ch. 27
A young female wears her lap belt too low, over her upper thighs, because the belt is uncomfortable when worn properly. If she is involved in a head-on "up and over" type of collision, to which injury is she most prone, given the position of her lap belt? A. Tibia-fibula fractures B. Dislocated hips C. Internal abdominal injury D. Bilateral arm fractures
B. Dislocated hips
On what factor does the pattern of tertiary phase injuries depend? A. Mass B. Distance and point of impact C. Direction D. Velocity
B. Distance and point of impact
You are first on the scene of a two-car motor vehicle collision. Two patients are entrapped in one vehicle. In the other vehicle, there is a male driver complaining of chest pain. During this time, your primary concern is: A. Calling for additional help B. Ensuring personal safety C. Determining severity of injuries D. Triaging the patients
B. Ensuring personal safety
Which of these is a high-velocity wound that carries the greatest risk for death when considering the concept of cavitation? A. Stab wound to the liver B. Gunshot wound to the spleen C. Shotgun wound to the lung D. Gunshot wound to the stomach
B. Gunshot wound to the spleen
Speed being equal, which impact is most likely to damage muscles and ligaments of the neck? A. Rear impact B. Lateral impact C. They are all about the same. D. Frontal impact
B. Lateral impact
Which statement best characterizes the capabilities of a Level III trauma center? A. The hospital will provide any emergency surgical services to a trauma patient and then transfer the patient once stable B. The hospital has some surgical capabilities to help trauma patients, but will generally stabilize and them and still arrange transfer C. The hospital can handle most trauma patients, but will transfer those who require specialty care for specific injuries such as neurologic trauma D. The hospital can manage all trauma patients and injuries, 24 hours a day, 7 days a week
B. The hospital has some surgical capabilities to help trauma patients, but will generally stabilize and them and still arrange transfer
The amount of kinetic energy that a moving body contains is based on its mass and: A. location. B. velocity. C. viscosity. D. friction.
B. velocity.
During an in-service program focusing on care of the trauma patient, the medical director asks if anyone can correctly describe the "platinum 10 minutes." What statement by a participant is the best response? A. "EMS should spend 10 minutes assessing the patient for life-threatening injuries prior to initiating transport to the emergency department." B. "EMS should initiate transport of the critically injured trauma patient to the hospital within 10 minutes of arriving on scene." C. "If the transport to a trauma center will exceed 10 minutes, EMS should strongly consider the use of an aeromedical helicopter." D. "EMS systems should be designed so that it takes an ambulance no longer than 10 minutes to respond to a trauma call."
B. "EMS should initiate transport of the critically injured trauma patient to the hospital within 10 minutes of arriving on scene."
The EMT understands the importance of evaluating the mechanism of injury when he states: A. "The mechanism of injury is useful in determining the exact injuries the patient has sustained." B. "The mechanism of injury can be used to guide the EMT's injury assessment and treatment of the patient." Your answer is correct. C. "The mechanism of injury is a useful tool in determining whether the patient's outcome will be good or bad." D. "Evaluating the mechanism of injury is important because it determines whether emergency transport to the hospital is needed."
B. "The mechanism of injury can be used to guide the EMT's injury assessment and treatment of the patient."
While conducting field triage of injured patients, which of the following special considerations indicates a need for transport to a trauma center? A. Eye injuries B. Age greater than 45 years of age C. Emergency medical service (EMS) provider judgment D. Pregnancy greater than 10 weeks
C. Emergency medical service (EMS) provider judgment
What is the first act of patient care that should be performed on the multisystem trauma patient? A. Establish a patent airway. B. Control external hemorrhage. C. Establish spinal stabilization. D. Provide oxygenation.
