Chapter 47: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease

ANS: C If serum phosphate is elevated, the calcium and phosphate can cause soft tissue calcification. The calcium carbonate should not be given until the phosphate level is lowered. Total cholesterol, creatinine, and potassium values do not affect whether calcium carbonate should be administered.

10. Before administration of calcium carbonate (Caltrate) to a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD), the nurse should check laboratory results for a. potassium level. b. total cholesterol. c. serum phosphate. d. serum creatinine.

ANS: A Arteriovenous (AV) fistulas are much less likely to clot than grafts, although it takes longer for them to mature to the point where they can be used for dialysis. The choice of an AV fistula or a graft does not have an impact on needle size or patient mobility.

12. A patient will need vascular access for hemodialysis. Which statement by the nurse accurately describes an advantage of a fistula over a graft? a. A fistula is much less likely to clot. b. A fistula increases patient mobility. c. A fistula can accommodate larger needles. d. A fistula can be used sooner after surgery.

ANS: C Patients are encouraged to take showers rather than baths to avoid infections at the catheter insertion side. The other patient actions indicate good understanding of peritoneal dialysis.

15. Which action by a 70-year-old patient who is using peritoneal dialysis (PD) indicates that the nurse should provide more teaching about PD? a. The patient leaves the catheter exit site without a dressing. b. The patient plans 30 to 60 minutes for a dialysate exchange. c. The patient cleans the catheter while taking a bath each day. d. The patient slows the inflow rate when experiencing abdominal pain.

ANS: A Clients with chronic kidney disease are placed on a low-protein diet. However, decreased serum albumin levels indicate that the protein they are taking in is not enough for their metabolic needs. The electrolyte levels in the other options are not related to protein.

18. When evaluating the effects of a low-protein diet in a client with chronic kidney disease, the nurse is most concerned with which result? a. Albumin level of 2 g/dL b. Calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL c. Potassium level of 5.2 mmol/L d. Magnesium level of 3 mEq/L

ANS: B Magnesium is excreted by the kidneys, and patients with CKD should not use over-the-counter products containing magnesium. The other medications are appropriate for a patient with CKD.

19. The nurse in the dialysis clinic is reviewing the home medications of a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which medication reported by the patient indicates that patient teaching is required? a. Multivitamin with iron b. Magnesium hydroxide c. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) d. Calcium phosphate (PhosLo)

ANS: C During hemodialysis, the dialysate is warmed to increase diffusion and prevent hypothermia. The client's temperature could reflect the temperature of the dialysate. There is no indication to check the white blood cell count or connect the client to an ECG monitor. The other vital signs are within normal limits.

19. The nurse is taking the vital signs of a client after hemodialysis. Blood pressure is 110/58 mm Hg, pulse 66 beats/min, and temperature is 99.8° F (37.6° C). What is the most appropriate action by the nurse? a. Administer fluid to increase blood pressure. b. Check the white blood cell count. c. Monitor the client's temperature. d. Connect the client to an electrocardiographic (ECG) monitor.

ANS: A The puncture site of the femoral vein is prone to hematoma formation because positioning the extremity can cause movement of the cannula and subsequent bleeding at the site. The hematoma can compress the cannula, decreasing flow through it. The other complications would not diminish outflow.

22. A client who is 2 days post-femoral vein cannulation begins to have difficulty with outflow of blood during dialysis. For which complication does the nurse assess? a. Hematoma at cannula insertion site b. Infection c. Oliguria d. Skin necrosis at cannula insertion site

ANS: D Both the cefazolin and the vitamins should be held until after the hemodialysis is completed because they would otherwise be removed by the dialysis process.

23. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a dose of cefazolin and vitamins at this time. Hemodialysis for this client is also scheduled in 60 minutes. Which action by the nurse is best? a. Administer cefazolin since the level of the antibiotic must be maintained. b. Hold the vitamins but administer the cefazolin. c. Hold the cefazolin but administer the vitamins. d. Hold all medications since both cefazolin and vitamins are dialyzable.

ANS: A Constipation is the primary cause of inflow and outflow problems. To prevent constipation, clients are placed on a bowel regimen before placement of a peritoneal catheter. The drainage bag should be lower than the abdomen. Warming the fluid helps prevent discomfort during the procedure. Flushing the catheter will not facilitate the flow of dialysate.

24. Which response by a client indicates an understanding of measures to facilitate the flow of peritoneal dialysate fluid? a. "I will take my stool softeners every day." b. "I will keep the drainage bag at the level of my abdomen." c. "Flushing the catheter is needed with each exchange." d. "Warmed dialysate infusion increases the speed of flow."

ANS: D Repeated compression of a fistula site can result in loss of vascular access. Therefore, avoid taking blood pressures and performing venipunctures or IV placement in the arm with the vascular access. The other statements are not appropriate.

28. The RN has assigned a client with a newly placed arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the right arm to an LPN. Which information about the care of this client is most important for the RN to provide to the LPN? a. "Avoid movement of the right extremity." b. "Place gentle pressure over the fistula site after blood draws." c. "Start any IV lines below the site of the fistula." d. "Take blood pressure in the left arm."

ANS: B Dialysis technicians are educated in monitoring for blood pressure. Assessment, adjustment of the appropriate ultrafiltration rate, and patient teaching require the education and scope of practice of an RN.

29. A patient has arrived for a scheduled hemodialysis session. Which nursing action is most appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a dialysis technician? a. Teach the patient about fluid restrictions. b. Check blood pressure before starting dialysis. c. Assess for causes of an increase in predialysis weight. d. Determine the ultrafiltration rate for the hemodialysis.

ANS: C Herbs and spices can be used in place of salt to enhance food flavor. Bananas are high in potassium. Ham is high in sodium. Many salt substitutes contain potassium chloride and should not be used.

