Ch 36: Pretest, Post Test, Chapter Test, Ch 37: Pretest, Post Test, Chapter Test, Ch 38: Pretest, Post Test, Chapter Test, Ch 39: Pretest, Post Test, Chapter Test

You are on the scene of a​ mass-casualty incident in which the grandstand at a race track has collapsed. As the triage​ officer, you have encountered a​ 14-year-old male whose leg has been amputated above the knee. He is responsive to verbal​ stimuli, and he has an open​ airway, shallow rapid​ breathing, and a​ weak, rapid carotid pulse. This patient would be classified as a Priority​ ________ for treatment and transport. A. 1 B. 4 C. 3 D. 2

1

What is an​ appropriate-sized landing zone for a​ helicopter? A. 75 feet by 75 feet B. 100 feet by 100 feet C. 25 feet by 25 feet D. 50 feet by 50 feet

100 feet by 100 feet

Two vehicles have collided just around a curve in the highway. The posted speed limit is 40 mph. Where should the first cone or flare be placed in this​ situation? A. Around the curve 165 feet past the most forward crashed vehicle B. On the opposite side of the road from the crashed vehicles C. 40 feet before the curve D. 165 feet before the curve

165 feet before the curve

A​ patient-carrying device should have at least​ ________ straps to hold the patient securely. A. 1 B. 3 C. 2 D. 5

3

What is the number of patients that generally serves as the lowest possible threshold for a​ multiple-casualty incident? A. 10 B. 15 C. 3 D. 2

3

ICS systems recognize that the manageable span of control​ is: A. 6 people. B. 12 people. C. 24 people. D. 18 people.

6 People

You are on the scene of a church bus rollover collision. There are 30 passengers involved. As triage​ officer, which one of the following patients should you assign the highest​ priority? A. ​30-year-old man with multiple lower extremity fractures who is​ awake, has a strong radial​ pulse, and is complaining of severe pain B. Unresponsive​ 9-year-old male with an open skull fracture who is in cardiac arrest C. ​35-year-old pregnant woman with a cut on her​ head, neck​ pain, and numbness and tingling in her arms D. ​70-year-old woman who is awake but having difficulty breathing and has absent lung sounds on the right side

70 y/o woman who is awake but having difficulty breathing and has absent lung sounds on the r side

Which of the following is required on the exterior of a tanker truck that is carrying hazardous​ cargo? A. A safety data sheet B. A DOT hazard placard C. An NFPA 704 placard D. A cargo manifest

A DOT hazard placard

Which of the following statements regarding a disaster plan is​ FALSE? A. A disaster plan should be written to address any conceivable incident. B. A disaster plan should be​ well-publicized. C. A disaster plan should be rehearsed. D. A disaster plan should be realistic.

A disaster plan should be written to address any conceivable incident.

How does a Nader pin affect gaining access to occupants in a crashed​ vehicle? A. A pressure point just above the door lock will spring the pin back and open the door. B. A hydraulic spreader is necessary to open a door. C. A crowbar is necessary to open a door. D. A door should open easily without the need of tools.

A hydraulic spreader is necessary to open a door.

Which of the following events is LEAST likely to create a​ multiple-casualty incident? A. An apartment complex fire with confirmed entrapment B. A​ high-speed impact between a minivan and a sedan C. A motorcycle collision with a guardrail D. An outdoor stage collapse during a show at a state fair

A motorcycle collision with a guardrail

A CBRNE agent might be involved in which of the following​ incidents? A. An old and weakened building collapses. B. A roadway becomes pitted and cracked from weather. C. A building receives structural damage during a storm. D. A parked vehicle explodes.

A parked vehicle explodes.

When heading back to​ quarters, on what should you place your​ emphasis? A. Refueling the ambulance for the next call B. Beginning to reorganize the ambulance C. Documentation D. A safe return

A safe return

Which of the following settings should MOST make the EMT consider the likelihood of a hazardous materials​ incident? A. A warehouse B. An apartment C. A residential house D. A car

A warehouse

Which of the following is the LEAST rescuers are required to wear when working at an accident​ scene, day or​ night? A. ANSI Class 2 traffic safety vests and helmets B. A HEPA mask C. A Level A containment suit D. Leather gloves

ANSI Class 2 traffic safety vests and helmets

At what point should transport of the injured begin at an​ MCI? A. After triage has identified​ "immediate" category patients and transport has been coordinated through the treatment and transport units B. As soon as the first ambulance arrives C. After all​ "minor" patients have been directed to a treatment area to relieve congestion at the scene D. After all patients have been triaged

After triage has identified​ "immediate" category patients and transport has been coordinated through the treatment and transport units

In anticipating the potential damage from a radiological​ attack, what penetrating power do alpha particles​ have? A. Alpha particles have little penetrating ability. B. Alpha particles can penetrate multiple layers of clothing. C. Alpha particles can penetrate the skin. D. Alpha particles can penetrate lead.

Alpha particles have little penetrating ability.

Regarding the use of emergency​ sirens, which of the following statement is​ FALSE? A. Ambulance operators are not affected by siren noise. B. Dense shrubbery may block the sound of the siren. C. EMTs should assume that other drivers cannot hear the siren. D. The sound of the siren may increase the​ patient's anxiety.

Ambulance operators are not affected by siren noise.

When seeking expert advice on how to proceed at a hazardous materials​ incident, which of the following information is important to​ provide? A. Your background in chemistry B. Amount of the substance involved C. Your suspicions as to cause D. Your level of EMS certification

Amount of the substance involved

Which of the following accident scenes will likely require additional​ resources? A. An accident scene with a fatality B. An accident involving a pediatric patient C. An accident involving an​ off-duty EMS worker D. An accident requiring complex extrication

An accident requiring complex extrication

What constitutes a​ multiple-casualty incident​ (MCI)? A. An event that unfolds over a long period of time and requires​ federal, state, and local response B. Any event that requires more than one ambulance to adequately transport the patients from the scene C. An event involving multiple patients that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel resources D. An incident with 3 to 15 patients that the service handles without calling for additional resources

An event involving multiple patients that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel resources

At the landing zone for a medical​ helicopter, which of the following actions is​ appropriate? A. Approach fully erect from the direction of the tail rotor. B. Approach as soon as the helicopter skids touch the ground. C. Approach the aircraft from the​ front, escorted by the flight personnel. D. If the landing zone is not​ flat, approach from the uphill side.

Approach the aircraft from the​ front, escorted by the flight personnel.

How many straps should a​ patient-securing device​ have? A. At least three B. At least one C. At least two D. At least four

At least three

At what point for most services should your daily vehicle inspection checklist be​ performed? A. When you arrive at the scene of the first call of your shift B. At the beginning of your​ shift, before your first call C. On being dispatched for your first call of the shift D. On returning to service after the first call of the shift

At the beginning of your​ shift, before your first call

What is a mechanism of injury for a blast other than the blast​ wave? A. Burns B. Lacerating trauma C. A​ low-energy blast wind D. Penetrating trauma

A​ low-energy blast wind

Which of the following statements concerning disinfection is​ TRUE? A. A​ low-level disinfectant will kill germs on ambulance floors and walls. B. A​ high-level disinfectant will kill high numbers of bacterial spores C. ​High-level disinfection destroys all sources of infection. D. A solution of 1 part household bleach to 100 parts water is a​ low-level disinfectant for health care purposes.

A​ low-level disinfectant will kill germs on ambulance floors and walls.

Which of the following must be assessed on a hazmat team member before he or she enters the hot​ zone? A. Height and weight B. Task assignment C. Baseline vitals D. Allergies

Baseline Vitals

Which of the following should be checked with the vehicle engine turned​ off? A. Warning lights B. ​Dash-mounted gauges C. Windshield wiper operation D. Battery

Battery

Full immobilization of a trauma​ patient, including placing a cervical collar and securing the patient to a​ backboard, should take place at which of the following points in​ time? A. During transfer of care B. En route to the hospital C. Before moving the patient to the ambulance D. Before the primary assessment

Before moving the patient to the ambulance

Which of the following types of weapon of mass destruction is MOST likely to involve the threat of​ infection? A. Biological B. Radiological C. Nuclear D. Chemical

Biological

You are arriving at the scene of a vehicle collision on a​ four-lane interstate highway. There are two cars​ involved, and both are out of the lanes against the median wall. A fire apparatus is blocking the scene​ upstream, and another ambulance has already arrived and is parked downstream. What does NOT need to be​ done? A. Park your vehicle downstream of the collision facing the same direction and in line with the other ambulance. B. Avoid driving over any debris from the scene. C. Block all four lanes of the highway. D. Position cones or flares to control traffic.

Block all four lanes of the highway.

At​ 0330, you responded to the scene of an overturned tanker truck. What organization could you contact to obtain information about the liquid the truck is​ carrying? A. Regional poison control center B. Environmental Protection Agency​ (EPA) C. OSHA D. CHEMTREC

CHEMTREC

Which of the following is a​ 24-hour resource operated by the American Chemistry​ Council? A. CHEMTREC B. MSDS C. HAZTECH D. CHEMTRANS

CHEMTREC

​________ is the response​ agency, established in​ Washington, DC, as a service of the American Chemistry​ Council, that can provide either you or your dispatcher with information about the hazardous material and contact the shipper to provide you with information about the material. A. EPA B. CHEMTREC C. OSHA D. HAZMART

CHEMTREC

You have arrived at the scene of a motor vehicle collision to find that there are several critically injured patients. You are sizing up the situation. Which of the following things should you do​ FIRST? A. Begin to care for the patient closest to your vehicle. B. Call for additional rescue units and transporting ambulances. C. Begin triage of all patients before deciding on additional resources. D. Immobilize and extricate the most critically injured patient.

Call for additional rescue units and transporting ambulances.

Which of the following is NOT one of the actions necessary to ready an ambulance for its​ engine-on inspection? A. Pull the ambulance from quarters if engine exhaust fumes will be a problem. B. Set the parking brake and put the transmission in park. C. Check the level of the fluids. D. Have your partner chock the wheels.

Check the level of the fluids.

Flammable​ solids, substances that are dangerous when​ wet, and spontaneously combustible materials​ are: A. Class 1 materials. B. Class 3 materials. C. Class 4 materials. D. Class 2 materials.

Class 4 materials.