C. Establish spinal stabilization.
A hospital with what trauma care rating is MOST likely to attempt stabilization of critical trauma patients before transporting them to a facility with higher-level trauma capabilities? A. Level I B. Level X C. Level IV D. Level V
C. Level IV
A patient, who was constructing a bomb in his basement, has sustained a secondary-phase blast injury. Which presentation would the EMT most likely observe from this blast phase? A. Complaint of nausea after inhaling fumes B. Burns to the head, neck, and chest C. Screwdriver impaled in the thorax D. Headache and shortness of breath
C. Screwdriver impaled in the thorax
Which of the following vital signs indicates the need for transport to a trauma center? A. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 14 or less B. Respiratory rate less than 12 C. Systolic blood pressure less than 90 D. Pulse rate greater than 90
C. Systolic blood pressure less than 90
You should have a high index of suspicion for critical injury in which of the following motor vehicle collisions? A. Intrusion of 6 inches into the passenger compartment B. Injury to a second occupant C. Vehicle telemetry indicating seatbelts were in use D. Patient with altered mental status
D. Patient with altered mental status
You arrive at the scene where a young male patient fell out of a tree he was climbing. Although he fell from a lower branch, he was still reportedly 10-12 feet in the air when he fell. The patient landed on his side on the ground. Which element of the kinematics of trauma would explain the mechanism of any injuries he may have sustained? A. Terminal mass B. Rapid acceleration C. Terminal velocity D. Rapid deceleration
D. Rapid deceleration
Which definition would accurately describe a Level III trauma center? A. A general hospital with some surgical capability and a commitment to special staff training and resource allocation for trauma patients B. A facility that has surgical care capability available at all times for incoming trauma patients and can handle all but the most seriously injured specialty and multisystem trauma patients C. Usually a university teaching center that is prepared and committed to handle all types of specialty trauma and can provide neurosurgery, microsurgery, pediatric care, and care for multisystem trauma D. A facility where seriously injured trauma patients may be taken for stabilization and care before transport, often by helicopter, to a more distant, higher-level trauma center
A. A general hospital with some surgical capability and a commitment to special staff training and resource allocation for trauma patients
As blunt impact abruptly halts a portion of the body and inertia causes the remaining anatomy to continue its motion, one tissue or organ is pushed into another. What type of injury is this? A. Compression injury B. Shearing injury C. Rupture injury D. Stretch injury
A. Compression injury
Emergency Medical Responders have removed an intoxicated and confused patient from a car that struck another vehicle at a high rate of speed. The patient was unrestrained and his car did not have air bags. Assessment reveals deformity bilaterally to the hips and femurs and bruising to the knees. Based on this injury pattern, the EMT would recognize which type of injury mechanism? A. Down and under B. Lateral impact C. High velocity D. Up and over
A. Down and under
Which piece of information would you provide to a group of young teenage drivers to decrease their chance of suffering a "whiplash"-type injury if involved in a motor vehicle collision? A. Ensure that the head rest is properly positioned B. Make sure the car has side-door air bags C. Position the car's seats in a full upright position D. Properly wear seat belts with a headrest in the down position
A. Ensure that the head rest is properly positioned
In dealing with the victim of multisystem trauma, which item should receive your initial attention? A. Establishing a patent airway B. Providing appropriate fluid resuscitation C. Stopping any serious external hemorrhage D. Ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilations
A. Establishing a patent airway
As part of your service to the community, you are certified as a car seat specialist and provide monthly classes on the safe transport of infants and children. Over the course of one day, several cars have pulled into your EMS station and asked you to look at their car seats. Which car seat position would indicate that the parent is safely transporting his or her infant (younger than 1 year old)? A. Facing backward in the back seat in a reclined position (45 degrees) B. Facing forward in the back seat in an upright position (60 degrees) C. Facing backward in an upright position in the front seat (45 degrees) D. Facing forward in the back seat in a reclined position (60 degrees)
A. Facing backward in the back seat in a reclined position (45 degrees)
Which injury is most serious, warranting immediate and rapid transport to the local trauma center? A. Instability and crepitus to the left lateral chest wall B. Open fracture to the left lower leg C. Deformity to the right ankle with pain rated as a 10/10 D. Large, deep laceration to the arm with bone visible
A. Instability and crepitus to the left lateral chest wall
What type of energy is stored in a moving body? A. Kinetic B. Acceleration C. Velocity D. Inertia
A. Kinetic
Which of the statements concerning trauma is most accurate? A. Multisystem trauma has a higher mortality rate than single-system injuries B. The mechanism of injury is the best predictor of patient outcome C. Falls are the leading cause of trauma deaths D. A "spider web" or "star" pattern of cracks on the windshield means the patient impacted the windshield with his head
A. Multisystem trauma has a higher mortality rate than single-system injuries
Which statement is CORRECT about motor vehicle crashes involving rotational impact or a rollover? A. Multisystem trauma is common in rollover crashes. B. Vehicles with a high center of gravity are less likely to roll over than other vehicles. C. Crush injuries are less likely to occur to ejected occupants than to occupants who remain in the vehicle. D. Injuries from rotational crashes are easily predictable when compared to other types of impacts.