32. A client has end-stage kidney disease (ESKD). Which food selection by the client demonstrates understanding of a low-sodium, low-potassium diet? a. Bananas b. Ham c. Herbs and spices d. Salt substitutes

ANS: C Peritonitis is the major complication of PD. The most common cause of peritonitis is connection site contamination. To prevent peritonitis, use meticulous sterile technique when caring for the PD catheter and when hooking up or clamping off dialysate bags. This safety precaution is the priority. Never warm dialysate fluid in the microwave. Positioning the client may help with the flow of fluid. Clients may need additives to their dialysate fluid, but potassium and antibiotics are not added together because interactions between them can reduce the effectiveness of the antibiotic.

39. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving peritoneal dialysis (PD). Which nursing intervention has the greatest priority when a dialysis exchange is performed? a. Adding potassium and antibiotic to the dialysate bags b. Positioning the client on either side c. Using sterile technique when hooking up dialysate bags d. Warming the dialysate fluid in a microwave oven

ANS: D Aluminum hydroxide lowers serum phosphate levels by binding phosphorus present in food. High blood phosphate levels cause hypocalcemia and osteodystrophy; this makes a client prone to fracture. Increasing protein may not be feasible for a client with chronic kidney disease and would not help prevent fracture. Intake and output will not be helpful for orthopedic problems. Bedrest will promote complications.

4. A client who has chronic kidney disease is being discharged from the hospital after receiving treatment for a hip fracture. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide to the client before discharge? a. "Increase your intake of foods with protein." b. "Monitor your daily intake and output." c. "Maintain bedrest until the fracture is healed." d. "Take your aluminum hydroxide (Nephrox) with meals."

ANS: C The calcium gluconate helps prevent dysrhythmias that might be caused by the hyperkalemia. The nurse will monitor the other data as well, but these will not be helpful in determining the effectiveness of the calcium gluconate.

4. A patient who has acute glomerulonephritis is hospitalized with hyperkalemia. Which information will the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the prescribed calcium gluconate IV? a. Urine volume b. Calcium level c. Cardiac rhythm d. Neurologic status

ANS: A, B, D PD is based on exchanges of waste, fluid, and electrolytes in the peritoneal cavity. There is no need for vascular access. Protein is lost in the exchange, which allows for more protein and fluid in the diet. There is flexibility in the time for exchanges, but the treatment takes a longer period of time compared to hemodialysis. There still is risk for infection with PD, especially peritonitis.

7. A client is unsure of the decision to undergo peritoneal dialysis (PD) and wishes to discuss the advantages of this treatment with the nurse. Which statements by the nurse are accurate regarding PD? (Select all that apply.) a. "You will not need vascular access to perform PD." b. "There is less restriction of protein and fluids." c. "You will have no risk for infection with PD." d. "You have flexible scheduling for the exchanges." e. "It takes less time than hemodialysis treatments."

ANS: B Calcium carbonate is prescribed to bind phosphorus and prevent mineral and bone disease in patients with CKD. The other data will not be helpful in evaluating the effectiveness of calcium carbonate.

7. Which information will the nurse monitor in order to determine the effectiveness of prescribed calcium carbonate (Caltrate) for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)? a. Blood pressure b. Phosphate level c. Neurologic status d. Creatinine clearance

ANS: A, D, E Although peritoneal dialysis is slower than hemodialysis, it does not require a specially trained registered nurse and can be done at home, allowing for greater flexibility in scheduling. Peritoneal dialysis is ambulatory, and a machine is not needed. Nursing implications for hemodialysis include vascular access care and diet restrictions, whereas peritoneal dialysis allows for a more flexible diet (abdominal catheter care is still necessary).

1. A client asks the nurse, "What are the advantages of peritoneal dialysis over hemodialysis?" Which response by the nurse is accurate? (Select all that apply.) a. "It will give you greater freedom in your scheduling." b. "You have less chance of getting an infection." c. "You need to do it only three times a week." d. "You do not need a machine to do it." e. "You will have fewer dietary restrictions."

ANS: C The patient's complaints suggest the development of distal ischemia (steal syndrome) and may require revision of the AVG. Elevation of the arm above the heart will further decrease perfusion. Pain and coolness are not normal after AVG insertion. Aspirin therapy is not used to maintain grafts.

1. After the insertion of an arteriovenous graft (AVG) in the right forearm, a 54-year-old patient complains of pain and coldness of the right fingers. Which action should the nurse take? a. Teach the patient about normal AVG function. b. Remind the patient to take a daily low-dose aspirin tablet. c. Report the patient's symptoms to the health care provider. d. Elevate the patient's arm on pillows to above the heart level.

ANS: A, C, D Patients who are receiving peritoneal dialysis should have a high-protein diet. Phosphate binders are taken with meals to help control serum phosphate and calcium levels. Commercial salt substitutes are high in potassium and should be avoided. Fluid intake is limited in patients requiring dialysis. Dairy products are high in phosphate and usually are limited.

1. Which information will be included when the nurse is teaching self-management to a patient who is receiving peritoneal dialysis (select all that apply)? a. Avoid commercial salt substitutes. b. Drink 1500 to 2000 mL of fluids daily. c. Take phosphate-binders with each meal. d. Choose high-protein foods for most meals. e. Have several servings of dairy products daily.

ANS: C The client is exhibiting symptoms of pericarditis, which can occur with chronic kidney disease. Continuity of care is important to assess subtle differences in clients. Therefore, the registered nurse (RN) who was assigned to this client previously should again give care to this client. The float nurses would not be as knowledgeable about the unit and its clients. The licensed practical nurse may not have the education level of the RN to assess for pericarditis.

10. The charge nurse of the medical-surgical unit is making staff assignments. Which staff member should be assigned to a client with chronic kidney disease who is exhibiting a low-grade fever and a pericardial friction rub? a. Registered nurse who just floated from the surgical unit b. Registered nurse who just floated from the dialysis unit c. Registered nurse who was assigned the same client yesterday d. Licensed practical nurse with 5 years' experience on this floor

ANS: C Provide continuity of care, whenever possible, by using a consistent nurse-client relationship to decrease anxiety and promote discussion of concerns.