At a hazardous materials​ incident, which of the following areas is used for triaging​ patients, performing necessary​ treatment, and stabilizing patients before​ transport? A. Hot zone B. Cold zone C. Warm zone D. Decon zone

Cold zone

In which of the following areas at a hazmat incident are normal​ triage, stabilization, and treatment​ performed? A. Temperate zone B. Cold zone C. Command post D. Warm zone

Cold zone

In which of the following zones is the EMT expected to be staged at the scene of a hazardous materials​ incident? A. Cold zone B. Hot zone C. Warm zone D. Ground zero

Cold zone

Which of the following is NOT an acceptable way of attempting to identify a hazardous​ material? A. Using binoculars to obtain information from the placard on a container B. Collecting a sample of the material for laboratory analysis C. Asking the driver of the​ tractor-trailer truck involved in the incident D. Checking the material safety data sheet

Collecting a sample of the material for laboratory analysis

Which of the following MUST be done during patient​ transport? A. Completion of the patient care report B. Confirmation of your field impression C. Continuous monitoring of the patient D. Communication with medical direction

Continuous monitoring of the patient

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of an EMT at the scene of a hazardous materials​ emergency? A. Decontaminating injured victims B. Staying in the cold zone C. Rehabilitating the hazmat team D. Treating injured patients

Decontaminating injured victims

If a​ vehicle's air bag has not deployed in response to a​ collision, which of the following actions is​ recommended? A. Firmly strike the hub of the steering wheel with a mallet to deactivate the air bag before displacing the steering wheel. B. Disconnect the battery cables. C. Secure a long backboard across the steering wheel to deflect the air bag from the patient should it deploy. D. No action is​ required; only frontal impact will deploy air bags.

Disconnect the battery cables.

What is the process that removes the biological​ (etiological) contamination​ hazards, as it destroys microorganisms and their​ toxins? A. Emulsification B. Absorption C. Disinfection D. Dilution

Disinfection

Which is the MOST efficient means of disentangling passengers from a wrecked​ vehicle? A. Remove the steering wheel and column. B. Displace the seats. C. Remove the dash assembly. D. Displace the front end.

Displace the front end.

Which of the following is the GREATEST likely hazard at any highway accident​ scene? A. Distracted drivers in oncoming traffic B. Wreckage of vehicles C. Additional response vehicles D. Undeclared hazardous materials

Distracted drivers in oncoming traffic

You are an EMT on the scene of a​ mass-casualty incident in which there are 50 patients from a bus rollover. Incident Command has been established and​ EMS, law​ enforcement, and rescue sectors are established. You have just discovered that one of the bus passengers was carrying a suspicious package that is now leaking a white powdery substance. Which of the following entities should you contact about​ this? A. Medical direction B. Incident Commander C. Dispatch D. EMS sector officer

EMS sector officer

Hand signals or preprinted index cards may be effective means of communicating with patients with what type of injury from a​ blast? A. Brain B. Abdominal C. Ear D. Lung

Ear

Which of the following is a resource for specific actions to be taken by personnel dealing with a hazardous materials​ incident? A. Food and Drug Administration​ (FDA) toll-free hotline B. Medical dictionary C. Medical protocols D. Emergency Response Guidebook

Emergency Response Guidebook

Which of the following should immediately increase your suspicion of a hazardous materials​ incident? A. Emergency site at a factory B. Fire that starts on the lowest level of a residential structure C. An​ out-of-control wildfire in a wooded area D. Smoke coming from the driver area of a vehicle involved in a​ head-on collision

Emergency site at a factory

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when responding to a highway​ multiple-casualty incident? A. Minimizing traffic interruption B. Extricating patients immediately C. Reaching the patients at all costs D. Ensuring the safety of the responders and care of the injured

Ensuring the safety of the responders and care of the injured

Which of the following is the highest priority during​ extrication? A. Gaining access to the patient B. Ensuring your personal safety C. Maintaining the​ patient's airway D. Controlling major bleeding

Ensuring your personal safety

A nuclear device has exploded in the center of a city. You would LEAST to expect which type of harm in the immediate aftermath of this​ event? A. Radiological B. Mechanical C. Thermal D. Etiological

Etiological

Most state statutes allow an emergency vehicle operator to do which of the following on emergency​ calls? A. Exceed posted speed limits without endangering life and property. B. Pass a stopped school bus with its red flashers on. C. Expect freedom from liability in the event of any collision while on duty. D. Drive around lowered​ cross-arms at a railroad crossing.

Exceed posted speed limits without endangering life and property.

Which of the following is allowed of EMTs driving an emergency ambulance in MOST​ states? A. Proceeding through a red light without slowing B. Speeding through school zone C. Exceeding the posted speed limit D. Driving without due regard if the patient is critical

Exceeding the posted speed limit

Which of the following is a common physiological reaction to a nerve​ agent? A. Tachycardia B. Excessive salivation C. Hypertension D. Pupillary dilation

Excessive salivation

Dissemination of a weapon of mass destruction is particularly important to consider for all of the following CBRNE materials EXCEPT which​ one? A. ​Radiological/Nuclear B. Biological C. Explosive D. Chemical

Explosive

An event involving which of the following would create a high index of suspicion for a terrorist​ incident? A. Psychological effects B. Property damage C. Explosives D. Casualties

Explosives

The formula dose multiplied by time represents which of the​ following? A. Exposure B. Critical level C. Lethal dose D. Concentration

Exposure

Which of the following can you NOT do before disentanglement in the vehicle extrication​ process? A. Extricate the patient from the vehicle. B. Provide a primary assessment. C. Stabilize the vehicle. D. Size up the situation.

Extricate the patient from the vehicle.

Which of the following is the BEST choice for blocking a highway accident scene and protecting the scene from oncoming​ traffic? A. Ambulance B. Fire apparatus C. EMS helicopter D. Police vehicle

Fire apparatus

Which of the following is the BEST protection for an​ EMT's upper body during an extrication​ operation? A. Firefighting turnout coat B. Thick wool coat C. Nylon jacket with asbestos lining D. Thick fireproof blanket draped around the shoulders

Firefighting turnout coat

Johnny is an EMT with a local ambulance service. As part of his​ job, he is trained to recognize the existence of a potentially dangerous scene involving hazardous materials and know when to request a hazmat response.​ Johnny's level of hazardous materials training is at the​ ________ level. A. First Responder Awareness B. Hazardous Materials Technician C. First Responder Operations D. Hazardous Materials Specialist

First Responder Awareness

No minimum training hours are required for which level of​ training? A. First Responder Awareness B. Hazardous Materials Technician C. First Responder Operations D. Hazardous Materials Specialist

First Responder Awareness

Who is a secondary device intended to​ target? A. Personnel in infrastructure roles B. First responders C. Politicians D. Random passersby

First responders

Which of the following is required to be a part of the​ on-board, permanently mounted equipment in a basic life support​ ambulance? A. Fixed suction unit B. Backboard C. AED D. Sterile burn sheets

Fixed suction unit

What is the highest level of training for hazmat incidents under OSHA​ regulations? A. Hazardous Materials Director B. Material Safety Data Sheet Coordinator C. Hazardous Materials Specialist D. First Responder Operations

Hazardous Materials Specialist

To command activities at a hazardous materials incident​ site, the minimum level of training necessary​ is: A. Hazardous Materials Technician. B. First Responder Awareness. C. Hazardous Materials Specialist. D. First Responder Operations.

Hazardous Materials Specialist.

Eduardo is an EMT with a major metropolitan fire department. He is assigned to a station within an industrial complex. On the scene of a hazardous materials​ incident, Eduardo functions on a team where he plugs a leaking drum.​ Eduardo's level of hazardous materials training is at the​ ________ level. A. First Responder Operations B. Hazardous Materials Specialist C. First Responder Awareness D. Hazardous Materials Technician

Hazardous Materials Technician

Which of the following is represented by the blue area of the NFPA 704​ placard? A. Instability hazards B. Special hazards C. Health hazards D. Flammability hazards

Health Hazards

Which of the following features increases the appeal of an infectious agent for use in terrorist​ attacks? A. Low transmissibility B. High instability C. High infectivity D. Low virulence

High infectivity

Which of the following zones designates where the hazardous materials contamination is actually​ present? A. Warm zone B. Hot zone C. Cold zone D. Contamination zone

Hot Zone

Which of the following fluids is NOT checked by an​ EMT? A. Oil B. Hydraulic C. Transmission D. Coolant

Hydraulic

Which of these statements about the general nature of state laws that govern emergency ambulance operations is​ TRUE? A. If you do not exercise due regard for the safety of​ others, you are liable for the consequences. B. You must use red lights and siren any time you are responding to a call. C. Most states allow an exemption for reckless driving performed while responding to an emergency. D. In an​ emergency, saving the​ patient's life overrides all other considerations.

If you do not exercise due regard for the safety of​ others, you are liable for the consequences.

Which of the following is NOT a basic guideline for safe​ driving? A. Ignore GPS and other distractions. B. Minimize​ lights-and-siren "hot" responses. C. Come to a complete stop at intersections. D. Wear your seat belts.

Ignore GPS and other distractions.

Which of the following phases of extrication follows the other three​ phases? A. Stabilizing the vehicle B. Immobilizing and extricating the patient C. Gaining access to the patient D. Recognizing and managing hazards

Immobilizing and extricating the patient

It is characteristic of a disaster plan to be all of the following EXCEPT which​ one? A. Specific B. Impractical C. Predefined D. Efficient

Impractical

How will a patient with difficulty breathing but no possibility of a spinal injury likely prefer to be​ transported? A. Supine B. In Trendelenburg position C. In a lateral recumbent position D. In a seated position

In a seated position

The senior EMT on the first vehicle that arrived on a scene with multiple patients should assume which of the following roles until relieved by a senior​ official? A. Staging supervisor B. Triage sector supervisor C. Incident Commander of the scene D. Transport sector supervisor

Incident Commander of the scene

If an EMS unit is the first to respond to a​ multiple-casualty incident, which role does the most senior EMT​ assume? A. Section coordinator B. Ground chief C. Scene leader D. Incident commander

Incident commander

Which of the following is optional equipment on a basic life support​ ambulance? A. Disinfectant solution B. Infant cervical immobilization device C. Flashlights D. Lubricating jelly

Infant cervical immobilization device

The saline drops and bulb suction required to be carried on all basic life support ambulances are for which​ population? A. Adults B. Teens C. ​School-age children D. Infants

Infants

Anthrax cannot infect an individual through which of the following routes of​ exposure? A. Ingestion B. Injection C. Absorption D. Inhalation

Injection

In which type of incident would unified command be MOST​ appropriate? A. Involvement of different branches of public safety B. An incident that involves only​ fire/rescue C. An incident that involves only EMS D. More than three patients at a scene

Involvement of different branches of public safety

Which of the following is NOT a desirable characteristic of the rehabilitation sector of a hazardous materials​ incident? A. It is protected from weather elements. B. It is large enough to accommodate multiple rescue crews. C. It allows for rapid reentry to the emergency operation. D. It is located in the warm zone.

It is located in the warm zone.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of disposing of the doors and roof of a wrecked​ vehicle? A. Quick access to a critical patient can improve survivability and perhaps decrease morbidity. B. It makes removing patients from the vehicle less critical. C. It makes the interior of the vehicle accessible. D. It provides fresh air and helps cool off the patient when heat is a problem.

It makes removing patients from the vehicle less critical.

