine 3) acyclovir 4) lamivudine

3) acyclovir the nurse should administer acyclovir; it is indicated for genital herpes

the postpartum client is experiencing uterine atony is to receive carboprost tromethamine. Due to the medication side effects, what should the nurse plan to give the client? 1) a sedative 2) a stool softener 3) an antiemetic 4) extra oral fluids

3) an antiemetic carboprost tromethamine is a synthetic analog which stimulates myometrial contractions and is used to treat postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony. As a synthetic prostaglandin, it also stimulates smooth muscle of the GI tract, causing nausea and diarrhea. Antiemetic should be given

the infant of a diabetic mother is receiving D10/0.2 NS IV through a peripheral vein to manage blood glucose levels. After examining the infant, the HCP tells the nurse to change the solution to D12/0.2 NS. Which action by the nurse is most important? 1) telephone the pharmacy to get the newly prescribed IV solution 2) check a blood glucose level before starting a new solution 3) discuss the situation immediately with the HCP 4) increase the IV rate until the new bag is obtained from the pharmacy

3) discuss the situation immediately with the HCP the nurse should discuss the situation immediately with the HCPl the infant's IV access is in a peripheral vein. A neonate can have D10 in peripheral veins for short periods of time, but solutions with higher concentrations of dextrose should be given through a central line. The HCP should either place a central line or prescribe insertion of a PICC

During a walk-in-clinic visit to recieve vaccinations, the client states, " i think i may be pregnant." which vaccine, if needed, should the nurse plan to give? 1) rubella 2) varicella 3) Hepatitis B 4) mumps

3) hepatitis B Hepatitis B vaccination can be safely administered during pregnancy because it is synthetically prepared or DNA-recombinant vaccine. the vaccine is made of noninfectious material and cannot cause hepatitis B infection. Hep B may spread to the fetus if the mother is infect in the third trimester

the newborn is prescribed to receive routine immunizations per written protocol. Which immunization should the nurse plan to give? 1) MMR 2) influenza 3) hepatitis B 4) rotavirus

3) hepatitis B the first dose of hepatitis B vaccine is recommended for newborns and should be given prior to hospital discharge

The pregnant client presents to the clinic with a white, cottage cheese-like vaginal discharge, itching, and vulvar redness. The nurse should plan to teach about which correctly prescribed medication? 1) metronidazole 250 mg orally bid for 1 week 2) butoconazole vaginal cream once at bedtime 3) imidazole vaginal cream daily for 1 week 4) fluconazole 150 mg by mouth once

3) imidazole vaginal cream daily for 1 week The nurse should prepare to teach the client about the use of imidazole vaginal cream. it is indicated for the treatment of Candida albicans and it is safe in pregnancy

the HCP is preparing to administer sterile water injections to decrease the laboring client's back pain. The nurse would prepare the client to receive the injections by which administration route? 1) IV into the lactated Ringers solution 2) SubQ into the tissue in her abdomen 3) intradermally into her lower lumbar-sacral area 4) IM into her posterior dorsal-gluteal muscle

3) intradermally into her lower lumbar-sacral area injection of a small amount of sterile water into the intradermal layer of skin in the lumbar-sacral region of the back produces hyperstimulation of the large inhibitory nerve fibers. The onset of pain relief usually occurs within a few minutes and can last 1 to 2 hours. The treatment can be repeated several times

while adding oxytocin to a solution bad, a 30 y/o non-pregnant female nurse pokes herself and injects oxytocin into her finger. When being seen in the agency's health service, which treatment should the nurse expect in addition to the care of the clean needlestick injury? 1) subcutaneous terbutaline to relax her uterus 2) ibuprofen for uterine cramping 3) no additional treatment measures 4) teaching to limi free water intake for 24 hours

3) no additional treatment measures if the non-pregnant uterus, smooth muscle cells have low strength demonstrate asynchronous contractions, and are fairly resistant to effects of the oxytocin. The oxytocin should have little to no effect on the nurse's uterus, so no additional treatment is needed

the client, in labor at 39 weeks gestation, is receiving epidural anesthesia. Which assessment findings require the nurse to intervene immediately because the client may be showing signs of IV injection? 1) nausea and increased alertness 2) irritability and hypotension 3) tinnitus and metallic taste 4) headache and loss of hearing

3) tinnitus and metallic taste tinnitus and metallic taste in the mouth are associated with IV injection of epidural anesthesia. other findings include hypertension, maternal tachy- or bradycardia, dizziness, and loss of consciousness

The pregnant client recieved a dinoprostone insert. The nurse determines that the client had the desired therapeutic response when obtaining which assessment finding? 1) deep tendon reflexes of 2+ 2) FHR of 130 bpm 3) uterine contractions every 4 minutes 4) BP of 120/80 mm Hg

3) uterine contractions every 4 minutes dinoprostone inserts are placed vaginally near the cervix to produce cervical ripening prior to labor induction, and they induce uterine contractions. Uterine contractions every 4 minutes indicate that the client had the desired therapeutic response

The client at 41 weeks gestation has IV oxytocin infusing to induce labor. Prioritize the steps that the nurse should take when an indeterminate or abnormal FHR pattern is assessed 1) change the maternal position to lateral 2) administer fluid bolus of 500 mL lactated ringers solution 3) discontinue the oxytocin infusion 4) administer oxygen at 10L/min via facemask 5) document the event and maternal/fetal response 6) notify the HCP

