Chapter 36-42

291. A patient is taking a drug that interferes with venous constriction. The nurse will tell the patient to: a. ask for assistance when getting out of bed. b. expect bradycardia for a few days. c. notify the provider if headache occurs. d. report shortness of breath.

ANS: A A drop in venous pressure reduces venous return to the heart, and as blood pools in the extremities, orthostatic hypotension can occur. Patients taking drugs that reduce venous constriction should be cautioned to ask for assistance when getting out of bed. Bradycardia, headache, and shortness of breath are not expected effects.

310. A patient who has been taking an antihypertensive medication for several years is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The prescriber changes the patient's medication to an ACE inhibitor. The patient asks the nurse why a new drug is necessary. What is the nurse's response? a. "ACE inhibitors can prevent or reverse pathologic changes in the heart's structure." b. "ACE inhibitors help lower LDL cholesterol and raise HDL cholesterol." c. "ACE inhibitors increase venous return to the heart, improving cardiac output." d. "ACE inhibitors regulate electrolytes that affect the cardiac rhythm."

ANS: A ACE inhibitors have many advantages over other antihypertensive medications, the most important of which is their ability to prevent or reverse pathologic changes in the heart and reduce the risk of cardiac mortality caused by hypertension. They are useful in patients with high low- density lipoprotein (LDL) or low high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol, but they do not directly affect this comorbidity. They reduce venous return to the heart, thereby reducing right heart size. They do not alter serum electrolyte levels.

343. A patient with diabetes develops hypertension. The nurse will anticipate administering which type of medication to treat hypertension in this patient? a. ACE inhibitors b. Beta blockers c. Direct-acting vasodilators d. Thiazide diuretics

ANS: A ACE inhibitors slow the progression of kidney injury in diabetic patients with renal damage. Beta blockers can mask signs of hypoglycemia and must be used with caution in diabetics. Direct-acting vasodilators are third-line drugs for chronic hypertension. Thiazide diuretics promote hyperglycemia.

355. A patient has heart failure and is taking an ACE inhibitor. The patient has developed fibrotic changes in the heart and vessels. The nurse expects the provider to order which medication to counter this development? a. Aldosterone antagonist b. Angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) c. Beta blocker d. Direct renin inhibitor (DRI)

ANS: A Aldosterone antagonists are added to therapy for patients with worsening symptoms of HF. Aldosterone promotes myocardial remodeling and myocardial fibrosis, so aldosterone antagonists can help with this symptom. ARBs are given for patients who do not tolerate ACE inhibitors. Beta blockers do not prevent fibrotic changes. DRIs are not widely used.

375. A nurse is providing teaching to a patient who is admitted to the hospital for initiation of treatment with amiodarone [Cordarone] for atrial fibrillation that has been refractory to other medications. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I may have itching, malaise, and jaundice, but these symptoms will subside." b. "I need to use sunblock to help keep my skin from turning bluish gray." c. "I should not drink grapefruit juice while taking this medication." d. "I should report shortness of breath and cough and stop taking the drug immediately."

ANS: A Amiodarone has many toxic effects. Liver toxicity is rare but serious and should be reported and the drug discontinued. Dermatologic toxicity can occur, and sunblock helps protect the skin, which, with prolonged exposure to the sun, can turn bluish gray. Drinking grapefruit juice can increase amiodarone levels. Pulmonary toxicity is the greatest concern, and patients with pulmonary symptoms should report these to the provider.

361. A patient with heart failure who has been given digoxin [Lanoxin] daily for a week complains of nausea. Before giving the next dose, the nurse will: a. assess the heart rate (HR) and give the dose if the HR is greater than 60 beats/minute. b. contact the provider to report digoxin toxicity. c. request an order for a decreased dose of digoxin. d. review the serum electrolyte values and withhold the dose if the potassium level is greater than 3.5 mEq/L.

ANS: A Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting are the most common adverse effects of digoxin and should cause nurses to evaluate for more serious signs of toxicity. If the HR is greater than 60 beats/minute, the dose may be given. Nausea by itself is not a sign of toxicity. A decreased dose is not indicated. A serum potassium level less than 3.5 mEq/L is an indication for withholding the dose.

370. A patient newly diagnosed with heart failure is admitted to the hospital. The nurse notes a pulse of 90 beats/minute. The nurse will observe this patient closely for: a. decreased urine output. b. increased blood pressure. c. jugular vein distention. d. shortness of breath.

ANS: A As the heart rate increases, ventricular filling decreases, and cardiac output and renal perfusion decrease. Tachycardia does not elevate blood pressure. Jugular vein distention and shortness of breath occur with fluid volume overload.

386. A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about antidysrhythmic medications. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Antidysrhythmic drugs can cause new dysrhythmias or worsen existing ones." b. "Adverse effects of these drugs are mainly noncardiac in nature." c. "For most antidysrhythmic drugs, there is evidence of reduced mortality." d. "Use of these drugs may be necessary even if the benefits are unknown."

ANS: A Because antidysrhythmic drugs have prodysrhythmic actions, they can exacerbate existing dysrhythmias or generate new ones. Most adverse effects are cardiac related. There is evidence of increased mortality with many of these drugs. Use of these drugs should be limited to situations in which there is a clear benefit and only if that benefit outweighs any risks.

352. A 5-year-old patient seen in an outpatient clinic is noted to have hypertension on three separate visits. Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring confirms that the child has hypertension. As an initial intervention with the child's parents, the nurse will expect to: a. perform a detailed health history on the child. b. provide teaching about antihypertensive medications. c. reassure the parents that their child may outgrow this condition. d. teach the parents about lifestyle changes and a special diet.

ANS: A Because the incidence of secondary hypertension is much higher in children than in adults, it is important to obtain an accurate health history to help uncover primary causes. Once the type of hypertension is established, the teaching interventions may be useful. Hypertension must be treated, and it is incorrect to reassure parents that their child may just outgrow the condition.

350. A patient with hypertension with a blood pressure of 168/110 mm Hg begins taking hydrochlorothiazide and verapamil. The patient returns to the clinic after 2 weeks of drug therapy, and the nurse notes a blood pressure of 140/85 mm Hg and a heart rate of 98 beats/minute. What will the nurse do? a. Notify the provider and ask about adding a beta blocker medication. b. Reassure the patient that the medications are working. c. Remind the patient to move slowly from sitting to standing. d. Request an order for an electrocardiogram.

ANS: A Beta blockers are often added to drug regimens to treat reflex tachycardia, which is a common side effect of lowering blood pressure, caused by the baroreceptor reflex. The patient's blood pressure is responding to the medications, but the tachycardia warrants treatment. Reminding the patient to move slowly from sitting to standing is appropriate with any blood pressure medication, but this patient has reflex tachycardia, which must be treated. An electrocardiogram is not indicated.

351. A nurse is discussing how beta blockers work to decrease blood pressure with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Beta blockers block the actions of angiotensin II." b. "Beta blockers decrease heart rate and contractility." c. "Beta blockers decrease peripheral vascular resistance." d. "Beta blockers decrease the release of renin."

ANS: A Beta blockers reduce the release of renin by blockade of beta1 receptors on juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney, which reduces angiotensin II-mediated vasoconstriction, but do not block the actions of angiotensin II directly. Beta blockers decrease heart rate and cardiac contractility, decrease peripheral vascular resistance, and decrease the release of renin.

385. Which two classes of antidysrhythmic drugs have nearly identical cardiac effects? a. Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers b. Beta blockers and potassium channel blockers c. Calcium channel blockers and sodium channel blockers d. Sodium channel blockers and potassium channel blockers

ANS: A Calcium channel blockers have the same impact on cardiac action potentials as do beta blockers, so these agents have nearly identical effects on cardiac function; that is, they reduce automaticity in the SA node, delay conduction through the AV node, and reduce myocardial contractility. Potassium channel blockers act by delaying repolarization of fast potentials. Sodium channel blockers block sodium channels to slow impulse conduction in the atria, ventricles, and His- Purkinje system.

383. A prescriber orders verapamil [Covera-HS] for a patient who is taking digoxin [Lanoxin] and warfarin. The nurse will expect the prescriber to __ the dose of __. a. lower; digoxin b. increase; digoxin c. lower; warfarin d. increase; warfarin

ANS: A Calcium channel blockers, such as verapamil, can increase levels of digoxin, so patients taking these drugs may need to have their digoxin dose reduced. Increasing the dose of digoxin can result in digoxin toxicity. Verapamil does not affect warfarin levels.

