Chapter 11, Chapter 12, Chapter 13
35. The muscles of the back contract to straighten so that you sit at a more erect posture and subsequently the muscles are suddenly stretched as you nod off. Which of the following best represents the sequence of events when you start to nod off? (1) muscles of the back are stretched (2) the muscle spindle is stretched (3) action potentials in sensory neurons of the muscle spindles increase (4) action potentials in alpha motor neurons of skeletal muscle fibers increase (5) skeletal muscle of the back contract A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B. 1, 5, 2, 3, 4 C. 1, 5, 3, 2, 4 D. 5, 2, 3, 4, 1 E. 4, 5, 3, 2, 1
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
105. A person who has seizures might have a deficit of which of the following? A. GABA B. dopamine C. glutamate D. serotonin E. histamine
A. GABA
54. In hyperpolarization A. K+ ions tend to diffuse out of the cell. B. the plasma membrane's permeability to K+ decreases. C. the resting membrane potential moves closer to zero. D. Na+ ions enter the cell in large numbers. E. the resting membrane potential becomes more positive.
A. K+ ions tend to diffuse out of the cell.
88. Why isn't an action potential transmitted from a postsynaptic membrane to a presynaptic terminal? A. Presynaptic terminals have no acetylcholine receptors. B. Presynaptic neurons do not have a resting membrane potential. C. Acetylcholine can only diffuse in one direction across the synaptic cleft. D. Synaptic vesicles in the postsynaptic membrane are inactive. E. Acetylcholine is destroyed too fast.
A. Presynaptic terminals have no acetylcholine receptors.
48. Which of the following statements concerning the structure of spinal nerves is true? A. The ventral root contains motor or efferent fibers. B. The ventral root has a prominent root ganglion. C. Rootlets from the surface of the spinal cord form the dorsal and ventral rami. D. Each spinal nerve is formed by the union of a cranial nerve and a spinal nerve. E. Spinal nerves do not have specific cutaneous distributions
A. The ventral root contains motor or efferent fibers.
34. Which of the following is true? A. Unmyelinated axons rest in invaginations of Schwann cells or oligodendrocytes.. B. Myelination will not influence the speed of conduction of action potentials. C. The myelin sheath inhibits the flow of electrical charges at nodes. D. The myelin sheath is a protein wrapping. E. The myelin sheath does not electrically insulate the axons from one another.
A. Unmyelinated axons rest in invaginations of Schwann cells or oligodendrocytes..
30. Which of the following events in a stretch reflex occurs last? A. alpha motor neurons transmit action potentials to muscle causing contraction B. muscle spindle detects stretch of muscle C. afferent neurons conduct action potentials to the spinal cord D. afferent neurons synapse with alpha motor neurons E. muscle is stretched
A. alpha motor neurons transmit action potentials to muscle causing contraction
64. A stimulus either causes an action potential or it doesn't. This is called A. an all-or-none response. B. a graded response. C. a latent period response. D. a relative refractory response. E. a local response.
A. an all-or-none response.
23. Reflex arcs A. are capable of receiving a stimulus and yielding a response. B. are the basic structural units of the nervous system. C. occur primarily in the cerebral cortex of the brain. D. involve inhibitory neurons. E. do not involve the spinal cord.
A. are capable of receiving a stimulus and yielding a response.
25. Reflexes A. are homeostatic. B. are not homeostatic. C. are voluntary conscious responses to a stimulus. D. are integrated in the spinal cord, but not the brain. E. are integrated in the brain, but not the spinal cord.
A. are homeostatic.
31. Muscle spindles A. are innervated by gamma motor neurons. B. originate in the spinal cord. C. are specialized nerve cells. D. are found encapsulated in nerve endings. E. are innervated by alpha motor neurons.
A. are innervated by gamma motor neurons.
17. Dendrites A. are the input part of the neuron. B. conduct action potentials away from the cell body. C. are generally long and unbranched. D. form synapses with the microglia. E. contain the trigger zone.
A. are the input part of the neuron.
28. A neuroglial cell that is a major component of the blood-brain barrier is the A. astrocyte. B. microglial cell. C. oligodendrocyte. D. ependymal cell. E. macrophage.
A. astrocyte.
69. When someone taps you on your shoulder, they stimulate the ____ nerve. A. axillary B. brachial C. radial D. musculocutaneous E. ulnar
A. axillary
30. The substantia nigra interconnects with the A. basal nuclei. B. tegmentum. C. red nuclei. D. reticular nuclei. E. tectum.
A. basal nuclei.
109. A local anesthetic such as Novocaine decreases membrane permeability to Na+ ions. The use of this anesthetic will A. block sensory input into the CNS. B. enhance the development of EPSPs. C. cause RMP to move closer to threshold. D. cause Cl- ions to enter cells instead of Na+ ions. E. depolarize the cell.
A. block sensory input into the CNS.
2. Which of the following is responsible for problem-solving skills? A. central nervous system B. peripheral nervous system C. somatic nervous system D. autonomic nervous system E. None of these choices is correct.
A. central nervous system
89. Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by the ____ and is reabsorbed by the ____. A. choroid plexus, arachnoid granulation B. arachnoid granulation, choroid plexus C. dural sinus, dura mater D. dura mater, dural sinus E. septa pellucida, cerebral aqueduct
A. choroid plexus, arachnoid granulation
114. When two or more presynaptic neurons synapse with a single postsynaptic neuron in the CNS, a(n) _______ pathway is formed. A. convergent B. divergent C. oscillatory D. somatic E. sensory
A. convergent
71. What is the large C-shaped mass of white matter that consists of nerve fibers that connect the two cerebral hemispheres? A. corpus callosum B. infundibulum C. intermediate mass D. vermis E. gyrus
A. corpus callosum
66. The gray matter on the outer surface of the cerebrum is called the A. cortex. B. pia mater. C. reticular formation. D. arbor vitae. E. cerebral medulla
A. cortex.
56. The cutaneous sensory distribution of a spinal nerve can be mapped as a A. dermatome. B. plexitome. C. microtome. D. myotome. E. superdome.
A. dermatome.
51. There are ________ cervical spinal nerves. A. eight B. twelve C. six D. five E. fourteen
A. eight
27. The superior colliculi receive input from the A. eyes, skin, cerebrum and inferior colliculi. B. inferior colliculi, pyramids, skin and red nucleus. C. skin, ears, pyramids and cerebellum. D. cerebrum, cerebellum, thalamus and inferior colliculi. E. nose, tongue and inner ear.
A. eyes, skin, cerebrum and inferior colliculi.
112. A baseball player was hit on the left side of his skull in the parotid area. He cannot close his eye and the corner of his mouth droops. Which cranial nerve was damaged? A. facial B. glossopharyngeal C. accessory D. optic E. oculomotor
A. facial
125. When you lick frosting off a knife with the tip of your tongue and find the frosting has an orange flavor to it, which cranial nerve is being used to determine the taste of the frosting? A. facial B. trigeminal C. hypoglossal D. glossopharyngeal E. abducens
A. facial
126. Which of the following cranial nerves has a parasympathetic component? A. facial B. trochlear C. trigeminal D. hypoglossal E. accessory
A. facial
110. Facial expression is regulated by the A. facial nerve. B. vagus nerve. C. abducens nerve. D. trigeminal nerve. E. accessory nerve.
A. facial nerve.
116. Motor control of the face is the function of the ____ nerve, while sensation from the face is determined by the ____ nerve. A. facial, trigeminal B. trochlear, facial C. facial, glossopharyngeal D. trigeminal, glossopharyngeal E. trigeminal, facial
A. facial, trigeminal
11. What structure anchors the thecal sac and conus medullaris to the coccyx? A. filum terminale B. denticulate ligaments C. pia mater D. cauda equina
A. filum terminale
40. Action potentials are conducted more rapidly when transmission is A. from node to node on a myelinated axon. B. on a small diameter axon. C. on an unmyelinated axon. D. from internode to internode. E. from internode to node on a myelinated axon.
A. from node to node on a myelinated axon.
6. Cell bodies of the peripheral nervous system are located in A. ganglia. B. Schwann cells. C. the motor division. D. the sensory division. E. nerves.
A. ganglia
102. What inhibitory neurotransmitter is blocked in strychnine poisoning? A. glycine B. acetylcholine C. glutamate D. adenosine
A. glycine
55. Which of the following brain areas serves as the major control center of the autonomic nervous system and endocrine system? A. hypothalamus B. midbrain C. pons D. thalamus E. brainstem
A. hypothalamus
56. The "thermostat" or nucleus that monitors blood temperature is located in the A. hypothalamus. B. midbrain. C. pons. D. thalamus. E. brainstem.
A. hypothalamus.
74. The absolute refractory period ends when A. inactivation gates of voltage-gated Na+ ion channels reopen. B. activation gates of voltage-gates Na+ ion channels reopen. C. the sodium-potassium exchange pump stops. D. voltage-gated K+ channels open. E. None of these choices is correct.
A. inactivation gates of voltage-gated Na+ ion channels reopen.
115. The facial and glossopharyngeal nerves A. innervate the salivary glands. B. control movements of the tongue. C. are involved in the sense of smell. D. control the production of tears. E. carry pain from the teeth.
A. innervate the salivary glands.
94. The blockage of CFS inside the brain is a condition called A. internal hydrocephalus. B. ventricular hydrocephalus. C. external hydrocephalus. D. internal hematoma.
A. internal hydrocephalus.
11. The central nervous system A. is the site for processing information. B. initiates visual and auditory stimuli. C. consists of 43 pairs of nerves. D. is totally involuntary. E. does not interact with the peripheral nervous system.
