CH 8 CERVICAL AND THORACIC SPINE EXAM

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What vertebral level is 3-4"below jugular notch?

What are two distinctive features of all cervical vertebrae that make them different from any other vertebrae?

1. Each has 3 foramina 2. Bifid spinous process

List the two positions or projections that will project the dens in the center of the foramen magnum

1. Fuchs method (AP) 2. Judd method (PA)

Along with increasing the source image receptor distance (SID), what other factor(s) will improve spatial resolution for lateral and oblique projections of the cervical spine? a. using a small focal spot b. using a large focal spot c. collimation d. none of the above

a. using a small focal spot

An ambulatory patient enters the ED with a possible injury to the right upper posterior ribs. Which of the following routines should be taken to demonstrate the involved area? a. Erect PA and LPO b. Erect AP and RPO c. Recumbent AP and RPO d. Erect PA and LAO

b. Erect AP and RPO

Label

A) Spinous process B) Lamina C) transverse process D) facet of superior articular process E) pedicle F) vertebral foramen

Where is the articular pillar located on a cervical vertebra? A. Between the superior and inferior articular processes B. Between the pedicle and the body C. Between the spinous process and the lamina D. Are not present on cervical vertebrae

A. Between the superior and inferior articular processes

The most prominent aspect of the thyroid cartilage corresponds to the vertebral level of: A. C5. B. C1-2. C. C6-7. D. C7-T1.

A. C5.

A radiograph of a lateral projection of the cervical spine reveals that the ramus of the mandible is superimposed over the spine. What could the technologist have done to prevent this? A. Increase the extension of the skull. B. Increase the flexion of the skull. C. Angle the CR 3 to 5 caudad. D. Have the patient hold 5 to 10 lb in each hand.

A. Increase the extension of the skull.

The posterior cervical oblique projections demonstrate the intervertebral foramina and pedicles on the side closest to the image receptor. A. True B. False

B. False

The zygapophyseal joints for the thoracic spine lie at an angle of ____ in relation to the midsagittal plane. A. 45 B. 60 C. 70 to 75 D. 90

C. 70 to 75

The modificd body of C2 is called the

Dens or odontoid process

What vertebral level is the Gonion?

level. Gonion

When should the Judd or Fuchs method be performed?

If unable to demonstrate the upper portion of the odontoid (dens) with the AP "open mouth" projection

An abnormal, or exaggerated, "sway back" lumbar curvature is called

Lordosis

in addition to extending the chin, which additional positioning technique can be performed to ensure that the mandible is not superimposed over the upper cervical vertebrae for oblique projections?

Rotate the skull into a near lateral position

Mild form of scoliosis and kyphosis developing during adolescence

Scheuermann disease

Situation: A patient comes to the radiology department with a clinical history of Scheuermann disease. Which radiographic procedure is often performed for this condition?

Scoliosis series

radiographic examination andor projections performed for Scheuermann disease:

Scoliosis series

oint betwen top and center portions (landmark:

Sternal angle

The lateral projection of the cervical spine should be taken during _____

Expiration for maximum shoulder depression

What is the name of the joint found between the superior articular processes of CI and the occipital condyles of the skull?

Atlanto-occipital articulation

Which of the following factors does not apply to a lateral projection of the cervical spine? A. Use a 72-inch (183 cm) SID. B. Suspend respiration upon full inspiration. C. Perform horizontal-beam lateral projection if trauma is suspected. D. Center CR to thyroid cartilage.

B. Suspend respiration upon full inspiration.

The xiphoid process corresponds to the vertebral level of: A. T8. B. T10. C. T7. D. T12.

B. T10.

Which of the following thoracic vertebra(e) possess no facets for costotransverse joints? A. T9-10 B. T11-12 C. T1 D. None of the above

B. T11-12

The most posterior aspect of a typical vertebra is the: A. pedicle. B. spinous process. C. lamina. D. body.

B. spinous process.

Which two things can be done to produce equal density along the entire thoracic spine for an AP projection (especially for a patient with a thick chest)?

Correct use of anode-heel effect and use compensating filter

list the to primary or posterior convex curves seen in the vertebral column.

thoracic, sacral

A radiograph of a lateral thoracic spine projection shows that the intervertebral foramina & intervertebral joint spaces are not clearly demonstrated. Which type of problems can lead to this radiographic outcome?

by not keeping spine (parallel) aligned with film &/or not ensuring CR is perpendicular.

T/F: All high-density or thick structures appear light on MR images.

False

T/F: All tissues within the same strength magnetic field respond at the same relaxation rates

False

T/F: Biopsies can be performed during a CT colonography

False

T/F: CT colonography has eliminated the need for the patient undergoing a bowel prep

False

T/F: MRI uses a low-energy form of ionizing radiation.

False

T/F: Window Level (WL) in CT controls the displayed image contrast.

False

True/False: HNP most frequently develops at the L2-L3 vertebral level.

False

True or false? If close collimation is used during conventional (analog) radiography of the spine, the use of lead masking (blockers) is generally not required.

False. Lead masking should be used even if close collimation is used

True or false? Only T11 and T 12 havefull facets for articulation with ribs?

False. T1, T10 to T12 have full facets

True or false? The tip if the odontoid process does not have to be demonstrated on the AP "open mouth" projection, because it is best seen on the lateral projection

False. The entire dens if odontoid process must be demonstrated if trauma or injury is ruled out, the tech could perform the AP or PA projection for the odontoid process to demonstrate the tip

T/F: Window width controls the displayed image contrast

True

radiographic examination andor projections performed for hemiatel nucleus pulposus (HNP)

AP and lateral of affected spine

Situation: A patient enters the ER with a possible cervical spine fracture, but the initial projections do not demonstrate any gross fracture or subluxation. After reviewing the initial radiographs, the ER physician suspects either a congenital defect or a fracture of the articular pillars of C4. He wants an additinal projection taken to see better this aspect of the vertebrae. What additional projection can be taken to demonstrate the articular pillars of C4?

AP axial - vertebral arch (pillar) projection

Which of the following structures is best demonstrated with an AP axial vertebral arch projection?

Articular pillars (lateral masses) of the cervical spine

Which of the following projections is considered a "functional study" of the cervical spine?

Hyperextension and hyperflexion lateral positions

Which specific projection must be taken first if trauma to the cervical spine is suspected and the patient is in a supine position on a backboard?

Lateral horizontal beam projection

Comminuted fragments from anteroinferior and posterior vertebral borders displaced into the spinal canal, frequently resulting in quadriplegia neurologic damage

Teardrop burst fracture

In addition to the gonads, which other radiosensitive organs are of greatest concern during cervical and thoracic spine radiography?

Thyroid, parathyroid glands and breasts

Where should the central ray be placed for a cervicothoracic lateral position?

To T1, 1" above the jugular notch anterior and level of vertebral prominens posteriorly

What is the purpose of using an orthostatic (breathing) technique for a lateral projection of the thoracic spine?

To blur out rib and lung markings that obscure detail of thoracic vertebrae

What is the purpose of the 15- to 20-degree cephalad angle for the AP axial projection of the cervical spine?

To open up the intervertebral disk spaces

Produces the "bow tie" sign

Unilateral subluxation

Along with the upper incisors, what other bony landmark must be aligned for the AP open-mouth projection? A. Base of skull C. Inferior margin of lower incisors B. Tip of mandible D. Thyroid cartilage

Which of the following pathologic conditions is defined as "a condition of the spine characterized by rigidity of a vertebral joint"? A. Spondylitis C. Spondylosis B. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Scheuermann disease

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine? A. AP axial C. Lateral B. Posterior obliques D. Anterior obliques

Which of the following pitch ratios is considered to be oversampling? a. 2:1 b. 3:1 c. 0.5:1 d. 1:1

c. 0.5:1

What is the joint classification and type of movement for the costotransverse joint? a. Cartilaginous with diarthrodial (ginglymus) movement b. Synovial with amphiarthrodial, limited movement c. Synovial with diarthrodial (plane) movement d. Cartilaginous with synarthrodial or no movement

c. Synovial with diarthrodial (plane) movement

Which of the following thoracic vertebrae do not possess a facet for the cosotransverse joint? a. T1 b. T7 c. T11 d. T12

c. T11 d. T12

Which of the following statements is true about floating ribs? a. They do not possess a head. b. They do not possess a costovertebral joint. c. They do not possess costocartilage. d. They are ribs 10 through 12.

c. They do not possess costocartilage.

Which of the following factors will enhance the visibility of the vertebral bodies during a lateral projection of the thoracic spine? a. Use a high kV b. Increase SID c. Use a breathing technique d. Flex the spine

c. Use a breathing technique

List the number of bones found in each division in the adult vertebral column

cervical - 7 thoracic - 12 lumbar - 5 sacrum - 1 coccyx - 1 total 26

which 2 portions of the vertebral column are classified as secondary or compensatory curves

cervical and lumbar

the tapered distal end of the spinal cord is called?

conus medullaris

For an average-size adult, which of the following would receive the highest skin dose? A. AP "wagging jaw" cervical spine, 3-second exposure time C. Lateral cervical spine at 72-inch (183 cm) SID B. AP thoracic spine D. Lateral thoracic spine

the condition involving a slipped disk is correctly referred to as?

herniated nucleus pulposus

A patient comes to the x-ray department for a FU study 6mon after having spinal fusion surgery of the lower c spine (C5-C6). The surgeon wants to check for anteroposterior mobility of the fused spine. beyond the basic c-spine projections, what additional projections can be taken to assess the mobility of the spine?

hyperextension & hyperflexion

what is the term for the same structure, identified in the previous question, for the C1 vertebra?

lateral mass

the spinal cod begins with the?

medulla oblongata

What is found between the superior and inferior articular processes?

zygapophyseal joints

List the alternative name for the cervical vertebrae, C7

vertebra prominens

the opening or passageway for the spinal cord is the

vertebral (spinal) canal

for the CR to pass through and "open" the intervertebral spaces on a 45 degree posterior oblique proj. of the cervical vertebrae, what CR angle is required

15 degree cephalad

How long is the catheter left in place following a percutaneous abscess drainage (PAD) procedure?