317. A nurse is teaching a patient who will begin taking verapamil [Calan] for hypertension about the drug's side effects. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I may become constipated, so I should increase fluids and fiber." b. "I may experience a rapid heart rate as a result of taking this drug." c. "I may have swelling of my hands and feet, but this will subside." d. "I may need to increase my digoxin dose while taking this drug."

ANS: A Constipation is common with verapamil and can be minimized by increasing dietary fiber and fluids. Verapamil lowers the heart rate. Peripheral edema may occur secondary to vasodilation, and patients should notify their prescriber if this occurs, because the prescriber may use diuretics to treat the condition. Verapamil and digoxin have similar cardiac effects; also, verapamil may increase plasma levels of digoxin by as much as 60%, so digoxin doses may need to be reduced.

288. A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving a drug that causes constriction of arterioles. The nurse expects to observe which effect from this drug? a. Decreased stroke volume b. Increased stroke volume c. Decreased myocardial contractility d. Increased myocardial contractility

ANS: A Constriction of arterioles increases the load against which the heart must pump to eject blood. Increased constriction of arterioles would decrease, not increase, the stroke volume of the heart. Myocardial contractility is determined by the sympathetic nervous system, acting through beta1- adrenergic receptors in the myocardium.

371. A patient with volume overload begins taking a thiazide diuretic. The nurse will tell the patient to expect which outcome when taking this drug? a. Improved exercise tolerance b. Increased cardiac output c. Prevention of cardiac remodeling d. Prolonged survival

ANS: A Diuretics help reduce fluid volume overload, which, by reducing pulmonary edema, can improve exercise tolerance. Diuretics do not improve cardiac output. ACE inhibitors are used to prevent cardiac remodeling and to improve long-term survival.

325. A nurse is obtaining a medication history on a newly admitted patient, who reports taking minoxidil for hypertension. Admission vital signs reveal a heart rate of 78 beats/minute and a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg. What is an important part of the initial assessment for this patient? a. Evaluating ankle edema b. Monitoring for nausea and vomiting c. Noting the presence of hypertrichosis d. Obtaining a blood glucose

ANS: A Fluid retention is a common and serious adverse effect of minoxidil, because it can lead to cardiac decompensation. If present, a diuretic is indicated. Nausea and vomiting may occur with this drug but is not a serious side effect. Hypertrichosis occurs in about 80% of patients taking the drug, but its effects are cosmetic and not life threatening. It may be important to monitor the blood glucose level in some patients, because the drug can alter glucose tolerance, but this effect is not as serious as fluid retention.

294. A patient is brought to the emergency department with shortness of breath, a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/minute, intercostal retractions, and frothy, pink sputum. The nurse caring for this patient will expect to administer which drug? a. Furosemide [Lasix] b. Hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL] c. Mannitol [Osmitrol] d. Spironolactone [Aldactone]

ANS: A Furosemide, a potent diuretic, is used when rapid or massive mobilization of fluids is needed. This patient shows severe signs of congestive heart failure with respiratory distress and pulmonary edema and needs immediate mobilization of fluid. Hydrochlorothiazide and spironolactone are not indicated for pulmonary edema, because their diuretic effects are less rapid. Mannitol is indicated for patients with increased intracranial pressure and must be discontinued immediately if signs of pulmonary congestion or heart failure occur.

298. An older adult patient with congestive heart failure develops crackles in both lungs and pitting edema of all extremities. The physician orders hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]. Before administering this medication, the nurse reviews the patient's chart. Which laboratory value causes the nurse the most concern? a. Decreased creatinine clearance b. Elevated serum potassium level c. Normal blood glucose level d. Low levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol

ANS: A Hydrochlorothiazide should not be given to patients with severe renal impairment; therefore, a decreased creatinine clearance would cause the most concern. Thiazide diuretics are potassium- wasting drugs and thus may actually improve the patient's potassium level. Thiazides may elevate the serum glucose level in diabetic patients. Thiazides increase LDL cholesterol; however, this patient's levels are low, so this is not a risk.

340. A patient has three separate blood pressure (BP) readings of 120/100 mm Hg, 138/92 mm Hg, and 126/96 mm Hg. Which category describes this patient's BP? a. Hypertension b. Isolated systolic hypertension c. Normal d. Prehypertension

ANS: A Hypertension is defined as systolic BP over 140 mm Hg or diastolic BP over 90 mm Hg. When systolic and diastolic BP fall into different categories, classification is based on the higher category. This patient has a hypertensive diastolic BP. Isolated systolic hypertension occurs if the systolic BP is greater than 140 mm Hg with a diastolic BP less than 90 mm Hg. Because this patient has an elevated diastolic BP, it is not considered normal. Prehypertension occurs with a systolic BP of 120 to 139 mm Hg or a diastolic BP of 80 to 89 mm Hg.

349. A patient with a recent onset of nephrosclerosis has been taking an ACE inhibitor and a thiazide diuretic. The patient's initial blood pressure was 148/100 mm Hg. After 1 month of drug therapy, the patient's blood pressure is 130/90 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss: a. adding a calcium channel blocker to this patient's drug regimen. b. lowering doses of the antihypertensive medications. c. ordering a high-potassium diet. d. adding spironolactone to the drug regimen.

ANS: A In patients with renal disease, the goal of antihypertensive therapy is to lower the blood pressure to 130/80 mm Hg or less. Adding a third medication is often indicated. Lowering the dose of the medications is not indicated because the patient's blood pressure is not in the target range. Adding potassium to the diet and using a potassium-sparing diuretic are contraindicated.

290. A nurse is assessing a patient who has heart failure. The patient complains of shortness of breath, and the nurse auscultates crackles in both lungs. The nurse understands that these symptoms are the result of: a. decreased force of ventricular contraction. b. increased force of ventricular contraction. c. decreased ventricular filling. d. increased ventricular filling.

ANS: A In the failing heart Starling's law breaks down, and the force of contraction no longer increases in proportion to the amount of ventricular filling. The result is the backup of blood into the lungs and the symptoms of shortness of breath and crackles caused by fluid. Increased ventricular contraction would not result in a backup of blood into the lungs. Changes in ventricular filling are not the direct cause of this symptom.

335. A hospitalized patient has a blood pressure of 145/96 mm Hg. The nurse caring for this patient notes that the blood pressure the day before was 132/98 mm Hg. The patient reports ambulatory blood pressure readings of 136/98 and 138/92 mm Hg. The patient has a history of a previous myocardial infarction and has adopted a lifestyle that includes the use of the DASH diet and regular exercise. What will the nurse do? a. Notify the provider and discuss ordering a beta blocker for this patient. b. Notify the provider and suggest a thiazide diuretic as initial therapy. c. Order a diet low in sodium and high in potassium for this patient. d. Recheck the patient's blood pressure in 4 hours to verify the result.

ANS: A Initial drug selection is determined by the presence or absence of a compelling indication or comorbid condition. This patient has a history of MI; beta blockers are indicated for patients with preexisting heart disease. Thiazide diuretics are first-line drugs of choice in patients without compelling indications. The patient is already consuming a DASH diet; closer monitoring of sodium or potassium will not help lower blood pressure. The patient has a record of hypertension, so it is unnecessary to recheck the blood pressure to verify the condition.

297. A patient who was in a motor vehicle accident sustained a severe head injury and is brought into the emergency department. The provider orders intravenous mannitol [Osmitrol]. The nurse knows that this is given to: a. reduce intracranial pressure. b. reduce renal perfusion. c. reduce peripheral edema. d. restore extracellular fluid.

ANS: A Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that is used to reduce intracranial pressure by relieving cerebral edema. The presence of mannitol in blood vessels in the brain creates an osmotic force that draws edematous fluid from the brain into the blood. Mannitol can also be used to increase renal perfusion. It can cause peripheral edema and is not used to restore extracellular fluid.

328. A patient is taking a vasodilator that relaxes smooth muscles in veins. To help minimize drug side effects, the nurse caring for this patient will: a. caution the patient not to get up abruptly. b. encourage the patient to increase fluid intake. c. tell the patient to report shortness of breath. d. warn the patient about the possibility of bradycardia.