A. is the site for processing information.
84. Which of the following is NOT part of the limbic system? A. lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus B. cingulate gyrus of the cerebral cortex C. dentate gyrus of the hippocampus D. olfactory cortex
A. lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus
59. A change in resting membrane potential confined to a small area is called a(n) A. local potential. B. action potential. C. summated potential. D. after potential. E. resting membrane potential.
A. local potential.
91. Rapid removal or destruction of neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft A. may affect the ability of the postsynaptic membrane to generate action potentials. B. generates local potentials in the presynaptic terminal. C. is necessary for synaptic transmission. D. may lead to action potentials. E. may stop exocytosis.
A. may affect the ability of the postsynaptic membrane to generate action potentials.
16. Which portion of the brainstem is continuous with the spinal cord? A. medulla oblongata B. midbrain C. pons D. thalamus E. cerebral peduncles
A. medulla oblongata
18. A small lesion in the brainstem which resulted in a rapid heart rate, intense vasoconstriction, and elevated blood pressure would probably be located in the A. medulla oblongata. B. pons. C. cerebellum. D. hypothalamus. E. cerebrum.
A. medulla oblongata.
33. Which of the following is mismatched? A. microglia - provide support for the neuron cell body B. astrocytes - blood-brain barrier C. oligodendrocytes - form myelin sheaths D. ependymal cells - produce cerebrospinal fluid E. ependymal cells - choroid plexus
A. microglia - provide support for the neuron cell body
9. In the CNS, clusters of gray matter containing cell bodies are called A. nuclei. B. pyramids. C. tracts. D. peduncles. E. ganglia.
A. nuclei.
62. An action potential A. occurs when the local potential reaches threshold level. B. propagates across the plasma membrane in a decremental fashion. C. has no repolarization phase. D. is an example of negative feedback. E. cannot transmit information.
A. occurs when the local potential reaches threshold level.
20. The nucleus for the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) is located in the A. pons. B. medulla. C. mesencephalon. D. cerebrum. E. cerebellum
A. pons.
93. Which of the following is NOT a function of cerebrospinal fluid? A. provides oxygen to CNS tissue B. provides nutrients to CNS tissue C. provides a protective cushion around the CNS D. protects the brain from rapid, jarring head movements
A. provides oxygen to CNS tissue
121. Unilateral damage to a cranial nerve is suspected because the tongue deviates to the right when it is protruded. Which cranial nerve is damaged? A. right hypoglossal B. left hypoglossal C. right glossopharyngeal D. left glossopharyngeal E. left facial
A. right hypoglossal
68. If an animal has had its cerebrum removed, it cannot A. see. B. live. C. breathe. D. regulate body temperature. E. regulate heart rate.
A. see.
33. The knee-jerk reflex involves which of the following? A. sensory and motor neurons B. sensory, association and motor neurons C. sensory, motor and inhibitory interneurons D. sensory and association neurons E. the brain
A. sensory and motor neurons
69. During depolarization of the plasma membrane, A. sodium ions move rapidly into the cell. B. potassium ions move rapidly out of the cell. C. membrane permeability to sodium ions decreases. D. the outside of the cell becomes positively charged relative to the inside. E. sodium ions move rapidly out of the cell.
A. sodium ions move rapidly into the cell.
99. Cranial nerve function includes A. somatic motor. B. sympathetic control. C. cognitive skills. D. regulation of emotions. E. None of these choices are correct.
A. somatic motor.
22. Structurally, the simplest reflex is the A. stretch reflex. B. Golgi tendon reflex. C. reciprocal reflex. D. alternating reflex. E. withdrawal reflex.
A. stretch reflex.
86. Cerebrospinal fluid fills the A. subarachnoid space. B. subdural space. C. dural sinuses. D. epidural space. E. None of these choices is correct.
A. subarachnoid space.
13. The junction of a neuron with another cell is a/an A. synapse. B. ganglion. C. receptor. D. effector.
A. synapse.
2. The cerebrum develops from the embryonic region called the A. telencephalon. B. mesencephalon. C. diencephalon. D. metencephalon. E. rhombencephalon.
A. telencephalon.
46. The interthalamic adhesion connects the two portions of the A. thalamus. B. epithalamus. C. hypothalamus. D. subthalamus. E. corpus callosum.
A. thalamus.
77. Projection fibers will connect A. the cerebrum to other parts of the brain and the spinal cord. B. one cerebral hemisphere to the other hemisphere. C. parts of the same hemisphere. D. motor and sensory areas of the cerebral cortex.
A. the cerebrum to other parts of the brain and the spinal cord.
44. Gray matter on the surface of the brain is/are called A. the cortex. B. nuclei. C. ganglia. D. tracts.
A. the cortex.
73. The primary somatic sensory or general sensory area is located in A. the postcentral gyrus. B. the precentral gyrus. C. the prefrontal gyrus. D. Wernicke's gyrus. E. the prefrontal cortex.
A. the postcentral gyrus.
82. Chemical synapses are characterized by A. the release of neurotransmitter by the presynaptic terminal. B. connexons that connect the pre- and postsynaptic cells. C. the presence of receptors for neurotransmitters on the presynaptic terminal. D. the absence of gap junctions. E. receptors located only on the presynaptic terminal.
A. the release of neurotransmitter by the presynaptic terminal.
19. Axons contain A. the trigger zone. B. foot processes. C. Nissl bodies. D. the soma. E. the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
A. the trigger zone.
74. Which nerve is involved when a dancer points his/her toes? A. tibial B. femoral C. obturator D. pudendal E. common fibular (peroneal)
A. tibial
1. There are _____ enlargements of the spinal cord where nerves supplying the extremities enter and leave. A. two B. three C. four D. five E. six
A. two
97. The same neurotransmitter may produce different effects on neurons because of differences in the A. type of receptors on the postsynaptic membranes of neurons. B. strength of the action potential. C. amount of neurotransmitter. D. size of the neurons. E. potassium channels.
A. type of receptors on the postsynaptic membranes of neurons.
113. A deer hunter lost the hearing in his right ear after his gun exploded when he tried firing it. His hearing loss is the result of damage to what nerve? A. vagus B. hypoglossal C. glossopharyngeal D. trigeminal E. vestibulocochlear
A. vestibulocochlear
101. Which of the following cranial nerves is exclusively sensory? A. vestibulocochlear (VIII) B. hypoglossal (XII) C. trochlear (IV) D. facial (VI) E. trigeminal (V)
A. vestibulocochlear (VIII)
19. What structure makes the dorsal root different from the ventral root? A. The dorsal root has a ganglion. B. The dorsal root has a tract. C. The dorsal root has a nucleus. D. The dorsal root appears the same as the ventral root.
A.. The dorsal root has a ganglion.
58. Arrange the following in order from the diencephalon downward. (1) spinal cord (2) midbrain (3) medulla (4) pons A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 2, 4, 3, 1 C. 3, 2, 4, 1 D. 4, 2, 3, 1 E. 4, 1, 3, 2
B. 2, 4, 3, 1
63. Which of the following events is NOT a characteristic of an action potential? A. The plasma membrane becomes highly permeable to sodium ions and depolarization results. B. As sodium ions enter, the inside of the plasma membrane becomes more negative. C. At the peak of depolarization, sodium channels begin to close and potassium channels open. D. In repolarization, potassium ions flow out of the cell. E. Action potentials occur according to the all-or-none principle.
B. As sodium ions enter, the inside of the plasma membrane becomes more negative.
11. Which of the following is correctly associated with the medulla oblongata? A. It gives rise to conscious thoughts. B. It contains nuclei for regulation of heart rate and blood vessel diameter. C. It contains enlargements called cerebral peduncles. D. It is the most superior portion of the brainstem. E. It relays sensory information.
B. It contains nuclei for regulation of heart rate and blood vessel diameter.
112. If five action potentials arrive at the same synapse in very close succession, which of the following would occur? A. The direction of the action potential is reversed. B. Temporal summation occurs. C. Spatial summation occurs. D. Hyperpolarization occurs. E. Depolarization always occurs.
B. Temporal summation occurs.
20. What is found in the dorsal root ganglion? A. The cell bodies of multipolar motor neurons. B. The cell bodies of pseudo-unipolar sensory neurons. C. The cell bodies of multipolar interneurons. D. The cell bodies of bipolar sensory neurons.
B. The cell bodies of pseudo-unipolar sensory neurons.
13. Which of the following is false? A. The dorsal root of the spinal cord conveys sensory (afferent) nerve impulses to the spinal cord. B. The posterior horn of the cord contains the cell bodies of motor neurons. C. The ventral root is formed by the axons of neurons in the lateral and anterior horns. D. The dorsal and ventral roots unite to form spinal nerves. E. The ventral root of the spinal cord conveys motor (efferent) nerve impulses away from the spinal cord.
B. The posterior horn of the cord contains the cell bodies of motor neurons.
36. Which of the following activities would stimulate the reticular formation? A. a warm bath B. a clock radio coming on in the morning C. a long lecture in a darkened auditorium D. eating a big meal E. getting a back rub
B. a clock radio coming on in the morning
101. What is the only neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction? A. serotonin B. acetylcholine C. dopamine D. glutamate
B. acetylcholine
102. The oculomotor nerve A. innervates all the muscles that move the eyeball. B. adjusts pupil size to the level of lighting. C. transmits action potentials from the retina. D. controls the organ of balance. E. innervates two of the six muscles that move the eyeball.
B. adjusts pupil size to the level of lighting.
29. Stretch reflexes A. are learned voluntary responses. B. aid in maintaining proper posture. C. prevent muscles from being damaged by excessive tension. D. cause the removal of limbs from painful stimuli. E. prevent falling.