24 to 48 hours

On average, how many separate bones make up the adult vertebral column?

Which aspect of the intervertebral disk is composed of semigelatinous material? A. Nucleus pulposus B. Annulus fibrosis C. Conus medullaris D. Cauda equina

A. Nucleus pulposus

Which of the following statements is true about radiography of ribs located above the diaphragm? A. Suspend respiration upon inspiration B. Perform the study with the patient recumbent C. Use a medium kV range of 75-85 D. Always include an AP projection as part of the routine

A. Suspend respiration upon inspiration

Which of the following statements is true for a typical adult vertebra? A. The transverse processes extend laterally from the junction of the pedicles and laminae. B. The transverse processes are present only on thoracic vertebrae containing rib connections. C. The spinous process extends posteriorly from the body of the vertebra. D. All of the above

A. The transverse processes extend laterally from the junction of the pedicles and laminae.

A radiograph of an AP open-mouth projection reveals that the base of the skull is superimposed over the dens. What positioning error led to this radiographic outcome? A. Excessive flexion of the skull B. Excessive extension of the skull C. Excessive CR angulation D. Rotation of the skull

B. Excessive extension of the skull

level. Mastoid tip

Teardrop burst fracture

Lateral cervical

A radiograph of an AP "open mouth" projection of the cervical spine shows that the base of the skull is superimposed over the upper odontoid process. Which specific positioning error is present on this radiograph?

Excessive extension of the skull

what is the name of the joint found between the superior articular processes of C1 and the occipital condlyes of the skull

occipitoatlantal articulation

What are the primary curves?

thoracic and sacral

What is c2 called?

Axis

For an average-size adult, which of the following would receive the highest skin dose?

...

What is the chief disadvantage of CT colonography over conventional endoscopy?

...

List three features that make the cervical vertebrae unique.

1) transverse foramina 2) bifid spinous process 3) overlapping vertebral bodies

What central-ray angulation (amount and direction) must be used with a posterior oblique projection of the cervical spine?

15 degrees cephalad

Which tow things can be done to minimize the effects of scatter radiation on lateral projections of the thoracic & lumbar spine?

1. Close side collimation 2. place lead on tabletop behind patient

Approximately _____% of all head CTs generally require intravenous contrast media

50-90%

radiographic examination andor projections performed for the Jefferson fracture

AP open mouth (C1-C2)

Label

A) body C4 B) dens C2 C) posterior arch and tubercle C1 D) zygapophyseal joint C5-C6 E) Spinous process C7 F) posterior arch G) pedicle H) intervertebral foramen

What type of CR angle is required for posterior oblique (LPO/RPO) positions of the cervical spine? A. 15 cephalad B. 15 caudad C. 5 to 10 cephalad D. None. CR is perpendicular to IR.

A. 15 cephalad

How much rotation and which oblique is required to best demonstrate the left sternoclavicular joint? A. 15 degrees LAO B. 35 - 45 degrees LAO C. 15 degrees RAO D. 5 - 10 degrees RAO

A. 15 degrees LAO

Which two projections must be taken for an injury to the left posterior lower ribs? A. AP and LPO B. AP and RAO C. PA and LPO D. PA and RAO

A. AP and LPO

Which position or projection best demonstrates the zygapophyseal joints between C1 & C2?

AP open mouth projection

How much CR angulation is required for the AP axial projection for the cervical spine? A. CR is perpendicular to the image receptor B. 5 to 10 cephalad C. 15 to 20 cephalad D. 15 to 20 caudad

C. 15 to 20 cephalad

How many bones make up the adult vertebral column? A. 33 B. 28 C. 26 D. 31

C. 26

Where is the CR centered for a PA projection of the sternoclavicular joints? A. At the level of the vertebra prominens (T1) B. At the level of the sternal angle (T4-5) C. At the level of the jugular notch (T2-3) D. At the level of the thyroid cartilage (T9)

C. At the level of the jugular notch (T2-3)

The gonion corresponds to the vertebral level of: A. C1. B. C4-5. C. C3. D. C7.

C. C3.

Which of the following conditions may occur with trauma to the ribs? A. Airway obstruction of the trachea B. Pneumonia C. Hemothorax D. Pulmonary embolus

C. Hemothorax

Which of the following pathologic conditions is defined as "a condition of the spine characterized by rigidity of a vertebral joint"? A. Spondylitis B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Spondylosis D. Scheuermann disease

C. Spondylosis

Situation: A broad shouldered patient comes to the radiology department for a routine cervical spine series. The lateral projection demonstrated only the Cl to C5 region. The radiologist wants to see C6-TI. What additional projection can be taken demonstrates this region of the spine?

Cervicothoracic (swimmers) lateral position

Which of the following projections delivers the greatest skin dose to the patient?

Cervicotoracic lateral position

Avulsion fracture of the spinous process of C7

Clay shoveler's fracture

An avulsion fracture of the spinous processes of C6 through T1 is called a:

Clay shoveler's fracture.

T/F: A right or left marker may be taped over the area of interest to indicate the location of the trauma to the ribs.

False

T/F: CT angiography (CTA) does not require the use of intravenous contrast media to demonstrate vascular structures.

False

Situation: A patient who has been in a motor vehicle accident (MVA) enters the emergency room. The basic projections of the cervical spine show no subluxation (partial dislocation) or fracture. The physician wants the spine evaluated for whiplash injury. Which additional projections would best demonstrate this type of injury?

Hyperextension and hyperflexion lateral positions

The spinal cord begins with the ____ of the brain and extends down to the ____ where it tapers and ends. This tapered ending is called the _____

Medulla oblangata Lower border of L1 Conus medullaris

Which skull positioning line is aligned perpendicular to the IR for a PA (Judd) projection for the odontoid process?

Mentomeatal line (MML)

Which zygapophyseal joints are best demonstrated with LPO position of the thoracie spine?

Right

Which zygapophyseal joints are demonstrated in a right anterior oblique (RAO) projection of the thoracic spine?

Right (downside)

Which foramina are demonstrated with a left posterior oblique ( (LPO) position of the cervical spine?

Right intervertebral foramina (upside)

Abnormal lateral curvature of the spine

Scoliosis

What are the major differences between spondylosis and spondylitis?

Spondylitis is an inflammatory process of the vertebrae characterized by bony bridges between vertebrae (advanced stages). Spondylosis is a condition of the spine characterized by decreased vertebral joint space and arthritic changes of the zygapophyseal joints

A collection of blood accumulating under the dura mater caused by trauma is termed:

Subdural hematoma

level. Xiphoia process (tip)

T9-T10

What are the 2 primary or posterior convex curves seen in the vertebral column?

Thoracic and sacral

True or false? To a certain degree, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and computed tomography (CT) are replacing myelography as the imaging modalities of choice for the diagnosis of a ruptured i intervertebral disk.

True

True/False: The lumbar possesses a concave posterior spinal curvature.

True

Typical slice thickness for a spine CT range is usually no greater than _____mm. a. 3 b. 7 c. 10 d. 15

a. 3

In the erect adult bony thorax, the posterior portion of a typical rib is ____ higher or more superior to the anterior portion. a. 3 to 5 inches (7.5 to 12.5 cm) b. 1 to 2 inches (2.5 to 5 cm) c. 6 to 8 inches (15 to 20 cm) d. 10 to 12 inches (25 to 30 cm)

a. 3 to 5 inches (7.5 to 12.5 cm)

The xiphoid process corresponds to the vertebral level of: A. T8. C. T7. B. T10. D. T12.

The location of origin of the MR signal within the patient is determined by: a. TE (time-to-echo) b. relaxation time c. frequency of MR signal d.wavelength of MR signal

c. frequency of MR signal

Scoliosis is defined as abnormal or exaggerated: a. "swayback" lumbar curvature. b. convex curvature. c. lateral curvature. d. concave curvature.

c. lateral curvature.

With modern MRI, the reemitted radio wave signals from the patient are captured by: a. external magnetic field b. solid state detectors c. receiver or antenna d. analog digital converter

c. receiver or antenna

The gonion corresponds to the level of: a. C7. b. C1. c. C4-5. d. C3.

d. C3.

MRI is recommended for diagnosing _______necrosis of the hip.

osteonecrosis

what are the outer and inner aspects of the intervertebral disk?

outer - annulus fibrosis inner - nucleus pulposus

an abnormal lateral curvature seen in the thoracolumbar spine is called?

scoliosis

which structures pass through the intervertebral foramina?

spinal nerves and blood vessels.

what is the unique feature of all thoracic vertebrae that distinguishes them from other vertebrae?

the presence of facets for articulation with ribs.

Situation: A lateral c-spine radiograph projection demonstrates that the zygapophyseal joint spaces are not superimposed. which type of positioning error(s) may lead to this radiographic outcome?

tilt or rotation of spine

true/false. only T1, T11, and T12 have full facets for articulation with the ribs.

true

T/F: Most CT systems archive image data on magnetic tape systems

False

T/F: Multislice CT scanners are not recommended for abdomen studies

False

T/F: Pregnancy is considered an absolute contraindication for an MRI procedure

False

T/F: Scan times with functional MRI are generally longer than a PET study of the brain

False

Two small notches on the superior and inferior aspects of the pedicles create the _____

Intervertebral foramina

In addition to using a long SID, list the 2 positioning techniques you can use to lower the shoulders to visualize C7-T1 for a lateral projection of the c-spine?