ANS: A Postural hypotension occurs when moving from a supine or seated position to an upright position. It is caused by relaxation of smooth muscle in veins, which allows blood to pool in veins and decreases venous return of blood to the heart. Patients taking such drugs should avoid abrupt transitions to prevent falls. Prolonged use of vasodilators can lead to expansion of blood volume and fluid overload, so increasing fluid intake is not appropriate. Shortness of breath is a symptom associated with heart failure. Tachycardia can occur when the blood pressure drops as a result of the baroreceptor reflex.

381. A prescriber has ordered propranolol [Inderal] for a patient with recurrent ventricular tachycardia. The nurse preparing to administer this drug will be concerned about what in the patient's history? a. Asthma b. Exercise-induced tachyarrhythmias c. Hypertension d. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia associated with emotion

ANS: A Propranolol is contraindicated in patients with asthma, because it is a nonselective beta-adrenergic antagonist and can cause bronchoconstriction and exacerbate asthma. It is used to treat tachyarrhythmias and paroxysmal atrial tachycardia evoked by emotion, so it is not contraindicated for patients with these conditions. It lowers blood pressure, so it would be helpful in patients with hypertension.

307. A nurse administers an ACE inhibitor to a patient who is taking the drug for the first time. What will the nurse do? a. Instruct the patient not to get up without assistance. b. Make sure the patient takes a potassium supplement. c. Report the presence of a dry cough to the prescriber. d. Request an order for a diuretic to counter the side effects of the ACE inhibitor.

ANS: A Severe hypotension can result with the first dose of an ACE inhibitor. The patient should be discouraged from getting up without assistance. Potassium supplements are contraindicated. A dry cough is an expected side effect that eventually may cause a patient to discontinue the drug; however, it is not a contraindication to treatment. Diuretics can exacerbate hypotension and should be discontinued temporarily when a patient starts an ACE inhibitor.

364. A patient with Stage C heart failure (HF) who has been taking an ACE inhibitor, a beta blocker, and a diuretic begins to have increased dyspnea, weight gain, and decreased urine output. The provider orders spironolactone [Aldactone]. The nurse will instruct the patient to: a. avoid potassium supplements. b. monitor for a decreased heart rate. c. take extra fluids. d. use a salt substitute instead of salt.

ANS: A Spironolactone is added to therapy for patients with worsening symptoms of HF. Because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, patients should not take supplemental potassium. Patients taking digoxin need to monitor their heart rate. Extra fluids are not indicated. Salt substitutes contain potassium.

359. The potassium-sparing diuretic spironolactone [Aldactone] prolongs survival and improves heart failure symptoms by which mechanism? a. Blocking aldosterone receptors b. Increasing diuresis c. Reducing venous pressure d. Reducing afterload

ANS: A Spironolactone prolongs survival in patients with HF primarily by blocking receptors for aldosterone. Spironolactone causes only minimal diuresis. It does not reduce afterload, and it does not reduce venous pressure enough to prolong survival, because it causes only minimal diuresis.

358. A patient is recovering from a myocardial infarction but does not have symptoms of heart failure. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about: a. ACE inhibitors and beta blockers. b. biventricular pacemakers. c. dietary supplements and exercise. d. diuretics and digoxin.

ANS: A This patient is classified as having Stage B heart failure with no current symptoms but with structural heart disease strongly associated with the development of heart failure. Treatment at this stage includes an ACE inhibitor and a beta blocker to help prevent the progression of symptoms. Biventricular pacemakers are used for patients in Stage C heart failure and have more advanced structural disease and symptoms. Dietary supplements and exercise have not been proven to prevent structural heart disease. Diuretics and digoxin are used for patients with Stage C heart failure.

326. A female patient with essential hypertension is being treated with hydralazine 25 mg twice daily. The nurse assesses the patient and notes a heart rate of 96 beats/minute and a blood pressure of 110/72 mm Hg. The nurse will request an order to: a. administer a beta blocker. b. administer a drug that dilates veins. c. reduce the dose of hydralazine. d. give the patient a diuretic.

ANS: A This patient is showing signs of reflex tachycardia, so a beta blocker is indicated to slow the heart rate. Patients with heart failure who take hydralazine often require the addition of isosorbide dinitrate, which also dilates veins. There is no indication for reducing the dose of hydralazine. A diuretic can be given with hydralazine if sodium and water retention is present.

324. The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking a vasodilator that dilates capacitance vessels. The nurse will expect which effect in this patient? a. Decrease in cardiac work b. Increase in cardiac output c. Increase in tissue perfusion d. Increase in venous return

ANS: A Vasodilators that dilate capacitance vessels, or veins, lead to a decrease in venous return to the heart, which reduces preload and the force of ventricular contraction. The resultant effect is a decrease in cardiac work. With a decrease in ventricular contraction, cardiac output is reduced, as is tissue perfusion. Dilation of veins causes a decrease in venous return.

316. A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving verapamil [Calan] for hypertension and digoxin [Lanoxin] for heart failure. The nurse will observe this patient for: a. AV blockade. b. gingival hyperplasia. c. migraine headaches. d. reflex tachycardia.

ANS: A Verapamil and digoxin both suppress impulse conduction through the AV node; when the two drugs are used concurrently, the risk of AV blockade is increased. Gingival hyperplasia can occur in rare cases with verapamil, but it is not an acute symptom. Verapamil can be used to prevent migraine, and its use for this purpose is under investigation. Verapamil and digoxin both suppress the heart rate. Nifedipine causes reflex tachycardia.

318. A patient who took an overdose of verapamil has been treated with gastric lavage and a cathartic. The emergency department nurse assesses the patient and notes a heart rate of 50 beats/minute and a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg. The nurse will anticipate: a. administering intravenous norepinephrine (NE) and atropine and glucagon. b. assisting with direct-current (DC) cardioversion. c. placing the patient in an upright position. d. preparing to administer a beta blocker.

ANS: A Verapamil toxicity can cause bradycardia and hypotension. Atropine and glucagon should be given to treat bradycardia and NE for hypotension. DC cardioversion is indicated for ventricular tachydysrhythmias, which this patient does not have. Patients with hypotension should be placed in Trendelenburg position. Beta blockers will only exacerbate these effects.

289. A patient with hypertension is admitted to the hospital. On admission the patient's heart rate is 72 beats/minute, and the blood pressure is 140/95 mm Hg. After administering an antihypertensive medication, the nurse notes a heart rate of 85 beats/minute and a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg. What does the nurse expect to occur? a. A decrease in the heart rate back to baseline in 1 to 2 days b. An increase in the blood pressure within a few days c. An increase in potassium retention in 1 to 2 days d. A decrease in fluid retention within a week

ANS: A When blood pressure drops, the baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid sinus sense this and relay information to the vasoconstrictor center of the medulla; this causes constriction of arterioles and veins and increased sympathetic impulses to the heart, resulting in an increased heart rate. After 1 to 2 days, this system resets to the new pressure, and the heart rate returns to normal. The blood pressure will not increase when this system resets. Increased potassium retention will not occur. Over time, the body will retain more fluid to increase the blood pressure

346. Which two-drug regimen would be appropriate for a patient with hypertension who does not have other compelling conditions? a. Hydrochlorothiazide and nadolol b. Hydralazine and minoxidil c. Spironolactone and amiloride d. Trichlormethiazide and hydrochlorothiazide

ANS: A When two or more drugs are used to treat hypertension, each drug should come from a different class. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic and nadolol is a beta blocker, so this choice is appropriate. Hydralazine and minoxidil are vasodilators. Spironolactone and amiloride are potassium-sparing diuretics. Trichlormethiazide and hydrochlorothiazide are both thiazide diuretics.

354. A patient has been taking digoxin [Lanoxin] 0.25 mg, and furosemide [Lasix] 40 mg, daily. Upon routine assessment by the nurse, the patient states, "I see yellow halos around the lights." The nurse should perform which action based on this assessment? a. Check the patient for other symptoms of digitalis toxicity. b. Withhold the next dose of furosemide. c. Continue to monitor the patient for heart failure. d. Document the findings and reassess in 1 hour.

ANS: A Yellow halos around lights indicate digoxin toxicity. The use of furosemide increases the risk of hypokalemia, which in turn potentiates digoxin toxicity. The patient should also be assessed for headache, nausea, and vomiting, and blood should be drawn for measurement of the serum digoxin level. The nurse should not withhold the dose of furosemide until further assessment is done, including measurement of a serum digoxin level. No evidence indicates that the patient is in worsening heart failure. Documentation of findings is secondary to further assessment and prevention of digoxin toxicity.