A. Multisystem trauma is common in rollover crashes.
In treating the victim of multisystem trauma, what should be addressed after gaining control of the airway and ventilation? A. Significant hemorrhage B. Body immobilization C. Rapid transport to a trauma center D. Severe fractures
A. Significant hemorrhage
As you pull up to a motor vehicle collision, you quickly scan the scene for clues as to the type and severity of injuries. Which observation would best indicate that a patient may have a head injury? A. Starburst on the windshield B. Blood on a patient's clothing C. Frontal-type collision D. Air bag deployment
A. Starburst on the windshield
You are assessing a male patient who was stabbed three times in the chest and abdomen. As you begin your primary assessment, you note the patient to have a decreased level of consciousness and gurgling respirations. Your next action would be to: A. Suction the airway B. Obtain an SpO2 reading C. Apply a cervical collar D. Check his pulse
A. Suction the airway
A male patient has sustained gunshot wounds to the neck and abdomen. He is unresponsive and has gurgling respirations. Your immediate action would be to: A. Suction the airway while providing manual spine motion restriction B. Place a cervical collar and position the patient on a long board C. Insert a nasal airway and place the patient on a long backboard D. Start positive pressure ventilation and then place a cervical collar and maintain manual spine motion restriction
A. Suction the airway while providing manual spine motion restriction
In a frontal collision, at what rate does the occupant continue forward? A. The rate of the vehicle B. A rate slower than that of the vehicle C. None, since the driver has already stopped D. A rate faster than that of the vehicle
A. The rate of the vehicle
If you were hit by a rock thrown at a velocity of 1 foot per second, then hit by the same rock thrown at 2 feet per second, the rock that was thrown at 2 feet per second would be: A. four times as harmful as the rock thrown at 1 foot per second because velocity is squared. B. half as harmful as the rock thrown at 1 foot per second because the impact area is greater. C. twice as harmful as the rock thrown at 1 foot per second. D. equally harmful as the rock thrown at 1 foot per second because the mass is equal.
A. four times as harmful as the rock thrown at 1 foot per second because velocity is squared.
When a projectile breaks into smaller pieces, increasing the amount of damage to the body, this process is called A. fragmentation. B. dissipation of energy. C. cavitation. D. force of impact.
A. fragmentation.
Hospitals that do not have a trauma center designation but that focus on specific areas of trauma expertise, such as burns or spinal cord injury, are: A. specialty centers. B. focused care centers. C. defined scope centers. D. extended-care facilities.
A. specialty centers.
In a motor vehicle collision, the impact of the victim within the passenger compartment is called: A. the body collision. B. a tertiary collision. C. an additional impact. D. a deceleration impact.
A. the body collision.
The path or motion of a projectile during its travel is called: A. trajectory. B. acceleration. C. velocity. D. profile.
A. trajectory.
Being struck by a bullet is likely more traumatic than being stabbed by a knife blade due to: A. velocity. B. trajectory. C. inertia. D. mass.
A. velocity.
A patient has been stabbed with a knife at the fifth intercostal space on the right side of the chest in an attempted suicide. Assessment reveals him to be short of breath and coughing. Which question is it most important for the EMT to ask regarding the weapon? A. "How long was the knife blade?" B. "Did you push the knife in slowly or quickly?" C. "Did the knife penetrate your chest easily?" D. "Was the knife clean or dirty?"