1. Suspend respirations on full expiration. 2. have patient hold 5-10lbs in each hand

At which vertebral level does the solid spinal cord terminate?

Lower border at L1.

For the central ray to pass through and 'open' the intervertebral spaces on a 45degree posterior oblique projection of the cervical vertebrae, what central ray angle is required?

15 degree cephalad.

How much & in which direction should the CR be angled for a posterior oblique projection of the c-spine?

15* cephalad

How much & in which direction should the CR be angled for an anterior oblique projection of the c-spine?

15* cephalad

How much & in which direction (caudad or cephalad) should the CR be angled for an AP axial projection of the c-spine?

15-20* cephalad

The xiphoid process corresponds to the level of: 1. T7. 2. T9-10. 3. T4-5. 4. L1-2.

2. T9-10.

How much rotation of the body is required for an oblique position of the thoracie spine from a true lateral position?

20 degrees from lateral position. 70 degrees from plane of table

What central-ray angle must be used with the AP axial-vertebral arch (Pillars) projection?

20 to 30 - degree caudad

Which two landmarks must be aligned for an AP "open mouth" projection?

Lower margin of upper incisors and base of skull

The intervertebral foramina for the cervical spine lie at a _______ angle to the midsagittal plane.

45*

How many segments make up the sacrum in the neonate?

Patients with cardiac pacemakers must not be allowed within the _____-gauss line

the thoracic vertebrae are at what angle to the midsagittal plane?

70 - 75 degrees

What is the recommended SID for the cervicothoracíc position of the cervical spine?

72"

The success rate for CT percutaneous abscess drainage is reported to be ____%.

85%

The zygapophyseal joints for the second through seventh cervical vertebrae are at a ___ degree angle to the midsagittal plane; the thoracic vertebrae are at a ____ degree angle to the midsagittal plane

90 70-75

the zygapophyseal joints for the second through seventh cervical vertebrae are a what angle to the midsagittal plane?

90 degrees

Which window widths are CT head scans viewed?

A narrow window width for soft tissue and brain A wide window width for bony detail

level. 3 to 4 inches (8 to 10 cm) below jugular notch

Along with the upper incisors, what other bony landmark must be aligned for the AP open-mouth projection? A. Base of skull B. Tip of mandible C. Inferior margin of lower incisors D. Thyroid cartilage

A. Base of skull

Which of the following pathologic conditions will require a decrease in manual technical factors? A. Advanced osteoporosis B. Severe scoliosis C. Moderate lordosis D. Scheuermann disease

A. Advanced osteoporosis

A patient enters the ER because of a motor vehicle accident. The patient is on a back board and wearing a cervical collar. The technologist is concerned about the artifacts that the collar will project on the spine during the horizontal beam lateral projection. What should the technologist do in this situation? A. Leave the collar on during the exposure. B. Remove the cervical collar but be careful not to move the patient's head. C. Ask the patient to remove the collar herself (for liability reasons). D. Ask the ER physician to remove the collar and to hold the patient's head while the technologist is initiating the exposure.

A. Leave the collar on during the exposure.

Which two projections must be taken for an injury to the right anterior upper ribs? A. PA and LAO B. PA and RAO C. AP and RAO D. AP and LPO

A. PA and LAO

The breast dose for a posterior oblique thoracic spine is more than four times the dose of an anterior oblique. A. True B. False

A. True

T2-3 intervertebral disk space is found at the level of the: A. jugular notch. B. sternal angle. C. xiphoid process. D. 2 inches (5 cm) below the jugular notch.

A. jugular notch.

The bony structures connected directly to the vertebral body are the: A. pedicles. B. articular processes. C. laminae. D. transverse processes.

A. pedicles.

The joints between articular processes of vertebra are termed: A. zygapophyseal joints. B. fibrous joints. C. intervertebral joints. D. synarthrodial joints.

A. zygapophyseal joints.

Situation: A patient comes to the ER with a possible Jefferson fracture. Other than a lateral projection or a CT scan, what specific radiographic projection will best demonstrate this type of fracture?

AP "open mouth" projection. The patients mouth must be carefully opened without any movement of the Cspine

Which AP projection of the cervical spine demonstrates the entire upper cervical spine with one single projection

AP "wagging jaw" projection (otonello method)

A patient comes tooth e radiology department for a follow up study for a fly shoveler's fracture. Which spine projections will best demonstrate this type of fracture?

AP & Lateral spine

A patient with a possible Jefferson fracture enters the ER. Which specific radiographic position best demonstrates this type of fracture?

AP (open mouth) c-spine projection.

An inflammation of the vertebrae, more common in men ages 20 to 40 years, causing calcification and forming bony ridges between vertebrae, resulting in stiffness and lack of spinal column mobility

Ankylosing spondylitis

Hydrocephalus is caused by:

An increase in the volume of CSF within the brain

A radiograph of a cervicothoracic lateral position demonstrates superimposition of the humeral heads over the upper thoracic spine. Because of an arthritic condition, the patient is unable to rotate the shoulders any farther apart. What can the technologist do to separate the shoulders further during the repeat exposure?

Angle the CR 3-5* caudad

A form of rheumatoid arthritis

Ankylosing spondylitis

A short column of bone found between the superior and articular processes in a typical cervical vertebra is called

Articular pillar

List the alternative name for the cervical vertebrae, C1

Atlas

What is C1 called?

Atlas

List the alternative name for the cervical vertebrae, C2

Axis

What is the recommended degree of obliquity for an RAO projection of the sternum for an asthenic-type patient? A. 20 degrees B. 15 degrees C. 30 degrees D. 10 degrees

B. 15 degrees

What type of CR angle must be used when performing the AP axial C spine projection erect? A. 15 cephalad B. 20 cephalad C. 15 caudad D. 25 cephalad

B. 20 cephalad

Which of the following projections will project the dens within the shadow of the foramen magnum? A. AP open mouth B. AP projection (Fuchs method) C. Twining method D. None of the above

B. AP projection (Fuchs method)

Which position can replace the RAO of the sternum if the patient cannot lie prone? A. LAO B. Left lateral decubitus C. LPO D. RPO

C. LPO

Which of the following statements is true? A. All adult vertebrae are separated by intervertebral disks. B. All thoracic vertebrae have at least one facet for rib articulation. C. The intervertebral disks are tightly bound to the vertebral bodies to prevent movement within the vertebral column. D. All of the above

B. All thoracic vertebrae have at least one facet for rib articulation.

Which of the following curves is classified as being compensatory? A. Thoracic B. Cervical C. Sacral D. None of the above

B. Cervical

An RPO position of the cervical spine requires a 45 oblique of the body with a 15 caudad CR angle. A. True B. False

B. False

The PA projection (Judd method) is intended to demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint between C1 and C2. A. True B. False

B. False

The anterior oblique thoracic spine demonstrates the upside zygapophyseal joints. A. True B. False

B. False

Which one of the following projections will best demonstrate a compression fracture of the thoracic spine? A. AP projection B. Lateral projection C. Posterior oblique positions D. Anterior oblique positions

B. Lateral projection

Why are the anterior oblique projections (RAO/LAO) preferred over the posterior oblique projections of the cervical spine? A. More comfortable for the patient B. Less thyroid and breast dose C. Prevent overlap of the mandible over the spine D. Place the zygapophyseal joints closer to the image receptor

B. Less thyroid and breast dose

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the left zygapophyseal joints of the thoracic spine? A. LPO B. RPO C. RAO D. Lateral

B. RPO

Why is the RAO sternum preferred to the LAO position? A. The RAO produces less magnification of the sternum B. The RAO projects the sternum over the shadow of the heart C. The RAO reduces dose to the thyroid gland D. The RAO projects the sternum away from the hilum and heart

B. The RAO projects the sternum over the shadow of the heart

A radiograph of an AP thoracic spine projection reveals that the upper thoracic spine is overexposed. The lower vertebrae have acceptable density and contrast. Which one of the following modifications will improve the visibility of the upper thoracic spine? A. Place the upper spine under the cathode side of the tube. B. Use a compensating (wedge) filter. C. Increase the kV to decrease the contrast of the upper spine. D. Use a breathing technique.

B. Use a compensating (wedge) filter.

Along with increasing the SID, what other factor will improve detail for lateral and oblique projections of the cervical spine? A. Increasing OID B. Using a small focal spot C. Using higher kV, lower mAs D. Using a breathing technique

B. Using a small focal spot

The AP axial-vertebral arch projection may be performed to better demonstrate the: A. lateral masses of C1 and C1-2 zygapophyseal joint space. B. articular pillars of C4-7. C. open intervertebral disk spaces of C3-T1. D. dens within the foramen magnum.

B. articular pillars of C4-7.

T/F: The LAO position of the sternum provides the best frontal image of the sternum with a minimal amount of distortion.

False

T/F: The PA projection (Judd method) is intended to demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint between C1 and C2

False

For an AP axial of the cervical spine, a plane through the tip of the mandible and the _____ should be parallel to the angled central ray

Base of skull

center portion of sternum

Body

The two main parts of a typical vertebra are the ____ and the _____

Body Vertebral arch

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine? A. AP axial B. Posterior obliques C. Lateral D. Anterior obliques

C. Lateral

A patient comes to radiology for a follow-up study for a clay shoveler's fracture. Which of the following projections will best demonstrate this fracture? A. AP cervical spine B. Lateral thoracic spine C. Lateral cervical spine D. AP axial-vertebral arch projection

C. Lateral cervical spine

Which imaging modality will best demonstrate HNP in the cervical spine? A. CT B. Hyperflexion and hyperextension lateral projections C. MRI D. Nuclear medicine

C. MRI

What imaging modality is recommended for a "teardrop burst" fracture?