321. Which are therapeutic uses for verapamil? Select all that apply. a. Angina of effort b. Cardiac dysrhythmias c. Essential hypertension d. Sick sinus syndrome e. Suppression of preterm labor

ANS: A,B,C Verapamil is used to treat both vasospastic angina and angina of effort. It slows the ventricular rate in patients with atrial flutter, atrial fibrillation, and paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. It is a first-line drug for the treatment of essential hypertension. It is contraindicated in patients with sick sinus syndrome. Nifedipine has investigational uses in suppressing preterm labor.

329. Which patients may receive hydralazine to treat hypertension? Select all that apply. a. A 1-month-old infant b. A 5-year-old child c. A pregnant woman d. A mother breastfeeding a newborn e. An older adult

ANS: A,B,E Hydralazine may be used in infants as young as 1 month of age, in children, and in older adults. Hydralazine is labeled pregnancy category C, and data are lacking regarding transmission of hydralazine in breast-feeding women, so benefits should outweigh risks.

302. Besides having diuretic effects for patients with congestive heart failure, thiazides are also used to treat what? Select all that apply. a. Diabetes insipidus b. Hepatic failure c. Increased intracranial pressure d. Intraocular pressure e. Postmenopausal osteoporosis

ANS: A,B,E Thiazide diuretics have the paradoxical effect of reducing urine output in patients with diabetes insipidus. They can also be used to mobilize edema associated with liver disease. They promote tubular reabsorption of calcium, which may reduce the risk of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Mannitol is used to treat edema that causes increased intracranial pressure and intraocular pressure.

374. A patient will be taking amiodarone [Cordarone]. Which baseline tests are necessary before this medication is started? Select all that apply. a. Chest radiograph and pulmonary function tests b. Complete blood count with differential c. Ophthalmologic examination d. Renal function tests e. Thyroid function tests

ANS: A,C,E Amiodarone has many potential toxic side effects, including pulmonary toxicity, ophthalmic effects, and thyroid toxicity, so these systems should be evaluated at baseline and periodically while the patient is taking the drug. A complete blood count is not indicated. Renal function tests are not indicated.

362. Which medications are included in first-line therapy for heart failure? Select all that apply. a. Agents that inhibit the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) b. Aldosterone antagonists c. Beta blockers d. Cardiac glycosides e. Diuretics

ANS: A,C,E For routine therapy, heart failure is treated with agents that inhibit the RAAS, beta blockers, and diuretics. Aldosterone antagonists and cardiac glycosides are not first-line drugs for HF.

373. A nurse is discussing adenosine with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Adenosine acts by suppressing action potentials in the SA and AV nodes." b. "Adenosine can be used to prevent paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and Wolff- Parkinson-White syndrome." c. "Adenosine has a half-life that lasts only a few seconds and must be given intravenously." d. "Adenosine is not effective for treating atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, or ventricular dysrhythmias."

ANS: B Adenosine is used to terminate paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) and Wolff- Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome, not to prevent symptoms. Adenosine suppresses action potentials in the SA and AV nodes. Because it has a very short half-life of 1.5 to 10 seconds, it must be given IV bolus, as close to the heart as possible. Adenosine is not active against atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, or ventricular dysrhythmias.

308. A provider has ordered captopril [Capoten] for a patient who has hypertension. The patient reports a history of swelling of the tongue and lips after taking enalapril [Vasotec] in the past. Which action by the nurse is correct? a. Administer the captopril and monitor for adverse effects. b. Hold the dose and notify the provider. c. Request an order to administer fosinopril instead of captopril. d. Reassure the patient that this is not a serious side effect.

ANS: B Angioedema is a potentially life-threatening reaction to ACE inhibitors. If a patient has exhibited this reaction with any ACE inhibitor, he or she should not receive ACE inhibitors again. The nurse should hold the medication and notify the provider. Fosinopril is an ACE inhibitor and should not be given.

384. A nurse provides teaching for a patient who will begin taking procainamide [Procanbid] for long-term suppression of a dysrhythmia. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I need to take this drug at evenly spaced intervals around the clock." b. "I may have increased bruising, but this is a temporary side effect." c. "I should report pain and swelling in my joints when taking this drug." d. "I will need to have blood tests at regular intervals while taking this drug."

ANS: B Blood dyscrasias are a rare but potentially fatal side effect of procainamide and are an indication for withdrawing the drug. Procainamide should be taken around the clock at evenly spaced intervals. Lupus-like symptoms may occur; inflammation of the joints is one manifestation and should be reported so that antinuclear antibody (ANA) titers can be monitored. Because of the risk of lupus-like symptoms and blood dyscrasias, blood tests need to be done weekly at first and then periodically thereafter.

353. A patient asks a nurse why he cannot use digoxin [Lanoxin] for his heart failure, because both of his parents used it for HF. The nurse will explain that digoxin is not the first-line therapy for which reason? a. It causes tachycardia and increases the cardiac workload. b. It does not correct the underlying pathology of heart failure. c. It has a wide therapeutic range that makes dosing difficult. d. It may actually shorten the patient's life expectancy.

ANS: B Digoxin improves cardiac output, alters electrical effects, and helps to decrease sympathetic outflow from the central nervous system (CNS) through its neurohormonal effects; however, it does not alter the underlying pathology of heart failure or prevent cardiac remodeling. Digoxin causes bradycardia and increases the cardiac workload by increasing contractility. It has a narrow therapeutic range and many adverse effects. Digoxin does not improve life expectancy; in women it may actually shorten life expectancy.

378. A nursing student asks a nurse how digoxin causes dysrhythmias. The nurse correctly states that digoxin: a. reduces automaticity in the AV node. b. increases automaticity in the Purkinje fibers. c. increases automaticity in the SA node. d. speeds up AV conduction.

ANS: B Digoxin increases automaticity in the Purkinje fibers, which contributes to dysrhythmias caused by digoxin. Decreased automaticity in the AV node is a desired effect of digoxin. Digoxin does not increase automaticity in the SA node. It does not increase AV node conduction.

382. A patient with atrial fibrillation is taking verapamil [Calan]. The patient has read about the drug on the Internet and wants to know why a drug that affects the rate of ventricular contraction is used to treat an abnormal atrial contraction. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. "Drugs that treat ventricular dysrhythmias help to restore normal sinus rhythm." b. "Atrial dysrhythmias can have life-threatening effects on ventricular function." c. "Treating ventricular dysrhythmias helps prevent the likelihood of stroke." d. "When ventricular contraction slows, atrial contraction is also slowed."

ANS: B Dysrhythmic activity in the atria does not significantly reduce cardiac output but can be dangerous when dysrhythmic impulses cross the AV node, causing ventricular dysrhythmias, which can be life threatening. Treating ventricular dysrhythmia helps improve ventricular pumping. These drugs do not restore normal sinus rhythm. To prevent stroke, an anticoagulant, such as warfarin, is used. Slowing ventricular contraction does not affect the rate of atrial contraction. Restoring normal sinus rhythm requires cardioversion, short-term treatment with amiodarone or sotalol, or RF ablation of the dysrhythmiac source.

330. A nurse is caring for a patient who will begin taking hydralazine to treat hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the nurse's teaching about this drug? a. "I will need to ask for assistance when getting up out of a chair." b. "I will also take a beta blocker medication with this drug to prevent rapid heart rate." c. "I may develop joint pain, but this side effect will decrease over time." d. "This drug may cause excessive hair growth on my face, arms, and back."

ANS: B Hydralazine can cause severe reflex tachycardia; a beta blocker is usually given to counter this effect. Postural hypotension is minimal with hydralazine. Patients should be taught to report joint pain, which indicates an SLE syndrome and requires discontinuation of the drug. Minoxidil can cause excessive hair growth, not hydralazine.

360. An 88-year-old patient with heart failure has progressed to Stage D and is hospitalized for the third time in a month. The nurse will expect to discuss which topic with the patient's family? a. Antidysrhythmic medications b. End-of-life care c. Heart transplantation d. Implantable mechanical assist devices

ANS: B Patients in Stage D heart failure have advanced structural heart disease. For eligible patients, the best long-term solution is heart transplantation, but this patient probably is not eligible, given his advanced age. End-of-life care should be discussed. Antidysrhythmic medications are not indicated and may make symptoms worse. An implantable mechanical assist device is used in patients awaiting heart transplantation.