B. aid in maintaining proper posture.
38. In the Golgi tendon reflex, A. muscle spindles detect tension in a tendon. B. alpha motor neurons are inhibited causing muscle relaxation. C. gamma motor neurons cause muscle contraction. D. there is reciprocal innervation to facilitate the reflex. E. alpha motor neurons are stimulated causing muscle contraction.
B. alpha motor neurons are inhibited causing muscle relaxation.
105. The abducens nerves A. transmit pain impulses from the teeth. B. are involved in eye movement. C. dilate blood vessels in the skin. D. slow the heart rate. E. control size of the pupil.
B. are involved in eye movement.
26. The inferior colliculi A. are an integral part of the cerebrum. B. are involved with auditory pathways in the CNS. C. interconnect directly with the eye. D. are a major CNS motor neurotransmitter group. E. are located in the pons.
B. are involved with auditory pathways in the CNS.
30. Microglia A. are part of the blood-brain barrier. B. are phagocytic cells in the CNS. C. produce cerebrospinal fluid. D. form myelin sheaths. E. are part of the choroid plexus.
B. are phagocytic cells in the CNS.
24. Neurons that have a single axon and a single dendrite are A. tripolar. B. bipolar. C. multipolar. D. pseudo-unipolar.
B. bipolar.
98. The function of acetylcholinesterase is to A. open voltage-gated sodium gates. B. breakdown acetylcholine in the synapse. C. produce an IPSP on the postsynaptic membrane. D. metabolize norepinephrine.
B. breakdown acetylcholine in the synapse.
41. White matter is composed of A. ganglial sheaths. B. bundles of myelinated axons. C. collections of nerve cell bodies. D. bundles containing both myelinated axons and nerve cell bodies. E. collections of unmyelinated axons.
B. bundles of myelinated axons.
97. The internal carotid arteries and the basilar artery join on the base of the brain to form the A. dural sinuses. B. cerebral arterial circle. C. cranial arteries. D. None of the choices are correct.
B. cerebral arterial circle.
53. Nerve fibers in the phrenic nerves that innervated the diaphragm arise primarily from which plexus? A. brachial B. cervical C. lumbar D. sacral E. cranial
B. cervical
73. The absolute refractory period assures A. prolonged depolarization during the action potential. B. completion of repolarization before another action potential. C. that no after-potential occurs. D. reversal of the direction of propagation of the action potential. E. that the stimulus is strong enough to elicit a response.
B. completion of repolarization before another action potential.
74. Which of the following activities is NOT associated with the cerebrum? A. interpreting smell and taste B. controlling the autonomic nervous system C. initiating voluntary movements D. making moral judgments E. writing poetry
B. controlling the autonomic nervous system
7. The sensory (afferent) division of the peripheral nervous system A. transmits action potentials to sensory organs. B. conveys action potentials to the CNS. C. stimulates glands to release hormones. D. stimulates muscle contractions. E. does not involve sensory receptors.
B. conveys action potentials to the CNS.
108. Enkephalins produce presynaptic inhibition in neurons transmitting pain signals. Increased levels of enkephalins will A. increase awareness of pain. B. decrease awareness of pain. C. increase amount of pain. D. decrease amount of pain. E. have no effect on awareness or amount of pain.
B. decrease awareness of pain.
12. The pyramids of the medulla contain A. ascending motor tracts. B. descending motor tracts. C. ascending sensory tracts. D. descending sensory tracts. E. None of these choices are correct.
B. descending motor tracts.
115. Sensory neurons carrying action potentials from pain receptors synapse within the spinal cord with interneurons. These interneurons synapse with motor neurons leading back to an effector and ascending neurons that carry action potentials toward the brain. This is an example of a(n) _____ pathway. A. convergent B. divergent C. oscillatory D. sensory E. bifurcated
B. divergent
15. The sensory root of a spinal nerve is also referred to as A. anterior root. B. dorsal root. C. efferent root. D. ventral root. E. lateral root.
B. dorsal root.
32. Muscles and glands that are capable of producing a response when stimulated by motor neurons are called A. aponeuroses. B. effectors. C. neuromodulators. D. receptors. E. sensory organs.
B. effectors.
83. Gap junctions are functional __________ synapses. A. chemical B. electrical C. potential D. intracellular E. neuromuscular
B. electrical
48. The habenular nuclei and pineal body are both found in the A. thalamus. B. epithalamus. C. hypothalamus. D. subthalamus. E. hyperthalamus.
B. epithalamus.
111. Paralysis on the right side of the face could result from damage to the right _____ nerve. A. vagus B. facial C. accessory D. trigeminal E. None of these choices is correct.
B. facial
42. Initiating the withdrawal reflex in both legs at the same time would cause one to A. maintain posture longer. B. fall. C. decrease muscle tension. D. develop resistance in one limb and reduce resistance in the other. E. hop.
B. fall.
78. If a person fell down the steps and then developed pain down his anterior thigh into the knee, which of the following spinal nerves was probably damaged? A. obturator B. femoral C. tibial D. common fibular (peroneal) E. pudendal
B. femoral
40. The portion of the cerebellum that is involved in balance and eye movements is the A. vermis. B. flocculonodular lobe. C. cerebellar peduncles. D. arbor vitae. E. lateral hemisphere.
B. flocculonodular lobe.
63. The central sulcus separates the A. two parietal lobes. B. frontal and parietal lobes. C. occipital and temporal lobes. D. temporal and frontal lobes. E. parietal and occipital lobes.
B. frontal and parietal lobes.
9. The autonomic nervous system A. stimulates skeletal muscle contractions. B. has two sets of neurons in a series. C. is involved in problem solving. D. is under voluntary control. E. does not include the central nervous system.
B. has two sets of neurons in a series.
45. The stalk that connects the hypothalamus to the hypophysis (or pituitary gland) is the A. corpus callosum. B. infundibulum. C. insula. D. intermediate mass. E. arbor vitae.
B. infundibulum.
60. Which of the following is a function of the hypothalamus? A. initiates voluntary movements B. involved in psychosomatic illnesses C. control of balance D. unconscious swinging of the arms while walking E. perception of sensation
B. involved in psychosomatic illnesses
4. The conus medullaris A. anchors the spinal cord to the coccyx. B. is a tapered, cone like region immediately inferior to the lumbar enlargement. C. marks the exit of nerves to the upper extremity. D. is located adjacent to the foramen magnum. E. is inferior to the cauda equina.
B. is a tapered, cone like region immediately inferior to the lumbar enlargement.
67. The opening of more and more Na+ ion channels during depolarization A. is the result of the sodium-potassium exchange pump. B. is an example of a positive feedback cycle. C. is possible only if K+ channels remain closed. D. is the cause of the afterpotential. E. is an example of a negative feedback cycle.
B. is an example of a positive feedback cycle.
83. The limbic system A. has recently evolved. B. is associated with basic survival instincts of nutrition, memory, and reproduction. C. controls voluntary movements of the arms and legs. D. is a memory area in the midbrain. E. includes the brainstem.
B. is associated with basic survival instincts of nutrition, memory, and reproduction.
72. During the absolute refractory period, the cell A. generates many local potentials. B. is insensitive to further stimulation. C. responds to even weak stimuli. D. reverses the direction of the action potential. E. is very sensitive.
B. is insensitive to further stimulation.
114. The glossopharyngeal nerve A. innervates the larynx. B. is involved in the sense of taste. C. innervates intrinsic tongue muscles. D. transmits sensory information from the abdominal viscera. E. controls facial expressions.
B. is involved in the sense of taste.
80. The corpus striatum is composed of the A. subthalamic and red nuclei. B. lentiform and caudate nuclei. C. caudate nucleus and substantia nigra. D. substantia nigra and hippocampus. E. subthalamic nuclei and pineal body.
B. lentiform and caudate nuclei.
52. A man was in an accident and severed his spinal cord between C6 and C7. Which of the following would NOT occur? A. loss of sensation in the trunk below the shoulders, the lower limbs and portions of the arms B. loss of use of the phrenic nerves and paralysis of the diaphragm C. loss of movement in the lower limbs D. loss of the use of the intercostals nerves, and breathing would be affected because the intercostals muscles would be paralyzed E. loss of sensation and movement in the jaw
B. loss of use of the phrenic nerves and paralysis of the diaphragm
70. If you pinch your index finger in a door, pain sensations are carried via the ____ nerve. A. radial B. median C. axillary D. musculocutaneous E. ulnar
B. median
31. A lesion in the cerebral peduncles might affect A. hearing. B. movement. C. sight. D. heart rate. E. taste.
B. movement.
58. If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, the regions innervated by that spinal nerve would experience complete loss of A. sensation. B. movement. C. sensation and movement. D. pain. E. None of these choices is correct.
B. movement.
28. The sensory receptor of the stretch reflex is the A. Golgi tendon organ. B. muscle spindle. C. dorsal root ganglion. D. collateral axon. E. alpha motor neurons.
B. muscle spindle.
68. Using the biceps brachii to flex the forearm requires innervation of the _____ nerve. A. radial B. musculocutaneous C. ulnar D. median E. axillary
B. musculocutaneous
14. The ventral root of a spinal nerve contains A. only sensory fibers. B. only motor fibers. C. only afferent fibers. D. both sensory and motor fibers. E. a ganglion.
B. only motor fibers.
116. Neurons arranged in a circular pathway form A. neuromotor junctions. B. oscillatory circuits. C. spatial pathways. D. temporal circuits. E. circulating pathways.