T/F: The anterior oblique thoracic spine demonstrates the upside zygapophyseal joints

False

A radiograph of an RAO of the cervical spine reveals that the lower intervertebral foramina are not open. The upper vertebral foramina are well visualized. Which positioning error most likely lead to this radiographic outcome? A. Excessive CR angulation B. Insufficient CR angulation C. Insufficient rotation of the upper body D. Incorrect CR placement

C. Insufficient rotation of the upper body

T/F: The only bony connection between the shoulder girdle and the bony thorax is the acromioclavicular joint.

False

T/F: The posterior cervical oblique projections demonstrate the intervertebral foramina and pedicals on the side closest to the image receptor.

False

T/F: The quantity of hydrogen protons within structures being imaged by MRI has no effect on MRI contrast

False

A digital (CR) radiograph taken of a lateral thoracic spine projection demonstrates poor visibility of the spine. The image was taken on a full 14 17-inch (35 43 cm) IR. The following factors were used during the exposure: 80 kV, 80 mAs, 40-inch (102 cm) SID, and collimation to the size of the IR. Which one of the following modifications will result in a more diagnostic image? A. Decrease kV B. Decrease mAs C. Collimate to spine D. Increase SID

C. Collimate to spine

Which factor is most important to open up the intervertebral joint spaces for a lateral thoracic spine projection? A. Use sufficiently high kV B. Collimate the spine region to reduce scatter C. Keep vertebral column parallel to tabletop D. Angle the CR 5 to 10 caudad

C. Keep vertebral column parallel to tabletop

The spinal cord tapers off to a point distally at the level of: A. lower L5. B. L2-3 intervertebral space. C. L1-L2. D. L4-5 intervertebral space.

C. L1-L2.

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the axillary portion of the left ribs? A. AP B. PA C. LPO D. LAO

C. LPO

A patient enters the ER with a cervical spine injury as a result of a fall. The initial horizontal beam lateral projection reveals no subluxation or fracture. The ER physician is concerned about a whiplash injury. Which of the following routines would be most helpful in diagnosing this type of injury? A. Patient in the swimmer's lateral position B. Oblique projections of the cervical spine C. Patient in hyperflexion and hyperextension lateral positions D. AP Ottonello method

C. Patient in hyperflexion and hyperextension lateral positions

A patient comes to the radiology department for a cervical spine routine. The study is ordered for nontraumatic reasons. The AP open-mouth projection reveals that the base of the skull and upper incisors are superimposed, but they are obscuring the upper portion of the dens. On the repeat exposure, what should the technologist do to demonstrate the entire dens? A. Increase the flexion of the skull. B. Increase the extension of the skull. C. Perform the Fuchs or Judd method. D. Perform the AP chewing projection.

C. Perform the Fuchs or Judd method.

T/F: The rate of precession decreases as the strength of the magnetic field increases

False

A radiograph of an AP open-mouth projection of the cervical spine reveals that the zygapophyseal joints are not symmetric. No fracture or subluxation are present. Which one of the following positioning errors most likely lead to this radiographic outcome? A. Excessive CR angulation B. Insufficient CR angulation C. Rotation of the spine D. Excessive flexion of the head

C. Rotation of the spine

The thyroid dose for a posterior cervical oblique is ____ greater than that of the anterior oblique. A. two times B. one fourth C. more than 10 times D. None of the above; there is no significant difference with proper collimation.

C. more than 10 times

Which of the following factors will enhance the visibility of the vertebral bodies during a lateral projection of the thoracic spine? A. Use a high kV B. Increase SID C. Use a breathing technique D. Flex the spine

C. Use a breathing technique

Scoliosis is defined as an abnormal or exaggerated: A. concave curvature. B. convex curvature. C. lateral curvature. D. "swayback" lumbar curvature.

C. lateral curvature.

What vertebral level is the Thyroid cartilage at?

C4-C6

level. Thyroid cartilage

C4-C6

Which region of the spine must be demonstrated with a cervicothoracic lateral position?

C5-T3

What vertebral level is the vertebra prominens at?

C7-T1

level. Vertebra prominens

C7-TI

What controls the actual slice thickness on multislice CT scanners?

Collimation, or the size of the detector row used

What are two important benefits of using an SID 60 to 72 inches (152 to 183 cm) for the lateral cervical spine

Compensates for increased OID reduces magnification Less divergence of xray beam to reduce shoulder superimposition of C7

A fracture of the vertebral body in which the anterior margin collapses, frequently associated with osteoporosis

Compression fracture

Which of the following is not a correct criterion for the AP axial C spine projection? A. C3 to T2 or T3 vertebral bodies should be visible. B. Spinous processes are seen to be equal distances from the vertebra body lateral borders. C. Center of the collimation field is at C4. D. All of the above are correct criteria.

D. All of the above are correct criteria.

T/F: The tubercle portion of a typical rib connects the anterior end of the rib to the sternum

False

T/F: Volume acquisition CT slices cannot be reformatted as 3-D images

False

Which of the following features makes the cervical vertebra unique as compared with other vertebrae of the spine? A. Transverse foramina and double (bifid) tips on spinous processes B. Overlapping vertebral bodies C. Presence of zygapophyseal joints D. All of the above

D. All of the above

How much rotation of the body is required for an LAO projection of the thoracic spine (from the plane of the table)? A. 20 B. 45 C. 50 to 60 D. 70

D. 70

A patient comes to radiology for a thoracic spine routine. The patient has a history of arthritis of the spine. The radiologist requests that additional projections be taken to demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints. What positions and/or projections would be ideal to demonstrate these structures? A. Pillar view projection of interest region B. Swimmer's lateral projection C. Spot AP and lateral projections of interest region D. 70 oblique projections

D. 70 oblique projections

What is the recommended SID for the lateral sternum position? A. 40 inches (102cm) B. 44 inches (112cm) C. 46 inches (117cm) D. 72 inches (180cm)

D. 72 inches (180cm)

The zygapophyseal joints for the typical cervical vertebra lie at an angle of ____ in relation to the midsagittal plane. A. 45 B. 60 C. 70 to 75 D. 90

D. 90

Which position and/or projection of the cervical spine will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint spaces between C1 and C2? A. AP axial B. Lateral C. 45 obliques D. AP open mouth

D. AP open mouth

Patient comes to radiology for a follow-up study of the cervical spine. The patient had spinal fusion between C5-6 performed 6 months earlier. His physician wants to assess the cervical spine for anteroposterior mobility. Which of the following projections would provide this assessment? A. Cervicothoracic projection B. AP axial-vertebral arch projection C. Judd or Fuchs projection D. Hyperflexion and hyperextension projections

D. Hyperflexion and hyperextension projections

A radiograph of an AP axial projection of the cervical spine reveals that the intervertebral joints are not open. The following factors were used for this projection: 5 cephalad angle, 40-inch (100 cm) SID, grid, slight extension of the skull, and the CR centered to the thyroid cartilage. Which of the following modifications should be made during the repeat exposure? A. Keep the CR perpendicular to the image receptor. B. Increase the SID to 72 inches (183 cm). C. Center the CR to the gonion. D. Increase the CR angulation.

D. Increase the CR angulation.

Which of the following positions will demonstrate the left intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine? A. RAO B. LPO C. Lateral D. LAO

D. LAO

For an average-size adult, which of the following would receive the highest skin dose? A. AP "wagging jaw" cervical spine, 3-second exposure time B. AP thoracic spine C. Lateral cervical spine at 72-inch (183 cm) SID D. Lateral thoracic spine

D. Lateral thoracic spine

A lateral projection of the thoracic spine reveals that the upper aspect, which is a primary area of interest on this patient, is obscured by the patient's shoulders. Which of the following changes will best demonstrate this region of the spine? A. Use a compensating (wedge) filter and repeat the exposure with increased kV. B. Angle the CR 10 to 15 cephalad. C. Perform the projection with the patient erect and holding weights in hand during exposure. D. Perform a cervicothoracic (swimmer's) lateral position.

D. Perform a cervicothoracic (swimmer's) lateral position.

A patient enters the ER due to a MVA. He is on a back board and in a cervical collar. The initial lateral cervical spine projection demonstrates C1 to C6. The patient has broad and thick shoulders. Because the hospital is in a rural setting, no CT scanner is available. Which of the following modifications would best demonstrate the lower cervical spine? A. Repeat the exposure and increase kV. B. Repeat the exposure but ask the patient to stand up and do the lateral projection erect. C. Repeat the exposure but have a student pull down on the arms during the exposure. D. Perform the horizontal beam cervicothoracic (swimmer's) lateral position.

D. Perform the horizontal beam cervicothoracic (swimmer's) lateral position.

A radiograph of a lateral thoracic spine reveals that there is excessive density along the posterior aspect of the spine. Even with good collimation, the scatter radiation reaching the image receptor obscures the spinous processes. What can the technologist do to improve the visibility of the posterior elements of the spine? A. Use higher-speed screens and film. B. Increase the kV, lower the mAs. C. Use a higher-ratio grid. D. Place a lead mat on the tabletop just posterior to the patient.

D. Place a lead mat on the tabletop just posterior to the patient.

Which term best defines or describes the vertebral body of C1? A. The smallest of all vertebral bodies B. A column of bone supported by an intervertebral disk C. A large bony mass D. There is no vertebral body at C1.

D. There is no vertebral body at C1.

Why is the chin extended for a lateral projection of the cervical spine? A. To open up the C1-2 joint space B. To demonstrate the articular pillars C. To open up the intervertebral joint space D. To prevent superimposition of the mandible upon the spine

D. To prevent superimposition of the mandible upon the spine

Kyphosis is defined as a(n): A. normal or abnormal lumbar swayback curvature. B. normal or abnormal convex sacral curvature. C. normal compensatory curve of thoracic spine. D. abnormal thoracic curvature with increased convexity.

D. abnormal thoracic curvature with increased convexity.

True/False: The carotid artery & certain nerves pass through the cervical transverse foramina.