A. "How long was the knife blade?"
Approximately what percentage of trauma victims are multisystem trauma patients? A. 10% B. 90% C. 75% D. 50%
A. 10%
What type of motorcycle impact results in the rider traveling into the handlebars? A. Head-on B. Angular C. Laying the bike down D. Ejection
A. Head-on
Cavitation is a term that is typically associated with which type of trauma? A. High-velocity penetrating trauma B. High-velocity blunt trauma C. Low-velocity blunt trauma D. Low-velocity penetrating trauma
A. High-velocity penetrating trauma
At what height does a fall become severe enough for an adult to necessitate trauma services based solely on the mechanism of injury? A. 10 feet B. 20 feet C. 25 feet D. 30 feet
B. 20 feet
Two cars have collided head-on. One car was traveling at a speed of 55 mph and the other at 35 mph. The total speed of impact would be: A. 35 mph B. 90 mph C. 20 mph D. 55 mph
B. 90 mph
Which statement is CORRECT about acceleration and deceleration? A. If an out-of-control truck strikes a stopped car from behind, the sudden deceleration of the car will cause the body of the car's driver to be jerked out from under the head and neck. B. A faster change in speed results in more force exerted. C. Acceleration and deceleration are not factors in determining force of impact. D. If two cars of the same weight and speed stop, one by gradual braking and the other by suddenly striking a telephone pole, they exert the same force.
B. A faster change in speed results in more force exerted.
After assessing these patients, which would the EMT identify as suffering from multisystem trauma? A. A 31-year-old female who has a large laceration to her leg from a hunting knife, with bleeding controlled B. A 61-year-old male who became dizzy and fell down five stairs, and who has a laceration to the head and open fracture of the left lower leg C. A 24-year-old male who slipped on ice and has tenderness to the right shoulder D. An 89-year-old female who fell in a nursing home and has a hematoma to the back of her head
B. A 61-year-old male who became dizzy and fell down five stairs, and who has a laceration to the head and open fracture of the left lower leg
A 27-year-old male was involved in an altercation and was struck in the ribs with a baseball bat. Assessment reveals intact skin with bruising to the right lateral chest. When palpating this area, pain, instability, and crepitus are all observed. The patient also complains of difficult and painful breathing. The EMT would recognize: A. Pulmonary injury caused by penetrating trauma B. Chest injury caused by blunt trauma C. Thoracic injury secondary to penetrating trauma D. Chest wall injury caused by acceleration forces
B. Chest injury caused by blunt trauma
What damage is MOST common when a person falls on outstretched arms? A. Mid-shaft humerus fracture B. Colles fracture C. Elbow dislocation D. Rotator cuff injury
B. Colles fracture
What is the best description of the goal of a trauma system? A. Transporting as many patients as possible by air medical transportation B. Getting the right patient to the right facility in the right amount of time C. Providing all trauma patients with a complete battery of diagnostic tests and access to specialists D. Providing the highest level of care possible within a 10-minute transport time frame for all patients
B. Getting the right patient to the right facility in the right amount of time
A patient with severe head and neck pain states that he was properly wearing his seat belt when another car struck him from behind. As a knowledgeable EMT, you would realize that the complaint of: A. Head pain suggests that he was not wearing the seat belt properly B. Head and neck pain could occur even when the seat belt is properly worn C. Head and neck pain indicates that the lap belt was worn without the shoulder harness D. Head and neck pain indicates that he was not wearing his seat belt
B. Head and neck pain could occur even when the seat belt is properly worn
What is the term for maintaining suspicion about the types of injuries a patient may have even though the patient presents as very stable? A. Sense of injury potential B. High index of suspicion C. Mild feeling of certainty D. Interpretation of bodily forces
B. High index of suspicion
What trauma center designation is given to a regional trauma center, usually a university teaching center that is prepared and committed to handle all types of specialty trauma? A. Level II B. Level I C. Primary trauma center D. Resource support center
B. Level I
You arrive on the scene of a motorcycle accident and find an unresponsive male patient lying in the middle of the road with blood coming from his ears and nose. He was not wearing a helmet and has snoring respirations. Which sequence of events would be most appropriate in the care of this patient? A. Full spine motion restriction procedures, transfer to the ambulance, provide all assessment and care en route to the hospital, with total scene time of 7 minutes B. Primary assessment, airway and ventilatory management, oxygen administration, spine motion restriction precautions, transport within 10 minutes of arriving on scene C. Primary assessment, spine motion restriction, transfer to the ambulance after 8 minutes of scene time, all other care provided en route D. Primary assessment, oxygen administration, transfer to stretcher, transport within 5 minutes of arriving on scene with spine motion restriction precautions done en route