332. A nurse is reviewing the phenomenon of reflex tachycardia with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of this phenomenon? a. "Baroreceptors in the aortic arch stimulate the heart to beat faster." b. "Reflex tachycardia can negate the desired effects of vasodilators." c. "Reflex tachycardia is more likely to occur when beta blockers are given." d. "Venous dilation must occur for reflex tachycardia to occur."

ANS: B Reflex tachycardia, which is a compensatory mechanism in response to decreased blood pressure, can negate the desired effect of a vasodilator by eventually increasing blood pressure. Baroreceptors relay information to the vasomotor center of the medulla; the medulla sends impulses to the heart. Beta blockers are given to counter reflex tachycardia. Reflex tachycardia can be produced by dilation of both arterioles and veins.

311. A female patient who begins taking spironolactone [Aldactone] as an adjunct to furosemide [Lasix] complains that her voice is deepening. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider to obtain an order for a complete blood count (CBC) and liver function tests. b. Explain that this drug binds with receptors for steroid hormones, causing this effect. c. Report this side effect to the provider and request another medication for this patient. d. Teach the patient to report any associated cough, which may indicate a more severe side effect.

ANS: B Spironolactone binds with receptors for aldosterone and with other steroid hormones, causing side effects such as gynecomastia, menstrual irregularities, impotence, hirsutism, and deepening of the voice. There is no indication for a CBC or for liver function tests in this patient with this side effect. Deepening of the voice is not an indication for withdrawal of the drug. This side effect is not associated with cough.

303. A patient with chronic congestive heart failure has repeated hospitalizations in spite of ongoing treatment with hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL] and digoxin. The prescriber has ordered spironolactone [Aldactone] to be added to this patient's drug regimen, and the nurse provides education about this medication. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I can expect improvement within a few hours after taking this drug." b. "I need to stop taking potassium supplements." c. "I should use salt substitutes to prevent toxic side effects." d. "I should watch closely for dehydration."

ANS: B Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic used to counter the potassium-wasting effects of hydrochlorothiazides. Patients taking potassium supplements are at risk for hyperkalemia when taking this medication, so they should be advised to stop the supplements. Spironolactone takes up to 48 hours to have effects. Salt substitutes contain high levels of potassium and are contraindicated. Spironolactone is a weak diuretic, so the risk of dehydration is not increased.

342. The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient who is in labor. The woman reports having had mild preeclampsia with a previous pregnancy.The nurse notes that the woman has a blood pressure of 168/102 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order for which drug? a. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor b. Hydralazine (Apresoline) c. Magnesium sulfate d. Sodium nitroprusside

ANS: B The drug of choice for lowering blood pressure in a patient with severe preeclampsia is hydralazine. Sodium nitroprusside is not indicated. Magnesium sulfate is given as prophylaxis against seizures but does not treat hypertension. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated because of their potential for fetal harm.

366. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin [Lanoxin] to a patient. The patient's heart rate is 62 beats/minute, and the blood pressure is 120/60 mm Hg. The last serum electrolyte value showed a potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider to request an increased dose of digoxin. b. Give the dose of digoxin and notify the provider of the potassium level. c. Request an order for a diuretic. d. Withhold the dose and notify the provider of the heart rate.

ANS: B The patient's serum potassium level is above normal limits, but only slightly. An elevated potassium level can reduce the effects of digoxin, so there is no risk of toxicity. There is no indication that an increased dose of digoxin is needed. There is no indication for a diuretic. The heart rate is acceptable; doses should be withheld if the heart rate is less than 60 beats/minute.

344. A patient who does not consume alcohol or nicotine products reports a strong family history of hypertension and cardiovascular disease. The patient has a blood pressure of 126/82 mm Hg and a normal weight and body mass index for height and age. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about: a. ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blocker medications. b. the DASH diet, sodium restriction, and exercise. c. increased calcium and potassium supplements. d. thiazide diuretics and lifestyle changes.

ANS: B This patient has prehypertension without other risk factors. Lifestyle changes are indicated at this point. If blood pressure rises to hypertension levels, other measures, including drug therapy, will be initiated. Calcium and potassium supplements are not indicated.

379. A nurse is caring for a patient in the intensive care unit who is receiving intravenous lidocaine. The patient is drowsy and confused and reports numbness of the fingers and toes. Which standing order will the nurse initiate at this time? a. Administer diazepam. b. Reduce the rate of infusion. c. Discontinue the infusion. d. Prepare for mechanical ventilation.

ANS: B This patient is showing signs that are common with high therapeutic levels of lidocaine. Because lidocaine is rapidly degraded, slowing the rate of infusion can help remove excess drug from the circulation. Seizures are possible with toxic doses; diazepam should be used to control seizures. It is not necessary to discontinue the infusion, because this patient is showing signs common to high therapeutic doses. Respiratory arrest is possible with toxic doses; mechanical ventilation may be needed.

293. A patient with a history of hypertension is admitted for a procedure. If the patient's arterial pressure decreases, which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to see? a. Decreased heart rate b. Increased heart rate c. Decreased blood pressure d. Syncope

ANS: B When arterial pressure decreases, the vasoconstrictor center causes constriction of nearly all arterioles, leading to an increase in peripheral resistance, constriction of veins, increasing venous return, and subsequent acceleration of the heart rate. A decrease in arterial pressure would not cause a decrease in the heart rate or blood pressure, nor would it cause syncope.

315. A patient begins taking an ACE inhibitor and complains of a dry cough. What does the nurse correctly tell the patient about this symptom? a. It indicates that a serious side effect has occurred. b. It is a common side effect that occurs in almost all patients taking the drug. c. It may be uncomfortable enough that the drug will need to be discontinued. d. It occurs frequently in patients taking the drug but will subside over time.

ANS: C A cough occurs in about 10% of patients taking ACE inhibitors and is the most common reason for discontinuing therapy. It does not indicate a serious condition. It occurs in about 10% of all patients and is more common in women, older adults, and those of Asian ancestry. It does not subside until the medication is discontinued.

314. A nurse is reviewing a patient's medications before administration. Which drug-to-drug interactions will most concern the nurse in a patient with a history of heart failure and a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L? a. Furosemide [Lasix] and enalapril [Vasotec] b. Amlodipine [Norvasc] and spironolactone [Aldactone] c. Captopril [Capoten] and spironolactone [Aldactone] d. Metoprolol [Lopressor] and furosemide [Lasix]

ANS: C ACE inhibitors increase the risk of hyperkalemia, and combining this drug with a potassium- sparing diuretic creates a significant risk of hyperkalemia. Furosemide and enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, would not be contraindicated in this patient. Amlodipine and spironolactone would not cause hyperkalemia. The combination of metoprolol, a beta blocker, and furosemide would not be contraindicated in this patient.

304. A patient who stops taking an ACE inhibitor because of its side effects will begin taking an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) medication. Which side effect of ACE inhibitors will not occur with an ARB medication? a. Angioedema b. Cough c. Hyperkalemia d. Renal failure

ANS: C ARBs do not produce clinically significant hyperkalemia. Angioedema may occur with ARBs, but the incidence is lower than with ACE inhibitors. They do not promote the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs and produce a lower incidence of cough. An increased risk of cancer may be a concern with ARBs but is not a concern with ACE inhibitors. As with ACE inhibitors, renal failure can occur in patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis or stenosis in the artery to a single remaining kidney.

320. A patient who has been taking verapamil [Calan] for hypertension complains of constipation. The patient will begin taking amlodipine [Norvasc] to avoid this side effect. The nurse provides teaching about the difference between the two drugs. Which statement by the patient indicates that further teaching is needed? a. "I can expect dizziness and facial flushing with nifedipine." b. "I should notify the provider if I have swelling of my hands and feet." c. "I will need to take a beta blocker to prevent reflex tachycardia." d. "I will need to take this drug once a day."

ANS: C Amlodipine produces selective blockade of calcium channels in blood vessels with minimal effects on the heart. Reflex tachycardia is not common, so a beta blocker is not indicated to prevent this effect. Dizziness and facial flushing may occur. Peripheral edema may occur and should be reported to the provider. Amlodipine is given once daily.

292. A patient is taking a beta1-adrenergic drug to improve the stroke volume of the heart. The nurse caring for this patient knows that this drug acts by increasing: a. cardiac afterload. b. cardiac preload. c. myocardial contractility. d. venous return.