False

Two partial facets found on the thoracic vertebrae are called:

Demifacets

the modified body of C2 is called?

Dens or odontoid process

True/False: The thoracic spine possesses facets for rib articulations & bifid spinous processes.

False

radiographic examination andor projections performed for scoliosis

Erect (AP/PA) and lateral spine including bending laterals

T/F: A lateral projection of the sternum requires that respiration be suspended on expiration

False

True or false? The zygapophyseal joints of all cervical vertebrae are visualized only in a true lateral position.

False. Between C1 and 2 are visualized on a frontal or AP projection

Label

G) Spinous process H) facet of superior articular process I) pedicle J) body K) inferior articular process

Muscular structures seen on a CT image would appear:

Gray

Fracture through pedicles of C2, usually resulting in anterior subluxation of C2 on C3

Hangman's fracture

Fracture through the pedicles and anterior arch of C2 with. forward displacement on C3

Hangman's fracture

Herniation of intervertebral disk into the spinal canal

Herniated nucleus pulposus

What is the correct term for the condition involving a "slipped disk"?

Herniated nucleus pulposus

The condition involving a "'slipped disk" is correctly referred to as

Herniated nucleus pulposus (HNP)

Situation: A patient with a possible cervical spine injury enters the emergency room. The patient is on a backboard. Which projection of the cervical spine should be taken first?

Horizontal beam lateral projection

The superior & inferior vertebral notches create which foramina?

Intervertebral foramina

A radiograph of an AP axial projection of the cervical spine shows that the intervertebral disk spaces are not open. The following positioning factors were used: extension of the skull, central ray angled 10 degrees cephalad, cr centered to the thyroid cartilage and no rotation or tilt of the spine. Which of these factors must be modified to produce a more diagnostic image?

Increase CR angulation to 15 degrees cephalad

A radiograph on a lateral l projection of the cervical spine shows that C7 is not clearly demonstrated. The following factors were used: erect position. . 44-inch (112-cm) SID, arms down by the patient's side, and exposure made during inspiration. Which two of these factors should be changed to produce a more diagnostic image during the repeat exposure?

Initiate exposure during suspended expiration and increase SID to 72"

Comminuted fracture of the anterior and posterior arches of C1 caused by an "on-end" impact trauma demonstrated by the offset or spreading of lateral masses:

Jefferson fracture

Impact fracture from axial loading of the anterior and posteri arch of CI

Jefferson fracture

Superior margin of manubrium

Jugular (suprasternal notch)

Abnormal convex thoracic curvature

Kyphosis

Abnormal or exaggerated convex curvature of the thoracic spine

Kyphosis

An abnormal or exaggerated thoracic spinal curvature with increased convexity is called:

Kyphosis

Which foramina are demonstrated with a left anterior oblique (LAO) position of the cervical spine?

L intervertebral foramina (downside)

Which specific joint spaces are visualized with a left anterior oblique (LAO) projection of the thoracic spine?

L zygapophyseal joint (downside)

Label

L) superior articular process M) zygapophyseal joint N) facet for head of rib (forms costovertebral joint O) intervertebral foramen P) facet for rib articulation

The _____ are two bony aspects of the vertebral arch that extend posteriorly from each pedicle to join at the midline.

Lamina

radiographic examination andor projections performed for Unilateral subluxation of cervical spine:

Lateral cervical spine

What is the term for the same structure, identified in the previous question, for the CI vertebra?

Lateral mass

Which position of the thoracic spine best demonstrates the intervertebral foramina?

Lateral position

Which position or projection of the cervical spine best demonstrates the zygapophyseal joints (between C3 & C7)?

Lateral position

What ancillary device should be placed behind the patient on the tabletop for a recumbent lateral projection of the thoracic spine?

Lead mat or masking

Normal or abnormal concave lumbar curvature

Lordosis

Upper portion of sternum:

Manubrium

What is the name of the radiographic procedure that requires the injection of contrast media into the subarachnoid space?

Myelography

Comminuted fracture of the vertebral body with posterior fragments displaced into the spinal canal

Teardrop burst fracture

Which imaging modality is ideal for detecting early signs of osteomyelitis?

Nuclear medicine

Which of the following imaging modalities is not normally performed to rule out a herniated nucleus pulposus (HNP)?

Nuclear medicine

List the outer and inner aspects of the intervertebral disk.

Outer aspect: annulus fibrosis Inner aspect: nucleus pulposus

Situation: A patient comes to the radiology department for a cervical spine series. An AP "open mouth" radiograph indicates that the base of the skull and the lower edge of the front incisors are superimposed, but the top of the dens is not clearly demonstrated. What should the technologist do to demonstrate the upper portion of the dens? (A horizontal beam lateral projection has ruled out a C-spine fracture or subluxation.)

Perform either the (AP) fuchhs or PA judd method

What is the unique feature of all thoracic vertebrae that distinguishes them from other vertebrae?

Presence of facets for articulation with ribs

What is the one feature of all thoracic vertebrae that makes them different from all other vertebrae?

Presence of facets for articulations with ribs.

T2-3 intervertebral disk space is found at the level of the: A. jugular notch. C. xiphoid process. B. sternal angle. D. 2 inches (5 cm) below the jugular notch.

A radiograph of an AP wagging Jaw " ( Ottonello method ) projection taken at 75 kV 10 mAs , and 0.5 second (analog technique) demonstrates that part of the image of the mandible is still visible and is obscuring the upper cervical spine. Which modification needs to be made to produce a more diagnostic image during the repeat exposure?

Reduce mAs and increase exposure time to produce more blurring of the mandible

What specifically do the CT detectors measure?

Remnant radiation

Matching of the frequency of a precessing nucleus with a radio wave frequency is termed:

Resonance

A lack of symmetry of the zygapophyseal joints between CI and C2 may be caused by injury or may be ssociated with

Rotation of the skull

A disease more common in teenage boys than girls, resulting in spinal curvature

Scheuermann disease

An abnormal lateral curvature seen in the thoracolumbar spine is called

Scoliosis

An abnormal or exaggerated lateral spinal curvature is called:

Scoliosis

Scheuermann disease is a form of:

Scoliosis and/or kyphosis

What vertebral level is the sternal angle at?

T4-5

level. Sternal angle

T4-T5

Which specific thoracic vertebrae are classified as typical thoracic vertebrae (they least resemble cervical or lumbar vertebrae)

T5 -T8

Which specific thoracic vertebrae are classified as typical thoracic vertebrae (they least resemble cervical or lumbar vertebrae)

T5-T8

Which structures pass through the intervertebral foramina?

Spinal nerves and blood vessels

Inflammation of the vertebrae

Spondylitis

Which position or projection demonstrates the lower cervical & upper thoracic spine (C4-T3) in a lateral perspective? (Fracture/subluxation has been ruled out)

Swimmers

The common name of the method for the cervicothoracic lateral position is the

Swimmers method

What vertebral level is the jugular notch at?

T2-3

level. Jugular notch

T2-T3

The bony structures connected directly to the vertebral body are the: A. pedicles. C. laminae. B. articular processes. D. transverse processes.

The breast dose for a posterior oblique thoracic spine is more than four times the dose of an anterior oblique. A. True B. False

The joints between articular processes of vertebra are termed: A. zygapophyseal joints. C. intervertebral joints. B. fibrous joints. D. synarthrodial joints.

The most prominent aspect of the thyroid cartilage corresponds to the vertebral level of: A. C5. C. C6-7. B. C1-2. D. C7-T1.

What type of CR angle is required for posterior oblique (LPO/RPO) positions of the cervical spine? A. 15 cephalad C. 5 to 10 cephalad B. 15 caudad D. None. CR is perpendicular to IR.

Where is the articular pillar located on a cervical vertebra? A. Between the superior and inferior articular processes C. Between the spinous process and the lamina B. Between the pedicle and the body D. Are not present on cervical vertebrae

Which aspect of the intervertebral disk is composed of semigelatinous material? A. Nucleus pulposus C. Conus medullaris B. Annulus fibrosus D. Cauda equina

Which of the following pathologic conditions will require a decrease in manual technical factors? A. Advanced osteoporosis C. Moderate lordosis B. Severe scoliosis D. Scheuermann disease

Which of the following statements is true for a typical adult vertebra? A. The transverse processes extend laterally from the junction of the pedicles and laminae. C. The spinous process extends posteriorly from the body of the vertebra. B. The transverse processes are present only on thoracic vertebrae containing rib connections. D. All of the above

List the two advantages of using higher kV exposure factors with high-latitude analog (film-screen) systems imaging for spine radiography, especially on an anteroposterior (AP) thoracic spine radiograph.

Wider range of densities Decrease in patient dose

Situation: A patient enters the ER because of a motor vehicle accident. The patient is on a back board and wearing a cervical collar. The technologist is concerned about the artifacts that the collar will project on the spine during the horizontal beam lateral projection. What should the technologist do in this situation? A. Leave the collar on during the exposure. C. Ask the patient to remove the collar herself (for liability reasons). B. Remove the cervical collar but be careful not to move the patient's head. D. Ask the ER physician to remove the collar and to hold the patient's head while the technologist is initiating the exposure.

Which ligament holds the dens against the anterior arch of C1?

Transverse atlanta ligament

T/F: A recommended practice is to decrease the SID to less than 40 inches (102cm) for the oblique sternum to increase the magnification and resultant unsharpness of overlying ribs.

True

T/F: An RPO position of the cervical spine requires a 45 degree oblique of the body with a 15 degree caudad CR angle.

True

T/F: Another term for a breathing technique during exposure is the orthostatic technique

True

T/F: CT is recommended over MRI in the evaluation of severe spinal trauma

True

T/F: Glucose and oxygen are able to pass through the blood-brain barrier

True

T/F: MRI can produce axial, sagittal, and coronal perspectives of the anatomy

True

T/F: Oxygen deprivation to the brain for 4 minutes can lead to permanent brain cell injury

True

T/F: Special filters can be used during CT fluoroscopy to reduce patient skin dose during biopsies.