The characteristics of a rehab area include all of the following EXCEPT which​ one? A. Located in the cold zone B. Free from exhaust fumes C. Easily accessible to EMS units D. Large enough to accommodate a single crew

Large enough to accommodate a single crew

Who is responsible for perimeter control at a terrorism​ incident? A. EMS personnel B. Law enforcement personnel C. FEMA personnel D. Fire department personnel

Law enforcement personnel

Which of the following provides the BEST outer protection for the​ EMT's hands during a vehicle rescue​ operation? A. ​Elbow-length chemical-proof gloves B. Fabric work gloves with​ non-slip palms C. ​Double-thickness latex gloves D. Leather gloves

Leather gloves

Which of the following is MOST important at a terrorism​ incident? A. Organizational functional continuity B. Protection of property C. Life safety D. Incident stabilization

Life safety

Which of the following disinfectants or procedures would be appropriate for cleaning and killing germs on ambulance floors and​ walls? A. High level B. Sterilization C. Low level D. Intermediate level

Low level

If your crew is the first to arrive on the scene of a major​ MCI, what will be a major aspect of your scene​ size-up? A. Prevent uncoordinated or undirected activity at the scene. B. Control​ on-scene communication as help arrives. C. Make an initial scene report to the communications center. D. Make a sweep to determine what needs must be met.

Make a sweep to determine what needs must be met.

What is the MOST likely reason a garden center could become the site of a hazardous materials​ incident? A. Many people work there. B. Many plants are sold there. C. Many​ fertilizers, pesticides, and other chemicals are sold there. D. Many people shop there.

Many​ fertilizers, pesticides, and other chemicals are sold there.

Which of the following ambulance types is built for rugged durability and large​ storage? A. Type III B. Light duty C. Medium duty D. Type I

Medium duty

Which of the following is a type of ambulance identified by the U.S. Department of​ Transportation? A. BLS B. Type A C. ALS D. Medium duty

Medium duty

Which of the following statements is TRUE about​ self-protection at a radiological​ event? A. Injury from radiation is​ immediate, and duration is not a factor. B. Every person reacts differently to​ radiation, and duration of exposure is not a factor. C. Minimizing time in the affected area will reduce the potential for injury. D. Longer exposure increases the​ body's defense mechanisms.

Minimizing time in the affected area will reduce the potential for injury.

Which of the following is the MOST common type of​ multiple-casualty incident that EMS providers will respond​ to? A. Structure fires B. Motor vehicle collisions C. Hazardous materials incidents D. Outbreaks of influenza

Motor vehicle collisions

Which warning placard is​ diamond-shaped and divided into four smaller​ diamonds? A. UN Globally Harmonized System B. NFPA 704 System C. Material data safety sheet​ (MSDS) D. DOT hazard label

NFPA 704 System

Which of the following is NOT used to stabilize a vehicle involved in a​ collision? A. Strut B. Step chock C. Nader pin D. Cribbing

Nader pin

Which of the following BEST describes the required contents of shipping papers associated with hazardous​ materials? A. Health​ hazards, flammability​ hazards, explosion​ hazards, and special hazards B. Name of the​ substance, quantity,​ origin, and destination C. The levels of​ toxicity, flammability, and reactivity D. Route of​ exposure, signs and​ symptoms, classification, and chemical structure

Name of the​ substance, quantity,​ origin, and destination

If it is necessary to disconnect a​ car's battery, which of the following cables should be cut or removed​ FIRST? A. Red B. Negative C. Neutral D. Positive

Negative

Which of the following patients is NOT a candidate for medical helicopter transportation from a crash scene to a trauma​ center? A. Penetrating injury to the chest B. Abdominal trauma with signs of shock C. Head injury with altered mental status D. Nonhypothermic cardiac arrest

Nonhypothermic cardiac arrest

Which of the following is NOT an OTTO​ sign? A. Occupancy or location B. Type of event C. Operational use D. Timing of the event

Operational use

Which of the following is the BEST description of a safety data sheet​ (SDS)? A. A resource book published by the U.S. Department of Transportation for referencing hazardous materials B. Papers kept on site with hazardous chemicals C. A placard that must be attached to a fixed container of hazardous materials D. Papers that must accompany hazardous materials during transport

Papers kept on site with hazardous chemicals

Which of the following is an appropriate infection control measure to be taken at the completion of a​ call? A. Placing soiled linens in an approved dirty linen bag or hamper B. Placing​ blood-saturated dressings and disposable items in regular hospital waste containers C. Using gel hand sanitizer to clean your hands D. Using​ high-level disinfectant for all ambulances surfaces

Placing soiled linens in an approved dirty linen bag or hamper

Which of the following statements about decisions made by the transportation unit at an MCI is​ TRUE? A. Each ambulance should radio the receiving hospital with a detailed patient report. B. Priority 1 patients should be transported​ first, immediately after treatment. C. ​High-priority patients should all be transported to the same hospital. D. Ambulatory patients may be sent to a hospital on a bus without EMS personnel.

Priority 1 patients should be transported​ first, immediately after treatment.

Using START triage​ guidelines, a patient on the scene of a​ mass-causality incident who is alert with respirations less than 30 a minute and has a capillary refill time of less than 2 seconds is deemed a​ ________ patient. A. Priority 1 B. Priority 2 C. Priority 3 D. Priority 0

Priority 3

With START​ triage, when you arrive on the​ scene, you ask all the patients who can walk to move to one area. These patients are categorized​ as: A. Priority 3 walking wounded. B. Priority 4 walking wounded. C. yellow tagged. D. red tagged.

Priority 3 walking wounded.

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage a​ 16-year-old female patient with respirations​ 38, pulse​ 132, and altered mental status with cool clammy skin using START triage criteria. A. Priority​ 3, green tag B. Priority​ 4, black tag C. Priority​ 1, red tag D. Priority​ 2, yellow tag

Priority​ 1, red tag

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Using START triage​ criteria, triage a​ 13-year-old female with the following vital​ signs: respirations​ 8, pulse​ 124, and nonresponsive with blood from the ears and nose. A. Priority​ 4, black tag B. Priority​ 2, yellow tag C. Priority​ 3, green tag D. Priority​ 1, red tag

Priority​ 1, red tag

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Using START triage​ criteria, triage a​ 38-year-old female patient with the following vital​ signs: respirations​ 0, pulse​ 0, and nonresponsive. A. Priority​ 4, black tag B. Priority​ 2, yellow tag C. Priority​ 3, green tag D. Priority​ 1, red tag

Priority​ 4, black tag

Which of the following has the HIGHEST priority at a hazardous materials​ incident? A. Decontaminating​ clothing, equipment, and the vehicle B. Immediately removing patients from a hazardous area C. Providing patient care D. Protecting the safety of all rescuers and patients

Protecting the safety of all rescuers and patients

While staffing an emergency services dispatch​ center, an Emergency Medical Dispatcher​ (EMD) receives a call from someone who is very upset and screaming that her friend was just shot. Which of the following would the EMD need to do in this​ situation? A. Notify the​ victim's family of the incident. B. Provide prearrival medical instructions to the caller. C. Determine the location of the shooter. D. Provide the caller with information about local hospitals.

Provide prearrival medical instructions to the caller.

Which of the following actions should you take immediately AFTER gaining access to a patient in a​ vehicle? A. Perform a focused history. B. Stabilize the vehicle. C. Provide the primary assessment. D. Request helicopter EMS.

Provide the primary assessment.

Which of the following activities should NOT occur during the​ "sizing up the​ situation" phase of vehicle​ extrication? A. Providing airway management B. Determining the need for additional resources C. Determining the mechanism of injury D. Determining the extent of the​ patient's entrapment

Providing airway management

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Emergency Medical​ Dispatcher? A. Coordinating with other public safety agencies B. Providing medical direction to the responding units C. Prioritizing calls that come in D. Providing emergency instructions to the caller

Providing medical direction to the responding units

Radioactive material exposure relates most strongly to which letter of​ CBRNE? A. C B. B C. R D. E

R

CBRNE​ includes: A. radiological agents. B. ​blunt-force weapons. C. knives and other edged weapons. D. firearms.

Radiological agents

What role does time play in reducing exposure to harm from a terrorist​ incident? A. Prioritizing time spent on patients B. Reducing time on scene C. Arriving as early as possible D. Leaving as late as possible

Reducing time on scene

Which of the following is NOT the role of the first arriving EMT at the scene of a possible hazardous materials​ emergency? A. Request special resources to respond. B. Establish a safe zone. C. Recognize a hazardous materials emergency. D. Rescue any victims still in the area of the spill.

Rescue any victims still in the area of the spill.

Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment​ (START) is a system that relies on some simple commands and what three physiologic​ parameters? A. ​Respiration, pain, and mental status B. ​Respiration, sensory, and motor status C. ​Respiration, pulse, and mental status D. ​Circulation, sensory, and motor status

Respiration, pulse, and mental status

Concerning the threat of nuclear devices used in terrorist​ attacks, which of the following is MOST likely to be used in such an​ attack? A. Improvised nuclear weapon B. Radiological dispersal device C. Military nuclear device D. Sabotage of facilities for nuclear research

Sabotage of facilities for nuclear research

What source will provide first aid information about hazardous materials for employees at a work​ site? A. Placard B. Bill of lading C. Shipping manifest D. Safety data sheets

Safety data sheets

Which of the following is the BEST type of eye protection for EMS workers at an accident scene during​ extrication? A. Prescription glasses B. Hinged plastic helmet shield C. Safety goggles with a soft vinyl frame D. Regular sunglasses

Safety goggles with a soft vinyl frame

Which of the following types of terrorist targets should be anticipated in planning for weapons of mass destruction​ incidents? A. Personal vehicles B. Individual homes C. Schools D. Rural areas

Schools

Which of the following is the correct order of operations when transferring a stable patient from his or her house to the​ ambulance? A. Select the proper​ patient-carrying device, package the patient for​ transport, move the patient to the​ ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance. B. Package the patient for​ transport, select the proper​ patient-carrying device, move the patient to the​ ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance. C. Package the patient for​ transport, move the patient to the​ ambulance, select the proper​ patient-carrying device, and load the patient into the ambulance. D. Select the proper​ patient-carrying device, move the patient to the​ ambulance, package the patient for​ transport, and load the patient into the ambulance.

Select the proper​ patient-carrying device, package the patient for​ transport, move the patient to the​ ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance.