B. Primary assessment, airway and ventilatory management, oxygen administration, spine motion restriction precautions, transport within 10 minutes of arriving on scene
A patient has been critically hurt in a nighttime motor vehicle collision. She was wearing a seat belt and hit a tree at 70 mph. The car she was driving weighed 2 tons and was equipped with air bags that did deploy. Which factor had the greatest impact on the injuries she sustained? A. Deployment of air bags B. Speed of the vehicle at impact C. Nighttime conditions D. Weight of the vehicle
B. Speed of the vehicle at impact
A 49-year-old male has been stabbed in the lower right chest. Police tell you that the patient got into an argument with an unidentified man, who then stabbed him before fleeing the scene. After assessing the patient, you are suspicious that the knife punctured the lung and is causing internal bleeding. In this situation, the mechanism of injury would be: A. Assailant with a knife B. Stab wound to the right chest C. Penetrating trauma to the lungs D. Internal hemorrhage
B. Stab wound to the right chest
Assessment of a patient involved in a motor vehicle accident reveals him to have crepitus to the left humerus, instability to the left lateral chest wall and flank, and pain on palpation to left hip region. The patient also complains of pain to the right side of the neck. Based on this injury pattern, the EMT would recognize the patient was: A. The passenger in a car hit from behind B. The driver of a car hit on the driver's side C. An unrestrained rear seat occupant in a car struck from the right side D. An unrestrained driver involved in a head-on collision
B. The driver of a car hit on the driver's side
An unrestrained female driving a small car is involved in a rollover-type collision. Why is her risk for serious injury or death significantly increased? A. The risk for ejection is lessened, increasing injuries suffered in the car B. There are more impacts in a rollover causing injury C. Rollovers are the result of high speeds D. Smaller and lighter cars tend to roll multiple times
B. There are more impacts in a rollover causing injury
The mechanism of injury refers to how: A. fast the car was going. B. a person was injured. C. far the patient fell. D. many injuries the patient has sustained.
B. a person was injured.
In a rear-end collision, a headrest that is in the fully down position: A. does not affect the severity of a whiplash injury. B. can increase the severity of a whiplash injury. C. protects the driver from a secondary collision. D. can decrease the severity of a whiplash injury.
B. can increase the severity of a whiplash injury.
In a foot-first fall, flexing of the knees can result in: A. fractures of the spine. B. preservation of the rest of the skeletal system. C. fractures of the pelvis. D. fractures of the hips.
B. preservation of the rest of the skeletal system.
You are treating a 36-year-old female patient who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She was not wearing a seat belt. A bystander states that the patient was initially unconscious at the scene before your arrival. There is no apparent external trauma aside from a bruise on the front of her head. Is this a patient who is a high priority for rapid transport? A. No; she is a relatively young person and has no external bleeding. B. Yes, because of the altered mental status and closed head injury. C. No; she is alert and answering your questions at this point. D. Yes, because of the damage to the vehicle.
B. Yes, because of the altered mental status and closed head injury.
Regarding the field triage of injured patients, which of these patients is NOT a member of a special patient population that would necessitate transport to a trauma center? A. A female patient with a suspected brain injury from a fall who also takes prescribed anticoagulants B. A male patient with a broken femur and burns to 25 percent of his body after jumping from a second-story window of a house that was on fire C. A female patient who is 12 weeks pregnant and who fell on the sidewalk, injuring her hip and wrist D. A 70-year-old male patient with a systolic blood pressure of 104 mmHg after wrecking his car into a tree
C. A female patient who is 12 weeks pregnant and who fell on the sidewalk, injuring her hip and wrist
Why is the exit wound of a bullet always larger than the entry wound? A. When the bullet enters the dermis, it breaks into many small pieces that travel in different directions. As these bullet pieces pass out of the body, they destroy a wide path of tissue. B. As the superheated metal of the bullet proceeds through the skin, it burns away all tissue that it touches. The heat destruction radiates into a tubular shape along the trajectory of the bullet, causing the bullet's exit to be larger than its entrance. C. As the bullet's energy dissipates into flesh, its kinetic energy is transferred to the tissues. This causes exit wounds that are much larger than entry wounds. D. As the bullet enters the skin, it flattens out, or "mushrooms," increasing its surface area. Thus, when it exits the body, it displaces more tissue than it did when it entered. This creates the larger exit wounds.