True

T/F: Submillimeter slice thicknesses are possible with multislice CT scanners

True

T/F: The degree of rotation for the RAO projection of the sternum is dependent on the size of the thoracic cavity

True

T/F: The gantry houses the x-ray tube and the detector array

True

T/F: The longer the radio wave is applied to the patient, the greater the angle of precession

True

T/F: The loud "knocking" heard during an MRI study is due to the gradient coils.

True

T/F: The three-dimensional volume of tissue in a slice is called a voxel

True

True or False: Less CR angle is required for the AP axial projection of the cervical spine if the examination is performed supine rather than erect.

True

True or False: When using digital imaging for spine radiography, it is important to use close collimation, grids, and lead masking

True

True or false? Nuclear medicine is often performed to diagnose bone tumors of the spine.

True

True or false? Performing the cervicothoracic projection is often required to demonstrate the C7/TI region for the obese patient

True

True or false? The thyroid dose delivered during a posterior oblique cervical spine (LPO or RPO) projection is greater than the thyroid dose for an anterior oblique (RAO or LAO) projection of the cervical spine.

True

Situation: A radiograph of a lateral projection of the cervical spine reveals that the ramus of the mandible is superimposed over the spine. What could the technologist have done to prevent this? A. Increase the extension of the skull. C. Angle the CR 3 to 5 caudad. B. Increase the flexion of the skull. D. Have the patient hold 5 to 10 lb in each hand.

A radiograph of an AP projection of the thoracic spine shows that the upper thoracic spine is greatly overexposed but the lower vertebrae are well visualized. The head of the patient was placed at the anode end of the table. What can be used during the repeat exposure to produce a more diagnostic image?

Use a compensating (wedge) filter with thicker part of filter placed over the upper thoracic spine to equalize the density along the thoracic spine

A radiograph of a lateral thoracic spine shows that lung markings and ribs make it difficult to visualize the vertebral bodies. The following factors were used: recumbent position, 40-inch (102-cm) SID, short exposure time, and exposure made during full expiration. Which of these factors must be modified to produce a more. diagnostic image during the repeat exposure?

Use of an orthostatic (breathing) technique to blur lung markings and ribs more effectively

To ensure that the intervertebral joint spaces are open for lateral thoracic spine projections, it is important to:

Using a small focal spot

The opening or passageway for the spinal cord is the

Vertebral (spinal) canal

What is c7 called?

Vertebral prominens

Which medium serves as the baseline for CT numbers?

Water, which measures 0

A radiograph of a right posterior oblique (RPO) cervical spine projection shows that the lower intervertebral foramina are not open. The upper intervertebral foramina are well visualized. What positioning eror most likely led to this radiographic outcome?

When the lower intervertebral foramina are narrowed while the upper foramina are well demonstrated the positioning error most often is under rotated of the upper body (shoulders) the upper body must be rotated 45*

Most inferior aspect of stermum (landmark:

Xiphoid process

A patient who was involved in a motor vehicle accident (MVA) 3 days earlier is experiencing severe neck pain & come to the radiology department for a cervical spine series. The patient is not wearing a c-collar. Should the tech take a horizontal beam lateral projection & have it cleared before proceeding with the study? Explain

Yes, must assume fracture is present for a suggested trauma & horizontal beam lateral to be taken. Radiologist or Dr. must clear patient for further exams.

The large joint space between C1 & C2 is called the:

Zygapophyseal joint

What is found between the superior and inferior articular processes?

Zygapophyseal joints

Which joints are found between the superior & inferior articular processes?

Zygapophyseal joints

Along with the upper incisors, what other bony landmarks must be aligned for the AP open-mouth projection? a. Base of skull b. Tip of mandible c. Inferior margin of lower incisors d. Thyroid cartilage

a. Base of skull

Which of the following structures connects the anterior aspect of the ribs to the sternum? a. Costocartilage b. Sternal tendons c. Costotransverse joints d. Costovertebral joints

a. Costocartilage

Which of the following positions will demonstrate the left intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine? a. RAO b. LPO c. Lateral d. LAO

a. RAO

Longitudinal or spin lattice relaxation when spins begin to precess at smaller angles is termed: a. T1 b. T2 c. spin density d. free induction decay

a. T1

Which of the following is NOT true about the nuclei used in MRI? a. They must be radioisotope forms of the nuclei. b. They should be found in abundance in the human body c. They must have an odd number of protons and neutrons d. They must be affected by an external magnetic field

a. They must be radioisotope forms of the nuclei.

Which of the following occupational workers must have conventional radiographic images of the orbits taken before an MRI head scan a. radiographer b. landscaper c. machinist d. none of the above

a. radiographer

The widest aspect of the thorax occurs at the level of: a. the 8th or 9th rib. b. the 11th and 12th ribs. c. the sternoclavicular joints. d. T7.

a. the 8th or 9th rib.

Which of the following divisions of the spine is described as possessing a primary curve? (There may be more than on correct answer? a. thoracic b. cervical c. lumbar d. sacral

a. thoracic d. sacral

______ controls the brightness of an image within a certain range. a. window level b. collimation c. window width d. none of the above

a. window level

The joints between articular processes of vertebra are termed: a. zygapophyseal joints. b. synarthrodial joints. c. intervertebral joints. d. fibrous joints

a. zygapophyseal joints.

A CT colonography requires the use of _________ as a contrast medium.

air

A short column of bone found between the superior and articular processes in a typical cervical vertebra is called?

articular pillar.

Along with increasing the SID, what other factor will improve detail for lateral and oblique projections of the cervical spine? A. Increasing OID C. Using higher kV, lower mAs B. Using a small focal spot D. Using a breathing technique

An RPO position of the cervical spine requires a 45 oblique of the body with a 15 caudad CR angle. A. True B. False

Situation: A radiograph of an AP open-mouth projection reveals that the base of the skull is superimposed over the dens. What positioning error led to this radiographic outcome? A. Excessive flexion of the skull C. Excessive CR angulation B. Excessive extension of the skull D. Rotation of the skull

Situation: A radiograph of an AP thoracic spine projection reveals that the upper thoracic spine is overexposed. The lower vertebrae have acceptable density and contrast. Which one of the following modifications will improve the visibility of the upper thoracic spine? A. Place the upper spine under the cathode side of the tube. C. Increase the kV to decrease the contrast of the upper spine. B. Use a compensating (wedge) filter. D. Use a breathing technique.

The AP axial-vertebral arch projection may be performed to better demonstrate the: A. lateral masses of C1 and C1-2 zygapophyseal joint space. C. open intervertebral disk spaces of C3-T1. B. articular pillars of C4-7. D. dens within the foramen magnum.

The PA projection (Judd method) is intended to demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint between C1 and C2. A. True B. False

The anterior oblique thoracic spine demonstrates the upside zygapophyseal joints. A. True B. False

The most posterior aspect of a typical vertebra is the: A. pedicle. C. lamina. B. spinous process. D. body.

The posterior cervical oblique projections demonstrate the intervertebral foramina and pedicles on the side closest to the image receptor. A. True B. False

What type of CR angle must be used when performing the AP axial C spine projection erect? A. 15 cephalad C. 15 caudad B. 20 cephalad D. 25 cephalad

Which of the following curves is classified as being compensatory? A. Thoracic C. Sacral B. Cervical D. None of the above

Which of the following factors does not apply to a lateral projection of the cervical spine? A. Use a 72-inch (183 cm) SID. C. Perform horizontal-beam lateral projection if trauma is suspected. B. Suspend respiration upon full inspiration. D. Center CR to thyroid cartilage.

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the left zygapophyseal joints of the thoracic spine? A. LPO C. RAO B. RPO D. Lateral

Which of the following projections will project the dens within the shadow of the foramen magnum? A. AP open mouth C. Twining method B. AP projection (Fuchs method) D. None of the above

Which of the following statements is true? A. All adult vertebrae are separated by intervertebral disks. C. The intervertebral disks are tightly bound to the vertebral bodies to prevent movement within the vertebral column. B. All thoracic vertebrae have at least one facet for rib articulation. D. All of the above

Which of the following thoracic vertebra(e) possess no facets for costotransverse joints? A. T9-10 C. T1 B. T11-12 D. None of the above

Which one of the following projections will best demonstrate a compression fracture of the thoracic spine? A. AP projection C. Posterior oblique positions B. Lateral projection D. Anterior oblique positions

Why are the anterior oblique projections (RAO/LAO) preferred over the posterior oblique projections of the cervical spine? A. More comfortable for the patient C. Prevent overlap of the mandible over the spine B. Less thyroid and breast dose D. Place the zygapophyseal joints closer to the image receptor

What is the minimum number of ribs that must be demonstrated for a unilateral rib study above the diaphragm? a. 6 b. 10 c. 12 d. 8

b. 10

The thyroid dose for a posterior cervical oblique is _____ greater than that of the anterior oblique. a. 5 to 7 times b. 10 to 15 times c. 25 to 35 times d. 50 times

b. 10 to 15 times

What type of CR angle is required for posterior oblique (LPO/RPO) positions of the cervical spine? a. 15 degrees cephalad b. 15 degrees caudad c. 5 to 10 degrees cephalad d. None, CR is perpendicular to IR

b. 15 degrees caudad

What type of CR angle must be used when performing the AP axial C spine projection erect? a. 10 degrees cephalad b. 20 degrees cephalad c. 15 degrees caudad d. 25 degrees cephalad

b. 20 degrees cephalad

At approximately what age does the xiphoid process become totally ossified? a. The xiphoid process never becomes ossified. b. 40 years old c. 21 years old d. 12 years old

b. 40 years old

How much rotation of the body is required for an LAO projection of the thoracic spine (from the plane of the table)? a. 15 degrees b. 70 degrees c. 45 degrees d. None of the above

b. 70 degrees

The zygapophyseal joints for the thoracic spine lie at an angle of ____ in relation to the midsagittal plane. a. 90 degrees b. 70 to 75 degrees c. 45 degrees d. 60 degree

b. 70 to 75 degrees

Which of the following projections will project the dens within the shadow of the foramen magnum? a. AP open mouth b. AP projection (Fuchs method) c. Twining method d. None of the above

b. AP projection (Fuchs method)

The most prominent aspect of the thyroid carilage corresponds to the vertebral level of: a. C1-2. b. C4-6. c. C6-7. d. C7-T1.

b. C4-6.