Which of the following is a good choice for preventing further injury to a patient from contact with tools and debris during auto​ extrication? A. Short or long spine board B. Wool blanket C. Tarpaulin D. Cotton sheet

Short or long spine board

When you are able to reach a patient by rolling down a window or opening a​ door, it is known as what type of​ access? A. Continual B. Easy C. Complex D. Simple

Simple

Which of the following sector officers or supervisors is responsible in​ large-scale incidents for the provision of restrooms and meals and rotation of​ crews? A. Supply B. Command C. Staging D. Transportation

Staging

You have arrived at the scene of a vehicle collision in which there are utility wires down around the vehicle. The three occupants appear dazed and other responding units have not yet arrived. Which of the following is your BEST course of​ action? A. Cool the wires with large amounts of water to prevent a fire from starting. B. Stay at a distance and caution the occupants to stay inside the vehicle. C. Push the wires out of the way with a long​ pry-bar in order to access the patients. D. Encourage the occupants to exit by jumping free of the vehicle before touching the ground.

Stay at a distance and caution the occupants to stay inside the vehicle.

Which of the following is MOST likely to indicate the presence of released hazardous​ material? A. Sudden irritation of the eyes B. Fire C. Black smoke D. An unbreathing patient

Sudden irritation of the eyes

On arrival at a vehicle​ collision, you observe a small fire in the engine compartment. A bystander is attempting to smother the fire with a jacket as you approach with an​ A-B-C extinguisher from your ambulance. Which of the following is the BEST method of extinguishing the​ fire? A. Aim the nozzle to the side of the fire​ and, with a sweeping​ motion, push the fire at its base. B. Close the hood to contain the fire within the engine compartment. C. Sweep the extinguisher across the base of the fire and use short bursts until the fire is out. D. Sweep the nozzle of the extinguisher left and right using short bursts until you are out of extinguishing agent.

Sweep the extinguisher across the base of the fire and use short bursts until the fire is out.

Which of the following describes vehicle glass that is designed to break into​ small, rounded pieces rather than shattering into sharp​ fragments? A. Alloy glass B. Tempered glass C. Plexiglas D. Leaded glass

Tempered glass

Which of the following BEST defines domestic​ terrorism? A. Acts of violence perpetrated by American citizens against the government of another country B. Terrorism directed against​ one's own population or government without foreign influence C. Politically motivated act of violence that occurs within the United States D. Interpersonal violence between family members

Terrorism directed against​ one's own population or government without foreign influence

Which of the following is the danger of a loaded bumper on a crashed vehicle at the scene of an​ accident? A. The bumper might hide serious structural problems with the vehicle. B. The bumper might suddenly spring out and strike anyone standing in front of it. C. The bumper might collapse and fall to endanger anyone beneath it. D. The bumper might have heated up in the collision and should not be touched.

The bumper might suddenly spring out and strike anyone standing in front of it.

In which situation involving a vehicle fire would you let the fire​ burn? A. The fire is under the dash. B. The fire is in the engine compartment with the hood closed tight. C. The fire is in the engine compartment with the hood open to the safety latch. D. The fire is in the engine compartment with the hood fully open.

The fire is in the engine compartment with the hood closed tight.

Regarding ambulance warning​ devices, which of the following statements is​ FALSE? A. The ambulance should be easily seen from 360 degrees. B. ​Four-way flashers should not be used as emergency lights. C. The large lights on the outermost corners of the ambulance box should blink alternately. D. In most​ states, it is illegal to drive at night with only one headlight.

The large lights on the outermost corners of the ambulance box should blink alternately.

What is a risk of using emergency lights at night on an accident​ scene? A. The lights may frighten injured victims. B. The lights prevent EMS helicopters from landing. C. The lights may slow approaching traffic. D. The lights may temporarily blind drivers.

The lights may temporarily blind drivers.

Which of the following statements regarding safety at highway incidents is generally​ TRUE? A. The fewer people and vehicles are​ gathered, the less the emergency. B. The more people and vehicles are​ gathered, the faster the emergency response. C. The fewer people and vehicles are​ gathered, the greater the responsibility. D. The more people and vehicles are​ gathered, the greater the risk.

The more people and vehicles are​ gathered, the greater the risk.

Which of the following situations may warrant the use of helicopter transport from the scene to a medical​ facility? A. The distance to the medical facility is 15 minutes away. B. The patient is located in a remote area. C. The patient is in cardiac arrest. D. The patient is in stable condition.

The patient is located in a remote area.

Which of the following statements about passing other vehicles in a​ no-passing zone on an emergency call is​ TRUE? A. Ignore precautions against danger to property. B. Never pass a school bus under any circumstances. C. Signaling is unnecessary. D. The way must be clear.

The way must be clear.

Which of the following statements about crossovers on highways is​ TRUE? A. They can be dangerous. B. They are the safest way to turn around. C. They require a police escort. D. Ambulances are not permitted to use them.

They can be dangerous.

Why do emergency response planners prefer the term​ "multiple devices" to​ "secondary devices"? A. Terrorist incidents always involve more than two devices. B. Thinking in terms of multiple devices promotes danger awareness. C. Terrorists use many different types of​ devices, not just two. D. There are five CBRNE​ agents, not just two.

Thinking in terms of multiple devices promotes danger awareness.

Your ambulance is the first emergency vehicle to arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle collision. How should you position your​ ambulance? A. Immediately behind the vehicle where your patients​ are, to block the view of people driving by B. Ahead of the collision site to avoid blocking traffic C. In the median or off the side of the road D. To create a physical barrier between traffic and the scene

To create a physical barrier between traffic and the scene

Which of the following statements BEST describes the purpose of​ triage? A. To treat all serious illnesses and injuries as they are discovered B. To prioritize patients in an MCI C. To treat the​ youngest, healthiest patients first D. To find and treat all of one​ patient's injuries before moving on to the next patient

To prioritize patients in an MCI

What is the purpose of secondary​ triage? A. To conduct a comprehensive examination of all patients B. To perform START triage C. To assess patients who were not immediately found in the initial response D. To reevaluate each​ patient's priority for treatment and transport

To reevaluate each​ patient's priority for treatment and transport

Which of the following is NOT a phase of the extrication​ process? A. Disentanglement B. Transfer of care C. Terminating the rescue D. Gaining access to the patient

Transfer of care

Who is the person that is in charge of tracking the​ patient's final​ destination? A. Treatment officer B. Staging supervisor C. Incident Commander D. Transportation supervisor

Transportation Supervisor

When transporting patients from the scene of a​ mass-casualty incident, who should be responsible for contacting the receiving​ hospital? A. Incident commander B. Transporting EMT C. Triage supervisor D. Transportation supervisor

Transportation supervisor

What should be done with an EMT who has become emotionally incapacitated at an​ MCI? A. Direct the EMT to treat only Priority 3 patients. B. Talk to the EMT with calm empathy until he feels better enough to return to duty. C. Treat the EMT as a patient and remove him to a place of rest. D. Review the​ EMT's performance to identify what went wrong.

Treat the EMT as a patient and remove him to a place of rest.

Which of the following methods should the EMT use first to attempt to access a patient in a vehicle while awaiting arrival of a rescue​ crew? A. Use a​ spring-loaded punch to break the rear window. B. Try all of the​ vehicle's doors to see if they will open. C. Use a heavy tool to break the window closest to the patient. D. Use a​ pry-bar to release the Nader pin in the door latch.

Try all of the​ vehicle's doors to see if they will open.

You are on the scene of a vehicle collision involving a downed power line. You are walking in an area you feel is a safe distance from the line and begin to feel a tingling sensation in your feet. Which of the following would be a proper method of ensuring your safety while exiting the​ area? A. Turn 180 degrees from the direction you are walking and quickly run to a safe location. B. Turn 180 degrees from the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area. C. Turn 90 degrees from the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area. D. Turn 90 degrees from the direction you are walking and hop to a safe place on one foot.

Turn 180 degrees from the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area.

Which of the following is a type of ambulance identified by the U.S. Department of​ Transportation? A. ​Modu-van B. Type I C. Rescue squad D. Type A

Type I

The U.S. Department of Transportation has issued specifications for all of the following types of ambulances EXCEPT​: A. Type III. B. Type IV. C. Type II. D. Type I.

Type IV.

Which of the following personal protective items must be used by EMS personnel caring for patients in a hazardous materials​ emergency? A. Structural firefighting gear B. HEPA mask C. Chemical permeable gloves D. Tyvek or other chemical impermeable coveralls

Tyvek or other chemical impermeable coveralls

Which of the following is a symbolic​ target? A. U.S. Capitol B. School C. Power plant D. Park

U.S. Capitol

An ambulance is typically classified according​ to: A. durability. B. weight. C. speed. D. US DOT specifications.

US DOT specifications.

What is the best method of determining whether your​ self-protection measures against radiation are appropriate and​ effective? A. Palpating for signs of radiation B. Looking for signs of radiation C. Listening for signs of radiation D. Use of radiological detection equipment

Use of radiological detection equipment

Which agents cause chemical changes in the cells of exposed tissues almost immediately upon​ contact? A. Choking B. Vesicating C. Riot control D. Nerve

Vesicating

Which agents cause chemical changes in the cells of exposed tissues almost immediately upon​ contact? A. Vesicating B. Choking C. Riot control D. Nerve

Vesicating

You have transported a stable patient with complaints of having abdominal pain for the last three weeks to the hospital. On​ arrival, you notice the emergency department is very busy and there are no empty beds to be found. You have attempted to get the attention of a hospital staff member to transfer the​ patient, but all are currently helping other patients. Your partner tells you to take the patient to the waiting room and leave him because the dispatcher of your service is holding several serious calls. What should you​ do? A. Demand immediate attention for your patient. B. Leave the patient in the waiting room and respond to the next call. C. Wait until you can transfer your patient to the emergency department staff. D. Contact medical direction for orders.

Wait until you can transfer your patient to the emergency department staff.

A decontamination corridor would be established in​ the: A. hot zone. B. cold zone. C. dead zone. D. warm zone.

Warm Zone

Where is the decon corridor located where​ patients, personnel, and equipment are​ decontaminated? A. Warm zone B. Hot zone C. Cool zone D. Cold zone

Warm zone

When answering a call for​ help, an Emergency Medical Dispatcher will ask all of the following questions EXCEPT which​ one? A. What is your insurance​ provider? B. What is your​ call-back number? C. What is your​ location? D. ​What's the​ problem?

What is your insurance​ provider?

Which of the following is the most common device used for loading the patient into the​ ambulance? A. Folding backboard B. Stokes basket C. Wheeled ambulance stretcher D. Scoop stretcher

Wheeled ambulance stretcher

If you do not have specialized training in hazardous​ materials, which of the following statements is​ TRUE? A. You understand hazardous materials. B. You may work at a scene involving hazardous materials. C. You are a layperson when it comes to hazardous materials. D. You may render a scene involving hazardous materials safe.

You are a layperson when it comes to hazardous materials.

Which of the following statements about primary triage when resources are limited is​ TRUE? A. You should open a​ patient's airway and control severe bleeding. B. It is inappropriate for EMTs to assign​ "walking wounded" patients to assist more seriously injured patients. C. No interventions are performed during primary triage. D. CPR is begun on patients without breathing and a pulse if there are no injuries that are obviously incompatible with life.

