Ch.10
D) goal incompatibility
44) NewTel is a telephone company with a policy of filling positions internally through promotions, rather than hiring from outside. Until recently, the company had a strong engineering focus and tended to promote people to senior executive positions from the engineering areas. Consequently, almost all of the company';s 14 senior executives joined the company over 20 years ago as junior engineers. There is increasing pressure on NewTel to become more market and service oriented. As a result, four people were hired last year from firms to fill new senior executive positions in marketing and service departments. The external hires were necessary because current employees were not sufficiently qualified. Now, there are signs of tension among senior executives, particularly during budget deliberations where there is limited discretionary spending on new corporate activities. The four new hires have been thwarted in their attempts to have the company invest more in marketing and customer services instead of investing in technological research, and they blame the senior executives for being hard-headed. The conflict episodes are being viewed by both sides as personal attacks rather than attempts to resolve the problem. The four new hires have been attempting to have the company invest more in marketing and customer service instead of investing in technological research. The senior executives push back by insisting that cutting-edge technology speaks for itself, and nothing else matters. This is mainly an example of conflict due to which of the following? A) role ambiguity B) lack of communication C) sequential task interdependence D) goal incompatibility
C) low degree of cooperativeness and a high degree of assertiveness
48) In the context of interpersonal conflict-handling styles, a _______ represents the forcing style. A) high degree of cooperativeness and a low degree of problem solving B) high degree of cooperativeness and a high degree of assertiveness C) low degree of cooperativeness and a high degree of assertiveness D) high degree of problem solving and a high degree of cooperativeness
D) problem solving
49) Which of the following interpersonal conflict management styles represents a purely win‒win orientation? A) forcing B) yielding C) avoiding c
D) avoiding
50) Which of the following conflict management styles is associated with low cooperativeness and low assertiveness? A) forcing B) inquisition C) compromising D) avoiding
C) avoiding
51) Nadia has a relationship conflict with her colleague at the workplace. She tries to evade the conflict by having minimal communication with her colleague so as to reduce any chances of confrontation. What conflicting style has Nadia adopted in this case? A) forcing B) yielding C) avoiding D) compromising
A) forcing
52) Which of the following conflict management styles may be necessary when it is apparent that the other party will take advantage of other cooperative strategies? A) forcing B) yielding C) avoiding D) problem-solving
D) compromising
55) As a manager of XYZ Company, you are assigned to resolve a conflict between two departments in your organization, Department A and Department B. Both parties have equal power. You also realize that the parties lack trust/openness for problem solving. However, neither party wants to damage their relationship which has, in the past, been good. Which conflict resolution style would you use in this situation? A) forcing B) yielding C) avoiding D) compromising
B) yielding
56) As a manager of XYZ Company, you are assigned to resolve a conflict between two departments of your organization. Department A has considerably more power than Department B. Department B is having a difficult time framing their position, and the issue is not of great importance to them. What would Department B's best conflict resolution style be? A) forcing B) yielding C) avoiding D) compromising
A) avoiding and problem solving
57) People from high collectivist cultures would typically prefer to use which two conflict- handing styles? A) avoiding and problem solving B) yielding and avoiding C) yielding and compromise D) forcing and compromise
A) forcing; avoiding
58) Jerry is a sales rep who covered Sue's clients while she was on vacation. Jerry took an order for a customer and gave them a 15% discount. When Sue returned from vacation and found out about the discount, she was furious. "That customer should never get more than 10%," she tells Jerry. Their disagreement begins to escalate. In resolving this conflict, Jerry is more likely to use the ________ style, while Sue is more likely to use the ________ style. A) forcing; avoiding B) problem solving; forcing C) avoiding; forcing D) compromise; yielding
B) Superordinate
59) ________ goals are goals that the conflicting employees or departments value and whose attainment requires the joint resources and effort of those parties. A) Subordinate B) Superordinate C) Mediator D) Divisional
A) They are higher order aspirations such as the organization's strategic objectives.