Which of the following is the first compensatory spinal curvature to develop in the young child? a. Sacral b. Cervical c. Thoracic d. None of the above

b. Cervical

What is the primary or preferred term for the superior margin of the sternum? a. Sternal notch b. Jugular notch c. Manubrial notch d. Suprasternal notch

b. Jugular notch

Which of the following projections of the c-spine demonstrates the left intervertebral foramen? a. LPO b. LAO c. Lateral projection d. RAO

b. LAO

Why are the anterior oblique projections (RAO/LAO) preferred over the posterior oblique projections of the cervical spine? a. More comfortable for the patient b. Less thyroid and breast dose c. Prevent overlap of the mandible over the spine d. Place the zygapophyseal joints closer to the image receptor

b. Less thyroid and breast dose

Which of the following pathologic indications would NOT apply to head CT? a. Subdural hematoma b. Multiple sclerosis c. Aneurysm d. Brain Atrophy

b. Multiple sclerosis

A patient enters the ED with an injury to the left anterior lower ribs. Which of the following projections should be taken to demonstrate the involved area? a. AP and LAO b. PA and RAO c. AP and LPO d. PA and LAO

b. PA and RAO

Which of the following factors does not apply to a lateral projection of the cervical spine? a. Use a 72-inch (183 cm) SID b. Suspend respiration upon full inspiration c. Perform horizontal-beam lateral projection if trauma is suspected d. Center CR to thyroid cartilage

b. Suspend respiration upon full inspiration

The xiphoid process corresponds to the vertebral level of: a. T8 b. T10 c. T7 d. T12

b. T10

Which of the following thoracic vertebra(e) possess no facets for costotransverse joints? a. T1 b. T11-12 c. None of the above d. T10-12

b. T11-12

Transverse or spin-spin relaxation when spins begin to precess out of phase with each other is termed: a. T1 b. T2 c. spin density d. free induction decay

b. T2

The suprasternal, manubrial, or jugular notch all correspond to the level of: a. T1. b. T2-3. c. C7. d. T4-5.

b. T2-3.

Kyphosis is defined as: a. normal or abnormal lumbar swayback curvature. b. abnormal thoracic curvature with increased convexity. c. normal compensatory curve of thoracic spine. d. normal or abnormal convex sacral curvature.

b. abnormal thoracic curvature with increased convexity.

Which of the following devices is subject to torquing within the magnetic field? a. stainless steel hip prothesis b. ferromagnetic aneurysm clips c. dental fillings d. glass eye prothesis

b. ferromagnetic aneurysm clips

Functional MRI is based on the: a. decrease in blood flow to the local vasculature that accompanies neural activity in the brain b. increase in blood flow to the local vasculature that accompanies neural activity in the brain c. increase in the uptake of contrast media within the brain d. decrease in signal produced during selective neural activity of the brain

b. increase in blood flow to the local vasculature that accompanies neural activity in the brain

T2-3 intervertebral disk space is found at the level of the: a. 2 inches (5 cm) below the jugular notch. b. jugular notch. c. xiphoid process. d. sternal angle.

b. jugular notch.

A technique used to view vessels demonstrated in CTA is termed: a. windowing b. maximum intensity projection c. multiplanar reconstruction d. volume scanning

b. maximum intensity projection

Which of the following structures makes up the inner aspect of the intervertebral disk? a. annulus fibrosus b. nucleus pulposus c. annulus pulposus d. nucleus fibrosus

b. nucleus pulposus

The bony structures connected directly to the vertebral body are the: a. transverse processes. b. pedicles. c. laminae. d. articular processes.

b. pedicles.

A predetermined procedure is the definition for: a. procedure b. protocol c. scan parameter d. technique

b. protocol

Another term for topogram is: a. CT scan b. CAT scan c. MPR b. scanogram

b. scanogram

Tissue heating, during an MRI procedure, is measured in _____ per kilogram. a. calories b. watts c. joules d. ionizations

b. watts

the two main parts of a typical vertebra or the?

body and vertebral arch

How many bones make up the adult vertebral column? A. 33 C. 26 B. 28 D. 31

How much CR angulation is required for the AP axial projection for the cervical spine? A. CR is perpendicular to the image receptor C. 15 to 20 cephalad B. 5 to 10 cephalad D. 15 to 20 caudad

Scoliosis is defined as an abnormal or exaggerated: A. concave curvature. C. lateral curvature. B. convex curvature. D. "swayback" lumbar curvature.

Situation: A digital (CR) radiograph taken of a lateral thoracic spine projection demonstrates poor visibility of the spine. The image was taken on a full 14 17-inch (35 43 cm) IR. The following factors were used during the exposure: 80 kV, 80 mAs, 40-inch (102 cm) SID, and collimation to the size of the IR. Which one of the following modifications will result in a more diagnostic image? A. Decrease kV C. Collimate to spine B. Decrease mAs D. Increase SID

Situation: A patient comes to radiology for a follow-up study for a clay shoveler's fracture. Which of the following projections will best demonstrate this fracture? A. AP cervical spine C. Lateral cervical spine B. Lateral thoracic spine D. AP axial-vertebral arch projection

Situation: A patient comes to the radiology department for a cervical spine routine. The study is ordered for nontraumatic reasons. The AP open-mouth projection reveals that the base of the skull and upper incisors are superimposed, but they are obscuring the upper portion of the dens. On the repeat exposure, what should the technologist do to demonstrate the entire dens? A. Increase the flexion of the skull. C. Perform the Fuchs or Judd method. B. Increase the extension of the skull. D. Perform the AP chewing projection.

Situation: A patient enters the ER with a cervical spine injury as a result of a fall. The initial horizontal beam lateral projection reveals no subluxation or fracture. The ER physician is concerned about a whiplash injury. Which of the following routines would be most helpful in diagnosing this type of injury? A. Patient in the swimmer's lateral position C. Patient in hyperflexion and hyperextension lateral positions B. Oblique projections of the cervical spine D. AP Ottonello method

Situation: A radiograph of an AP open-mouth projection of the cervical spine reveals that the zygapophyseal joints are not symmetric. No fracture or subluxation are present. Which one of the following positioning errors most likely lead to this radiographic outcome? A. Excessive CR angulation C. Rotation of the spine B. Insufficient CR angulation D. Excessive flexion of the head

Situation: A radiograph of an RAO of the cervical spine reveals that the lower intervertebral foramina are not open. The upper vertebral foramina are well visualized. Which positioning error most likely lead to this radiographic outcome? A. Excessive CR angulation C. Insufficient rotation of the upper body B. Insufficient CR angulation D. Incorrect CR placement

The gonion corresponds to the vertebral level of: A. C1. C. C3. B. C4-5. D. C7.

The spinal cord tapers off to a point distally at the level of: A. lower L5. C. L1-L2. B. L2-3 intervertebral space. D. L4-5 intervertebral space.

The thyroid dose for a posterior cervical oblique is ____ greater than that of the anterior oblique. A. two times C. more than 10 times B. one fourth D. None of the above; there is no significant difference with proper collimation.

The zygapophyseal joints for the thoracic spine lie at an angle of ____ in relation to the midsagittal plane. A. 45 C. 70 to 75 B. 60 D. 90

Which factor is most important to open up the intervertebral joint spaces for a lateral thoracic spine projection? A. Use sufficiently high kV C. Keep vertebral column parallel to tabletop B. Collimate the spine region to reduce scatter D. Angle the CR 5 to 10 caudad

Which imaging modality will best demonstrate HNP in the cervical spine? A. CT C. MRI B. Hyperflexion and hyperextension lateral projections D. Nuclear medicine

Which of the following factors will enhance the visibility of the vertebral bodies during a lateral projection of the thoracic spine? A. Use a high kV C. Use a breathing technique B. Increase SID D. Flex the spine

How much CR angulation is required for the AP axial projection for the cervical spine? a. CR is perpendicular to the image receptor b. 5 to 10 degrees cephalad c. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad d. 15 to 20 degrees caudad

c. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad

Which ribs are considered to be true ribs? a. 11th and 12th ribs b. 1st through 9th ribs c. 1st through 7th ribs d. 1st and 2nd ribs

c. 1st through 7th ribs

Which analog kV range is recommended for an AP study of the ribs found below the diaphragm? a. 50-60 kV b. 65-70kV c. 70-80kV d. 80-90kV

c. 70-80kV

CT fluoroscopy can obtain and display partially reconstructed images at a rate of _____ images per second. a. 1 to 3 b. 6 to 8 c. 8 to 12 d. 20 to 25

c. 8 to 12

The zygapophyseal joints for the typical cervical vertebra lie at an angle of ____ in relation to the midsagittal plane. a. 70 to 75 degrees b. 60 degrees c. 90 degrees d. 45 degrees

c. 90 degrees

Which of the following are contraindications to the contrast media most commonly used for MRI procedures? a. Renal failure b. Pregnancy c. Both A and B d. None of the above

c. Both A and B

Which of the following statements is true in comparing CT with MRI? a. Patients receive less radiation dose with a CT scan b. CT is better in demonstrating white brain matter pathology c. CT is better in demonstrating gastrointestinal diseases d. CT is better in demonstrating spinal cord conditions

c. CT is better in demonstrating gastrointestinal diseases

What is the name of the part of the rib that articulates with the thoracic vertebral body? a. Facets b. Neck c. Head d. Tubercles

c. Head

Which of the following nuclei found in the body is most often used in MRI? a. Potassium b. Sodium c. Hydrogen d. Carbon

c. Hydrogen

The spinal cord tapers off to a point distally at the vertebral level of: a. lower L5. b. L2-3 intervertebral space. c. L1-L2. d. L4-5 intervertebral space.

c. L1-L2.