B. oscillatory circuits.
17. The cross-sectional view of the spinal cord reveals white matter on the A. inside, gray matter on the outside, and a dorsal motor root. B. outside, gray matter on the inside, and a ventral motor root. C. inside, gray matter on the outside, and a dorsal sensory root. D. outside, gray matter on the inside, and a ventral sensory root.
B. outside, gray matter on the inside, and a ventral motor root.
14. Consider the following five terms and determine which does not belong. A. medulla oblongata B. pons C. cardiac center D. pyramids E. olives
B. pons
22. Which area of the brain contains areas that initiates REM sleep? A. medulla oblongata B. pons C. thalamus D. midbrain E. diencephalon
B. pons
19. The part of the brain that connects the medulla to the midbrain is the A. cerebral peduncle. B. pons. C. cerebellum. D. thalamus. E. hypothalamus.
B. pons.
25. Neurons in the skin that are responsible for detecting pain are A. apolar. B. pseudo-unipolar. C. bipolar. D. multipolar.
B. pseudo-unipolar.
65. Improper use of crutches could cause compression of the _____ nerve. A. axillary B. radial C. musculocutaneous D. ulnar E. median
B. radial
104. A decrease in the number of voltage-gated Ca2+ ion channels in the presynaptic terminal would A. enhance transmission across the synapse. B. reduce or inhibit transmission across the synapse. C. have no effect on transmission across the synapse. D. alter receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. E. increase exocytosis.
B. reduce or inhibit transmission across the synapse.
34. The sleep/wake cycle is influenced by the A. basal nuclei. B. reticular formation. C. vermis. D. thalamic nuclei. E. cerebellum.
B. reticular formation.
38. Which of the following is NOT a neuroglia of the CNS? A. ependymal cells B. satellite cells C. oligodendrocytes D. astrocytes
B. satellite cells
76. When a person sits on a hard surface for a period of time, his foot or leg may "go to sleep." This sensation is the result of compressing the _____ nerve. A. femoral B. sciatic C. obturator D. pudendal E. ulnar
B. sciatic
22. A neuron that conducts pain sensations to the central nervous system would be classified as a(n) A. motor neuron. B. sensory or afferent neuron. C. efferent neuron. D. association neuron. E. interneuron.
B. sensory or afferent neuron.
3. The central nervous system includes the A. ganglia. B. spinal cord. C. spinal nerves. D. cranial nerves. E. sensory receptors.
B. spinal cord.
29. A bird hits the windshield of your car, and you reflexively duck and close your eyes. Which of the following is responsible for this action? A. medulla B. superior colliculi C. reticular formation D. thalamus E. cerebellum
B. superior colliculi
45. The endoneurium A. surrounds nerve cell bodies. B. surrounds individual axons and their Schwann cells. C. bundles axons into fascicles. D. bundles fascicles into nerves. E. surrounds nerve tracts in the spinal cord.
B. surrounds individual axons and their Schwann cells.
85. The junction between two neurons is a A. ganglia. B. synapse. C. fascicle. D. node of Ranvier. E. neuromuscular junction.
B. synapse.
87. Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A. falx cerebri - longitudinal fissure B. tentorium cerebelli - base of brain C. falx cerebelli - between the cerebellar hemispheres D. pia mater - surface of the brain E. dural venous sinus - collects blood that returns from the brain
B. tentorium cerebelli - base of brain
90. If cerebrospinal fluid does not drain properly, A. the brain will shrink and shrivel. B. the excess fluid exerts pressure on the brain. C. the cerebral cortex absorbs the fluid and swells. D. the choroid plexus enlarges. E. the arachnoid granulations halt their function.
B. the excess fluid exerts pressure on the brain.
55. If the charge difference across the plasma membrane is decreased, A. the potential difference across the plasma membrane does not change. B. the membrane potential is more positive. C. the change is called hyperpolarization. D. negative proteins can leave the cell. E. the membrane potential is more negative.
B. the membrane potential is more positive.
100. The Roman numerals assigned to each cranial nerve reflect A. the order of their discovery. B. the sequence from anterior to posterior in which they emerge from the brain. C. their importance, with highest numbers being the most important. D. the complexity of each nerve, with complex nerves having higher numbers. E. the sequence from posterior to anterior in which they emerge from the brain.
B. the sequence from anterior to posterior in which they emerge from the brain.
62. The cerebral gyri increase A. memory assimilation time. B. the surface area of the cortex. C. the size of the thalamic nuclei. D. speech ability. E. volume of the brain.
B. the surface area of the cortex.
91. The cerebral aqueduct connects A. the two lateral ventricles. B. the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle. C. connects the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle. D. connects the fourth ventricle to the subarachnoid space.
B. the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle.
47. The plasma membrane of a neuron is more permeable to potassium ions because A. of its positive electrical charge. B. there are more non-gated channels for K+ than Na+. C. protein molecules cannot exit through the cell membrane. D. calcium ions block Na+ and Cl- channels. E. there are more non-gated channels for Na+ than K+.
B. there are more non-gated channels for K+ than Na+.
65. In some cells, an afterpotential occurs because A. the sodium ions continue to enter the cell after depolarization is finished. B. there is prolonged, elevated permeability to potassium during repolarization. C. the sodium-potassium pump is actively exchanging ions across the membrane. D. the extracellular Na+ ion concentration is reduced. E. the permeability to sodium continues longer than necessary.
B. there is prolonged, elevated permeability to potassium during repolarization.
73. The sciatic nerve is composed of the A. femoral nerve and the tibial nerve. B. tibial nerve and the common fibular nerve. C. femoral nerve and the obturator nerve. D. common fibular nerve and the pudendal nerve. E. superior gluteal and inferior gluteal.
B. tibial nerve and the common fibular nerve.
108. Dentists anesthetize a portion of the _____ nerve to stop pain impulses from the teeth. A. facial B. trigeminal C. hypoglossal D. glossopharyngeal E. abducens
B. trigeminal
117. Damage to branches of the _____ nerve can interfere with normal speech. A. facial B. vagus C. trigeminal D. glossopharyngeal E. abducens
B. vagus
118. Which nerve has branches that extend to the thoracic and abdominal viscera? A. facial nerve B. vagus nerve C. trigeminal nerve D. glossopharyngeal nerve E. accessory nerve
B. vagus nerve
119. Damage to which of the following cranial nerves might result in death? A. facial nerve B. vagus nerve C. trigeminal nerve D. glossopharyngeal nerve E. optic nerve
B. vagus nerve
60. Intercostal nerves are formed from the A. thoracic plexus. B. ventral rami of thoracic spinal nerves. C. dorsal rami of thoracic spinal nerves. D. rami communicans of the thoracic spinal nerves. E. cervical plexus
B. ventral rami of thoracic spinal nerves.
7. What do the cavities of the neural tube become in the adult brain? A. subarachnoid space B. ventricles C. auricles D. coelom
B. ventricles
5. There are _____ pairs of cranial nerves and _____ pairs of spinal nerves. A. 10; 30 B. 31; 12 C. 12; 31 D. 30; 10 E. 12; 32
C. 12; 31
90. Neurotransmitter is being released at a synapse. Which of the following occurs last? A. Calcium ions enter the presynaptic terminal. B. Synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitter by exocytosis. C. An action potential is produced in the postsynaptic membrane. D. Neurotransmitter flows rapidly across the synaptic cleft. E. Neurotransmitter binds with the receptor on the postsynaptic membrane.
C. An action potential is produced in the postsynaptic membrane.
70. Each voltage-gated Na+ ion channel has two voltage sensitive gates: an activation gate and an inactivation gate. Which of the following would occur during depolarization? A. Activation gates are open; inactivation gates are closed. B. Activation gates are closed; inactivation gates are open. C. Both activation and inactivation gates are open. D. Both activation and inactivation gates are closed. E. None of these events occurs during depolarization.
C. Both activation and inactivation gates are open.
8. Which of the following statements concerning the brainstem is true? A. The brainstem consists of the medulla, pons, and cerebellum. B. The brainstem is responsible for higher level thinking skills. C. Damage to the brainstem is usually fatal. D. All twelve cranial nerves enter or exit from the brainstem. E. The brainstem is a relay for sensory input.
C. Damage to the brainstem is usually fatal.
56. Which of the following situations occurs in electrically excitable cells? A. When Na+ ion channels open, K+ ion channels close. B. The sodium-potassium exchange pump moves sodium into the cell. C. Depolarization causes voltage-gated sodium ion channels to open. D. Ligand-gated sodium ion channels are opened by high extracellular calcium levels. E. Proteins tend to diffuse out of the cell.
C. Depolarization causes voltage-gated sodium ion channels to open.
37. The reflex that prevents excessive tension in a muscle is the A. stretch reflex. B. withdrawal reflex. C. Golgi tendon reflex. D. reciprocal reflex. E. crossed extensor reflex.
C. Golgi tendon reflex.
26. Which of the following statements regarding neuroglia is false? A. Neuroglia serve as the major supporting tissue in the CNS. B. Neuroglia form part of the blood-brain barrier. C. Neuroglia produce action potentials for skeletal muscles. D. Neuroglia form myelin sheaths around some axons. E. Neuroglia produce cerebrospinal fluid.
C. Neuroglia produce action potentials for skeletal muscles.
21. What is found the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord? A. The cell bodies of somatic motor neurons. B. The cell bodies of sensory neurons. C. The cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons. D. The cell bodies of somatic sensory neurons.
C. The cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons.
48. Which of the following is true? A. The resting plasma membrane is more permeable to Na+ than K+. B. The resting membrane potential never reaches an equilibrium point. C. The resting membrane potential is proportional to the tendency for K+ to diffuse out of the cell. D. Negatively charged Cl- ions are attracted by negative charges in the cell. E. The purpose of the sodium-potassium exchange pump is to create an equilibrium of ion concentrations.