60) Which of the following statements is TRUE about superordinate goals? A) They are higher order aspirations such as the organization's strategic objectives. B) They usually heighten the problem of differentiation. C) They are not achievable, but motivate those who value a challenge. D) They focus on the individual efforts of employees in a team rather than the entire
D) emphasize superordinate goals
63) Which of the following is NOT one of the three ways to reduce interdependence among employees and work units? A) create buffers B) use integrators C) combine jobs D) emphasize superordinate goals
B) decrease differentiation
64) To ________, companies can rotate staff to different departments and maintain a strong organizational culture. A) increase differentiation B) decrease differentiation C) create buffers D) clarify rules
B) level of process control and level of decision control
65) Third-party dispute resolution interventions are classified by which of the following? A) arbitrariness and firmness B) level of process control and level of decision control C) assertiveness and cooperativeness D) differentiation and interdependence
B) arbitration
66) Which of the following is a third-party conflict resolution strategy with low process control and high decision control? A) inquisition B) arbitration C) mediation D) imposition
A) inquisition
67) Which of the following third-party conflict resolution strategies is characterized by high decision control and high process control? A) inquisition B) arbitration C) mediation D) imposition
C) mediation
68) Which third-party conflict resolution strategy manages the process and context of interaction between the disputing parties but does not impose a solution on the parties? A) inquisition B) arbitration C) mediation D) legislation
A) high; low
69) Arbitration has a ________ level of control over the final outcome and a ________ level of control over the process. A) high; low B) high; high C) low; high D) low; low
A) inquisition
70) Which of the following types of third-party intervention approaches do managers and those in other positions of authority usually adopt? A) inquisition B) yielding C) mediation D) arbitration
B) mediation
71) For everyday disputes between two employees, managers should use ________ as a third-party intervention. A) inquisition B) mediation C) arbitration D) retaliation
B) introducing buffers
72) Fun Incorporated, a major gaming software company, is experiencing a conflict between the young Internet-savvy employees who design the games and the older, less computer-literate executives who run the company. The company has hired team leaders who could work with the executives and who are also highly computer-literate. By hiring these team leaders as liaisons between the executives and employees, Fun Incorporated is doing which of the following? A) emphasizing superordinate goals B) introducing buffers C) using intergroup mirroring D) using an inquisitor
D) inquisition
73) Employees at Charlotte International have been frustrated with the management on just about everything. The conflict episodes are being viewed by both sides as personal attacks rather than attempts to resolve problems. Both sides have decided to seek third-party dispute resolution. The management prefers a third-party intervention that has high process and decision control, while employees prefer a high level of process control and low decision control. The management at Charlotte International appears to prefer which of the following types of third- party intervention? A) arbitration B) intergroup mirroring C) mediation D) inquisition
A) mediation
74) Employees at Charlotte International have been frustrated with the management on just about everything. The conflict episodes are being viewed by both sides as personal attacks rather than attempts to resolve problems. Both sides have decided to seek third-party dispute resolution. The management prefers a third-party intervention that has high process and decision control while employees prefer a high level of process control and low decision control. The employees at Charlotte International prefer which of the following third-party interventions? A) mediation B) arbitration C) compromise D) inquisition
A) inquisition
75) Which third-party resolution method is usually least effective in organizations? A) inquisition B) arbitration C) mediation D) intergroup mirroring
B) The negotiation process moves each party along a continuum in opposite directions with an area of potential overlap.
76) Which of the following accurately depicts the bargaining zone model? A) The physical space around the negotiations affects the negotiation outcome. B) The negotiation process moves each party along a continuum in opposite directions with an area of potential overlap. C) The best negotiations occur in a neutral territory. D) The model is a circular process with no end.
C) It includes a target point, which is the team's realistic goal or expectation for a final agreement.
77) Which of the following statements is TRUE about the bargaining zone model of negotiations? A) It usually begins by setting the resistance points, followed by making the initial offer. B) It ensures neither party moves away from their initial offers. C) It includes a target point, which is the team's realistic goal or expectation for a final agreement. D) It implies that both the parties attempt to reach the initial offer point set by the other party.
B) bargaining zone
78) Initial offer points, target points, and resistance points represent three elements in the ________ model. A) conflict process B) bargaining zone C) types of third-party conflict resolution D) structural sources of conflict
A) the estimated cost of walking away from the relationship
79) What does BATNA represent? A) the estimated cost of walking away from the relationship B) the point at which the negotiation becomes an exploding offer C) one party's target point D) the difference between your resistance point and your opponent's resistance point
B) distributive
80) When a negotiator adopts a win-lose orientation in which one party necessarily loses when the other party gains, they are using the ________ approach to negotiations. A) integrative B) distributive C) target point D) mirroring
B) Set high target points that are specific.