10. Which staff member does the charge nurse assign to care for a client newly diagnosed with chronic kidney disease? a. Licensed practical nurse who usually works on the unit b. Registered nurse floated from the hemodialysis unit c. Registered nurse who has taken care of this client before d. Registered nurse with the most years of experience

ANS: A Some people on dialysis retreat into complete or partial denial of the disease and the need for treatment. They may deny the need for dialysis and/or may not adhere to drug therapy and diet restrictions. Providing support as the client struggles to accept the disease is an important step in ensuring compliance with the dialysis regimen. The nurse should explore scheduling options, but missing so many sessions cues the nurse that a bigger problem than just scheduling is involved. The nurse should provide education, but simply stressing the need for dialysis will not help the client accept it. Peritoneal dialysis, with its technical demands on the client and partner, probably is not an option for a client who appears noncompliant with hemodialysis.

11. A client has been missing some scheduled hemodialysis sessions. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? a. Discussing with the client his or her acceptance of the disease b. Discussing with the client the option of peritoneal dialysis c. Rescheduling the sessions to another day or another time d. Stressing to the client the importance of going to the sessions

ANS: A The initial action for the nurse is to assess anxiety, coping styles, and the client's acceptance of the required treatment for CKD. The client may be in denial of the diagnosis. While rescheduling hemodialysis appointments may help, and referral to a mental health practitioner and the possibility of peritoneal dialysis are all viable options, assessment of the client's acceptance of the treatment should come first.

11. A male client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is refusing to take his medication and has missed two hemodialysis appointments. What is the best initial action for the nurse? a. Discuss what the treatment regimen means to him. b. Refer the client to a mental health nurse practitioner. c. Reschedule the appointments to another date and time. d. Discuss the option of peritoneal dialysis.

ANS: A Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload and hypertension in clients with early stages of CKD. One kilogram of weight equals about 1 liter of fluid retained in the client, so daily weights are necessary to monitor the response of the client to the medication. Heart and breath sounds should be assessed if there is fluid retention, as in heart failure. Palpation of the client's abdomen is not necessary, but the nurse should check for edema. The diet history of the client would be helpful to assess electrolyte replacement since potassium is lost with this diuretic, but this does not assess the effect of the medication.

12. A client is taking furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg/day for management of chronic kidney disease (CKD). To detect the positive effect of the medication, what action of the nurse is best? a. Obtain daily weights of the client. b. Auscultate heart and breath sounds. c. Palpate the client's abdomen. d. Assess the client's diet history.

ANS: C Professionals from many disciplines are resources for the client with renal failure. A psychiatric evaluation may be needed if depressive symptoms are present. Refusing treatment, having difficulty performing activities of daily living, and excessive sleeping could be signs of depression.

12. Assessment findings reveal that a client with chronic kidney disease is refusing to take prescribed medications because of the "cost." The client also is having difficulty performing activities of daily living and prefers to sleep most of the day. To which health care team member does the nurse refer the client? a. Home health aide b. Physical therapist c. Psychiatric nurse practitioner d. Physician

ANS: B Some clients have a nonoliguric form of acute renal failure (ARF), in which urine output remains near-normal but creatinine rises. The other categories relate to the cause of acute kidney injury.

13. A client has a serum creatinine level of 2 mg/dL and a urine output of 1000 mL/day. How does the nurse categorize the client's kidney injury? a. Intrarenal b. Nonoliguric c. Prerenal d. Postrenal

ANS: C With an optimal fluid balance, the client will be more able to eject blood from the left ventricle without increased pressure in the left ventricle and pulmonary vessels. Other ideal goals are oxygen saturations greater than 92%, no auscultated crackles or wheezes, and no demonstrated shortness of breath.

13. A client is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD). What is an ideal goal of treatment set by the nurse in the care plan to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema? a. Maintaining oxygen saturation of 89% b. Minimal crackles and wheezes in lung sounds c. Maintaining a balanced intake and output d. Limited shortness of breath upon exertion

ANS: A The presence of a thrill and bruit indicates adequate blood flow through the fistula. Pulse rate and quality are not good indicators of fistula patency. Blood pressures should never be obtained on the arm with a fistula. Irrigation of the fistula might damage the fistula, and typically only dialysis staff would access the fistula.

13. When caring for a patient with a left arm arteriovenous fistula, which action will the nurse include in the plan of care to maintain the patency of the fistula? a. Auscultate for a bruit at the fistula site. b. Assess the quality of the left radial pulse. c. Compare blood pressures in the left and right arms. d. Irrigate the fistula site with saline every 8 to 12 hours.

ANS: C Once the patient is started on dialysis and nitrogenous wastes are removed, more protein in the diet is encouraged. Fluids are still restricted to avoid excessive weight gain and complications such as shortness of breath. Glucose is not lost during hemodialysis. Sodium and potassium intake continues to be restricted to avoid the complications associated with high levels of these electrolytes.

14. A 64-year-old male patient who has had progressive chronic kidney disease (CKD) for several years has just begun regular hemodialysis. Which information about diet will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Increased calories are needed because glucose is lost during hemodialysis. b. Unlimited fluids are allowed because retained fluid is removed during dialysis. c. More protein is allowed because urea and creatinine are removed by dialysis. d. Dietary potassium is not restricted because the level is normalized by dialysis.

ANS: D ACE inhibitors stop the conversion of angiotensin I to the vasoconstrictor angiotensin II. This category of medication also blocks bradykinin and prostaglandin, increases renin, and decreases aldosterone, which promotes vasodilation and perfusion to the kidney. Antibiotics fight infection, histamine blockers decrease inflammation, and bronchodilators increase the size of the bronchi; none of these medications helps slow the progression of CKD in clients with hypertension.

14. A client has a long history of hypertension. Which category of medications would the nurse expect to be ordered to avoid chronic kidney disease (CKD)? a. Antibiotic b. Histamine blocker c. Bronchodilator d. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

ANS: C The oliguric phase of acute kidney failure is characterized by the accumulation of nitrogenous wastes, resulting in increasing levels of serum creatinine and potassium, bicarbonate deficit, and decreased or no urine output.Intrarenal and postrenal refer to causes of kidney injury. Nonoliguric is not a classification.