C. The resting membrane potential is proportional to the tendency for K+ to diffuse out of the cell.
49. Which of the following is false? A. The thalamus projects sensory information to the cerebral cortex. B. The subthalamic nuclei are associated with the basal nuclei. C. The thalamus controls many endocrine functions. D. The pineal body may play a role in controlling the onset of puberty. E. The third ventricle separates the two large portions of the thalamus.
C. The thalamus controls many endocrine functions.
120. Which of the following cranial nerves does not innervate the tongue? A. glossopharyngeal B. hypoglossal C. accessory D. facial E. All of these would innervate the tongue
C. accessory
123. Dysfunction of the sternocleidomastoid muscle could result from damage to the A. vagus nerve. B. abducens nerve. C. accessory nerve. D. hypoglossal nerve. E. facial nerve.
C. accessory nerve.
96. When a neurotransmitter binds to its receptor and increases the permeability of the postsynaptic membrane to sodium ions, A. the membrane will be hyperpolarized. B. more chloride ions will also diffuse into the cell. C. an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) will result. D. the membrane will become impermeable to potassium ions. E. the sodium ions diffuse out of the cell.
C. an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) will result.
39. The white matter of the cerebellum forms a branching network known as the A. folia. B. superior peduncle. C. arbor vitae. D. tentorium cerebelli. E. vermis.
C. arbor vitae.
51. The mammillary bodies A. influence breast milk production. B. produce reproductive hormones. C. are involved in emotional responses to odors. D. are found in the thalamus. E. influence the onset of puberty.
C. are involved in emotional responses to odors.
69. Association fibers connect A. the cerebrum with the spinal cord. B. one cerebral hemisphere to another. C. areas of the cerebral cortex within the same hemisphere. D. areas of the cerebral cortex with areas of the midbrain. E. areas of the cerebral cortex with areas of the spinal cord.
C. areas of the cerebral cortex within the same hemisphere.
63. Spinal nerves C5-T1 make up the ____________ plexus. A. sacral B. lumbar C. brachial D. cervical E. radial
C. brachial
47. The perineurium A. surrounds nerve cell bodies. B. surrounds individual axons and their Schwann cells. C. bundles axons into fascicles. D. bundles fascicles into nerves. E. bundles fascicles into axons.
C. bundles axons into fascicles.
55. Dermatomal maps are important clinically because they A. can be used to check for motor function. B. locate the position of cranial nerves. C. can be used to help locate nerve damage. D. indicate what muscles are innervated by each spinal nerve. E. can be used to detect cranial nerve damage.
C. can be used to help locate nerve damage.
78. Which of the following basal nuclei is located in the cerebrum? A. subthalamic nucleus B. red nucleus C. caudate nucleus D. substantia nigra E. habenular nuclei
C. caudate nucleus
37. Which of the following is NOT true of reactive astrocytosis? A. injury site is blocked off B. scars limit regeneration C. causes the spread of inflammation D. reduces injury to surrounding tissue
C. causes the spread of inflammation
15. Protein synthesis in neurons occurs in A. axons. B. dendrites. C. cell bodies or soma. D. terminal boutons. E. node of Ranvier.
C. cell bodies or soma.
38. The cerebellum communicates with other parts of the CNS by means of nerve tracts called the A. vermis. B. flocculonodular pathways. C. cerebellar peduncles. D. arbor vitae. E. folia.
C. cerebellar peduncles.
18. In the spinal cord, white matter is organized into A. horns and the gray matter into columns. B. horns and the gray matter into roots. C. columns and the gray matter into horns. D. columns and the gray matter into tracts.
C. columns and the gray matter into horns.
70. Tracts of white matter that connect the right and left hemispheres are composed of A. decussation fibers. B. association fibers. C. commissural fibers. D. projection fibers. E. pyramidal fibers.
C. commissural fibers.
72. The cerebral medulla A. has the same function as the medulla oblongata. B. is the gray matter on the cerebrum's surface. C. consists of many nerve tracts of white matter beneath the cerebral cortex. D. is another name for the basal nuclei. E. is the outer layer of the cerebrum.
C. consists of many nerve tracts of white matter beneath the cerebral cortex.
42. Which of the following is NOT a function of the cerebellum? A. coordinate control of voluntary movements B. help in the maintenance of muscle tone C. control the heart rate D. control skeletal muscles to maintain balance E. control of posture, locomotion, and fine motor coordination.
C. control the heart rate
4. The peripheral nervous system includes the A. brain. B. spinal cord. C. cranial nerves. D. blood-brain barrier. E. cerebellum.
C. cranial nerves.
10. The fact that the right side of the brain controls the left side of the body is explained by the A. division of the cerebrum into two hemispheres. B. division of the cerebellum into two hemispheres. C. decussation of the pyramids in the medulla. D. need for contra-lateral control of body function. E. brainstem being below the midbrain.
C. decussation of the pyramids in the medulla.
14. The enteric nervous system consists of plexuses within the walls of the A. brain. B. spinal cord. C. digestive tract. D. urinary bladder.
C. digestive tract.
59. The branch of a spinal nerve that innervates deep muscles on the dorsal thorax is the A. ramus communicans. B. lateral ramus. C. dorsal ramus. D. ventral ramus. E. medial ramus.
C. dorsal ramus.
92. Monamine oxidase inhibitors (MAO inhibitors) A. prevent synaptic transmission. B. enhance the breakdown of norepinephrine. C. enhance the binding of norepinephrine to its receptors. D. prevent the release of norepinephrine by the presynaptic terminal. E. have no effect on the action of norepinephrine.
C. enhance the binding of norepinephrine to its receptors.
9. What space, found between the vertebral wall and the dura mater, is the area for injecting anesthesia for childbirth? A. subarachnoid space B. subdural space C. epidural space D. epipial space
C. epidural space
43. If a withdrawal reflex is initiated in one leg, the crossed extensor reflex causes A. a withdrawal reflex in the opposite leg. B. inhibition of abduction in the opposite leg. C. extension of the opposite leg. D. both legs to extend. E. flexion of both legs.
C. extension of the opposite leg.
3. The spinal cord begins at the A. cerebellum. B. medulla oblongata. C. foramen magnum. D. conus medullaris E. 1st cervical vertebrae.
C. foramen magnum.
76. As the strength of a stimulus is increased, the A. amplitude of the action potential increases. B. duration of the action potential increases. C. frequency of occurrence of action potentials increases. D. resonance of action potentials increases. E. height of the action potentials increases.
C. frequency of occurrence of action potentials increases.
93. Receptor molecules in synapses A. tend to concentrate on presynaptic terminals. B. bind irreversibly with neurotransmitter. C. have a high degree of specificity. D. serve as channel proteins. E. can bind to any molecule in the synapse.
C. have a high degree of specificity.
103. Which of the following would help to determine if the oculomotor nerve was damaged? A. have the patient distinguish between green and red colors B. determine if the patient can see anything C. have the patient look superiorly and inferiorly D. have the patient cry E. determine if the patient still has night vision
C. have the patient look superiorly and inferiorly
81. The basal nuclei function to A. produce stiff, exaggerated movements. B. assist the autonomic nervous system. C. inhibit unwanted muscular activity. D. control alertness. E. store memory.
C. inhibit unwanted muscular activity.
81. Local hyperpolarization in a synapse is called a(an) A. excitatory postsynaptic potential. B. resting membrane potential. C. inhibitory postsynaptic potential. D. gap junction potential. E. action potential.
C. inhibitory postsynaptic potential.
75. The corpus callosum A. consists of a broad band of gray matter. B. is found at the base of the transverse fissure. C. is a band of commissural fibers that connects the right cerebral hemisphere to the left cerebral hemisphere. D. connects the frontal lobe to the occipital lobe. E. connects the frontal lobe to the parietal lobe.
C. is a band of commissural fibers that connects the right cerebral hemisphere to the left cerebral hemisphere.
35. The reticular formation A. is composed of nuclei scattered throughout the cerebellum. B. coordinates fine motor movements. C. is composed of nuclei scattered throughout the brain stem. D. is responsible for pain interpretation. E. is composed of nuclei scattered throughout the cerebrum.
C. is composed of nuclei scattered throughout the brain stem.
41. Smooth, flowing movements are the result of fine motor coordination in the A. anterior vermis. B. cerebellar peduncles. C. lateral cerebellar hemispheres. D. flocculonodular lobe. E. arbor vitae.
C. lateral cerebellar hemispheres.
17. A patient with a traumatic head injury may exhibit vomiting as a result of irritation of nuclei in the A. pons. B. cerebellum. C. medulla oblongata. D. corpora quadrigemina. E. midbrain.
C. medulla oblongata.
37. During an autopsy the brainstem was separated from the rest of the brain by a cut between the A. medulla and pons. B. pons and midbrain. C. midbrain and diencephalon. D. thalamus and cerebrum. E. medulla and the spinal cord.
C. midbrain and diencephalon.
24. The nuclei of cranial nerves III, IV, and V are located in the A. pons. B. medulla. C. midbrain. D. diencephalon. E. cerebellum.
C. midbrain.
23. The motor neurons responsible for making a fist are A. tripolar. B. bipolar. C. multipolar. D. pseudo-unipolar. E. None of these choices are correct.
C. multipolar.
54. The brachial plexus supplies nerves that function to contract which of the following? A. the diaphragm B. intercostal muscles C. muscles of the arm and forearm D. muscles of the lower limb E. abdominal muscles
C. muscles of the arm and forearm
42. If you cut bundles of axons and their myelin sheaths in the PNS, you cut A. ganglia. B. nuclei. C. nerves. D. gray matter. E. nerve tracts.