ANS: C Beta1-adrenergic agents help increase the heart's stroke volume by increasing myocardial contractility. Cardiac afterload is determined primarily by the degree of peripheral resistance caused by constriction of arterioles; increasing afterload would decrease stroke volume. Beta1- adrenergic agents do not affect afterload. Cardiac preload is the amount of stretch applied to the cardiac muscle before contraction and is determined by the amount of venous return. Beta1- adrenergic agents do not affect cardiac preload. Venous return is determined by the systemic filling pressure and auxiliary muscle pumps and is not affected by beta1-adrenergic agents.

345. A patient is taking clonidine for hypertension and reports having dry mouth and drowsiness. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. Beta blockers can reverse these side effects. b. Discontinue the medication immediately and notify the provider. c. Drink extra fluids and avoid driving when drowsy. d. Notify the provider if symptoms persist after several weeks.

ANS: C Clonidine can cause dry mouth and sedation; patients should be warned to drink extra fluids and avoid driving. Beta blockers do not reverse these drug side effects. Discontinuing clonidine abruptly can cause severe rebound hypertension. These are common side effects that do not abate over time.

348. A 60-year-old African-American patient has a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg and reports a family history of hypertension. The patient has a body mass index of 22.3. The patient reports consuming alcohol occasionally. Which therapeutic lifestyle change will the nurse expect to teach this patient? a. Alcohol cessation b. Potassium supplementation c. Sodium restriction d. Weight loss

ANS: C Current recommendations for African-Americans to prevent hypertension include sodium restriction to less than 1500 mg/day, although this is under investigation. The patient has a normal BMI and does not consume alcohol excessively, so weight loss and alcohol cessation are not necessary. Potassium supplements are not indicated; patients should be advised to consume foods high in potassium.

338. A nurse checks a patient's vital signs in the hospital and notes a blood pressure of 146/98 mm Hg. What will the nurse do? a. Instruct the patient to consume a low-sodium diet. b. Prepare the patient for an electrocardiogram and blood tests. c. Recheck the patient's blood pressure in the other arm. d. Request an order for a thiazide diuretic.

ANS: C Diagnosis of hypertension should be based on several blood pressure readings, not just one. High readings should be confirmed in the contralateral arm. Low-sodium diets are indicated for patients with confirmed hypertension. An electrocardiogram and blood tests are indicated for patients with confirmed hypertension to rule out primary causes. Thiazide diuretics are first-line drugs for confirmed hypertension.

305. A patient who is taking furosemide [Lasix] and digoxin will begin taking captopril [Capoten]. The nurse is providing information about the drug. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I can use acetaminophen for analgesia if needed." b. "I should stop taking the Lasix about a week before starting the Capoten." c. "I should take this medication on a full stomach." d. "I will need to have blood tests done every 2 weeks for a few months."

ANS: C Most oral formulations of ACE inhibitors may be given without regard for meals; captopril and moexipril, however, should be given 1 hour before meals. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications should be avoided; acetaminophen is not contraindicated. Patients taking diuretics should stop taking them 1 week before starting an ACE inhibitor to minimize the risk of hypotension. A WBC with differential should be evaluated at baseline and, after treatment starts, every 2 weeks for several months to monitor for neutropenia.

357. A patient is taking enalapril [Vasotec]. The nurse understands that patients taking this type of drug for heart failure need to be monitored carefully for: a. hypernatremia. b. hypertension. c. hyperkalemia. d. hypokalemia.

ANS: C One of the principal effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors is hyperkalemia, which is due to decreased aldosterone release arising from blockage of angiotensin II. There is no indication that careful monitoring of sodium for increased levels is indicated. Vasotec is indicated for heart failure, not hypertension. The drug therapy should be monitored to ascertain its effectiveness, but hyperkalemia is the main concern. Hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia, is a concern because of the decreased aldosterone release that occurs with blockage of angiotensin II.

300. A patient is taking gentamicin [Garamycin] and furosemide [Lasix]. The nurse should counsel this patient to report which symptom? a. Frequent nocturia b. Headaches c. Ringing in the ears d. Urinary retention

ANS: C Patients taking furosemide should be advised that the risk of furosemide-induced hearing loss can be increased when other ototoxic drugs, such as gentamicin, are also taken. Patients should be told to report tinnitus, dizziness, or hearing loss. Nocturia may be an expected effect of furosemide. Headaches are not likely to occur with concomitant use of gentamicin and furosemide. Urinary retention is not an expected side effect.

367. A patient is taking a thiazide diuretic for hypertension and quinidine to treat a dysrhythmia. The prescriber orders digoxin 0.125 mg to improve this patient's cardiac output. The nurse should contact the provider to request: a. adding spironolactone [Aldactone]. b. reducing the dose of digoxin. c. discontinuing the quinidine. d. giving potassium supplements.

ANS: C Quinidine can cause plasma levels of digoxin to rise; concurrent use of quinidine and digoxin is contraindicated. There is no indication for adding spironolactone unless this patient's potassium level is elevated. The dose of digoxin ordered is a low dose. Potassium supplements are contraindicated with digoxin.

312. A prescriber orders ramipril [Altace] for an obese patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has developed hypertension. The nurse provides teaching before dismissing the patient home. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I am less likely to develop diabetic nephropathy when taking this medication." b. "I should check my blood sugar more often, because hyperglycemia is a side effect of this drug." c. "Taking this medication helps reduce my risk of stroke and heart attack." d. "This medication will probably prevent the development of diabetic retinopathy."

ANS: C Ramipril [Altace] is approved for reducing the risk of stroke and myocardial infarction (MI) in patients at high risk for a major cardiovascular event because they have hypertension in conjunction with a history of stroke or MI or because they have diabetes. ACE inhibitors cannot be used for primary prevention of diabetic nephropathy, but they can delay the onset of overt nephropathy in patients who already have less advanced nephropathy. ACE inhibitors do not affect serum electrolytes or glucose. One ACE inhibitor, enalapril, can reduce the risk of diabetic retinopathy in some patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus.

319. A nurse is preparing to assist a nursing student to administer intravenous verapamil to a patient who also receives a beta blocker. The nurse asks the nursing student to discuss the plan of care for this patient. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will check to see when the last dose of the beta blocker was given." b. "I will monitor vital signs closely to assess for hypotension." c. "I will monitor the heart rate frequently to assess for reflex tachycardia." d. "I will prepare to administer intravenous norepinephrine if necessary."

ANS: C Reflex tachycardia is not an expected effect; the greater risks are cardiosuppression and bradycardia. Because beta blockers and verapamil have the same effects on the heart, there is a risk of excessive cardiosuppression. To minimize this risk, the two drugs should be given several hours apart. Hypotension may occur and should be treated with IV norepinephrine.

287. A nurse is teaching a nursing student how blood can return to the heart when pressure in the venous capillary beds is very low. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Constriction of small muscles in the venous wall increases venous pressure." b. "Negative pressure in the left atrium draws blood toward the heart." c. "Skeletal muscles relax to allow the free flow of blood." d. "Venous valves help prevent the backflow of blood."

ANS: C Skeletal muscle contraction, along with one-way venous valves, helps create an "auxiliary" venous pump that helps drive blood toward the heart. Constriction of small muscles in venous walls helps increase venous pressure. Negative pressure in the left atrium sucks blood toward the heart. Valves, which are one-way, work with the contraction of skeletal muscles to create a venous pump.

331. A nursing student asks a nurse why a patient in hypertensive crisis is receiving both intravenous sodium nitroprusside [Nitropress] and oral hydralazine. The nurse will explain that this is done to prevent: a. cyanide poisoning. b. fluid retention. c. rebound hypertension. d. reflex tachycardia.

ANS: C Sodium nitroprusside acts rapidly and is given only intravenously. Rebound hypertension occurs immediately when the IV is stopped, so an oral antihypertensive should be given simultaneously. Cyanide poisoning can occur with sodium nitroprusside, but giving hydralazine does not counter this adverse effect. Hydralazine does not prevent fluid retention or reflex tachycardia.

295. A patient has 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities bilaterally. Auscultation of the lungs reveals crackles bilaterally, and the serum potassium level is 6 mEq/L. Which diuretic agent ordered by the prescriber should the nurse question? a. Bumetanide [Bumex] b. Furosemide [Lasix] c. Spironolactone [Aldactone] d. Hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]

ANS: C Spironolactone is a non-potassium-wasting diuretic; therefore, if the patient has a serum potassium level of 6 mEq/L, indicating hyperkalemia, an order for this drug should be questioned. Bumetanide, furosemide, and hydrochlorothiazide are potassium-wasting diuretics and would be appropriate to administer in a patient with hyperkalemia.

