Ch. 29 Microbio

Lyme disease is caused by ____________ and is transmitted by __________. A. B. burgdorferi; deer and field mice B. Ixodes; B. burgdorferi C. B. burgdorferi; Ixodes D. Ixodes; deer and field mice

B. burgdorferi; Ixodes

ALL of these respiratory pathogens require person-to-person propagation EXCEPT A. Legionella pneumophila. B. Streptococcus spp. C. influenza virus. D. both Streptococcus spp. and influenza virus.

Legionella pneumophila

An animal disease transmitted to humans by direct contact, inhalation of aerosols, or bites is called __________. A. a zoonosis B. enzootic C. epizootic D. a zoophyte

a zoonosis

What features of West Nile virus make it an emerging disease of special concern? A. West Nile virus is an arthropod-borne virus transmitted by mosquitoes. B. West Nile virus has a high mortality rate in immunosuppressed humans and infects many species of birds in southern Europe, the Mediterranean basin, and North America. C. West Nile virus is maintained in nature through biological transmission between susceptible hosts by blood-feeding arthropods. D. West Nile virus has a positive, single-stranded RNA genome that is 11,000 to 12,000 nucleotides long.

1. West Nile virus is an arthropod-borne virus transmitted by mosquitoes. 2. West Nile virus has a high mortality rate in immunosuppressed humans and infects many species of birds in southern Europe, the Mediterranean basin, and North America. 3. West Nile virus is maintained in nature through biological transmission between susceptible hosts by blood-feeding arthropods.

Which of the choices shows the correct progression of bubonic plague? 1. Human is bitten by infected flea. 2. Rodent is infected with Yersinia pestis. 3. Yersinia travels to lymph nodes. 4. Flea is infected with Yersinia pestis. 5. Septicemia occurs. 6. Yersina pestis reproduces in intestine of infected organism. 7. Human is bitten by infected rodent. A. 2, 4, 6, 1, 3, 5 B. 2, 4, 6, 7, 3, 5 C. 4, 2, 6, 7, 3, 5 D. 4, 2, 6, 1, 3, 5

2, 4, 6, 1, 3, 5

Which of the following is the best mode of controlling the spread of West Nile infections? A. Kill all mosquitoes to prevent the transmission of West Nile virus. B. Kill all birds to prevent the amplification and transmission of West Nile virus. C. Limit exposure to mosquitoes to prevent the transmission of West Nile virus. D. Limit exposure to birds to prevent the transmission of West Nile virus.

Limit exposure to mosquitoes to prevent the transmission of West Nile virus.

Hepatitis E virus causes which disease in pregnant women? A. hepatocarcinoma B. serum hepatitis C. fulminant hepatic failure D. both serum hepatitis and fulminant hepatic failure

fulminant hepatic failure

Symptoms of secondary syphilis include A. generalized skin rash. B. lesions. C. fatal cardiovascular infections. D. both a and c.

generalized skin rash

During his research on West Nile virus, Bill learned that this virus is placed within a functional grouping known as arboviruses. What is meant by the term arbovirus? A. An arbovirus is an arthropod-borne virus. B. An arbovirus is a virus isolated in Ann Arbor, Michigan. C. An arbovirus is maintained in nature through biological transmission. D. An arbovirus is a virus that originated from plants.

1. An arbovirus is an arthropod-borne virus. 2. An arbovirus is maintained in nature through biological transmission.

Each infectious droplet expelled during sneezing is approximately ________ µm in diameter and may contain one or several infectious microorganisms. A. 100 B. 100 C. 10 D. 1

10

Which of these describes hepatitis D virus? A. It is a defective virus. B. It can replicate only if the cell is also infected with hepatitis B virus. C. It uses the protein coat of hepatitis B virus for expression. D. All of the above are correct.

All of the above are correct.

Which of the following statements about hantaviruses is true? A. They are single-stranded, segmented, negative-sense RNA viruses. B. They are related to Ebola and other hemorrhagic viruses. C. They are transmitted to humans by contaminated rodent droppings. D. All of the listed statements are true.

All of the listed statements are true.

Destroyed tissue throughout the lungs and the presence of acid-fast bacteria in a sputum sample likely indicate infection of A. Bordetella pertussis. B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae. C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. D. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Why should pregnant women NOT be immunized with the rubella vaccine? A. Rubella virus can infect the fetus by placental transmission and cause serious fetal abnormalities. B. Rubella vaccine kills pregnant women. C. Rubella vaccine is not effective in pregnant women. D. All of the above are correct.