You should open a​ patient's airway and control severe bleeding.

Victims at an unexplained mass casualty incident report seeing an odd mist coming from the​ building's ventilation system. You should​ suspect: A. a chemical incident. B. a nuclear incident. C. a radiological incident. D. an explosive incident.

a chemical incident.

Which of the following examples demonstrates the BEST blocking arrangement for the site of a highway​ collision? A. An ambulance blocks​ one-and-a-half lanes upstream of a highway collision. B. A fire apparatus blocks two lanes downstream of a highway collision. C. A fire apparatus blocks two lanes upstream of a highway collision. D. Two ambulances block​ one-and-a-half lanes each downstream and upstream of a highway collision.

a fire apparatus blocks two lanes upstream of a highway collision

Disaster plans are a predefined set of instructions that should be written to address the events that are conceivable​ for: A. the contiguous United States. B. the North American continent. C. the United States including Alaska and Hawaii. D. a particular location.

a particular location.

Disregarding certain traffic laws while responding to an emergency​ is: A. a privilege granted under law. B. against the law. C. permitted only when a critical patient is on board. D. legal only for municipal employees.

a privilege granted under law.

In addition to providing​ protection, an​ EMT's helmet should provide all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. the Star of Life on each side. B. reflective stripes and lettering. C. an indicator of the level of the​ EMT's training. D. a rear brim.

a rear brim

After you clean up​ blood, vomitus, and other body fluids that have soiled the floor of your​ ambulance, you wipe down any equipment that has been splashed. Place disposable towels you used to clean up blood or body fluids directly​ in: A. a red bag. B. a clear plastic bag marked​ "disposables." C. a nearby wastebasket. D. any biohazard container nearby.

a red bag

A command organization in which a single agency controls all resources and operations​ is: A. a single incident command. B. a unified command. C. an Incident Command System. D. an Incident Command.

a single incident command

A vehicle involved in a collision that is at rest on four inflated tires​ represents: A. no stabilization risk if the parking brake is set. B. no stabilization risk. C. a stabilization risk. D. no stabilization risk if it is placed in park with the engine off.

a stabilization risk.

Who should receive psychological first​ aid? A. An injured patient screaming for help B. A patient among the walking wounded who is applying pressure to another​ patient's wound C. A stable patient who has become overwhelmed by the horror of the scene D. A patient moving to a collection point for Priority 3 patients

a stable patient who has become overwhelmed by the horror of the scene

You are delivering a stable patient to the emergency department. Hospital personnel are​ busy, and you have a call holding. You transfer the patient to a hospital bed and hand the patient a copy of the patient care report. This is an example​ of: A. providing a written report. B. patient advocacy. C. transfer of care. D. abandonment.

abandonment

Failure to formally transfer the patient to medical staff in the emergency department could place the EMT in danger of being held liable​ for: A. unlawful consent. B. false imprisonment. C. abandonment. D. patient endangerment.

abandonment.

Someone who has more hair than average on his body is at a higher risk than someone with less hair to be exposed to a toxin by which of the following​ routes? A. Absorption B. Ingestion C. Injection D. Inhalation

absorption

You have transported a patient to the emergency department and are in the process of cleaning the ambulance while your partner is completing all required paperwork. At what point is the final phase of an ambulance call​ complete? A. As soon as you get back to the station and notify your dispatch center you are in quarters B. As soon as you put the stretcher back in the ambulance with a clean sheet and you notify your dispatch center you are available C. As soon as your partner completes the patient care report and you are restocking the supplies used during the call D. After your partner completes all required paperwork and you have the ambulance completely cleaned and restocked

after your partner completes all required paperwork and you have the ambulance completely cleaned and restocked

The more volatile a chemical agent​ is, the greater​ the: A. airborne concentration that will be released. B. thermal and mechanical harm. C. time it will remain on a surface area. D. explosive potential.

airborne concentration that will be released

Stabilizing a vehicle is unnecessary when the vehicle is on its roof​ with: A. the vehicle horizontal and resting entirely on the roof. B. the trunk lid in contact with the ground. C. all roof supports collapsed and the roof crushed against the​ vehicle's body. D. the front edge of the hood in contact with the ground.

all roof supports collapsed and the roof crushed against the vehicles body

Before removing any pressure​ caps, you​ should: A. chock the wheels. B. pull the ambulance from quarters. C. allow the engine to cool. D. turn on the engine.

allow the engine to cool.

When placing​ cribbing: A. kneel or squat as necessary. B. always squat so that you can move away quickly. C. kneel on both knees for stabilization. D. kneel on one knee only for stabilization with flexibility.

always shut so that you can move away quickly

EMTs should regard drivers in oncoming traffic​ as: A. a potential source of aid. B. an ongoing hazard. C. a nuisance. D. an unimportant distraction.

an ongoing hazard.

Hazardous material​ is: A. any material that is explosive or flammable. B. any material that poses an unreasonable risk to​ life, health, or property. C. any material that is poisonous if ingested. D. any material that is radioactive.

any material that poses an unreasonable risk to​ life, health, or property.

A​ multiple-casualty incident​ is: A. any medical or trauma incident that requires extensive rescue efforts. B. any trauma incident involving a patient with multisystem injuries. C. any trauma incident involving five or more critically injured patients. D. any medical or trauma incident involving multiple patients.

any medical or trauma incident involving multiple patients.

When transferring a patient to the​ ambulance, you​ must: A. protect the​ patient's cervical spine. B. use at least three rescuers. C. place the patient in the position of comfort. D. appropriately package the patient.

appropriately package the patient.

Prepare the prehospital care​ report: A. during transport. B. while waiting to transfer a patient to hospital staff. C. on the way to the scene of a call. D. as soon as you are free from​ patient-care activities.

as soon as you are free from​ patient-care activities.

To decide whether a wrecked vehicle is​ stable, you​ should: A. tap firmly on every corner of the vehicle. B. visually inspect the vehicle from all sides. C. try to rock the vehicle back and forth from either side. D. assume that any wrecked vehicle with patients requiring extraction is unstable.

assume that any wrecked vehicle with patients requiring extraction is unstable.

An example of psychological first aid for a patient at an MCI​ is: A. assuring the patient that everything he feels is normal and that responders are doing everything they can. B. telling the patient that despite how it​ looks, everyone at the scene will be okay. C. directing the patient to begin providing care to less critical patients. D. asking the patient to consider the possibility he is in denial.

assuring the patient that everything he feels is normal and that responders are doing everything they can.

A hazardous material incident would be LEAST likely to take​ place: A. at a school. B. in a factory C. along a railroad. D. on the highway.

at a school.

Lock a wheeled stretcher to prevent movement in the​ ambulance: A. only in an emergency. B. at the head. C. at the foot. D. at both ends.

at both ends.

Signs of blast lung usually​ present: A. days after the blast. B. at the time of primary assessment or triage. C. at the time of secondary assessment or triage. D. hours after the blast.

at the time of primary assessment or triage.

Identification of chemical hazards starts​ with: A. identification of hazardous materials placards. B. awareness and knowledge of what exists in the community. C. being alerted to the presence of hazardous materials by dispatch. D. seeing fumes in the air at the incident scene.

awareness and knowledge of what exists in the community.

​"Blast lung" is a consequence​ of: A. blunt trauma. B. a​ high-energy overpressurization wave. C. penetrating shrapnel injuries. D. thermal burns.

a​ high-energy overpressurization wave.

Proper shielding for a chemical incident​ includes: A. a​ self-contained breathing apparatus. B. a​ lead-lined structure. C. a HEPA mask. D. ​fire-protection clothing.

a​ self-contained breathing apparatus.

An EMS response to a highway accident scene​ should: A. have at least twice the necessary vehicles and manpower required in order to respond to escalating situations. B. involve enough vehicles to completely block the highway in both directions. C. be limited to only the vehicles and manpower required to accomplish the mission. D. involve enough vehicles and personnel to block half the​ highway, direct​ traffic, and treat patients.

be limited to only the vehicles and manpower required to accomplish the mission.

Due to limited space and the unusual position of the​ accident, it is not possible to stage on the same side of the highway as a crashed vehicle with two patients not yet extricated from the wreckage. Traffic on the highway has not yet been blocked off. In this​ situation, it is BEST​ to: A. block traffic on the highway as soon as possible. B. cross the highway on foot but wait to bring patients back across the highway until it is blocked off. C. cross the highway on foot and bring the patients back across the highway to the staging area. D. cross the highway on foot to treat the patients for air evacuation.

block traffic on the highway as soon as possible.

You must use a window to gain access to the occupants of a crashed vehicle. There are two​ occupants: the driver and a person sitting in the front passenger seat. Which of the following methods is​ BEST? A. Break the rear window with a​ spring-loaded center punch. B. Break the window nearest to the driver with a flathead ax. C. Break any window with any heavy implement at hand. D. Break the window nearest to the driver with a​ Glas-Master saw.

break the rear window with a spring loaded center punch

A zoonotic​ disease: A. can only be spread through close contact. B. affects humans only. C. can cross from animals to humans. D. affects animals only.

can cross from animals to humans.

To avoid or minimize your exposure to a harmful​ incident, you would​ NOT: A. carefully investigate the scene to see if you can determine the specific materials involved. B. maximize the efficiency of your time management while on scene. C. attempt at all times to maximize your distance from any perceptible hazards. D. protect yourself from known hazards by using the appropriate personal protective equipment.

carefully investigate the scene to see if you can determine the specific materials involved.

CBRNE agents​ include: A. condemned agents. B. clandestine agents. C. commercial agents. D. chemical agents.

chemical agents.

Many radiological substances are​ also: A. chemical hazards. B. psychological hazards. C. thermal hazards. D. mechanical hazards.

chemical hazards.

Why would a chemical incident create thermal​ harm? A. a chemical reaction weakens the elements of a structure. B. A chemical reaction depletes oxygen. C. A chemical reaction produces a corrosive effect. D. A chemical reaction produces heat.

chemical reaction priduces heat

Organization for a smaller MCI would​ involve: A. site operations. B. aides to the triage supervisor. C. command and a triage supervisor. D. treatment and transportation supervisors.

command and a triage supervisor

Which of the following is a principle of effective Incident​ Command? A. ​Police, fire, and EMS must establish separate command locations. B. The command location must not be revealed to anyone on the scene. C. Command is most effective when one person is responsible for not more than 6 other people. D. Anyone on the scene should report directly to Incident Command.

command is most effective when one person is responsible for not more than 6 people

All patients leaving the site of a hazardous materials incident should be​ considered: A. cleared for transport. B. low priority. C. contaminated. D. stable.

contaminated

Which of the following chemical agents prohibits the use of oxygen in the​ cells? A. Nerve agents B. Choking agents C. Cyanides D. Blister agents

cyanides

When extrication will involve cutting the roof off a​ vehicle, stabilization of the vehicle should​ include: A. deflating all tires by pulling the valve stems. B. placing chocks on both sides of at least two wheels. C. placing wheel chocks on both sides of all wheels. D. deflating all tires by slashing them.

deflating all tired by pulling the valve stems

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of decontamination from hazardous​ materials? A. Emulsifying B. Disinfecting C. Disposing D. Deodorizing

deodorizing

During vehicle​ extrications, what is the CORRECT order of​ operations? A. Disentangling patients before sizing up the situation B. Disentangling patients before immobilizing and extricating them C. Disentangling patients before preparing for rescues D. Disentangling patients before stabilizing the vehicles

disentangling patents before immobilizing and extracting them

Good hand protection for vehicle extrication is BEST achieved​ by: A. nonlatex examination gloves. B. fabric garden gloves. C. disposable vinyl or other synthetic gloves underneath either​ firefighter's gloves or leather gloves. D. work gloves.

disposable vinyl or other synthetic gloves underneath either​ firefighter's gloves or leather gloves.