C. As the bullet's energy dissipates into flesh, its kinetic energy is transferred to the tissues. This causes exit wounds that are much larger than entry wounds.
In what form of trauma does the energy exchange cause a chain reaction within various body tissues that crush, stretch, and tear their structures, resulting in injury at and beneath the skin's surface? A. Inertial trauma B. Penetrating trauma C. Blunt trauma D. Kinetic trauma
C. Blunt trauma
You are assessing a patient who was involved in a motorcycle accident. He states that he saw an oncoming car and "laid the bike down" to avoid an outright collision. He was wearing a helmet. Which injury pattern would make sense given the action of the motorcyclist? A. Angulation to both femurs with protrusion B. Bilateral broken forearms with upper extremity trauma C. Burn to the inside of the leg from the motorcycle exhaust pipe D. "Road rash" to the entire body surface
C. Burn to the inside of the leg from the motorcycle exhaust pipe
A patient who was involved in a motor vehicle collision is complaining of neck pain. Which piece of information would most contribute to the EMT's high index of suspicion that the patient may have suffered more significant injuries beyond isolated neck pain? A. Lack of air bags in the car B. Difficulty turning is head to the right C. Death of the car's driver D. External damage to the car is significant
C. Death of the car's driver
You are responding to a call for a 4-year-old child hit by a car. When assessing this child, which injury patterns would you recognize as typical based on the child's age and mechanism of injury? A. Head injury with deformities to both upper arms and neck trauma B. Bilateral ankle deformity, contusions to the back, and face trauma C. Deformed femurs, bruises to the chest and abdomen, and head injury D. Left arm and leg deformities, and head injury
C. Deformed femurs, bruises to the chest and abdomen, and head injury
A car has been hit head-on by another vehicle at a moderate rate of speed. Seat belts were in place and the air bags deployed. The patient complains of chest pain. Quick observation reveals a bruise to his sternum. The EMT should immediately: A. Deflate the air bag to get breath sounds B. Suspect an injury related to the air bag C. Lift the air bag and check for steering wheel deformity D. Check the windshield for starring
C. Lift the air bag and check for steering wheel deformity
An 8-year-old boy fell forward off of a swing onto outstretched arms. He did not hit his head or lose consciousness and is complaining of left forearm pain. There is deformity to the left wrist, but no other injuries or life threats. His vital signs are pulse 132 beats/min, respirations 20 breaths/min, blood pressure 108/62 mmHg, and SpO2 100%. The proper care of this patient would be to: A. Apply supplemental oxygen and anatomically splint the forearm when the patient is placed on a long backboard B. Immediately load and transport the patient, splinting the injury en route C. Secure the forearm to a padded board splint and apply a cold pack to the injury site before transporting the patient nonemergently D. Call ALS so that the patient can be given intravenous pain medications before splinting the forearm
C. Secure the forearm to a padded board splint and apply a cold pack to the injury site before transporting the patient nonemergently
When teaching Emergency Medical Responders about air bags, which point would you emphasize? A. Properly placed air bags eliminate the need for seat belts B. Air bags prevent broken glass from striking the occupant C. The benefit of air bags is lessened in a multiple-vehicle collision impact D. Air bags are effective in decreasing injury in a rollover-type collision
C. The benefit of air bags is lessened in a multiple-vehicle collision impact
A car, driven by an unrestrained male, strikes a utility pole at 35 mph. Given this scenario, which would be true? A. The energy transferred to the body is increased by a factor of 2 B. The patient struck the steering wheel at a combined speed of 70 mph C. The internal organs struck the inside of the body at a speed of 35 mph D. The utility pole absorbed half of the kinetic energy, so that the body collision occurred at a speed of 17.5 mph
C. The internal organs struck the inside of the body at a speed of 35 mph
When caring for the victim of a motor vehicle collision, the EMT should suspect critical injuries if there was: A. only a solo occupant. B. another passenger ejected. C. another occupant killed. D. more than one person injured.