81) The bargaining zone model suggests that better outcomes are usually achieved when negotiators do which of the following? A) Set low target points that are vague. B) Set high target points that are specific. C) Set low target points that are specific. D) Set low target points that are vague.
B) exploding offer.
82) The school district and teachers' union are negotiating a new contract. Both sides have made a few small concessions but on the night before school was to start, the teachers' union offered the school district a final offer that would end at midnight when a strike would officially start. The teachers' union agreed to decrease its salary demand by one percent but health insurance and job security demands were non-negotiable. The school district knew that parents were supporting the teachers and a strike would disrupt the community. With two hours until midnight, this time pressure on the part of the school is known as a(n) A) mirroring. B) exploding offer. C) inquisition. D) BATNA.
C) Information
83) _____ is the cornerstone of effective negotiations. A) Power B) Trust C) Information D) Communication
C) managing concessions
84) In the negotiation process, a key objective of ________ is to signal the relative importance of each issue being negotiated. A) gathering information B) managing time C) managing concessions D) building the relationship
D) building the relationship
85) In the negotiation process, a key objective of ________ is to establish and maintain trust. A) gathering information B) managing time C) managing concessions D) building the relationship
B) pay more attention to saving face
86) Negotiators tend to ________ when an audience is directly observing the process. A) give in to the other party's demands B) pay more attention to saving face C) take a "soft" approach D) be more willing to make concessions to the other party
B) the integrative approach
87) When resources are expandable, negotiators often choose ________, which is a win-win approach. A) the distributive approach B) the integrative approach C) the BATNA approach D) inquisition
B) win-lose
88) In the negotiation setting, people who sit face-to-face are more likely to develop a(n) _______ orientation toward the conflict situation. A) win-win B) win-lose C) integrative approach D) distributive approach
B) conflict
15) What is the term for the process in which one party perceives that its interests are being opposed or negatively affected by another party? A) mediation B) conflict C) negotiation D) dialogue
A) people's perceptions
16) What is conflict ultimately based on? A) people's perceptions B) actual intentions C) organizational structure D) technical competence
D) It energizes people to evaluate alternatives in decision making.
17) Which of the following is an advantage of having a moderate level of organizational conflict? A) It helps reduce organizational politics. B) It boosts employee motivation. C) It promotes organizational cohesion. D) It energizes people to evaluate alternatives in decision making.
D) Some level of conflict is necessary and promotes organizational effectiveness.
18) What does the "optimal conflict" perspective on organizational conflict state? A) Conflict should be minimized across all levels. B) Conflict could be promoted in some functions and discouraged in some others. C) Conflict is an inevitable result of increased technology and globalization. D) Some level of conflict is necessary and promotes organizational effectiveness.
A) It makes for better decision making by reexamining assumptions.
19) Which of the following is a positive consequence of workplace conflict? A) It makes for better decision making by reexamining assumptions. B) It increases team performance. C) It reduces organizational politics. D) It results in effective utilization of resources.
B) It encourages vigilance to better align with the external environment.
20) What is one of the benefits of conflict? A) It lets team members know who their supporters are. B) It encourages vigilance to better align with the external environment. C) It has no benefits because it encourages employees to probe and criticize each other's way of thinking. D) It is likely to trigger defense mechanisms and a competitive orientation among team members.
C) It is often stressful, which consumes personal energy and distract employees.
21) Which of the following is a criticism of conflict? A) It lets team members know who their supporters are. B) It reduces organizational politics. C) It is often stressful, which consumes personal energy and distract employees. D) It is likely to lead to better decision making.
D) Teams can become more motivated when there is an external threat.
22) Which of the following is NOT a negative consequence of moderate conflict in the workplace? A) wasted resources B) increased organizational politics C) less information sharing and coordination D) Teams can become more motivated when there is an external threat.
C) There are numerous ways conflict can potentially undermine employee performance.
23) Which of the following is correct regarding workplace conflict? A) The current view of experts is that organizational conflict is bad and almost always dysfunctional. B) Organizations perform better when conflict is very high or very low. C) There are numerous ways conflict can potentially undermine employee performance. D) The "optimal level of conflict" point of view states that the optimal level is to eliminate workplace conflict.