Which of the following actions may need to be taken by the EMT when treating and transporting a patient who was exposed​ to, and contaminated​ by, a hazardous​ material? A. Wear heavy cloth gloves. B. Dispose of patient care equipment such as​ blood-pressure cuffs and backboards. C. Wear a​ gown, mask, and goggles to prevent secondary contamination. D. Place towels on the floor of the ambulance to soak up contaminated runoff water.

dispose of patient care equipment such as bp cuffs and backboards

As it pertains to hazardous​ materials, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration requires employers​ to: A. document the appropriate level of training for each employee. B. train employees to handle any type of hazardous materials incident. C. have knowledge of all hazardous materials on the premises. D. ensure there is at least one person​ on-site trained at the technician level.

document the appropriate level of training for each employee

One reason that police escorts of ambulances driving at emergency status are typically discouraged is​ because: A. ambulances do not move as fast as police cruisers. B. drivers who pull over for the escort often pull back into traffic in front of the ambulance. C. there is no guarantee that the police officer knows where the call is located. D. police officers are not accustomed to driving an ambulance.

drivers who pull over for the escort often pull back into traffic in front of the ambulance.

You are directed to establish a rehab area at a hazmat incident. You know that this area must​ be: A. at least a quarter of a mile from the hot zone. B. away from the media and the public. C. easily accessible to EMS units. D. established within the warm zone.

early accessible to EMS units

After you have moved an unconscious patient with an airway adjunct in place to the transport​ position, you​ should: A. ensure the patient has adequate air exchange. B. take steps to immobilize the patient. C. remove the adjunct. D. assess the patient for life threats.

ensure the patient has adequate air exchange

Which part of an​ EMT's typical duties begins by obtaining a report from the​ off-going shift regarding any potential problems with the ambulance and​ equipment? A. Terminating the call B. Receiving and responding to a call C. Transferring the patient to the ambulance D. Ensuring ambulance readiness for service

ensuring ambulance readiness for service

You are called to a local hardware store for a male patient complaining of difficulty breathing. As you pull into the parking​ lot, you notice several people in front of the building coughing and in obvious distress. What would be the BEST course of action at this​ point? A. Evaluate the scene further for indications of a hazardous environment and request a hazardous materials response. B. Locate the patient for whom you were requested and begin treatment while another ambulance is en route for the other patients. C. Request a hazardous materials incident response and begin treating all patients displaying respiratory difficulties. D. Move the people with respiratory difficulties to a distant corner of the parking lot and set up a treatment sector.

evaluate the scene further for indications of a hazardous environment and request a hazardous materials response

Which of the following should be done FIRST if you are the first arriving unit to a suspected weapons of mass destruction​ incident? A. Evaluating the incident area B. Determining the exact agent or device involved C. Triaging all patients D. Decontaminating patients

evaluating the incident area

Soraya is an EMT who volunteers for a local fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials​ incident, she helps prevent the incident from becoming larger and ensures bystanders remain safe.​ Soraya's level of hazardous materials training is at the​ ________ level. A. First Responder Awareness B. First Responder Operations C. Hazardous Materials Technician D. Hazardous Materials Specialist

first responder operations

Which of the following hazmat training levels requires at least eight hours of​ training? A. Hazardous Materials Technician B. Hazardous Materials Specialist C. First Responder Awareness D. First Responder Operations

first responder operations

Which of the following methods for exposing a population to a CNBECBRNE material is LEAST likely for terrorists to​ use? A. Fleas carrying bubonic plague B. Spores carried on wind currents C. Dirty bombs D. Contaminated water supplies

fleas carrying bubonic plague

Biological doses are measured​ in: A. parts per million. B. fractions of micrograms per kilogram of body weight. C. pounds per square inch. D. milligrams per kilogram of body weight.

fractions of micrograms per kilogram of body weight.

If a nuclear device has been detonated near your​ area, and you are considering the type of protective shielding you might​ need, you would use lead shielding for protection against which type of​ radiation? A. Alpha B. Delta C. Beta D. Gamma

gamma

For an ingested weapon to be​ effective, it​ would: A. have a very high pH level. B. require a very alkaline environment. C. need to deliver a lethal dose within two hours. D. have to survive in an acidic environment.

have to survive in an acidic environment.

Andrea is an EMS supervisor with a combined​ EMS/Fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials​ incident, she uses her knowledge of hazardous materials to support the activities of other responders and manage the scene.​ Andrea's level of hazardous materials training is at the​ ________ level. A. First Responder Operations B. Hazardous Materials Specialist C. First Responder Awareness D. Hazardous Materials Technician

hazardous materials specialist

When you call an emergency response hotline regarding hazardous​ materials, which information is LEAST​ relevant? A. How long ago you believe the incident might have begun B. Nature and location of the problem C. Injuries and exposures D. Estimate of the quantity of material transported and released

how long ago you believe the incident might have begun

Which of the following should NOT be considered during the scene​ size-up of a hazardous materials​ emergency? A. Identification of the substance B. The properties and potential dangers of the substance C. How quickly the materials may be cleaned up D. Potential for spread of the substance

how quickly the materials may be cleaned up

The Emergency Response Guidebook can BEST help you​ determine: A. how to neutralize radiological threats. B. how to identify terrorists. C. how to survive following a nuclear blast. D. how to avoid contact with hazardous material.

how to avoid contact with hazardous material

Which of the following is NOT a consideration for an EMT when responding to a terrorist​ incident? A. Crime scene considerations B. Identification of the group or groups responsible C. Presence of mass casualties D. Presence of booby traps such as secondary explosive devices

identification of group

When responding to an emergency located on an interstate highway in a​ medium-duty ambulance, the vehicle should be​ positioned: A. in a safe location in the emergency lane of the interstate. B. in the same direction as other response vehicles in a single line. C. across as many lanes as possible to block oncoming traffic. D. to one side of the damaged vehicles for easy egress.

in the same direction as other response vehicles in a single line

Tests have shown that​ ________ ambulance operators tend to speed up by 10 to 15 miles per hour when the siren is sounding. A. privately employed B. inexperienced C. younger D. experienced

inexperienced

The relative ease with which the microorganisms involved in a biological agent establish themselves in a host species is that​ agent's: A. virulence. B. toxicity. C. incubation period. D. infectivity.

infectivity.

Your​ municipality's water supply has been contaminated by a possible terrorist attack. This poses a possible health danger​ through: A. oxidation. B. absorption. C. inhalation. D. ingestion.

ingestion.

The most effective way to disseminate most CBRNE materials is​ through: A. ingestion. B. injection. C. inhalation. D. absorption.

inhalation

The form of anthrax that is of greatest concern is​ the: A. inhalational form. B. absorbable form. C. injectable form. D. ingestible form.

inhalational form

Which of the following actions is part of the​ engine-off ambulance inspection and can be performed in​ quarters? A. Check​ dash-mounted gauges for proper operation. B. Check the headlights. C. Inspect the body of the vehicle. D. Test the parking brake.

inspect the body of the vehicle

A route of entry into the​ body: A. is formed by penetrating trauma. B. is either by mouth or the nasal passages. C. is any surgical incision to allow a surgical procedure. D. is any of four​ pathways: absorption,​ ingestion, injection, or inhalation.

is any of four​ pathways: absorption,​ ingestion, injection, or inhalation.

Which of the following is the rule of thumb for determining the stability of a vehicle that has been involved in a​ collision? A. It is stable if the transmission is in park or the parking brake is on. B. It should only be considered stable after assessment by trained rescue personnel. C. It is stable if the ignition is turned off. D. It is stable if it is upright on all four wheels.

it should be only considered stable after assessment by trained rescue personnel

You are at the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a single vehicle has collided with a tree. You note that the​ driver's side air bag has deployed. Which of the following is a recommended action in response to a deployed air​ bag? A. Use a portable fan to ventilate the car to remove the powder from the air bag. B. Lift the air bag and inspect the steering wheel for damage. C. Cut away the fabric portion of the air bag to get it out of the way. D. Sharply strike the front bumper to make sure the second air bag has deployed.

lift the air bag and inspect the steering wheel for damage

Blast lung is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT which​ one? A. Cessation or pauses in breathing B. Low body temperature C. Slow heart rate D. Low blood pressure

low body temperature

Emotionally incapacitated​ EMTs: A. must leave the​ area, clock​ out, and go home. B. may not return to duty even after they have rested. C. must observe on scene without providing treatment. D. may rest until they are ready to return to duty.

may not return to duty even after they have rested

​Two-way communications equipment is required on basic life support ambulances for communication between the EMS​ provider, the​ dispatcher, and: A. the​ patient's physician. B. police and fire department personnel. C. other units. D. medical direction.

medical direction.

To be classified as​ "walking wounded" in primary​ triage, a​ patient: A. must have burns without airway problems. B. must be in arrest. C. must have major or multiple bone or joint injuries. D. must have only minor musculoskeletal or​ soft-tissue injuries.

must have only minor musculoskeletal or​ soft-tissue injuries.

If resuscitation is​ required, a patient with a suspected spinal​ injury: A. can be propped on the right side for drainage of fluids from the mouth. B. can be transported in a sitting position for comfort. C. can be propped on the left side for drainage of fluids from the mouth. D. must remain supine with constant monitoring of the airway and suctioning equipment ready.

must remain supine with constant monitoring of the airway and suctioning equipment ready.

After responding to the scene of a patient complaining of difficulty​ breathing, you and your partner determine that the​ patient's condition is not life threatening based on a thorough assessment. You should transport the patient to an appropriate medical facility​ with: A. neither lights nor siren activated. B. the emergency lights​ on, but without activating the siren. C. both lights and siren activated. D. the emergency lights​ off, but activating the siren when traffic builds.

neither lights nor siren activated.