14. A client has a serum creatinine level of 2.5 mg/dL, a serum potassium level of 6 mmol/L, an arterial pH of 7.32, and a urine output of 250 mL/day. Which phase of acute kidney failure is the client experiencing? a. Intrarenal b. Nonoliguric c. Oliguric d. Postrenal

ANS: A Protein restriction is necessary with chronic renal failure due to the buildup of waste products from protein breakdown. The nurse would be concerned with the low albumin level since this indicates that the protein in the diet is not enough for the client's metabolic needs. The electrolyte values are not related to the protein-restricted diet.

15. A 70-kg adult with chronic renal failure is on a 40-g protein diet. The client has a reduced glomerular filtration rate and is not undergoing dialysis. Which result would give the nurse the most concern? a. Albumin level of 2.5 g/dL b. Phosphorus level of 5 mg/dL c. Sodium level of 135 mmol/L d. Potassium level of 5.5 mmol/L

ANS: B Increased blood pressure damages the delicate capillaries in the glomerulus and eventually results in acute kidney injury. An elevated serum creatinine level is a manifestation of this. Heart rate, blood glucose level, and irregular heart sounds are not correlated with acute kidney injury.

16. A client with chronic hypertension is seen in the clinic. Which assessment indicates that the client's hypertension is not under control? a. Heart rate of 55 beats/min b. Serum creatinine level of 1.9 mg/dL c. Blood glucose level of 128 mg/dL d. Irregular heart sounds

ANS: A Fast food restaurants usually serve food that is high in sodium. This statement indicates that more teaching needs to occur. The other statements show a correct understanding of the teaching.

16. The nurse is teaching a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) about the sodium restriction needed in the diet to prevent edema and hypertension. Which statement by the client indicates more teaching is needed? a. "I am thrilled that I can continue to eat fast food." b. "I will cut out bacon with my eggs every morning." c. "My cooking style will change by not adding salt." d. "I will probably lose weight by cutting out potato chips."

ANS: C The absence of adventitious sounds upon auscultation of the lungs indicates a lack of fluid overload and fluid balance in the client's body. Decreased calcium levels and increased phosphorus levels are common findings with CKD. Edema would indicate a fluid imbalance.

17. A client is placed on fluid restrictions because of chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which assessment finding would alert the nurse that the client's fluid balance is stable at this time? a. Decreased calcium levels b. Increased phosphorus levels c. No adventitious sounds in the lungs d. Increased edema in the legs

ANS: B All three medications are dialyzable, meaning that they will be removed by the dialysis. They should be given after the treatment is over.

17. A client is scheduled to have dialysis in 30 minutes and is due for the following medications: vitamin C, B-complex vitamin, and cimetidine (Tagamet). Which action by the nurse is best? a. Give medications with a small sip of water. b. Hold all medications until after dialysis. c. Give the supplements, but hold the Tagamet. d. Give the Tagamet, but hold the supplements.

ANS: A These signs and symptoms are indications of digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity. The nurse should check the level of this medication. Administering antiemetics, asking if the client can eat, and obtaining a referral to a specialist all address the client's symptoms but do not lead to the cause of the symptoms.

18. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia. Which action by the nurse is best? a. Check the client's digoxin (Lanoxin) level. b. Administer an anti-nausea medication. c. Ask if the client is able to eat crackers. d. Get a referral to a gastrointestinal provider.

ANS: A This athlete is mildly dehydrated as evidenced by the higher heart rate and lower blood pressure. The nurse can start hydrating the client with a bottle of water first, followed by teaching the client to drink 2 to 3 liters of water each day. An intravenous line may be ordered later, after the client's degree of dehydration is assessed. An electrocardiogram is not necessary at this time.

2. A marathon runner comes into the clinic and states "I have not urinated very much in the last few days." The nurse notes a heart rate of 110 beats/min and a blood pressure of 86/58 mm Hg. Which action by the nurse is the priority? a. Give the client a bottle of water immediately. b. Start an intravenous line for fluids. c. Teach the client to drink 2 to 3 liters of water daily. d. Perform an electrocardiogram.

ANS: C Clients with kidney failure are particularly at risk for digoxin toxicity because the drug is excreted by the kidneys. When caring for clients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who are receiving digoxin, monitor for signs of toxicity, such as nausea and vomiting. Potassium imbalances can alter digoxin levels as well. The nurse should hold the dose, check the current potassium level, and notify the provider. Giving the digoxin could be dangerous, so the nurse should not administer it with crackers, give it later, or ask for an anti-nausea medication.

20. A client with chronic kidney disease is scheduled to be given the following medications: digoxin (Lanoxin) and epoetin alfa (Epogen). The client reports nausea and vomiting and wishes to wait to take the medications. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Administer both medications with soda crackers. b. Allow the client to wait an hour before taking the medications. c. Review today's potassium level and notify the health care provider. d. Call the health care provider to get an order for anti-nausea medication.

ANS: B Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are frequently used in patients with CKD because they delay the progression of the CKD, but they cause potassium retention. Therefore careful monitoring of potassium levels is needed in patients who are at risk for hyperkalemia. The other laboratory values would also be monitored in patients with CKD but would not affect whether the captopril was given or not.

20. Before administration of captopril (Capoten) to a patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease (CKD), the nurse will check the patient's a. glucose. b. potassium. c. creatinine. d. phosphate.

ANS: B Dialysis works using the passive transfer of toxins by diffusion. Diffusion is the movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. The other statements show a correct understanding about hemodialysis.

20. The nurse is teaching the main principles of hemodialysis to a client with chronic kidney disease. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse? a. "My sodium level changes by movement from the blood into the dialysate." b. "Dialysis works by movement of wastes from lower to higher concentration." c. "Extra fluid can be pulled from the blood by osmosis." d. "The dialysate is similar to blood but without any toxins."

ANS: C CAVH is used for clients who have fluid volume overload. It continuously removes large quantities of plasma, water, waste, and electrolytes, such as sodium. Fluid removal can also affect the serum sodium level.