Rubella virus can infect the fetus by placental transmission and cause serious fetal abnormalities

Which of the following best describes why West Nile Virus is considered to be an emerging infectious disease? A. West Nile virus causes an infection and death in birds such as crows and blue jays. B. West Nile virus causes a latent viral infection that can emerge later in life. C. West Nile virus was first isolated in Uganda in 1937 and has caused significant outbreaks every year since then. D. West Nile virus outbreaks have increased in number and affected areas since 1937.

West Nile virus outbreaks have increased in number and affected areas since 1937.

Reassortment of a virus that results in antigenic shift most commonly occurs in A. adults. B. any animal infected with more than one virus strain. C. children. D. domesticated animals.

any animal infected with more than one virus strain

Complications from untreated gonorrhea in females include A. pelvic inflammatory disease. B. sterility. C. painful infection of the urethral canal. D. both a and b.

both a and b

Which drug(s) would you recommend to treat penicillin-resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae? A. ampicillin B. cefixime C. ceftriaxone D. both cefixime and ceftriaxone

both cefixime and ceftriaxone

Varicella-zoster virus (VZV) causes which disease? A. rubella B. chicken pox C. mumps D. measles

chicken pox

MOST staphylococcal infections result from the transfer of staphylococci in the normal flora. ALL of the following diseases can be caused by Staphylococcus aureus EXCEPT A. carbuncles and impetigo. B. cirrhosis. C. food poisoning. D. toxic shock syndrome.

cirrhosis

There are three forms of human anthrax. Which of the following choices contains a form of human anthrax correctly matched with its description? A. cutaneous: easily treatable B. intestinal: always fatal C. cutaneous: least severe form D. respiratory: most common form

cutaneous: easily treatable

Kaposi's sarcoma causes cancer of the cells lining the blood vessels, which forms purple splotches on the skin and occurs during coinfection of HIV and A. Candida albicans. B. hepatitis C. C. human herpesvirus 8. D. human papillomaviruses.

human herpesvirus 8

If a chancre forms on your body, which disease are you MOST likely to get treatment for? A. gonorrhea B. hepatitis C. syphilis D. trichomoniasis

syphilis

A patient exhibiting arthritis secondary to Lyme disease is likely in which phase of the infection? A. first B. fourth C. third D. second

third

Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by an airborne virus? A. chicken pox B. measles C. mumps D. scarlet fever

scarlet fever

Of the arthropod-borne diseases, there is a vaccine to prevent __________. A. dengue fever B. yellow fever C. West Nile fever D. Lyme disease

yellow fever

Which of the following explains why treatment of symptomatic tetanus requires an antitoxin and an antibiotic? A. It is always better to use multiple treatments to elicit a stronger response. B. Because C. tetani bacteria excrete tetanus toxin, it is important to neutralize the toxin while also killing the bacteria that are producing more. C. The tetanus toxin binds irreversibly, causing damage to axons. The only way to heal the axons is with an antitoxin. D. Because the toxin is within the cell wall of the bacteria, it can only be eliminated by killing the bacteria.

Because C. tetani bacteria excrete tetanus toxin, it is important to neutralize the toxin while also killing the bacteria that are producing more.

Yellow fever was named because it can cause liver damage, resulting in a yellowish appearance. Which of the following explains why liver damage causes someone to have a yellowish appearance? A. Bilirubin is a breakdown product of hemoglobin that has a yellowish color. When bilirubin is not being properly excreted as bile, it can build up in the blood. B. Inability to produce albumin leads to osmotic problems, causing yellowish color. C. Impaired ability to convert ammonia to urea leads to an increase in ammonia in the body, causing a yellow color. D. Inability to break down glycogen causes lowered blood sugar, resulting in a yellowish color.

Bilirubin is a breakdown product of hemoglobin that has a yellowish color. When bilirubin is not being properly excreted as bile, it can build up in the blood.

The brain tissue of the birds indicated the possibility of encephalitis. What is encephalitis, and why should this type of infection cause concern among health care professionals? A. Encephalitis is an inflammation of the meninges. It is a concern to health care professionals because of how quickly the infection will spread to the rest of the body. B. Encephalitis is an inflammation of the peripheral nervous system. It is a concern to health care professionals because of how quickly the infection will spread to the rest of the body. C. Encephalitis is an inflammation of the brain tissue. It is a concern to health care professionals because an infection in the brain means the virus has breached protective measures. D. Encephalitis is an inflammation of the spinal cord. It is a concern to health care professionals because the infection will spread to the brain.

Encephalitis is an inflammation of the brain tissue. It is a concern to health care professionals because an infection in the brain means the virus has breached protective measures.