A patient enters the ED with blunt trauma to the sternum. The patient is in great pain and cannot lie prone on the table or stand erect. Which of the following routines would be best for the sternum examination in this situation? a. RPO and lateral recumbent projections b. AP and horizontal beam lateral projections c. LPO and horizontal beam lateral projections d. LPO and lateral recumbent projections

c. LPO and horizontal beam lateral projections

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine? a. AP axial b. Posterior obliques c. Lateral d. Anterior obliques

c. Lateral

Which of the following ribs is considered to be a false rib? a. None of the above b. First c. Ninth d. Seventh

c. Ninth

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the left zygapophyseal joints of the thoracic spine? a. LPO b. RPO c. RAO d. Lateral

c. RAO

Which pair of ribs attaches to the sternum at the level of the sternal angle? a. First b. Fourth and fifth c. Second d. Third

c. Second

What is the joint classification and type of movement for the sternoclavicular joints? a. Cartilaginous with diarthrodial (ginglymus) movement b. Synovial with amphiarthrodial, limited movement c. Synovial with diarthrodial (plane) movement d. Cartilaginous with synarthrodial or no movement

c. Synovial with diarthrodial (plane) movement

The sternal angle is a palpable landmark at the level of: a. T9-10. b. T2-3. c. T4-5. d. T7.

c. T4-5.

An undesired feature or density in the CT image not representative of anatomy is a(n): a. CT aberration b. noise c. artifact d. windowing flaw

c. artifact

Neural activity in the brain during a functional MRI procedure is gauged by the: a. increase in signal intensity produced by certain regions of the brain b. decrease in signal intensity produced by certain regions of the brain c. blood oxygen level-dependent signal (BOLD) signal d. contrast enhancement of selective regions of the brain

c. blood oxygen level-dependent signal (BOLD) signal

Prospective electrocardiogram (ECG) gating used during cardiac CT permits the heart to be scanned: a. during maximum cardiac contraction b. while tricuspid and mitral valves are open c. during the diastole cycle d. during the systole cycle

c. during the diastole cycle

The most posterior aspect of a typical vertebra is the: a. pedicle. b. lamina. c. spinous process. d. body.

c. spinous process.

indicate which two portions of the vertebral column are classified as secondary or compensatory curves.

cervical, lumbar

How much rotation of the body is required for an LAO projection of the thoracic spine (from the plane of the table)? A. 20 C. 50 to 60 B. 45 D. 70

Kyphosis is defined as a(n): A. normal or abnormal lumbar swayback curvature. C. normal compensatory curve of thoracic spine. B. normal or abnormal convex sacral curvature. D. abnormal thoracic curvature with increased convexity.

Situation: A lateral projection of the thoracic spine reveals that the upper aspect, which is a primary area of interest on this patient, is obscured by the patient's shoulders. Which of the following changes will best demonstrate this region of the spine? A. Use a compensating (wedge) filter and repeat the exposure with increased kV. C. Perform the projection with the patient erect and holding weights in hand during exposure. B. Angle the CR 10 to 15 cephalad. D. Perform a cervicothoracic (swimmer's) lateral position.

Situation: A patient comes to radiology for a thoracic spine routine. The patient has a history of arthritis of the spine. The radiologist requests that additional projections be taken to demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints. What positions and/or projections would be ideal to demonstrate these structures? A. Pillar view projection of interest region C. Spot AP and lateral projections of interest region B. Swimmer's lateral projection D. 70 oblique projections

Situation: A patient enters the ER due to a MVA. He is on a back board and in a cervical collar. The initial lateral cervical spine projection demonstrates C1 to C6. The patient has broad and thick shoulders. Because the hospital is in a rural setting, no CT scanner is available. Which of the following modifications would best demonstrate the lower cervical spine? A. Repeat the exposure and increase kV. C. Repeat the exposure but have a student pull down on the arms during the exposure. B. Repeat the exposure but ask the patient to stand up and do the lateral projection erect. D. Perform the horizontal beam cervicothoracic (swimmer's) lateral position.

Situation: A radiograph of a lateral thoracic spine reveals that there is excessive density along the posterior aspect of the spine. Even with good collimation, the scatter radiation reaching the image receptor obscures the spinous processes. What can the technologist do to improve the visibility of the posterior elements of the spine? A. Use higher-speed screens and film. C. Use a higher-ratio grid. B. Increase the kV, lower the mAs. D. Place a lead mat on the tabletop just posterior to the patient.

Situation: A radiograph of an AP axial projection of the cervical spine reveals that the intervertebral joints are not open. The following factors were used for this projection: 5 cephalad angle, 40-inch (100 cm) SID, grid, slight extension of the skull, and the CR centered to the thyroid cartilage. Which of the following modifications should be made during the repeat exposure? A. Keep the CR perpendicular to the image receptor. C. Center the CR to the gonion. B. Increase the SID to 72 inches (183 cm). D. Increase the CR angulation.

Situation: Patient comes to radiology for a follow-up study of the cervical spine. The patient had spinal fusion between C5-6 performed 6 months earlier. His physician wants to assess the cervical spine for anteroposterior mobility. Which of the following projections would provide this assessment? A. Cervicothoracic projection C. Judd or Fuchs projection B. AP axial-vertebral arch projection D. Hyperflexion and hyperextension projections

The zygapophyseal joints for the typical cervical vertebra lie at an angle of ____ in relation to the midsagittal plane. A. 45 C. 70 to 75 B. 60 D. 90

Which of the following features makes the cervical vertebra unique as compared with other vertebrae of the spine? A. Transverse foramina and double (bifid) tips on spinous processes C. Presence of zygapophyseal joints B. Overlapping vertebral bodies D. All of the above

Which of the following is not a correct criterion for the AP axial C spine projection? A. C3 to T2 or T3 vertebral bodies should be visible. C. Center of the collimation field is at C4. B. Spinous processes are seen to be equal distances from the vertebra body lateral borders. D. All of the above are correct criteria.

Which of the following positions will demonstrate the left intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine? A. RAO C. Lateral B. LPO D. LAO

Which position and/or projection of the cervical spine will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint spaces between C1 and C2? A. AP axial C. 45 obliques B. Lateral D. AP open mouth

Which term best defines or describes the vertebral body of C1? A. The smallest of all vertebral bodies C. A large bony mass B. A column of bone supported by an intervertebral disk D. There is no vertebral body at C1.

Why is the chin extended for a lateral projection of the cervical spine? A. To open up the C1-2 joint space C. To open up the intervertebral joint space B. To demonstrate the articular pillars D. To prevent superimposition of the mandible upon the spine

Which of the following is not a correct criterion for the AP axial C spine projection? a. C3 to T2 or T3 vertebral bodies should be visible b. Spinous processes are seen to be equal distances from the vertebra body lateral borders c. Center of the collimation field is at C4 d. All of the above are correct criteria

d. All of the above are correct criteria

Which of the following factors does NOT contribute to the signal strength emitted from the tissues? a. Spin density b. T1 relaxation time c. T2 relaxation time d. Atomic number

d. Atomic number

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the axillary portion of the right ribs? a. RPO b. LAO c. LPO d. Both a. and b.

d. Both a. and b.

Which of the following conditions may be a contraindication for head CT? a. Epidural hematoma b. Intracranial hemorrhage c. Brain abscess d. Sensitivity to iodinated contrast media

d. Sensitivity to iodinated contrast media

Which of the following pathologic indications for a head CT is directly related to trauma? a. Hydrocephalus b. Brain atrophy c. Brain abscess d. Subdural hematoma

d. Subdural hematoma

Why is the chin extended for a lateral projection of the cervical spine? a. To open up the C1-2 joint space b. To demonstrate the articular pillars c. To open up the intervertebral joint space d. To prevent superimposition of the mandible upon the spine

d. To prevent superimposition of the mandible upon the spine

The AP axial-vertebral arch projection may be performed to better demonstrate the: a. posterior aspects of the mid and lower cervical vertebrae b. the articulations (zygapophyseal) joints between the lateral masses (pillars) c. laminae and spinous processes d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Which of the following technical factors is most important in producing a high-quality CR image? a. decrease SID whenever possible b. minimize the use of grids c. decrease kV as much as possible d. collimate as closely as possible

d. collimate as closely as possible.

Which of the following devices are allowed within the external magnetic field? a. cochlear implants b. internal drug infusion pumps c. neurostimulators d. none of the above

d. none of the above

the spinal cord extends down to which vertebra?

lower border of L1

true/false. the zygapophyseal joints of all cervical vertebrae are visualized only in a true lateral position.

false. between C! and C2 visualized on a frontal or AP projection.

the two small notches on the superior and inferior aspects of the pedicles create the?

intervertebral foramina

What are the two bony aspects of the vertebral arch that extend posteriorly from each pedicle to join at the midline?

lamina

An abnormal, or exaggerated sway back lumbar curvature is called?

lordosis

A lack of symmetry of the zygapophyseal joints between C1 and C2 may be caused by injury or may be associated with?

rotation of the skull

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CH 8 CERVICAL AND THORACIC SPINE EXAM

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