21. A client is receiving continuous arteriovenous hemofiltration (CAVH). Which laboratory value does the nurse monitor most closely? a. Hemoglobin b. Glomerular filtration rate c. Sodium d. White blood cells

ANS: C The nurse should not use the arm with the AV fistula for intravenous infusion, blood pressure readings, or venipuncture. Compression and infection can result in the loss of the AV fistula. The AV fistula should be monitored by auscultating or palpating the access site. Checking the distal pulse would be an appropriate assessment.

21. The charge nurse is orienting a float nurse to an assigned client with an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis in her left arm. Which action by the float nurse would be considered unsafe? a. Palpating the access site for a bruit or thrill b. Using the right arm for a blood pressure reading c. Administering intravenous fluids through the AV fistula d. Checking distal pulses in the left arm

ANS: C High hemoglobin levels are associated with a higher rate of thromboembolic events and increased risk of death from serious cardiovascular events (heart attack, heart failure, stroke) when erythropoietin (EPO) is administered to a target hemoglobin of >12 g/dL. Hemoglobin levels higher than 12 g/dL indicate a need for a decrease in epoetin alfa dose. The other information also will be reported to the health care provider but will not affect whether the medication is administered.

22. A 55-year-old patient with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) is scheduled to receive a prescribed dose of epoetin alfa (Procrit). Which information should the nurse report to the health care provider before giving the medication? a. Creatinine 1.6 mg/dL b. Oxygen saturation 89% c. Hemoglobin level 13 g/dL d. Blood pressure 98/56 mm Hg

ANS: D Heparin is used with hemodialysis treatments. The bleeding alerts the nurse that too much anticoagulant is in the client's system and protamine sulfate should be administered. Pressure, taking vital signs, and assessing for a bruit or thrill are not as important as medication administration.

22. A client is assessed by the nurse after a hemodialysis session. The nurse notes bleeding from the client's nose and around the intravenous catheter. What action by the nurse is the priority? a. Hold pressure over the client's nose for 10 minutes. b. Take the client's pulse, blood pressure, and temperature. c. Assess for a bruit or thrill over the arteriovenous fistula. d. Prepare protamine sulfate for administration.

ANS: B Many types of problems can reduce kidney function. Severe hypotension from shock or dehydration reduces renal blood flow and leads to prerenal acute renal failure (ARF). Volume depletion leading to prerenal azotemia is the most common cause of ARF and usually is reversible with prompt intervention. The nurse should first initiate the ordered IV fluids. Obtaining cultures will help identify a possible cause of the client's symptoms and should be done quickly after the IV has been started. Attending to the client's discomfort would be next. Assessing for travel history, although important, can wait until after the other interventions have been accomplished.

23. A client is admitted with a 3-day history of vomiting and diarrhea. The client's vital signs are blood pressure, 85/60 mm Hg and heart rate, 105 beats/min. Which intervention by the nurse takes priority? a. Obtain blood and urine cultures. b. Start an IV of normal saline as ordered. c. Administer antiemetic medications. d. Assess the client's recent travel history.

ANS: B An opaque or cloudy effluent is the first sign of peritonitis. A sample of the effluent would need to be sent to the laboratory for culture and sensitivity in order to administer the correct antibiotic. Warming the dialysate in a microwave and flushing the tubing are not safe actions by the nurse. Checking the catheter for obstruction is a viable option but will not treat the peritonitis.

24. A client is having a peritoneal dialysis treatment. The nurse notes an opaque color to the effluent. What is the priority action by the nurse? a. Warm the dialysate solution in a microwave before instillation. b. Take a sample of the effluent and send to the laboratory. c. Flush the tubing with normal saline to maintain patency of the catheter. d. Check the peritoneal catheter for kinking and curling.

ANS: A The patient's elevation in BUN is most likely associated with hydronephrosis caused by the acute urinary retention, so the insertion of a retention catheter is the first action to prevent ongoing postrenal failure for this patient. The other actions also are appropriate, but should be implemented after the retention catheter.

25. A 72-year-old patient with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is admitted with acute urinary retention and elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. Which prescribed therapy should the nurse implement first? a. Insert urethral catheter. b. Obtain renal ultrasound. c. Draw a complete blood count. d. Infuse normal saline at 50 mL/hour.

ANS: C Inflow and outflow problems of the dialysate are best controlled by preventing constipation. A daily stool softener is the best option for the client. The drainage bag should be below the level of the abdomen. Flushing the tubing will not help with the flow. A diet high in fiber will also help with a constipation problem.

25. The nurse is teaching a client how to increase the flow of dialysate into the peritoneal cavity during dialysis. Which statement by the client demonstrates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I should leave the drainage bag above the level of my abdomen." b. "I could flush the tubing with normal saline if the flow stops." c. "I should take a stool softener every morning to avoid constipation." d. "My diet should have low fiber in it to prevent any irritation."

ANS: B Cloudy or opaque effluent is the earliest sign of peritonitis. The health care provider should be notified, and a sample of the outflow should be sent for culture and sensitivity. Irrigating the catheter or changing the solution and tubing will not help reveal the cause of the problem so that appropriate treatment can be started. Documentation is important but is not the priority.

25. When providing care for a client receiving peritoneal dialysis, the nurse notices that the effluent is cloudy. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to carry out? a. Irrigate the peritoneal catheter with saline. b. Send a specimen for culture and sensitivity. c. Document the finding in the client's chart. d. Change the dialysate solution and catheter tubing.

ANS: D The nurse needs to explore the client's feelings in order to help the client cope and enter a phase of acceptance or resignation. It is common for clients to be discouraged because of the dependency of the treatment, especially during the first year. Referrals to a mental health provider or social services are possibilities, but only after exploring the client's feelings first. Telling the client his or her feelings will go away is dismissive of the client's concerns.