C. another occupant killed.
Injuries that result from the pressure wave of the blast are: A. tertiary phase injuries. B. secondary phase injuries. C. primary phase injuries. D. quaternary phase injuries.
C. primary phase injuries.
The MOST common and serious primary phase injuries produced from a blast are: A. head injuries. B. oxidation. C. pulmonary injuries. D. severe lacerations.
C. pulmonary injuries.
In a motorcycle collision, burns are most commonly associated with: A.continued operation of the engine. B. ignition of the fuel tank. C. the leg being caught between the motorcycle and the ground. D. friction from the slide.
C. the leg being caught between the motorcycle and the ground.
You are hosting a discussion on injury prevention when a participant asks you if you believe that helmets for motorcyclists truly make a difference. You would respond by saying: A. "Helmets have been shown to prevent motorcycle accidents." B. "A motorcycle helmet decreases the chance of permanent spinal injury." C. "Motorcycle helmets decrease the risk of death when the rider is involved in a collision." D. "Wearing a helmet decreases the chance of being ejected from a motorcycle."
C. "Motorcycle helmets decrease the risk of death when the rider is involved in a collision."
A bullet fired from a gun at close range passes through the patient's liver. However, on autopsy, the coroner discovers that the man's pancreas, stomach, and gallbladder were also injured, even though not in direct contact with the bullet. As a knowledgeable EMT, you would recognize that which mechanism is responsible for injuries to these additional organs? A. Profile impact B. Drag force C. Blunt injury D. Cavitation
D. Cavitation
You have arrived on the scene of an explosion in a warehouse used to store fertilizers. A paramedic, who has already triaged the nine patients involved, directs you to a young man sitting under a tree. The man states that he is having excruciating ear pain. The initial assessment and rapid trauma assessment reveal no obvious injuries. Given this presentation, the EMT would recognize the injury was likely sustained: A. As a result of exposure to superheated air B. From the noise of the explosion C. After the secondary blast phase D. During the primary blast phase
D. During the primary blast phase
A teenage female patient was ejected from a car as it rolled down a hill after she ran off the road. She is responsive, but with signs of early shock and respiratory distress. She has bruising to her anterior abdomen and chest, a laceration to her left temple, and deformity to her left wrist. At which point should the wrist injury be splinted? A. Prior to full spinal motion restriction precautions being provided B. Before transferring the patient to the stretcher C. Just before leaving the scene D. En route to the hospital
D. En route to the hospital
Which of the following indicates the need to limit scene time to 10 minutes? A. Bilateral tibia fractures B. Femur fracture C. Respiratory rate of 25/minute D. Hypoxia
D. Hypoxia
A patient who was restrained in his car was involved in a head-on collision. Despite his not contacting any internal structure in the car, he sustained a myocardial contusion. What law of motion describes this injury? A. Motion B. Deceleration C. Acceleration D. Inertia
D. Inertia
What is the term for an evasive action on the part of a motorcycle rider that is designed to prevent ejection and separation of the driver from the bike in an impending collision? A. Positive evasion B. Ejection prevention C. Side swiping D. Laying the bike down
D. Laying the bike down
Which action has the highest priority in treating the multisystem trauma patient? A. Primary assessment B. Circulation C. Airway D. Life threats that were identified during the general impression
D. Life threats that were identified during the general impression
An unrestrained driver of a car that has struck a tree at 45 mph has suffered a contusion to his heart. The EMT would recognize that this injury occurred during which impact of the collision? A. Body collision B. Physiological collision C. Vehicle collision D. Organ collision
D. Organ collision
What is the best description of the "platinum 10 minutes" as it applies to care of the trauma patient? A. The target maximum time that the multisystem trauma patient should spend in the emergency department before being transferred to surgery B. The goal for total amount of time from the actual injury to arrival of EMS at the scene C. The time it should take the transporting ambulance to get the trauma patient to the closest medical facility D. The target maximum scene time for EMS as it applies to the seriously injured trauma patient
D. The target maximum scene time for EMS as it applies to the seriously injured trauma patient
You arrive on the scene of a motor vehicle collision with multiple patients. Which of the following indicates a need for transport to a trauma center? A. Systolic blood pressure of 98 B. Bilateral wrist fractures C. Open femur fracture D. Unstable pelvis
D. Unstable pelvis
The three types of impacts associated with motorcycle collisions are head-on, ejection, and: A. rear. B. frontal. C. flip. D. angular.