C) task conflict and relationship conflict
24) What are the two types of organizational conflict? A) task conflict and constructive conflict B) task conflict and optimal conflict C) task conflict and relationship conflict D) relationship conflict and optimal conflict
A) Conflict tends to produce beneficial outcomes, particularly better decision making
25) According to the literature on organizational conflict, which of the following statements is true? A) Conflict tends to produce beneficial outcomes, particularly better decision making. B) One of the most common outcomes of organizational conflict is increased profitability. C) Constructive conflict is when the focus is on the personal characteristics of those in the disagreement. D) Relationship conflict is rarely dysfunctional.
D) keeping the debate focused on the issue
26) Based on the characteristics of constructive conflicts, which of the following would help a manager create constructive conflicts during a debate? A) supporting the weaker members during the debate B) explaining the conflict in terms of interpersonal incompatibilities C) supporting the stronger members during the debate D) keeping the debate focused on the issue
D) Relationship conflict is suppressed when the conflict occurs.
32) Which of the following statements is TRUE of the relationship conflicts in a highly cohesive team? A) Relationship conflicts tend to be more frequent because of the high cohesion. B) Mediation is needed to resolve relationship conflicts among team members. C) Relationship conflict is absent in such teams. D) Relationship conflict is suppressed when the conflict occurs.
D) interpersonal risk taking
33) When team norms encourage ________, team members learn to appreciate honest dialogue without personally reacting to any emotional display during the disagreements. A) conscientiousness B) dysfunction C) hostility D) interpersonal risk taking
A) task; relationship
34) Several managers were having a budget meeting. At first, they were all focused on the issues, though there was mild disagreement. Tensions increased as the participants wanted more of the fixed pool of monies than was available. The discussion then moved away from the budget to personal insults and sniping. The first part of this meeting illustrates ________ conflict, which later turned into ________ conflict. A) task; relationship B) relationship; task C) task; constructive D) constructive; task
B) differentiation
39) Employees in engineering and marketing divisions often disagree with each other about how to achieve targets mainly because they have unique backgrounds, experiences, and training. Which form of structural conflict is this? A) task interdependence B) differentiation C) goal incompatibility D) scarce resources
B) differentiation
40) Which of the following sources of conflict is typically associated with mergers and acquisitions, where everyone wants the company to succeed, but they fight over the "right way" to do things because of their unique experiences in the separate companies? A) task interdependence B) differentiation C) goal incompatibility D) scarce resources
D) scarce resources and high task interdependence
41) Situations with both _____ produce the highest risk of conflict. A) ambiguous rules and low task interdependence B) precise rules and resource scarcity C) plentiful resources and high goal compatibility D) scarce resources and high task interdependence
C) reciprocal
42) The potential for conflict between two employees would be highest under conditions of ________ interdependence. A) pooled B) total C) reciprocal D) sequential
A) low levels of communication
43) Which of the following factors leads to relationship conflicts in teams? A) low levels of communication B) low levels of interdependence C) abundant resources D) homogeneous workforce
C) It usually undermines team cohesion and performance
14) Which of the following statements is TRUE about conflict? A) It leads to lower employee turnover and higher customer satisfaction. B) Moderate levels of conflict prevent organizations from becoming responsive to external environment. C) It usually undermines team cohesion and performance. D) Conflict of any level is harmful to the smooth functioning of an organization.
C) The conflict episodes are viewed as personal attacks rather than attempts to resolve the problem.
27) Which of the following is a feature of relationship conflict? A) One party perceives that another party is trying to find a solution to a common problem. B) The conflict is between two individuals rather than departments or organizations. C) The conflict episodes are viewed as personal attacks rather than attempts to resolve the problem. D) Two people adopt a win‒win rather than a win‒lose orientation.
A) a shared belief that it is safe to engage in interpersonal risk-taking
28) What is psychological safety? A) a shared belief that it is safe to engage in interpersonal risk-taking B) knowing how to remove oneself from conflicts C) a personality trait that prevents a person from engaging in conflict D) a team norm that unusual ideas ad disagreement will not be tolerated
C) when team norms support psychological safety
29) Which of the following is NOT a condition that can potentially minimize relationship conflict? A) high levels of emotional intelligence B) high levels of team cohesiveness C) when team norms support psychological safety D) high levels of team supportiveness
C) Minimize the relationship conflicts that exist in the organization.