3, 4, 1, 2, 6, 5 3) discontinue the oxytocin infusion. this allows the uterus to relax, thereby increasing blood flow to the fetus 4) administer oxygen at 10 L/min via facemask. oxygen increases the oxygen concentration in the maternal blood 1) change maternal position to lateral. A side-lying position increases blood flow to the uterus 2) administer fluid bolus of 500 mL LR solution. A bolus of fluid will help to increase blood flow and perfusion 6) notify the HCP after initiating interventions per protocol 5) document the event and maternal/fetal response. client care should be provided prior to documentation

the breastfeeding postpartum client is reporting afterpains and requests pain medication. Which medication is best for the nurse to select to prevent adverse effects on her breastfeeding infant? 1) meperidine 2) naproxen 3) ibuprofen 4) acetaminophen

4) acetaminophen acetaminophen is excreted in the breast milk in low concentrations,. and no adverse infant effects have been reported. Acetaminophen is the analgesic of choice to decrease afterpains for breastfeeding women

the nurse is caring for the client who is 1 hour postpartum. Which vital signs should the nurse check before administering methylergonovine IM? 1) oral temperature 2) respiratory rate 3) apical heart rate 4) blood pressure

4) blood pressure the nurse should check BP because HTN is a contraindication to, and an adverse effect of methylergonovine

four inpatient clients are prescribed dinoprostone for cervical ripening. The nurse should question the order for which client? 1) client A, G1P0000, who is 41 weeks gestation 2) client B, G5P4004, who is at 40 and 4/7 weeks gestation 3) client C, G1P0000, type 1 diabetic who is 38 weeks gestation and has fetal macrosomia 4) client D, G2P1001, at 40 weeks gestation delivering vaginally after a previous c section birth

4) client D, G2P1001, at 40 weeks gestation delivering vaginally after a previous c section birth the client with a previous uterine incision from a c section should not receive prostaglandin agents because the risk of uterine rupture is greatly increased. the nurse should question this order for this client

the nurse is caring for the postpartum client. Which assessment findings should prompt the nurse to conclude that the administration of carboprost tromethamine has been effective? 1) reduction of fever 2) stable BP 3) increased comfort 4) decreased lochia rubra

4) decreased lochia rubra carboprost tromethamine is given to reduce blood loss in uterine atony by stimulating myometrial contractions. increased uterine tone results in decreased bleeding and a decrease in the amount of lochia rubra.

the infants mother tested positive for hepatitis B surface antigen. The nurse is preparing to administer the hepatitis B vaccine to the infant. to prevent infection, which medication should the nurse administer along with the hepatitis B vaccine? 1) acyclovir 2) ceftriaxone 3) acetaminophen 4) immune serum globulin (ISG)

4) immune serum globulin an infant born to a mother who is hepatitis B surface antigen-postive should receive both the hepatitis B vaccine and 0.5 mL of hepatitis B immune globulin within 12 hours of birth. This combination has a greater effect on reducing the risk of developing hepatitis B than the vaccine alone

the nurse is caring for the newborn. which assessment finding should the nurse expect after administering naloxone? 1) decreased irritability 2) meconium stool 3) normal temperature 4) improved respiratory effort

4) improved respiratory effort naloxone is an opiod antagonist that is given to reverse the CNS and respiratory depression associated with opioid overdose

The client has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which agents, if prescribed, should the nurse question? select all that apply 1) pyridoxine 50 mg oral daily 2) promethazine 12.5 mg IV q4h 3) dimenhydrinate 50 mg oral q4-6 h prn 4) metoclopramide 100 mg IM q8h 5) ginger capsule 1 g oral daily 6) prochloroperazine 30 mg oral daily

4) metoclopramide 100 mg IM q8h 6) prochloroperazine 30 mg oral daily 4) the dose of metoclopramide is 10 times the usual dose; it should be 10 mg and not 100 mg 6) prochlorperazine is also a pregnancy category C drug, indicating that its safety has not been established for use during pregnancy

the nurse admits four clients to the labor and delivery unit. To which client should the nurse prepare to administer zolpidem tartrate? 1) the 40-week G2P1001 client; scheduled for a repeat c section now 2) the 39 week G3P1102 client; 5 cm dilated, 80% effaced; contractions every 3 min 3) the 41 week G4P1112 client; admitted for induction of labor 4) the 40 week G1P0000 client; 1 cm dilated, 20% effaced; poor quality uterine contractions

4) the 40 week G1P0000 client; 1 cm dilated, 20% effaced; poor quality uterine contractions the client who is at 40 weeks gestation, 1 cm dilated, and 20% effaced with poor-quality uterine contractions has hypertonic uterine dysfunction. Ineffectual uterine contractions are occurring in the latent phase of labor. treatment is rest and sedation. Zolpidem tartrate is a sedative-hypnotic barbiturate that will produce sleep and maternal relaxation

The postpartum client, who just delivered a full-term infant, tells the nurse she is concerned about her Rh-negative status. She says that she received Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) during her pregnancy, and she wonders if she is going to need it again. Which statement, if made by the nurse, is correct? 1) you will be given RhoGAM within the next 72 hours 2) you already had RhoGAM, so you wont need it again 3) one dose of RhoGAM will last you a lifetime 4) you will need RhoGAM if your newborn is Rh-positive

4) you will need RhoGAM if your newborn is Rh-positive RhoGAM is given in the postpartum period to Rh-negative women who have delivered Rh-positive newborns. RhoGAM is usually given within 72 hours. It prevents the mother from becoming sensitized from the fetomaternal transfusion of Rh-positive blood that occurred at delivery

the nurse is caring for the infant who experienced asphyxiation at birth and is having seizure activity. The infant, weighing 4 kg is to receive phenobarbital 4 mg/kg/day in divided doses q8h. To provide one dose, how many mg should the nurse administer?

5.3 multiple the dose and divide by 3