336. A patient has been taking chlorthalidone to treat hypertension. The patient's prescriber has just ordered the addition of spironolactone to the patient's drug regimen. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I should continue following the DASH diet when adding this drug." b. "I should not take an ACE inhibitor when adding this drug." c. "I will need to take potassium supplements when adding this drug." d. "I will not experience a significant increase in diuresis when adding this drug."

ANS: C Spironolactone is given in addition to thiazide diuretics to balance potassium loss caused by the thiazide diuretic. Patients should be advised against taking potassium supplements with spironolactone, because hyperkalemia can result. The DASH diet may be continued. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated because they promote hyperkalemia. Spironolactone does not significantly increase diuresis.

372. A nurse is discussing heart failure with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student reflects an understanding of how compensatory mechanisms can compound existing problems in patients with heart failure? a. "An increase in arteriolar tone to improve tissue perfusion can decrease resistance." b. "An increase in contractility to increase cardiac output can cause pulmonary edema." c. "When the heart rate increases to increase cardiac output, it can prevent adequate filling of the ventricles." d. "When venous tone increases to increase ventricular filling, an increase in arterial pressure occurs."

ANS: C The heart rate increases to improve cardiac output, but it may prevent adequate ventricular filling. An increase in arteriole tone improves tissue perfusion but also increases both the resistance to the pumping of the heart and the cardiac workload. Increased contractility helps improve cardiac output but is detrimental because it increases the oxygen demand of the heart. An increase in venous tone improves ventricular filling, but as the ventricles fail, blood can back up and cause pulmonary edema.

337. A patient with hypertension will begin taking an alpha1 blocker. What will the nurse teach this patient? a. A persistent cough is a known side effect of this drug. b. Eat foods rich in potassium while taking this drug. c. Move slowly from sitting to standing when taking this drug. d. Report shortness of breath while taking this drug.

ANS: C The most disturbing side effect of alpha blockers is orthostatic hypotension. Patients taking these drugs should be cautioned to stand up slowly to avoid lightheadedness or falls. A persistent cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors. It is not necessary to increase dietary potassium intake when taking this drug. Shortness of breath may occur in individuals with asthma who are taking beta blockers.

369. A patient with heart failure who takes a thiazide diuretic and digoxin [Lanoxin] is admitted for shortness of breath. The patient's heart rate is 66 beats/minute, and the blood pressure is 130/88 mm Hg. The serum potassium level is 3.8 mEq/L, and the digoxin level is 0.8 ng/mL. The nurse admitting this patient understands that the patient: a. has digoxin toxicity. b. is showing signs of renal failure. c. is experiencing worsening of the disease. d. needs a potassium-sparing diuretic.

ANS: C This patient has a normal serum potassium level, and the digoxin level is normal. The patient is showing signs of pulmonary edema, which indicates progression of heart failure. The digoxin level is within normal limits, and the heart rate is above 60 beats/minute, so digoxin toxicity is not likely. There is no sign of renal failure. A potassium-sparing diuretic is not indicated.

296. A patient who is taking digoxin is admitted to the hospital for the treatment of congestive heart failure. The prescriber has ordered furosemide [Lasix]. The nurse notes an irregular heart rate of 86 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 130/82 mm Hg. The nurse auscultates crackles in both lungs. Which laboratory value causes the nurse the most concern? a. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL b. Oxygen saturation of 90% c. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L d. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L

ANS: C This patient has an irregular, rapid heartbeat that might be caused by a dysrhythmia. This patient's serum potassium level is low, which can trigger fatal dysrhythmias, especially in patients taking digoxin. Furosemide contributes to loss of potassium through its effects on the distal nephron. Potassium-sparing diuretics often are used in conjunction with furosemide to prevent this complication. This patient's serum glucose and sodium levels are normal and of no concern at this point, although they can be affected by furosemide. The oxygen saturation is somewhat low and needs to be monitored, although it may improve with diuresis.

341. A patient has had blood pressures of 150/95 mm Hg and 148/90 mm Hg on two separate office visits. The patient reports a blood pressure of 145/92 mm Hg taken in an ambulatory setting. The patient's diagnostic tests are all normal. The nurse will expect this patient's provider to order: a. a beta blocker b. a loop diuretic and spironolactone. c. a thiazide diuretic. d. counseling on lifestyle changes.

ANS: C This patient has primary, or essential, hypertension as evidenced by systolic pressure greater than 140 and diastolic pressure greater than 90, along with normal tests ruling out another primary cause. Thiazide diuretics are first-line drugs for hypertension. Beta blockers are effective but are most often used to counter reflex tachycardia associated with reduced blood pressure caused by therapeutic agents. Loop diuretics cause greater diuresis than is usually needed and so are not first- line drugs. This patient should be counseled on lifestyle changes as an adjunct to drug therapy but should also begin drug therapy because hypertension already exists.

368. A patient with chronic hypertension is admitted to the hospital. During the admission assessment, the nurse notes a heart rate of 96 beats/minute, a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg bibasilar crackles, 2+ pitting edema of the ankles, and distention of the jugular veins. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order for which medication? a. ACE inhibitor b. Digoxin [Lanoxin] c. Furosemide [Lasix] d. Spironolactone [Aldactone]

ANS: C This patient shows signs of fluid volume overload and needs a diuretic. Furosemide is a loop diuretic, which can produce profound diuresis very quickly even when the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is low. An ACE inhibitor will not reduce fluid volume overload. Digoxin has a positive inotropic effect on the heart, which may improve renal perfusion, but this is not its primary effect. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic with weak diuresis effects; it is used in conjunction with other diuretics to improve electrolyte balance.

327. A nurse is administering a vasodilator that dilates resistance vessels. The nurse understands that this drug will have which effect on the patient? a. Decreased cardiac preload b. Decreased cardiac output c. Increased tissue perfusion d. Increased ventricular contraction

ANS: C Vasodilators that dilate resistance vessels, or arterioles, cause a decrease in afterload, which allows cardiac output and tissue perfusion to increase. A decrease in preload would be the result of dilation of capacitance vessels, or veins. Dilation of arterioles increases cardiac output. Ventricular contraction results when preload is increased.

365. Which are expected effects of cardiac glycosides? Select all that apply. a. Decreased cardiac output b. Decreased force of contraction c. Decreased heart rate d. Modulation of neurohormonal systems e. Positive inotropic effects

ANS: C,D,E Digoxin slows the heart rate, modulates the activity of neurohormonal systems, and increases the force of contraction. It does not decrease cardiac output or reduce the force of contraction.

323. Which medications are most likely to cause postural hypotension? Select all that apply. a. Minoxidil b. Diltiazem [Cardizem] c. Prazosin [Minipress] d. Captopril [Capoten] e. Losartan [Cozaar]

ANS: C,D,E Postural, or orthostatic, hypotension is defined as a fall in blood pressure related to a change in position. Minoxidil and diltiazem dilate arterioles; therefore, they are not likely to cause postural hypotension. Prazosin, captopril, and losartan all reportedly can cause orthostatic hypotension.

380. A patient is taking digoxin [Lanoxin] and develops a dysrhythmia. The nurse reports this finding to the prescriber, who will most likely order what? Select all that apply. a. Amiodarone b. Diltiazem c. Phenytoin [Dilantin] d. Quinidine e. Serum electrolytes

ANS: C,E Phenytoin is an antiseizure medication used to treat digoxin-induced dysrhythmias. Because digoxin-induced dysrhythmias can be caused by hypokalemia, it is appropriate to evaluate the serum electrolyte levels. Amiodarone, diltiazem, and quinidine increase digoxin levels.

313. A female patient taking an ACE inhibitor learns that she is pregnant. What will the nurse tell this patient? a. The fetus most likely will have serious congenital defects. b. The fetus must be monitored closely while the patient is taking this drug. c. The patient's prescriber probably will change her medication to an ARB. d. The patient should stop taking the medication and contact her provider immediately.

ANS: D ACE inhibitors are known to cause serious fetal injury during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy. Whether injury occurs earlier in pregnancy is unknown, and the incidence probably is low. However, women should be counseled to stop taking the drug if they become pregnant, and they should not take it if they are contemplating becoming pregnant. Women who take ACE inhibitors in the first trimester should be counseled that the risk to the fetus is probably low. Women should stop taking the drug when pregnant. ARBs carry the same risk as ACE inhibitors.