True or False: There are safe and effective HIV-2 vaccines available, but because HIV-1 has such high genetic variability, the vaccines are of little use to prevent AIDS. TRUE FALSE

False

True or False: Upper respiratory pathogens are generally more deadly than lower respiratory pathogens. TRUE FALSE

False

Roughly 50% of severe sore throat cases are due to ________, whereas the rest are normally caused by ________ infections. A. pneumonia viruses / bacterial B. pneumonia viruses / other viral C. Streptococcus pyogenes / bacterial D. Streptococcus pyogenes / viral

Streptococcus pyogenes / viral

If a human is bitten by an animal that has rabies, then it is recommended that the human receive immune globin (human rabies antibodies) and a rabies vaccination (with inactive virus) as well. Which of the following is the best (and most specific) explanation for why both are recommended in this case? A. The rabies antibodies provide a rapid response but short-lived response while the vaccination provides slower but longer-lasting protection. B. The rabies vaccination is relatively new and ineffective, so it is important to give the immune globin as well to make certain that the viruses cannot cause disease. C. Using both is needed because an individual who has received this type of bite is more likely than someone else to receive another bite. While the immune globin is sufficient to prevent rabies infection, the vaccination helps to prevent the individual from the risk of a future bite. D. Because rabies is such a serious illness, using antibodies and a vaccine provides the strongest possible immediate protection. Both antibodies and the vaccine provide a rapid immediate response to prevent illness from developing.

The rabies antibodies provide a rapid response but short-lived response while the vaccination provides slower but longer-lasting protection.

If mosquitoes are the mode of transmission for West Nile virus, why did the students in Bill's virology class focus on finding the virus in the dead birds rather than collecting mosquitoes to examine? A. The students tried to isolate and identify West Nile virus from birds because they are large animals. It would be difficult to isolate West Nile virus from mosquitoes because they are small. B. The students tried to isolate and identify West Nile virus from birds because they had access to dead birds that were known to be infected with West Nile virus. C. The students tried to isolate and identify West Nile virus from birds because they are an amplifying host for the virus, making it more likely that the virus can be isolated from these animals. D. The students tried to isolate and identify West Nile virus from birds because it is faster to isolate the virus from a bird than to isolate it from a mosquito.

The students tried to isolate and identify West Nile virus from birds because they are an amplifying host for the virus, making it more likely that the virus can be isolated from these animals.

Based on the concept map, which of the following must happen during Lyme disease? A. There is massive inflammation of the meninges. B. A bull's-eye-shaped rash will develop. C. There is an adaptive immune response. D. All of the above happen.

There is an adaptive immune response.

Is it possible for humans to have immunity to HIV infections and, if so, how? A. Yes, by expressing a non-HIV binding variant of CCR5. B. No, it is not possible. C. Yes, because the body develops immunity after multiple infections. D. None of the above is correct.

Yes, by expressing a non-HIV binding variant of CCR5.

Which infective agent and disease are INCORRECTLY paired? A. chancroid - Haemophilus ducreyi B. genital warts - Mycoplasma genitalium C. syphilis - Treponema pallidum D. trichomoniasis - Trichomonas vaginalis

genital warts - Mycoplasma genitalium

The CD4 cell surface protein binds to which HIV protein(s)? A. gp120/gp41 B. CCR5 C. CXCR4 D. all of the above

gp120/gp41

Which of the following hepatitis viruses is NOT parenterally transmitted? A. hepatitis A virus B. hepatitis B virus C. hepatitis C virus D. hepatitis D virus

hepatitis A virus

Effective vaccines are available for which of the following? A. hepatitis B virus B. hepatitis C virus C. hepatitis D virus D. hepatitis B and C viruses

hepatitis B virus

HIV-1 A. is a retrovirus. B. targets macrophages. C. targets T-helper cells. D. is described by all of the above.

is described by all of the above

Borrelia burgdorferi is an interesting spirochete that is unusual when compared to other bacteria. Which of the following is the reason that it is so unusual? A. it has a cell wall B. it has flagella C. it has a linear chromosome D. it has ribosomes

it has a linear chromosome

Viral hepatitis can result in acute disease in the ________, and chronic cirrhosis affects the ________. A. liver / liver B. liver / pancreas C. pancreas / liver D. pancreas / pancreas

liver / liver

Which symptom below does NOT correctly distinguish a cold from influenza (respectively)? A. fever: rare / common B. headache: rare / common C. malaise: common / rare D. vomiting: rare / common

malaise: common / rare

The tetanus exotoxin, produced by Clostridium tetani, __________. A. causes gas gangrene B. causes flaccid paralysis C. prevents inhibitory signals that allow for muscle relaxation D. prevents acetylcholine release that allows for muscle contraction

prevents inhibitory signals that allow for muscle relaxation

Rickettsia are obligate intracellular parasites that are transmitted by arthropods. Which of the following places would you be most likely to find the parasites in a living organism during the course of infection? A. on the surface of heart cells B. on the outer surface of the skin C. within the blood plasma D. within macrophages

within macrophages