A study of 18 years of ambulance statistics in New York state demonstrated that most collisions​ occurred: A. on a dry road with inclement weather during nighttime hours in an intersection. B. on a wet road with clear weather during nighttime hours in an intersection. C. on a dry road with clear weather during daylight hours in an intersection. D. on a wet road with inclement weather during daylight hours in an intersection.

on a dry road with clear weather during daylight hours in an intersection.

You park downstream of an accident site on a busy​ four-lane highway. A fire apparatus has been positioned upstream to block two lanes of traffic. You are parked in the rightmost lane. Cones are placed in a line down the center of the​ highway, blocking off two​ lanes, including the lane to your left just outside the​ driver's side door. You may exit the​ vehicle: A. only when a spotter signals you. B. only on the​ passenger's side. C. only if you see no traffic approaching in the side mirror. D. on the​ driver's side after checking approaching traffic in the side mirror.

on the​ driver's side after checking approaching traffic in the side mirror.

When is the transfer of care at the receiving hospital​ completed? A. As soon as the patient is physically on the​ hospital's property B. After completion of the hospital admissions process C. Once the patient has been transferred to a hospital bed D. Only when a report has been given and an equal or higher medical authority has accepted patient care

only when a report has been given and an equal or higher medical authority has been accepted patient care

When working at a nighttime emergency on a​ roadway, which of the following safety considerations should the prudent EMS provider observe to increase​ safety? A. Turn only the fog lights on to keep bright light out of​ drivers' vision. B. Keep all available response lights on to warn oncoming traffic. C. Operate amber warning lights​ only, if the option is available. D. Switch the headlights to the high beam position for maximum lighting.

operate amber warning lights only, if the option is available

Emergency responders respond to a bomb attack and begin​ rescuing, assessing, and treating the wounded. Responders should be on the alert​ for: A. ​suspicious-looking people. B. clues to what organization mounted the attack. C. signs that clearly indicate a political motive. D. other explosive devices.

other explosive devices.

If you are not the primary or​ first-arriving unit to the scene of a highway​ collision, then: A. size up the incident from a distance. B. park next to the primary unit for staging. C. park or stage your unit near the​ on-ramp. D. determine the resources needed when the primary unit has sized up the scene.

park or stage your unit near the​ on-ramp.

In a terrorist​ incident, what is NOT an EMS​ asset? A. Perimeter entry B. Equipment and supplies C. Vehicles D. People

perimeter entry

Which of the following is NOT a consideration in the general protection against agents used in terrorist​ attacks? A. Duration of exposure B. Political motivations for the event C. Distance from event D. Shielding from the agent

political motivation

A key component of terrorism that distinguishes it from other illicit or violent activity is that it​ involves: A. political or social objectives. B. illegality. C. force. D. threats to people or property.

political or social

Covering a patient in the ambulance does all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. maintain body temperature. B. prevent exposure to the elements. C. prevent infection. D. ensure privacy.

prevent infection.

Signs of ear injury in a patient affected by a blast are usually present at the time​ of: A. secondary assessment. B. packaging for transport. C. primary assessment. D. transfer of care.

primary assessment

Using START triage​ guidelines, a patient on the scene of a​ mass-causality incident who has no pulse is deemed a​ ________ patient. A. Priority 3 B. Priority 0 C. Priority 2 D. Priority 1

priority 0

Using START triage​ guidelines, a patient on the scene of a​ mass-causality incident who is not breathing​ initially, but begins breathing when the airway is​ open, is deemed a​ ________ patient. A. Priority 1 B. Priority 2 C. Priority 0 D. Priority 3

priority 1

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Using START triage​ criteria, triage an​ 8-year-old male patient with respirations 10 and pulse 102 who is ambulatory with an alert mental status and warm dry skin. A. Priority​ 2, yellow tag B. Priority​ 4, black tag C. Priority​ 3, green tag D. Priority​ 1, red tag

priority 3, green tag

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Using START triage​ criteria, triage a​ 17-year-old male patient with the following vital​ signs: respirations​ 18; pulse​ 104; alert,​ crying, and wanting his​ mother; ambulatory. A. Priority​ 2, yellow tag B. Priority​ 3, green tag C. Priority​ 4, black tag D. Priority​ 1, red tag

priority 3, green tag

Emergency Medical Dispatchers are trained​ to: A. provide prearrival medical instructions. B. administer advanced life support. C. review EMS encounter forms. D. provide medical direction.

provide prearrival medical instructions.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the rehabilitation sector in a hazardous materials​ incident? A. Performing medical assessment of rescue crews B. Taking baseline vital signs before rescuers enter the operations area C. Providing for hydration of rescue crews D. Providing a decontamination corridor from the hot zone

providing a decontamination corridor from the hot zone

You are told that a number of victims at a terrorism event have suffered severe physical trauma including soft tissue and musculoskeletal injuries. In addition to this mechanical​ harm, you also​ suspect: A. radiological harm. B. chemical harm. C. psychological harm. D. etiological harm.

psychological harm.

To make up an ambulance​ cot, you would​ FIRST: A. raise the cot to a​ high-level position. B. remove all soiled linen. C. clean the mattress surface. D. remove all unsoiled blankets and pillows.

raise the cot to a​ high-level position.

An EMT trained at a First Responder Awareness level would be able​ to: A. command and support activities at the incident site. B. ​plug, patch, or stop the release of a hazardous material. C. recognize a hazardous materials incident and initiate a response from the proper organizations. D. respond to releases or potential releases of hazardous materials to protect​ people, property, and the environment.

recognize a hazardous materials incident and initiate a response from the proper organizations

Prior to stabilizing the​ vehicle, you​ would: A. gain access to the patient. B. recognize and manage hazards. C. disentangle the patient. D. immobilize and extricate the patient.

recognize and manage hazards.

While performing night​ operations, which of the following combinations of lights provides maximum​ visibility? A. ​Red/amber warning lights​ ON, headlights​ ON, fog lights​ ON, and traffic directional boards ON B. ​Red/amber warning lights​ ON, headlights​ ON, fog lights​ OFF, and traffic directional boards ON C. ​Red/amber warning lights​ ON, headlights​ OFF, fog lights​ OFF, and traffic directional boards ON D. ​Red/amber warning lights​ ON, headlights​ OFF, fog lights​ OFF, and traffic directional boards OFF

red/amber warning lights on, headlights off, fog lights off, traffic directional boards on

Gross decontamination is​ the: A. alteration or removal of most residual contamination. B. complete removal or neutralization of a contaminant. C. removal or chemical alteration of the majority of a contaminant. D. residual contamination that remains on a host following decontamination procedures.

removal or chemical alteration of the majority of a contaminant

When an EMT becomes emotionally incapacitated on the scene of a​ large-scale MCI, you​ should: A. administer psychological first aid to the EMT until he feels capable of returning to duty. B. wave the EMT off the scene and tell him to return to the station. C. remove the EMT to a resting area and monitor him until a clinically competent provider can take over. D. direct the EMT to the collection point for walking wounded triage patients.

remove the EMT to a resting area and monitor him until a clinically competent provider can take over.

When controlling the scene of an emergency involving damaged utility poles​ and/or downed electrical​ wires, the EMT must remember​ to: A. render the scene safe before entering the danger zone. B. use​ double-thickness gloves to insulate the body from electrocution. C. use nonconductive implements to make a safe path to victims. D. request appropriate personnel to cut the power source.

request appropriate personnel to cut the power source.

What must the driver of a blocking apparatus LEAST consider when blocking the scene of a highway​ collision? A. Respecting the right of way of other drivers B. Preserving the crash scene C. Getting into a good position D. Avoiding crash debris

respecting the right of way of other drivers

A secondary device​ targets: A. the military. B. responders and patients. C. politicians. D. communications structures.

responders and patients.

An area near a hazardous materials incident that is on the same level as the​ incident, but​ upwind, is the BEST location for​ the: A. warm zone. B. danger zone. C. hot zone. D. safe zone.

safe zone.

Which of the following guidelines should you adhere to when setting up a landing zone for a​ helicopter? A. Shine a light into the cockpit as the helicopter approaches to signal where you are. B. Choose ground with a slope of greater than 8 degrees. C. Select an area that is a flat square with​ 100-foot sides. D. Mark each corner of the landing zone with flares and place a fifth warning device on the downwind side of the landing zone.

select an area that is flat square with 100 foot sides

An obstetrical kit should be kept on board all basic life support ambulances that​ is: A. included with other sterile items in a case. B. separate and sterile. C. sufficient to provide ALS services to patients in labor. D. fixed and rigid.

separate and sterile.

Traffic flow around an accident site on a​ highway: A. should be prevented entirely during incident response. B. should only be open to rescue vehicles. C. is unsafe until a safe zone is created. D. should be controlled and slowed.

should be controlled and slowed.

Obtaining your release from the​ hospital: A. is implicit upon completion of patient transfer without your needing to speak to anyone. B. simply requires the emergency department nurse or physician if you are still needed. C. typically happens only when the chief of emergency medicine authorizes you to go. D. is a formal process involving the completion and approval of a written form.

simply requires the emergency dept nurse or physician if you are still needed

A terrorist incident is LEAST likely to have features in common with which of the following types of​ incidents? A. Mass casualty B. Infectious disease C. Hazardous materials D. Single casualty

single causality

Among the miscellaneous equipment typically required on a basic life support ambulance is​ a: A. sphygmomanometer. B. pediatric stethoscope. C. infant oxygen mask. D. mobile phone.

sphygmomanometer.

If arriving units are not needed right​ away, they should wait in​ the: A. treatment area. B. transportation area. C. staging area. D. triage area.

staging area

The BEST way for a terrorist to weaponize and disseminate a chemical nerve agent that would expose the largest possible number of people would be​ to: A. steal a truck that sprays for mosquitos and aerosolize the nerve agent into a crowded subdivision. B. throw a​ plastic-lined paper bag loaded with nerve agent onto a busy subway train. C. throw a Molotov cocktail loaded with nerve agent into a windshield of a passenger bus. D. put it in a paper bag in a crowded mall and puncture the bag with a stick.

steal a truck that sprays for mosquitos and aerosolize the nerve agent into a crowded subdivision.

Broad general plans designed to achieve desired outcomes​ are: A. objectives. B. tactics. C. targets. D. strategies.

strategies.

Which of the following would NOT be considered a CBRNE​ agent? A. Switchblade B. Plastic explosives C. Biotoxin D. Dirty bomb

switch blade

Specific operational actions to accomplish assigned tasks​ are: A. strategies. B. earmarks. C. tactics. D. proposals.

tactics

You arrive at the scene of a potential hazardous materials incident and see several patients lying on the ground next to an overturned truck with what looks like chemicals leaking out of it in all directions. You​ should: A. call out to the patients to see if any can leave the area of the accident. B. approach cautiously. C. take a command position. D. immediately act to save the patients.

take a command position.