D. angular.
Injuries that are received during the secondary blast phase are caused by: A. heat or burn injuries. B. personnel displacement. C. overpressure wave. D. blast projectiles.
D. blast projectiles.
As a high-speed projectile enters the body, it can create a pressure wave that extends damage beyond the bullet pathway. This is called: A. expanding pathway. B. fragmentation. C. rotational impact. D. cavitation.
D. cavitation.
The "blown outward" appearance of a bullet exit wound is the result of: A. the bullet and hot gases. B. damage by the bullet forcing debris and bodily contents out of the wound. C. the bullet and displaced bone fragments. D. damage by the bullet and the cavitational wave.
D. damage by the bullet and the cavitational wave.
The branch of mechanics that deals with the movements of bodies is called A. velocity. B. movement. C. kinematics. D. kinetics.
D. kinetics.
When triaging a patient, of the following, you should first assess the: A. anatomy of the injury. B. mechanism of the injury. C. system considerations. D. level of consciousness.
D. level of consciousness.
Acceleration and deceleration are measures of: A. velocity. B. mass. C. energy. D. rate.
D. rate.
The "platinum 10 minutes" refers to limiting: A. Response time. B. assessment time. C. transport time. D. scene time.
D. scene time.
The first point of impact in head-first falls is typically: A. the shoulders. B. the crown of the head. C. the face. D. the arms.
D. the arms.
A bullet fired from a gun does more damage than a knife propelled by a human hand because: A. the bullet is traveling on its own, whereas a knife blade is controlled by a hand. B. the area of impact from the bullet is smaller than that of a knife blade. C. a bullet fired from a gun can momentarily have more mass than a knife blade. D. the bullet strikes the body at a higher velocity.
D. the bullet strikes the body at a higher velocity.
Vehicle collisions are a common mechanism of injury. It is important to remember: A. that high-speed collisions do not result in any more serious injuries than medium- or low-speed collisions. B. that the death of an occupant of a vehicle usually means that the occupant absorbed most of the energy and other occupants will be less seriously injured. C. that mass is a key factor in mechanism of injury. D. to maintain a high index of suspicion if any passenger appears confused.
D. to maintain a high index of suspicion if any passenger appears confused.
A 23-year-old roofer has fallen 20 feet from the roof of a house into shrubs below. Aside from superficial abrasions and complaint of soreness, you detect no obvious injuries. Consequently, the patient states that as long as his legs are not broken, he does not see the need to go to the hospital. As a knowledgeable EMT, your best response would be: A. "Since you did not lose consciousness, I feel better about having you refuse. Just keep an eye on your feet and watch for swelling." B. "Although you feel okay now, you will most likely be sore later on. Why don't we go to the hospital and ask about some medications for pain?" C. "Since this is a work-related injury, you should really be evaluated in the hospital. Worker's compensation may not cover you if you do not." D. "In a fall from this height, you may have hurt some internal organs. You really need to be examined."
D. "In a fall from this height, you may have hurt some internal organs. You really need to be examined."
A "whiplash"-type neck injury is most often observed with which type of collision? A. Ejection B. Rollover C. Frontal impact D. Rear-end impact
D. Rear-end impact
Head injuries and chest injuries such as flail chest, blunt cardiac injury, and aortic tears commonly result from which pathway in an automobile collision? A. Down-and-under pathway B. Ejection pathway C. Restrained pathway D. Up-and-over pathway
D. Up-and-over pathway