C. nerves.
77. Adduction of the thigh involves the ____________. A. peroneal nerve. B. femoral nerve. C. obturator nerve. D. pudendal nerve. E. tibial nerve.
C. obturator nerve.
124. A fracture of the cribriform plate might injure the _____ cranial nerve? A. glossopharyngeal B. trigeminal C. olfactory D. facial E. optic
C. olfactory
31. Multiple sclerosis is a neurological disorder in which myelin sheaths in the CNS are destroyed. Which of the following neuroglial cells is being damaged in multiple sclerosis? A. astrocyte B. microglial cell C. oligodendrocyte D. ependymal cell E. Schwann cells
C. oligodendrocyte
78. Continuous conduction of an action potential means that A. once one action potential is created, it moves down the axon. B. the whole axon depolarizes at the same time. C. one action potential stimulates the production of a new action potential at the adjacent site. D. an action potential is conducted from one node of Ranvier to the next node.
C. one action potential stimulates the production of a new action potential at the adjacent site.
10. Digestion of food is regulated by the A. sensory division. B. sympathetic division of the ANS. C. parasympathetic division of the ANS. D. somatic nervous system. E. None of these choices are correct.
C. parasympathetic division of the ANS.
61. Which of the following nerves is a branch of both the cervical plexus and the brachial plexus? A. axillary B. femoral C. phrenic D. sciatic E. splanchnic
C. phrenic
1. The central nervous system develops from a flat mass of tissue called the neural A. groove. B. tube. C. plate. D. crest. E. fold.
C. plate.
23. Which two portions of the brain are involved in controlling respiration? A. pons, hypothalamus B. cerebrum, hypothalamus C. pons, medulla oblongata D. medulla oblongata, cerebral peduncles E. pons, thalamus
C. pons, medulla oblongata
86. Neurotransmitters are released from the A. epineurium. B. synaptic cleft. C. presynaptic terminal. D. postsynaptic membrane. E. calcium channels.
C. presynaptic terminal.
110. An IPSP is inhibitory because it A. changes the threshold of the neuron. B. hyperpolarizes the postsynaptic membrane. C. prevents Ca2+ entry into the presynaptic terminal. D. reduces the amount of neurotransmitter released by the presynaptic terminal. E. depolarizes the postsynaptic membrane.
C. prevents Ca2+ entry into the presynaptic terminal.
34. Gamma motor neurons A. are located in tendons. B. transmit action potentials to skeletal muscle. C. regulate the sensitivity of the muscle spindle. D. enable the brain to perceive that a muscle has been stretched. E. innervate the whole muscle.
C. regulate the sensitivity of the muscle spindle.
72. Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the A. lumbar plexus. B. femoral plexus. C. sacral plexus. D. pelvic plexus. E. brachial plexus.
C. sacral plexus.
111. When two action potentials arrive simultaneously at two different presynaptic terminals that synapse with the same postsynaptic neuron, A. the direction of the action potential is reversed. B. temporal summation occurs. C. spatial summation occurs. D. hyperpolarization occurs. E. threshold is never reached.
C. spatial summation occurs.
10. During a spinal tap, cerebrospinal fluid is obtained from which of the following locations? A. dural sinus B. epidural space C. subarachnoid space D. subdural space E. sagittal sinus
C. subarachnoid space
75. A stimulus that results in a local potential that does not reach threshold is called a A. threshold stimulus. B. maximal stimulus. C. subthreshold stimulus. D. supramaximal stimulus. E. local stimulus.
C. subthreshold stimulus.
32. What part of the midbrain carries sensory tracts from the spinal cord? A. tectum B. cerebral peduncles C. tegmentum D. red nucleus
C. tegmentum
50. Most sensory input that ascends through the spinal cord and brainstem projects to the A. pineal gland. B. hypothalamus. C. thalamus. D. mammillary bodies. E. subthalamus.
C. thalamus.
82. The limbic system involves various neural connections between A. the medulla and pons. B. the pons and cerebellum. C. the cerebrum and diencephalon. D. the diencephalon and midbrain. E. the cerebrum and midbrain.
C. the cerebrum and diencephalon.
85. The most superficial meningeal layer is A. the pia mater. B. the arachnoid layer. C. the dura mater. D. the epidural sinus. E. the skull.
C. the dura mater.
36. The patellar or knee-jerk reflex is a classic example of A. the Golgi tendon reflex. B. the withdrawal reflex. C. the stretch reflex. D. the crossed extensor reflex. E. reciprocal innervation.
C. the stretch reflex.
7. The sac surrounding the spinal cord is the A. dural sac. B. meningeal sac. C. thecal sac. D. epidural sac.
C. thecal sac.
92. Which ventricle is located between the two halves of the thalamus? A. first ventricle B. second ventricle C. third ventricle D. fourth ventricle
C. third ventricle
75. The gastrocnemius muscle is most likely to be innervated by the _____ nerve. A. obturator B. common fibular (peroneal) C. tibial D. femoral E. median
C. tibial
8. The motor (efferent) division of the peripheral nervous system A. is a division of the CNS. B. regulates the digestion of food. C. transmits impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscle. D. has nerve cell bodies located in ganglia near the spinal cord and brain. E. detects a stimulus.
C. transmits impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscle.
106. A kiss on the cheek would be perceived by impulses from the A. trochlear nerve. B. abducens nerve. C. trigeminal nerve. D. vestibulocochlear nerve. E. facial nerve.
C. trigeminal nerve.
109. Which of the following cranial nerves innervates only one muscle of the eyeball? A. optic nerve B. facial nerve C. trochlear nerve D. trigeminal nerve E. oculomotor nerve
C. trochlear nerve
5. The spinal cord ends at the A. sacrum. B. coccyx. C. 5th lumbar vertebrae. D. 2nd lumbar vertebrae.
D. 2nd lumbar vertebrae.
49. Which of the following combinations indicates the correct distribution of spinal nerve pairs? A. 7 cervical - 12 thoracic - 6 lumbar - 5 sacral - 1 coccygeal B. 7 cervical - 12 thoracic - 5 lumbar - 6 sacral - 1 coccygeal C. 8 cervical - 12 thoracic - 6 lumbar - 4 sacral - 1 coccygeal D. 8 cervical - 12 thoracic - 5 lumbar - 5 sacral - 1 coccygeal E. 7 cervical - 13 thoracic - 6 lumbar - 5 sacral - 1 coccygeal
D. 8 cervical - 12 thoracic - 5 lumbar - 5 sacral - 1 coccygeal
80. The speed of an action potential depends upon A. whether an axon is myelinated or not myelinated. B. thickness of the myelin sheath. C. the diameter of the axon. D. All of the choices are correct.
D. All of the choices are correct.
96. Which of the following arteries supply blood to the brain? A. external carotid arteries B. internal carotid arteries C. vertebral arteries D. Both the internal carotid arteries and the vertebral arteries.
D. Both the internal carotid arteries and the vertebral arteries.
32. Schwann cells differ from oligodendrocytes in which of the following ways? A. Schwann cells form myelin; oligodendrocytes do not. B. Oligodendrocytes are only found in the PNS; Schwann cells are only found in the CNS. C. Schwann cells form sheaths around several axons, while oligodendrocytes form sheaths around only one axon. D. Schwann cells form a myelin sheath around a portion of only one axon, while oligodendrocytes can surround portions of several axons. E. None of these choices are true differences.
D. Schwann cells form a myelin sheath around a portion of only one axon, while oligodendrocytes can surround portions of several axons.
36. Which of the following is NOT true about astrocytes? A. They can wall off an injury site to prevent spread of inflammation. B. They can prevent toxic substances from entering brain tissue. C. They can release chemicals that promote formation of synapses. D. They can aid in the regeneration of injured neurons.
D. They can aid in the regeneration of injured neurons.
71. If the ECF around a nerve cell is replaced with an isotonic saline solution that contains potassium ions and other solutes at concentrations very close to the ECF concentrations of a normal cell, the result is A. no resting membrane potential. B. hyperpolarized membrane. C. depolarized membrane. D. a resting membrane potential close to its normal value. E. None of these choices is correct.
D. a resting membrane potential close to its normal value.
79. Lesions of the basal nuclei could cause A. loss of memory. B. uncontrolled rage. C. fluent but circular speech. D. a slight shaking of the hands or head. E. loss of smell.
D. a slight shaking of the hands or head.
79. Saltatory conduction of an action potential means that A. once one action potential is created, it moves down the axon. B. the whole axon depolarizes at the same time. C. one action potential stimulates the production of a new action potential at the adjacent site. D. an action potential is conducted from one node of Ranvier to the next node.
D. an action potential is conducted from one node of Ranvier to the next node
61. The pineal body A. connects the two cerebral hemispheres. B. modifies mood. C. causes hot and cold flashes. D. appears to play a role in controlling the onset of puberty. E. plays a role in the production of cerebrospinal fluid.
D. appears to play a role in controlling the onset of puberty.
8. The middle, thin, spider-like meninx is the A. dura mater. B. pia mater. C. ectomater. D. arachnoid mater.
D. arachnoid mater.
16. Nissl bodies are A. part of a dendrite. B. also called gemmules. C. lipid droplets. D. areas of rough endoplasmic reticulum. E. part of the Golgi apparatus.