Helmets worn by EMS providers should​ have: A. subdued colors. B. auxiliary lighting capability. C. dark lettering. D. the Star of Life on them.

the Star of Life on them.

The​ "inner circle" at a crash site​ is: A. the area immediately around and including the crashed​ vehicle(s). B. the patients involved in the crash. C. the most knowledgeable and experienced EMTs on scene. D. the area designated for staging.

the area immediately around and including the crashed​ vehicle(s).

A hot zone​ is: A. the area immediately surrounding a hazmat incident. B. an area where personnel and equipment are decontaminated. C. an area where the support functions for an incident response are located. D. immediately identifiable with placards.

the area immediately surrounding a hazmat incident.

When using a​ siren, remember​ that: A. all motorists except those with hearing impairments will hear the siren and respond appropriately. B. some drivers will not get out of the way even if they hear the siren and must be intimidated to allow passage. C. if any driver does not​ yield, you are required by law to report that​ motorist's license number. D. the continuous sound of the siren tends to have an effect on the ambulance operators themselves.

the continuous sound of the siren tends to have an effect on the ambulance operators themselves.

For​ location, an Emergency Medical Dispatcher does NOT​ need: A. the street name with the direction designator. B. the nearest cross street. C. the name of the development or subdivision. D. the exact route to the location from currently available responders.

the exact same route to the location from currently available responders

Which of the following is MOST clearly a legitimate reason for requesting air medical transport of a critical​ patient? A. The facility that is capable of caring for the patient is 45 minutes away by ground. B. The weather is stormy and visibility is low for ground transportation. C. The receiving hospital is in the response area. D. Extrication of a​ high-priority patient can be completed quickly.

the facility that is capable of caring for the patient is 45 min away by ground

What information should be given to the hospital staff FIRST in providing a transfer of care​ report? A. Start by asking the hospital staff what they want to know. B. Always start with the​ patient's age,​ sex, and chief complaint. C. The most important information should be provided​ first, such as any changes in the​ patient's condition. D. The​ patient's insurance and primary physician should be provided first.

the most important info should be provided first, such as any changes in the patients condition

A true emergency requiring the emergency mode of ambulance operation is typically defined​ as: A. respiratory distress. B. any traumatic injury requiring an EMS call. C. any medical condition requiring an EMS call. D. the possibility of loss of life and limb.

the possibility of loss of life and limb.

When deciding whether or not to drive to the hospital with lights and siren activated for any​ patient, the driver should​ consider: A. how many calls are waiting for an available ambulance. B. the​ patient's past medical history. C. the potential risk of making the​ patient's condition worse. D. the​ patient's preference for lights and siren.

the potential risk of making the​ patient's condition worse.

A​ call-back number is not necessary for an Emergency Medical Dispatcher to ask about​ if: A. the chief complaint​ doesn't seem life threatening. B. the system is an enhanced 911 system. C. the chief complaint​ doesn't seem urgent. D. the patient is a minor.

the system is an enhanced 911 system.

Terrorists have detonated an incendiary device in an​ open-air market in the downtown area of your​ city, causing widespread fires. You should expect what type of harm as MOST​ likely? A. Etiological B. Radiological C. Chemical D. Thermal

thermal

Which statement regarding the​ diamond-shaped placards involved in the transportation of dangerous goods is​ FALSE? A. These placards show the hazard class. B. These placards are always carefully vetted and accurate. C. These placards may have a​ four-digit identification number for the material. D. These placards bear a division number for the material.

these placards are always carefully vetted and accurate

Which of the following statements regarding flare safety is​ FALSE? A. Take a handful of flares and walk carefully toward oncoming traffic. B. Do not turn your back to traffic while placing flares. C. Never use a flare as a traffic wand. D. Throw flares out of moving vehicles.

throw flares out of moving vehicles

Drivers expect a vehicle operating​ four-way flashers to​ be: A. easier to pass quickly. B. responding to an emergency. C. traveling at a very slow speed. D. about to make a turn.

traveling at a very slow speed

The area in which secondary triage takes place at a​ multiple-casualty incident is​ the: A. triage area. B. transportation area. C. treatment area. D. warm zone.

triage area.

For maximum visibility at an accident scene at​ night, emergency vehicles​ should: A. turn headlights to the brightest setting. B. turn​ red/amber emergency lights off. C. turn headlights on. D. turn​ red/amber emergency lights on.

turn​ red/amber emergency lights on.

You are on an ambulance responding to a​ mass-casualty incident at a shopping mall on a warm Saturday afternoon. En​ route, you listen to the incident commander broadcast information to dispatch and all inbound units about 20 patients complaining of respiratory difficulty and a burning sensation in their eyes. Your suspicions of a potential terrorist incident are the result​ of: A. ​on-scene warning signs. B. the type of event. C. the timing of the event. D. the location of the call.

type of event

During scene​ size-up of an incident for which your index of suspicion for terrorism is​ high, what would you look for that might be a sign that the suspicion of terrorism is​ accurate? A. Patients with an altered mental status from trauma sustained in a vehicle collision. B. Unconscious patients with severe trauma. C. Unconscious patients with minimal or no trauma. D. Patients with the same adverse medical condition from an apparently accidental hazardous material exposure.

unconscious patients with minimal or no trauma

You are on the scene of a riot following a decision in a controversial court case. A large group of people have set fire to​ vehicles, broken​ windows, and assaulted people in the area. Which of the following would be the BEST method of incident​ command? A. Singular command by law enforcement B. Unified command C. Singular command by fire service D. Singular command by EMS

unified command

The scene of a highway accident involves a car that has collided with a utility pole. Although the pole appears to be broken so that it is leaning across the​ highway, the wires are still intact. This scene​ is: A. safe to enter but must be carefully monitored in case the pole collapses or the wires break. B. unsafe to enter until power company representatives​ de-energize the conductors and stabilize the pole. C. unsafe to enter until you​ de-energize the conductors and stabilize the pole. D. safe to enter.

unsafe to enter until power company representatives​ de-energize the conductors and stabilize the pole

The scene of a highway accident involves a car that has collided with a utility pole. Although the pole appears to be broken so that it is leaning across the​ highway, the wires are still intact. This scene​ is: A. unsafe to enter until you​ de-energize the conductors and stabilize the pole. B. unsafe to enter until power company representatives​ de-energize the conductors and stabilize the pole. C. safe to enter. D. safe to enter but must be carefully monitored in case the pole collapses or the wires break.

unsafe to enter until power company representatives​ de-energize the conductors and stabilize the pole.

Which of the following are desirable characteristics of the safe or​ "cold" zone in a hazardous materials​ incident? A. ​Downwind, downhill from the spill B. ​Upwind, uphill from the spill C. ​Upwind, on the same level as the spill D. ​Downwind, uphill from the spill

upwind, on the same level as the spill

When attempting to extinguish a fire inside the passenger​ compartment, it is important​ to: A. apply the extinguishing agent liberally to speed up the extinguishing process. B. aim the nozzle of the extinguisher to the side of the fire to avoid​ flare-ups. C. use the extinguishing agent sparingly to avoid creating a cloud of powder. D. resist the urge to extinguish the fire and focus on extricating any patients.

use the extinguishing agent sparingly to avoid creating a cloud of powder

If you are the first unit on the scene of an accident on the​ highway, you​ should: A. wait in your vehicle for additional units. B. set up a safe area to stage downstream of the incident. C. use your vehicle to protect the scene. D. set up your staging area on a crossover.

use your vehicle to protect the scene.

Executing rapid entries into a danger zone to perform rescues is an example​ of: A. using appropriate shielding. B. identifying the scope of a hazard. C. maximizing distance from the hazard area. D. using time constraints.

using time constraints

When involved in a​ multiple-casualty incident, staging refers to which of the​ following? A. Waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated sector officer B. Staying on station until called upon to receive a patient C. Keeping a log of all patients transported D. Setting up a triage center from the back of your ambulance

waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated sector officer

You should MOST expect that the terrorists responsible for a​ mass-casualty incident​ will: A. observe the scene. B. move on to other targets. C. want to make you a casualty. D. make no further attacks.

want to make you a causality

Field decontamination takes place in​ the: A. cold zone. B. warm zone. C. safe zone. D. hot zone.

warm zone.

Another name for CBRNE agents​ is: A. secondary devices. B. contaminants. C. tactics. D. weapons of mass destruction.

weapons of mass destruction.

What factor is LEAST likely to affect ANY emergency​ response? A. ​Week-long festival B. Day of the week C. Weather D. Time of the day

week long festival

Operators of emergency vehicles must drive with the safety of others in mind. This is known as​ driving: A. defensively. B. with emergency privilege. C. as a public servant. D. with due regard.

with due regard

When arriving at the location of a motor vehicle collision on an interstate​ highway, you should position the ambulance downstream of the incident​ UNLESS: A. you are establishing a safe area for command vehicles. B. you are the first unit on scene. C. traffic appears to be light. D. directed to park upstream by police.

you are the first unit on scene

You respond to a major automobile collision involving multiple patients. Which of the following patients would receive Priority 1​ transport? A. ​25-year-old with signs of shock who is not breathing B. ​45-year-old with mild abdominal bruising and slightly depressed vital signs C. ​6-year-old with lower leg fracture and normal vital signs D. ​68-year-old with mild respiratory distress and seat belt burns

​25-year-old with signs of shock who is not breathing

The size of the occlusive dressings that must be carried on a basic life support ambulance is at​ least: A. ​8" ×​ 6". B. ​10" ×​ 12". C. ​3" ×​ 8". D. ​4" ×​ 4".

​3" ×​ 8".

Which of the following can serve as appropriate eye protection for an EMT on the scene during​ extrication? A. ​Face-conforming goggles B. Shield of a​ firefighter's helmet C. Prescription eyeglasses D. Plastic face shield of the type used for Standard Precautions

​Face-conforming goggles

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a clue that an incident is the result of terrorist​ violence? A. Occurrence on the anniversary of a significant or symbolic historical event B. Function of the target C. Number of people present D. ​Multiple-system trauma injuries

​Multiple-system trauma injuries

Which of the following is correct for maximum visibility during night​ operations? A. Traffic directional boards not operating B. Headlights on C. ​Red/amber warning lights on D. Fog lights on

​Red/amber warning lights on

Psychological first aid​ involves: A. telling distressed patients anything that will calm them down. B. ​caring, honest engagement with patients in emotional distress. C. ordering any emotionally overwhelmed patients out of the treatment area. D. ordering patients in emotional distress to tend to other patients and work off the stress.

​caring, honest engagement with patients in emotional distress.

Because of the extra equipment now placed on ambulances for specialty​ rescue, advanced life​ support, and hazardous materials​ operations, their gross vehicle weight has been easily exceeded in some communities. This has necessitated introduction of a​ ________ truck chassis built for rugged durability and large storage and work areas. A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. ​medium-duty

​medium-duty