26. A client with chronic kidney disease states, "I feel chained to the hemodialysis machine." What is the nurse's best response to the client's statement? a. "That feeling will gradually go away as you get used to the treatment." b. "You probably need to see a psychiatrist to see if you are depressed." c. "Do you need help from social services to discuss financial aid?" d. "Tell me more about your feelings regarding hemodialysis treatment."

ANS: D Headache, nausea, vomiting, and restlessness may be signs of dialysis disequilibrium syndrome. Rapid decreases in fluid and in blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level can cause cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Early recognition and treatment of this syndrome are essential for preventing a life-threatening situation. Treatment includes administration of anticonvulsants (Dilantin) or barbiturates. Dextrose is not used to treat disequilibrium syndrome, and sodium and potassium levels are not helpful because the symptoms are related to changes in urea levels and increased intracranial pressure. Obtaining the BUN would provide useful information; however, it is more important to treat the problem.

26. During hemodialysis, a client with chronic kidney disease develops headache, nausea, vomiting, and restlessness. After notifying the health care provider, which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Administer a bolus of dextrose solution. b. Draw blood for sodium and potassium. c. Order a blood urea nitrogen level stat. d. Prepare to administer phenytoin (Dilantin),

ANS: A The client's temperature may be elevated because the dialysis machine warms the blood slightly. An excessive temperature elevation from baseline can signal sepsis. The nurse should inform the provider and obtain blood cultures if this happens. The other actions are not needed.

27. A client's temperature after dialysis is 99° F (37.2° C) and was normal before dialysis. Which is the nurse's best action? a. Continue to monitor the temperature. b. Encourage the client to drink fluids. c. Obtain a white blood cell count. d. Prepare to culture the fistula site.

ANS: B Because hyperkalemia can cause fatal cardiac dysrhythmias, the initial action should be to monitor the cardiac rhythm. Kayexalate and Epogen will take time to correct the hyperkalemia and anemia. The catheter allows monitoring of the urine output but does not correct the cause of the renal failure.

28. A 42-year-old patient admitted with acute kidney injury due to dehydration has oliguria, anemia, and hyperkalemia. Which prescribed actions should the nurse take first? a. Insert a urinary retention catheter. b. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor. c. Administer epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit). d. Give sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).

ANS: B When renal disease has progressed and requires treatment with dialysis, increased protein is required in the diet to compensate for protein losses through peritoneal dialysis. The other statements are inaccurate.

29. The nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who was just started on peritoneal dialysis (PD). Which instruction does the nurse provide to this client regarding protein intake? a. "Your protein needs will not change, but you may take more fluids." b. "You will need more protein now because some protein is lost by dialysis." c. "Your protein intake will be adjusted according to your predialysis weight." d. "You no longer need to be on protein restriction."

ANS: C Kidney failure causes many problems, including decreased glomerular filtration rate. Nephrotoxins can worsen renal failure, especially in someone who already has some loss of kidney function.

3. A client with a decreased glomerular filtration rate asks how to prevent further damage to the kidneys. Which is the nurse's best response? a. "The diuretics you are taking will prevent further damage." b. "Kidney damage is inevitable as you age." c. "Avoid taking NSAIDs." d. "You will need to follow a high-protein diet."

ANS: A There are some medications that are nephrotoxic, such as the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs ibuprofen, aspirin, and naproxen. This would be a good question to initially ask the client since both the serum creatinine and BUN are elevated, indicating some renal problems. A family history of renal failure and kidney transplantation would not be part of the questioning and could cause anxiety in the client. A diet high in protein could be a factor in an increased BUN.

3. A male client comes into the emergency department with a serum creatinine of 2.2 mg/dL and a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 24 mL/dL. What question should the nurse ask first when taking this client's history? a. "Have you been taking any aspirin, ibuprofen, or naproxen recently?" b. "Do you have anyone in your family with renal failure?" c. "Have you had a diet that is low in protein recently?" d. "Has a relative had a kidney transplant lately?"

ANS: B The primary goal of treatment for acute kidney injury (AKI) is to eliminate the cause and provide supportive care while the kidneys recover. Because this patient's heart failure is causing AKI, the care will be directed toward treatment of the heart failure. For renal failure caused by hypertension, hypovolemia, or nephrotoxins, the other responses would be correct.

3. The nurse is planning care for a patient with severe heart failure who has developed elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. The primary collaborative treatment goal in the plan will be a. augmenting fluid volume. b. maintaining cardiac output. c. diluting nephrotoxic substances. d. preventing systemic hypertension.

ANS: C To prevent blood clots from forming within the dialyzer or blood tubing, anticoagulation is needed during hemodialysis treatment. The drug used is heparin, which makes the client at risk for hemorrhage for the next 4 to 6 hours. Protamine sulfate is the antidote to heparin, and the nurse should prepare to administer it. Pressure may help, and someone else can apply it while the nurse is getting the medication. Laboratory studies are not needed because the client is at known risk for bleeding from heparin. Assessing the vascular access device does nothing to help the situation.

30. A client was just admitted to the emergency department for new-onset confusion. As the nurse starts the IV line, the client says he just finished a hemodialysis session. The IV site is bleeding briskly. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Assess for a bruit and thrill over the vascular access site. b. Draw blood for coagulation studies and white blood cell count. c. Prepare to administer protamine sulfate. d. Hold constant firm pressure with a gauze pad for 5 minutes.

ANS: C Oral phosphate binders should not be given at the same time as iron because they prevent the iron from being absorbed. The phosphate binder should be given with a meal and the iron given at a different time. The other actions by the LPN/LVN are appropriate for a patient with renal insufficiency.

30. A licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) is caring for a patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease. Which observation by the RN requires an intervention? a. The LPN/LVN administers the erythropoietin subcutaneously. b. The LPN/LVN assists the patient to ambulate out in the hallway. c. The LPN/LVN administers the iron supplement and phosphate binder with lunch. d. The LPN/LVN carries a tray containing low-protein foods into the patient's room.

ANS: B Cloudy appearing peritoneal effluent is a sign of peritonitis and should be reported immediately so that treatment with antibiotics can be started. The other problems can be addressed through nursing interventions such as slowing the inflow and repositioning the patient.