D. areas of rough endoplasmic reticulum.
76. What type of white fibers connect areas of the cerebral cortex in the same hemisphere? A. basal fibers B. commissural fibers C. projection fibers D. association fibers
D. association fibers
98. What structural feature of the brain regulates the movement of materials from the blood into the brain? A. myelin sheath B. Circle of Willis C. meninges D. blood-brain barrier
D. blood-brain barrier
77. The strength of a stimulus is communicated through A. changes in the magnitude of the action potential. B. the frequency of the action potentials. C. the length of time action potentials are produced. D. both the frequency and the length of time action potentials are produced.
D. both the frequency and the length of time action potentials are produced.
46. The epineurium A. surrounds nerve cell bodies. B. surrounds individual axons and their Schwann cells. C. bundles axons into fascicles. D. bundles fascicles into nerves. E. bundles fascicles into axons.
D. bundles fascicles into nerves.
100. What ion is necessary for the release of neurotransmitter from synaptic vesicles? A. chloride B. sodium C. potassium D. calcium
D. calcium
89. Neurotransmitters A. stimulate presynaptic terminals. B. remain in the synaptic cleft for long periods of time. C. bind irreversibly to the receptor molecules of the postsynaptic membrane. D. cause the production of action potentials in the postsynaptic membrane. E. do not affect membrane channels in the postsynaptic membrane.
D. cause the production of action potentials in the postsynaptic membrane.
94. Receptor molecules A. are nonspecific. B. are always lipids. C. attach to the synaptic cleft. D. determine whether a neurotransmitter will be excitatory or inhibitory. E. are not attached to ligand-gated channels.
D. determine whether a neurotransmitter will be excitatory or inhibitory.
62. Damage to the phrenic nerve would result in A. the loss of motor activity in the arms. B. an increased heart rate. C. an inability to swallow. D. difficulty breathing. E. a decreased heart rate.
D. difficulty breathing.
47. Which of the following is mismatched? A. lateral geniculate nucleus - visual impulses B. medial geniculate nucleus - auditory impulses C. ventral posterior nucleus - sensory impulses D. dorsal tier of nuclei - taste impulses E. ventral lateral nuclei - motor functions
D. dorsal tier of nuclei - taste impulses
3. From which germ layer does the nervous system form? A. endoderm B. mesoderm C. exoderm D. ectoderm
D. ectoderm
67. During brain surgery, the superior portion of the postcentral gyrus of a patient is stimulated. The patient is most likely to A. flex his fingers. B. talk to the surgeon. C. smile. D. feel pressure on his toes. E. move his hand.
D. feel pressure on his toes.
59. Which of the following feelings is NOT related to hypothalamic function? A. fear of the unknown B. sexual pleasure C. feeling satiated after a meal D. feeling rested after flying to England E. road rage
D. feeling rested after flying to England
44. Ridges of the cerebellar cortex are called A. arbor vitae. B. cerebellar peduncles. C. the vermis. D. folia
D. folia
18. Axons A. contain the nucleus. B. are numerous extensions from each neuron. C. do not have a trigger zone. D. have a distal portion that branches to form the presynaptic terminals. E. do not have a resting membrane potential.
D. have a distal portion that branches to form the presynaptic terminals.
49. Mr. Miller has been hospitalized for the flu. The flu virus increases membrane permeability to potassium. You would expect his cells to A. depolarize. B. repolarize. C. isopolarize. D. hyperpolarize. E. hypopolarize.
D. hyperpolarize.
54. An individual who has an eating disorder along with intense thirst and wildly varying body temperatures may have a dysfunction of the A. pons. B. medulla. C. thalamus. D. hypothalamus. E. brainstem.
D. hypothalamus.
58. A local potential A. does not occur until threshold. B. transmits information from one cell to another. C. might be a depolarization event but cannot be a hyperpolarization event. D. increases or decreases in direct proportion to the stimulus strength. E. does not alter resting membrane potential.
D. increases or decreases in direct proportion to the stimulus strength.
87. Damage to a postsynaptic membrane would A. increase neurotransmitter release. B. decrease the release of neurotransmitter. C. increase neurotransmitter production. D. interfere with the ability to respond to neurotransmitter. E. destroy vesicles containing neurotransmitter.
D. interfere with the ability to respond to neurotransmitter.
24. Which portion of a reflex arc is most likely to be located entirely within the central nervous system? A. sensory neuron B. motor neuron C. effector cell D. interneuron E. receptor cell
D. interneuron
50. All spinal nerves from C2 to L5 exit the vertebral column through a(n) A. vertebral foramen. B. spinal foramen. C. dorsal root ganglion. D. intervertebral foramen. E. foramen magnum.
D. intervertebral foramen.
2. The spinal cord A. controls the reticular activating system. B. stores reflexive memory. C. forms memory engrams. D. links the peripheral nervous system to the brain. E. is characterized by conscious activity.
D. links the peripheral nervous system to the brain.
50. For the resting membrane potential, increasing the sodium ion concentration in the ECF results in A. hyperpolarization. B. depolarization. C. hypopolarization. D. little change in membrane potential. E. There is not enough information to determine the results.
D. little change in membrane potential
95. Water-soluble molecules such as glucose and amino acids move across the blood-brain barrier by A. diffusion. B. endocytosis. C. exocytosis. D. mediated transport. E. filtration.
D. mediated transport.
5. From which embryonic brain region does the cerebellum form? A. telencephalon B. diencephalon C. mesencephalon D. metencephalon E. myelencephalon
D. metencephalon
64. Which of the following nerves is part of the brachial plexus? A. peroneal B. ansa cervicalis C. ischiadic (sciatic) D. musculocutaneous E. femoral
D. musculocutaneous
103. Viagra is used to treat erectile dysfunction by prolonging the effects of _____ on blood vessels. A. substance P B. dopamine C. GABA D. nitric oxide (NO)
D. nitric oxide (NO)
35. Gaps or interruptions in the myelin sheath are called A. internodes. B. tight junctions. C. neurofilaments. D. nodes of Ranvier. E. gap junctions.
D. nodes of Ranvier.
43. Clusters of gray matter deep within the brain are called A. cortices. B. nerves. C. ganglia. D. nuclei.
D. nuclei.
104. Ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid) of the left eye would be caused by damage to the A. facial nerve. B. abducens nerve. C. trochlear nerve. D. oculomotor nerve. E. optic nerve.
D. oculomotor nerve.
66. When repolarization of a neuron is complete, the A. neuron dies. B. neuron regenerates. C. cell no longer has a potential difference across its membrane. D. original polarity of the neuron is restored. E. neuron is no longer excitable.
D. original polarity of the neuron is restored.
57. Ventral rami of some spinal nerves join with each other to form a A. ganglion. B. dermatome. C. cord. D. plexus. E. nerve.
D. plexus.
20. Synaptic vesicles contain neurotransmitters and are present in the A. dendrites. B. cell body. C. axolemma. D. presynaptic terminals. E. trigger zone.
D. presynaptic terminals.
27. The blood-brain barrier A. permits passage of foreign substances from the blood to the neurons. B. prohibits the transport of amino acids and glucose to the neurons. C. prohibits the removal of waste materials from the neurons. D. protects neurons from toxic substances in the blood. E. does not prevent fluctuations in the composition of the blood from affecting the functions of the brain.
D. protects neurons from toxic substances in the blood.
79. Branches of the ____ nerve are anesthetized before a doctor performs an episiotomy for childbirth. A. genitofemoral B. gluteal C. cutaneous femoral D. pudendal E. common fibular (peroneal)
D. pudendal
41. Reciprocal innervation A. is associated with the Golgi tendon reflex. B. stimulates antagonistic muscles. C. results in reduced resistance to the reflex. D. reinforces the withdrawal reflex. E. inhibits the stretch reflex.
D. reinforces the withdrawal reflex.
21. Damage to pontine nuclei might affect A. vision. B. talking. C. blood pressure. D. respiration. E. heart rate.
D. respiration.
39. What type of neuroglial cells provide support and nutrition to sensory ganglia in the PNS? A. Schwann cells B. microglia C. ependymal cells D. satellite cells
D. satellite cells
61. Depolarization of the nerve cell membrane occurs when there is a rapid influx (inflow) of A. potassium ions. B. chloride ions. C. calcium ions. D. sodium ions. E. proteins.
D. sodium ions.
12. Which of the following is mismatched? A. central nervous system - brain B. autonomic nervous system - sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions C. peripheral nervous system - spinal nerves D. somatic nervous system - sensory division of PNS E. peripheral nervous system - sensory and motor divisions
D. somatic nervous system - sensory division of PNS
65. Which of the following is not a lobe of the cerebrum? A. parietal B. frontal C. occipital D. sphenoidal E. temporal
D. sphenoidal
12. Where is cerebrospinal fluid found around the spinal cord? A. subdural space B. epidural space C. thecal sac D. subarachnoid space
D. subarachnoid space
64. The lateral fissure separates the _____ from the rest of the cerebrum. A. frontal lobe B. parietal lobe C. occipital lobe D. temporal lobe E. cerebellum
D. temporal lobe
15. Which of the following terms does NOT belong with the others? A. medulla oblongata B. midbrain C. pons D. thalamus E. reticular formation
D. thalamus
113. Suppose both excitatory and inhibitory neurons synapse with a single postsynaptic neuron. What determines if an action potential is initiated in the postsynaptic neuron? A. the kind of neuron involved B. the size of the neuron involved C. whether the neuron is myelinated or non-myelinated D. the number of EPSPs in relation to the number of IPSPs E. This situation is not possible in humans.
D. the number of EPSPs in relation to the number of IPSPs
99. Action potentials at a chemical synapse A. travel from presynaptic terminal to postsynaptic membrane. B. travel from postsynaptic membrane to presynaptic terminal. C. travel back and forth from presynaptic terminal to postsynaptic membrane. D. travel from presynaptic terminal to presynaptic membrane. E. stop at the presynaptic terminal and are regenerated on the postsynaptic membrane.