309. A patient with hypertension is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse reviewing this patient's chart before administering the medication will be most concerned about which other disease process? a. Bronchial asthma b. Coronary artery disease c. Diabetes mellitus d. Renal artery stenosis

ANS: D ACE inhibitors can cause severe renal insufficiency in patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis or stenosis in the artery to a single remaining kidney. Bronchial asthma, coronary artery disease, and diabetes mellitus are not comorbidities that are contraindications to treatment with an ACE inhibitor.

322. A patient begins taking nifedipine [Procardia], along with metoprolol, to treat hypertension. The nurse understands that metoprolol is used to: a. reduce flushing. b. minimize gingival hyperplasia. c. prevent constipation. d. prevent reflex tachycardia.

ANS: D Beta blockers are combined with nifedipine to prevent reflex tachycardia. Beta blockers do not reduce flushing, minimize gingival hyperplasia, or prevent constipation. Beta blockers can reduce the adverse cardiac effects of nifedipine.

306. A female patient who is not taking any other medications is prescribed aliskiren [Tekturna], a direct renin inhibitor (DRI). The nurse reviews medication information with the patient. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "If I get pregnant, I should stop taking this drug by the second trimester." b. "If I take this drug with a high-fat meal, it will be more effective." c. "I should restrict my potassium intake while taking this drug." d. "I should take this medication 1 hour before sitting down to a meal."

ANS: D DRIs should be taken on an empty stomach to improve their bioavailability. Patients should not take this drug when pregnant and should stop immediately upon finding out they are pregnant. Dosing with a high-fat meal reduces the drug's bioavailability. DRIs rarely cause hyperkalemia when taken alone.

347. A patient takes an ACE inhibitor to treat hypertension and tells the nurse that she wants to become pregnant. She asks whether she should continue taking the medication while she is pregnant. What will the nurse tell her? a. Controlling her blood pressure will decrease her risk of preeclampsia. b. Ask the provider about changing to an ARB during pregnancy. c. Continue taking the ACE inhibitor during her pregnancy. d. Discuss using methyldopa instead while she is pregnant.

ANS: D Methyldopa has limited effects on uteroplacental and fetal hemodynamics and does not adversely affect the fetus or neonate. Controlling blood pressure does not lower the risk of preeclampsia. ACE inhibitors and ARBs are specifically contraindicated during pregnancy.

339. A nursing student asks the nurse why multidrug therapy is often used to treat hypertension. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Multidrug therapy often means that drugs may be given in lower doses." b. "Some agents are used to offset adverse effects of other agents." c. "Treatment of hypertension via different mechanisms increases success." d. "Two or more drugs will lower blood pressure more quickly."

ANS: D Multidrug therapy does not lower blood pressure more quickly. Using more than one drug often means that doses can be decreased. Some agents can offset adverse effects of other agents. Treatment via different mechanisms increases the likelihood of success.

334. A nurse has provided education for a patient newly diagnosed with hypertension who is just beginning therapy with antihypertensive medications. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I may experience serious long-term problems even if I am not having symptoms." b. "I should report side effects to the provider since other drugs may be substituted." c. "I will need to take medications on a long-term basis." d. "When my symptoms subside, I may discontinue the medications."

ANS: D Patients should be taught that hypertension treatment is lifelong and that medications must be continued even when symptoms subside. Long-term problems may still occur without symptoms. Reporting drug side effects is necessary so that other drugs may be tried if needed.

356. A patient with heart failure who has been taking an ACE inhibitor, a thiazide diuretic, and a beta blocker for several months comes to the clinic for evaluation. As part of the ongoing assessment of this patient, the nurse will expect the provider to evaluate: a. complete blood count. b. ejection fraction. c. maximal exercise capacity. d. serum electrolyte levels.

ANS: D Patients taking thiazide diuretics can develop hypokalemia, which can increase the risk for dysrhythmias; therefore, the serum electrolyte levels should be monitored closely. A complete blood count is not recommended. This patient is taking the drugs recommended for patients with Stage C heart failure; although the patient's quality of life and ability to participate in activities should be monitored, routine measurement of the ejection fraction and maximal exercise capacity is not recommended.

377. A patient is taking digoxin [Lanoxin] and quinidine to treat sustained ventricular tachycardia. Before giving medications, the nurse reviews the patient's electrocardiogram (ECG) and notes a QRS complex that has widened by 50% from the baseline ECG. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the medications as ordered, because this indicates improvement. b. Contact the provider to discuss reducing the digoxin dose. c. Contact the provider to request an increase in the quinidine dose. d. Withhold the quinidine and contact the provider to report the ECG finding.

ANS: D Quinidine widens the QRS complex by slowing depolarization of the ventricles. As cardiotoxicity develops as a result of quinidine toxicity, the QRS complex widens excessively. Any widening of the QRS complex of 50% or more warrants notifying the provider, so the nurse should withhold the medication and contact the provider. Widening of the QRS complex by more than 50% of baseline indicates cardiotoxicity. Quinidine can double the digoxin levels, so it is not likely that the digoxin dose would need to be increased, and an increase in the QRS complex does not indicate a need for more digoxin. The quinidine dose should not be increased, because the findings indicate cardiotoxicity from the quinidine.

333. A patient is admitted with severe hypertensive crisis. The nurse will anticipate administering which medication? a. Captopril PO b. Hydralazine [Apresoline] 25 mg PO c. Minoxidil 20 mg PO d. Sodium nitroprusside [Nitropress] IV

ANS: D Sodium nitroprusside is the drug of choice for hypertensive emergencies and is given intravenously. ACE inhibitors, such as captopril, are not used. Hydralazine may be used but should be given IV. Minoxidil is effective, but its severe side effects make it a second-line drug.

301. A patient with hypertension is taking furosemide [Lasix] for congestive heart failure. The prescriber orders digoxin to help increase cardiac output. What other medication will the nurse expect to be ordered for this patient? a. Bumetanide [Bumex] b. Chlorothiazide [Diuril] c. Hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL] d. Spironolactone [Aldactone]

ANS: D Spironolactone is used in conjunction with furosemide because of its potassium-sparing effects. Furosemide can contribute to hypokalemia, which can increase the risk of fatal dysrhythmias, especially with digoxin administration. The other diuretics listed are all potassium-wasting diuretics.

299. A nurse preparing to administer morning medications notes that a patient with a history of hypertension has been prescribed spironolactone [Aldactone]. The nurse assesses the patient and notes dyspnea, bilateral crackles, and pitting edema in both feet. Which intervention is appropriate? a. Administer the medications as ordered. b. Ask the patient about the use of salt substitutes. c. Contact the provider to request an order for serum electrolytes. d. Request an order for furosemide [Lasix].

ANS: D Spironolactone takes up to 48 hours for its effects to develop, so it should not be used when the patient needs immediate diuresis. This patient has shortness of breath, crackles, and edema, and needs a short-acting diuretic, such as furosemide. Asking the patient about the use of salt substitutes is not indicated. The patient does not need assessment of serum electrolytes.

363. A nurse prepares to administer a scheduled dose of digoxin. The nurse finds a new laboratory report showing a plasma digoxin level of 0.7 ng/mL. What action should the nurse take? a. Withhold the drug for an hour and reassess the level. b. Withhold the drug and notify the prescriber immediately. c. Administer Digibind to counteract the toxicity. d. Check the patient's apical pulse, and if it is within a safe range, administer the digoxin.

ANS: D The optimum plasma digoxin range is 0.5 to 0.8 ng/mL. The patient's pulse should be checked before administration, as always, and the digoxin should be administered. The digoxin does not have to be withheld, nor does the prescriber need to be notified. If the digoxin level is demonstrating a trend of increasing, the issue should be discussed in rounds. Digibind is not indicated, because the digoxin level is therapeutic.

376. A patient is in the intensive care unit after a myocardial infarction. The nurse notes that the QT interval on this patient's electrocardiogram has been elongating. The nurse is concerned that which cardiac dysrhythmia may occur? a. AV block b. Bradycardia c. Supraventricular tachycardia d. Torsades de pointes

ANS: D Torsades de pointes is a dysrhythmia that can occur with prolongation of the QT interval and can progress to fatal ventricular fibrillation. A prolonged QT interval does not signal the development of AV block, bradycardia, or SVT.