31. A female patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving peritoneal dialysis with 2 L inflows. Which information should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. The patient has an outflow volume of 1800 mL. b. The patient's peritoneal effluent appears cloudy. c. The patient has abdominal pain during the inflow phase. d. The patient's abdomen appears bloated after the inflow.

ANS: B These signs and symptoms are of cardiac tamponade, an emergency situation in which fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac, making it difficult for the heart to pump normally. Treatment includes a pericardiocentesis, or withdrawing the fluid with a needle or catheter. The other interventions are not appropriate in this situation.

33. A client who is admitted to the hospital with a history of kidney disease begins to have difficulty breathing. Vital signs are as follows: blood pressure, 90/70 mm Hg heart rate, difficult to feel peripheral pulses. His heart sounds are difficult to hear. Which intervention does the nurse prepare for? a. Administration of digoxin (Lanoxin) b. Draining of pericardial fluid with a needle c. Emergency hemodialysis d. Placement of a pacemaker

ANS: B The patient's complaints of nausea and dizziness suggest hypotension, so the initial action should be to check the BP. The other actions may also be appropriate based on the blood pressure obtained.

33. During routine hemodialysis, the 68-year-old patient complains of nausea and dizziness. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Slow down the rate of dialysis. b. Check patient's blood pressure (BP). c. Review the hematocrit (Hct) level. d. Give prescribed PRN antiemetic drugs.

ANS: C To prevent sepsis from oral cavity bacteria, the client should be given prophylactic antibiotics before any dental procedure. Rinsing the mouth with antiseptic solution would not be sufficient to prevent infection. Kidney disease may have contributed to the dental decay through loss of calcium from the teeth, but this cannot be confirmed. Clients with kidney disease should not take antibiotics known to be nephrotoxic. Dosage adjustments based on the client's kidney function may be needed.

34. A client with chronic kidney disease states that he will be going to the dentist for a planned tooth extraction. Which is the nurse's best response? a. "Rinse your mouth with an antiseptic solution after the procedure." b. "Kidney disease is probably what caused your dental decay." c. "You should receive prophylactic antibiotics before any dental procedure." d. "You may take any medication for pain that the dentist prescribes."

ANS: D Restlessness, anxiety, tachycardia, dyspnea, and crackles at the bases of the lungs are early manifestations of pulmonary edema, which is a complication of kidney failure. Initial treatment of pulmonary edema consists of placing the client in high Fowler's position and administering oxygen. Mechanical ventilation and ultrafiltration may be indicated if symptoms become worse. An antianxiety agent would not be helpful. Morphine, however, has both vasoactive and sedating effects.

35. A client hospitalized for worsening kidney injury suddenly becomes restless and agitated. Assessment reveals tachycardia and crackles bilaterally at the bases of the lungs. Which is the nurse's first intervention? a. Begin ultrafiltration. b. Administer an antianxiety agent. c. Place the client on mechanical ventilation. d. Place the client in high Fowler's position.

ANS: D Muscle cramps during dialysis are caused by rapid removal of sodium and water. Treatment includes infusion of normal saline. The other actions do not address the reason for the cramps.

35. A patient complains of leg cramps during hemodialysis. The nurse should first a. massage the patient's legs. b. reposition the patient supine. c. give acetaminophen (Tylenol). d. infuse a bolus of normal saline.

ANS: B The nurse should initially clarify the patient's concerns and questions about dialysis. The patient is the one responsible for the decision and many people using dialysis do have good quality of life, but these responses block further assessment of the patient's concerns. Referring to which type of dialysis the patient might use only indirectly responds to the patient's question.

36. A 74-year-old who is progressing to stage 5 chronic kidney disease asks the nurse, "Do you think I should go on dialysis? Which initial response by the nurse is best? a. "It depends on which type of dialysis you are considering." b. "Tell me more about what you are thinking regarding dialysis." c. "You are the only one who can make the decision about dialysis." d. "Many people your age use dialysis and have a good quality of life."

ANS: D A client with uremia will also have metabolic acidosis. With severe metabolic acidosis, the client will develop hyperventilation, or Kussmaul respirations, as the body attempts to compensate for the falling pH. The other manifestations would not be associated with acidosis.

36. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease who has developed uremia. Which assessment finding does the nurse correlate with this problem? a. Decreased breath sounds b. Foul-smelling urine c. Heart rate of 50 beats/min d. Respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min

ANS: A Tall, peaked T waves are a manifestation of hyperkalemia. Thus, the nurse should check the potassium level. Afterward, the nurse should report findings to the provider. The client may need an ECG, but treatment may be based on monitor tracings and potassium levels. Sodium bicarbonate is not warranted. Documentation is important but is not the priority.

37. A client has end-stage kidney disease (ESKD). The nurse observes tall, peaked T waves on the client's cardiac monitor. Which action by the nurse is best? a. Check the serum potassium level. b. Document the finding in the client's chart. c. Prepare to give sodium bicarbonate. d. Call the health care provider to request an electrocardiogram (ECG).

ANS: D The patient who is tachycardic after hemodialysis may be bleeding or excessively hypovolemic and should be assessed immediately for these complications. The other patients also need assessments or interventions but are not at risk for life-threatening complications.

37. After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient who is scheduled for the drain phase of a peritoneal dialysis exchange b. Patient with stage 4 chronic kidney disease who has an elevated phosphate level c. Patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease who has a potassium level of 3.4 mEq/L d. Patient who has just returned from having hemodialysis and has a heart rate of 124/min

ANS: D Weight and blood pressure are helpful in estimating fluid and sodium retention. Weight and blood pressure rise with excess fluid and sodium. Weight is the most accurate noninvasive assessment for fluid status and therefore sodium status. Capillary refill also gives information on perfusion and oxygenation so is not specific for fluid status. Intake and output are part of the assessment for fluid status but do not account for insensitive water losses. Muscle strength is unrelated.