D. travel from presynaptic terminal to presynaptic membrane.
107. Difficulty with chewing or an inability to chew might result from damage to the A. vagus nerve. B. trochlear nerve. C. hypoglossal nerve. D. trigeminal nerve. E. vestibulocochlear nerve.
D. trigeminal nerve.
66. When a person hits their "funny bone," they cause temporary damage to the _____ nerve. A. axillary B. radial C. musculocutaneous D. ulnar E. median
D. ulnar
33. What is the role of the red nuclei? A. responding to loud noises and bright lights B. part of the auditory pathways in the CNS C. carries sensory information to the brain D. unconscious regulation and coordination of motor activities
D. unconscious regulation and coordination of motor activities
16. The motor root of a spinal nerve is also referred to as the A. afferent root. B. dorsal root. C. posterior root. D. ventral root. E. sensory root.
D. ventral root.
88. Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by tissue in the walls and roofs of the A. subarachnoid space. B. dural sinuses. C. fissure of Sylvius. D. ventricles of the brain. E. subdural space.
D. ventricles of the brain.
84. Arrange the events of synaptic transmission in correct sequence. (1) sodium ions diffuse into the cell and cause a local potential (2) neurotransmitter binds with receptor on postsynaptic cell (3) neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft (4) membrane permeability to sodium ions on postsynaptic cell increases (5) action potential causes release of neurotransmitter A. 5, 2, 3, 4, 1 B. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4 C. 5, 3, 4, 1, 2 D. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 E. 5, 3, 2, 4, 1
E. 5, 3, 2, 4, 1
27. Place the following parts of a reflex arc in the correct order beginning with the sensory receptor. (1) motor neuron (2) interneuron (3) effector (4) sensory neuron (5) sensory receptor A. 5, 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 5, 3, 2, 4, 1 C. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 D. 5, 2, 3, 4, 1 E. 5, 4, 2, 1, 3
E. 5, 4, 2, 1, 3
4. What structures are formed from neural crest cells? A. sensory, autonomic, and enteric neurons B. pigmented body cells C. adrenal medulla D. facial bones E. All of the choices form from neural crest cells
E. All of the choices form from neural crest cells
1. The nervous system A. monitors internal and external stimuli. B. transmits information in the form of action potentials. C. interprets or assesses information. D. maintains homeostasis. E. All of these choices are correct.
E. All of these choices are correct.
122. The accessory nerve A. has fibers that join the vagus nerve. B. has both a cranial and a spinal component. C. provides innervation to the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles. D. is cranial nerve XI. E. All of these choices are correct.
E. All of these choices are correct.
26. Reflexes function in A. removing the body from painful stimuli. B. keeping the body from falling. C. maintaining blood pressure. D. maintaining blood CO2 levels. E. All of these choices are correct.
E. All of these choices are correct.
53. Afferent fibers terminating in the hypothalamus provide input from the A. visceral organs. B. taste receptors of the tongue. C. limbic system. D. the prefrontal cortex of the cerebrum. E. All of these choices are correct.
E. All of these choices are correct.
68. Which of the following statements regarding voltage-gated K+ channels is true? A. These channels have only one gate. B. These channels open more slowly than Na+ channels. C. Once open, these channels remain open until repolarization is complete. D. These channels are specific for potassium. E. All of these statements are true.
E. All of these statements are true.
52. Which of the following statements accurately describe events that occur as a result of a local potential reaching threshold? A. Activation gates of Na+ ion channels begin to close. B. Inactivation gates of Na+ ion channels begin to open. C. A positive feedback cycle develops in which depolarization causes activation gates of Na+ ion channels to open. D. K+ ion channels begin to close. E. Inactivation gates of Na+ ion channels begin to open and a positive feedback cycle develops in which depolarization causes activation gates of Na+ ion channels to open.
E. Inactivation gates of Na+ ion channels begin to open and a positive feedback cycle develops in which depolarization causes activation gates of Na+ ion channels to open.
53. Which of the following events will lead to depolarization? A. an increase in K+ ions in the extracellular fluid B. a decrease in K+ ions in the extracellular fluid C. an increase in the rate of diffusion of K+ ions from cells D. an increase in Na+ ions in the extracellular fluid E. None of these events would cause depolarization.
E. None of these events would cause depolarization.
60. Which of the following situations will lead to hyperpolarization? A. increase the permeability of the plasma membrane to Na+ ions B. decrease the permeability of the plasma membrane to K+ ions C. decrease the permeability of the plasma membrane to chloride ions D. any positive ion entering the cell E. None of these situations will lead to hyperpolarization.
E. None of these situations will lead to hyperpolarization.
52. Injury to the thalamus would A. cause us to stop breathing. B. affect body temperature regulation. C. affect pH regulation. D. prevent puberty. E. affect sensory projection to the cerebral cortex.
E. affect sensory projection to the cerebral cortex.
51. A change in the resting membrane potential has the following characteristics (non-propagated, graded, can summate). This type of change can A. be a local potential. B. be an action potential. C. be a consequence of an increase in the permeability to Na+. D. result in repolarization. E. be a local potential and a consequence of an increase in the permeability to Na+.
E. be a local potential and a consequence of an increase in the permeability to Na+.
57. Voltage-gated sodium channels are sensitive to changes in the extracellular concentration of A. potassium ions. B. proteins. C. sodium ions. D. chloride ions. E. calcium ions.
E. calcium ions.
6. The thickest of the meninges is the A. pia mater. B. arachnoid mater. C. subdural space. D. subarachnoid space. E. dura mater.
E. dura mater.
107. An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) can result from the A. influx of calcium ions. B. influx of sodium ions. C. influx of chloride. D. outflow of potassium ions. E. either influx of chloride or outflow of potassium ions.
E. either influx of chloride or outflow of potassium ions.
29. Overproduction of cerebrospinal fluid could be the result of overactivity of the A. astrocytes. B. microglial cells. C. oligodendrocytes. D. macrophages. E. ependymal cells.
E. ependymal cells.
57. A 13-year-old child exhibited retarded growth, reduced metabolism, lack of normal reproductive gland development, inability to regulate water intake or water elimination from the body, and an uncontrolled appetite. What part of the child's brain is most likely involved? A. reticular formation B. primary sensory cortex C. medulla oblongata D. thalamus E. hypothalamus
E. hypothalamus
21. A neuron that carries action potentials from one neuron to another is called a(n)____________. A. motor neuron B. sensory neuron C. afferent neuron D. efferent neuron E. interneuron
E. interneuron
95. A neuromodulator A. acts as a neurotransmitter. B. inactivates neurotransmitters. C. is a receptor site for a neurotransmitter. D. has no influence on the amount of neurotransmitter released. E. is a substance released from neurons that influences the sensitivity of neurons to neurotransmitters.
E. is a substance released from neurons that influences the sensitivity of neurons to neurotransmitters.
106. In an EPSP (excitatory postsynaptic potential), there is a A. net movement of sodium ions out of the cells. B. net movement of chloride ions into the cells. C. decrease in action potential amplitude. D. local hyperpolarization. E. local depolarization.
E. local depolarization.
67. An injury to the wrist that results in edema in the carpal tunnel would compress the A. axillary nerve. B. radial nerve. C. musculocutaneous nerve. D. ulnar nerve. E. median nerve.
E. median nerve.
6. From which embryonic brain region does the medulla oblongata form? A. telencephalon B. diencephalon C. mesencephalon D. metencephalon E. myelencephalon
E. myelencephalon
71. Which of the following nerves is associated with the lumbosacral plexus? A. phrenic B. median C. musculocutaneous D. ulnar E. obturator
E. obturator
44. The adaptive significance of the crossed extensor reflex when a person steps on a tack is to A. remove the foot from the tack. B. increase the rate at which withdrawal of the limb occurs. C. slow the rate of removal of the foot from the tack. D. reduce the pain sensations. E. prevent the person from falling down.
E. prevent the person from falling down.
39. Stimulation of the Golgi tendon organs result in which of the following changes in the reflex arc? A. stimulation of a stimulatory association neuron B. stimulation of an inhibitory neuron C. decreased action potentials in alpha motor neurons D. contraction of skeletal muscle fibers E. stimulation of an inhibitory neuron and decreased action potentials in alpha motor neurons
E. stimulation of an inhibitory neuron and decreased action potentials in alpha motor neurons
25. The superior and inferior colliculi are located in which of the following portions of the midbrain? A. tegmentum (floor) B. cerebral peduncles C. substantia nigra D. red nucleus E. tectum (roof)
E. tectum (roof)
43. A person with a lesion in the brain exhibited the following manifestations: normal tension in skeletal muscle, disturbed fine motor control, exhibited tremors when reaching for objects. What part of the brain is most likely damaged? A. the prefrontal lobe B. the frontal lobe C. the basal ganglia D. the pyramids E. the cerebellum
E. the cerebellum
13. Walking a tightrope would activate what portion(s) of the medulla? A. the pyramids B. the superior colliculi C. the olives D. the pyramids and the superior colliculi E. the pyramids and the olives
E. the pyramids and the olives
28. When you walk up behind someone and tap their right shoulder, they will reflexively A. raise their arms. B. hit you. C. turn their head toward the left. D. sneeze. E. turn their head toward the right.
E. turn their head toward the right.
40. A reflex that protects limbs by removing them from painful stimuli is the A. stretch reflex. B. crossed extensor reflex. C. Golgi tendon reflex. D. alternating reflex. E. withdrawal reflex
E. withdrawal reflex