30) Effective managers should do which of the following regarding conflict? A) Increase the amount of conflict among employees. B) Remove all forms of conflict from the organization because it saps productivity. C) Minimize the relationship conflicts that exist in the organization. D) Convince employees to engage in relationship conflict rather than the other forms of conflict.
C) Relationship conflict is less likely to occur if emotional intelligence is high.
31) What is the relationship between emotional intelligence and relationship conflicts? A) Emotional intelligence is unrelated to relationship conflicts. B) Emotional intelligence tends to increase the likelihood of relationship conflicts. C) Relationship conflict is less likely to occur if emotional intelligence is high. D) With emotional intelligence, conflicts tend to stay relationship-based.
D) task
35) Almost all workplace conflicts can be framed as ________ conflicts. A) relationship B) normative C) dysfunctional D) task
A) manifest conflict
36) Which of the following immediately precedes conflict outcomes in the conflict process model? A) manifest conflict B) conflict emotions C) conflict beliefs D) conflict perceptions
B) manifest conflict
37) Which of the following immediately follows conflict perceptions and emotions in the conflict process model? A) sources of conflict B) manifest conflict C) conflict outcomes D) conflict management
C) task interdependence
38) The customer-service department at Park-E Bank complains it is unable to keep track of its new business clients as the department handling data compilation has failed to enable a free exchange of information between the two departments. This has hindered the customer-service department to follow up on its customers' queries and update their relationship status with the bank. This has also impacted the department's sales target. This scenario exemplifies conflict due to which of the following? A) ambiguity B) scarcity of resources C) task interdependence D) differentiation
D) pooled interdependence
45) Which type of task interdependence usually has the lowest risk of conflict? A) total interdependence B) sequential interdependence C) orderly interdependence D) pooled interdependence
A) The conflict process is a series of episodes that potentially cycle into conflict escalation.
46) Which of the following regarding conflict process model is correct? A) The conflict process is a series of episodes that potentially cycle into conflict escalation. B) Conflict perceptions are always based on negative emotions. C) Feelings and perceptions cycle with manifest conflict, meaning manifest conflict never really occurs. D) Conflict episodes are usually based on logic.
A) an action that lacks diplomacy
47) Which of the following behaviors might start the conflict process? A) an action that lacks diplomacy B) a shared understanding C) clear communication of the process D) appropriate comments
C) compromising
53) You are assigned to resolve a conflict between two departments of an organization. Both parties have equal power. Both parties are under time pressure to resolve the conflict. You also realize that the parties lack trust/openness for problem solving. You are actively searching for a middle ground between the interests of the two parties. Which of the following conflict resolution styles would you use in this situation? A) forcing B) yielding C) compromising D) avoiding
B) The issue is much less important to you than to the other party.
54) For which of the following would yielding be the best conflict-handling style? A) The parties have equal power. B) The issue is much less important to you than to the other party. C) The other party has much less power than you do. D) The issue is important to both parties.
B) intergroup mirroring
61) Sonya is attending a workshop which uses a process called ________. In this process an external consultant has the conflicting groups separately document their perceptions of (1) how the group perceives itself, (2) how it perceives the other group, and (3) how the group believes it is perceived by the other group. Then each group discusses its three sets of perceptions with the other group. A) intergroup integration B) intergroup mirroring C) cultural mirroring D) buffering
D) Integrators
62) ________ are employees who coordinate the activities of work units toward the completion of a shared task or project. A) Inquisitors B) Arbitrators C) Mediators D) Integrators
C) Suki's approach shows that she is inexperienced at negotiating.
89) Suki is negotiating a salary increase with her manager. Suki does most of the talking and does not pay a lot of attention to what her manager has to say. She does not ask probing questions and keeps her feelings hidden. Which of the following is correct regarding this situation? A) Suki is an experienced negotiator who does not want to reveal too much and put herself in a weaker position. B) Suki is using her BATNA to increase her power. C) Suki's approach shows that she is inexperienced at negotiating. D) Suki is using the integrative approach since the salary budget is fixed.