38. Which assessment parameter does the nurse monitor in a client with chronic kidney disease to determine fluid and sodium retention status? a. Capillary refill b. Intake and output c. Muscle strength d. Weight and blood pressure

ANS: B, D, E Weight should be maintained at a body mass index (BMI) of 22 to 25. A BMI of 30 indicates obesity. The use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs such as aspirin should be limited to the lowest time at the lowest dose due to interference with kidney blood flow. The client should drink at least 2 liters of water daily. Diet adjustments should be made by restricting sodium, cholesterol, and protein. Smoking causes constriction of blood vessels and decreases kidney perfusion, so the client should stop smoking.

4. The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus how to prevent or delay chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which client statements indicate a lack of understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "I need to decrease sodium, cholesterol, and protein in my diet." b. "My weight should be maintained at a body mass index of 30." c. "Smoking should be stopped as soon as I possibly can." d. "I can continue to take an aspirin every 4 to 8 hours for my pain." e. "I really only need to drink a couple of glasses of water each day."

ANS: B Cloudy or opaque effluent is an early sign of peritonitis. The nurse should collect and send a sample for culture. Then the nurse should document the finding. The other two options are not appropriate.

40. The nurse is providing a client with a peritoneal dialysis exchange. The nurse notes the presence of cloudy peritoneal effluent. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Document the finding in the client's chart. b. Collect a sample to send to the laboratory. c. Reposition the client on the left side. d. Increase the free water content in the next bag.

ANS: B The contrast dye used in IVPs is potentially nephrotoxic, and concurrent use of other nephrotoxic medications such as the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be avoided. The suppository and NPO status are necessary to ensure adequate visualization during the IVP. IV fluids are used to ensure adequate hydration, which helps reduce the risk for contrast-induced renal failure.

5. A 48-year-old patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which order for the patient will the nurse question? a. NPO for 6 hours before procedure b. Ibuprofen (Advil) 400 mg PO PRN for pain c. Dulcolax suppository 4 hours before procedure d. Normal saline 500 mL IV infused before procedure

ANS: B, C, D, E In discharge teaching, the nurse must emphasize that the client needs to have an antibiotic prophylactically before dental procedures to prevent infection. There may be a need for dose reduction in medications if the kidney is not excreting them properly (antacids with magnesium, antibiotics, antidiabetic drugs, insulin, opioids, and anticoagulants).

5. A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client recently diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which statements made by the client indicate a correct understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "I can continue to take antacids to relieve heartburn." b. "I need to ask for an antibiotic when scheduling a dental appointment." c. "I'll need to check my blood sugar often to prevent hypoglycemia." d. "The dose of my pain medication may have to be adjusted." e. "I should watch for bleeding when taking my anticoagulants."

ANS: A The priority action by the nurse should be to check the cardiac status with a monitor. High potassium levels can lead to dysrhythmias. The other choices are logical nursing interventions for acute kidney injury but not the best immediate action.

6. A client has a serum potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L, a serum creatinine level of 2 mg/dL, and a urine output of 350 mL/day. What is the best action by the nurse? a. Place the client on a cardiac monitor immediately. b. Teach the client to limit high-potassium foods. c. Continue to monitor the client's intake and output. d. Ask to have the laboratory redraw the blood specimen.

ANS: A, B, D Hypotension occurs often during hemodialysis treatments as a result of vasodilation from the warmed dialysate. Modest decreases in blood pressure, as is the case with this client, can be maintained with rate adjustment, Trendelenburg positioning, and a fluid bolus. If the blood pressure drops considerably after two boluses and cooling dialysate, the hemodialysis can be stopped and the health care provider contacted.

6. A client is undergoing hemodialysis. The client's blood pressure at the beginning of the procedure was 136/88 mm Hg, and now it is 110/54 mm Hg. What actions should the nurse perform to maintain blood pressure? (Select all that apply.) a. Adjust the rate of extracorporeal blood flow. b. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position. c. Stop the hemodialysis treatment. d. Administer a 250-mL bolus of normal saline. e. Contact the health care provider for orders.

ANS: A Severe blood volume depletion can lead to kidney failure, even in those who have no kidney problem. The client is showing signs of mild volume depletion. The first action the nurse should take is to give the client something to drink. After that, the nurse should teach the client to avoid dehydration by drinking at least 2 to 3 L of fluid daily. The client does not need an IV at this time. Performing a bladder scan will not help prevent or reverse the client's problem.

6. During a hot summer day, an older adult client tells the clinic nurse, "I am not drinking or voiding that much these days." The nurse notes a heart rate of 100 beats/min and a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg. Which action does the nurse take first? a. Give the client something to drink. b. Insert an intravenous catheter. c. Teach the client to drink 2 to 3 liters a day. d. Perform a bladder scan to assess urine volume.

ANS: C The patient with end-stage kidney disease is taught to measure urine output as a means of determining an appropriate oral fluid intake. Erythropoietin is given to increase the red blood cell count and will not offer any benefit for immune function. Dairy products are restricted because of the high phosphate level. Many fruits and vegetables are high in potassium and should be restricted in the patient with CKD.

6. Which statement by a 62-year-old patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD) indicates that the nurse's teaching about management of CKD has been effective? a. "I need to get most of my protein from low-fat dairy products." b. "I will increase my intake of fruits and vegetables to 5 per day." c. "I will measure my urinary output each day to help calculate the amount I can drink." d. "I need to take erythropoietin to boost my immune system and help prevent infection."

ANS: D The central line should have a heparin or heparin/saline dwell after hemodialysis treatment. The central line catheter used for dialysis should not be used for blood sampling, monitoring central venous pressures, or giving drugs or fluids.

7. A client has just had a central line catheter placed that is specific for hemodialysis. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse? a. Use the catheter for the next laboratory blood draw. b. Monitor the central venous pressure through this line. c. Access the line for the next intravenous medication. d. Place a heparin or heparin/saline dwell after hemodialysis.

ANS: C Lasix is a diuretic that causes increased urine output. If too much urine output occurs, the client may be at risk for hypovolemia, which is a cause of prerenal kidney failure. A marked change in fluid balance seen in the intake and output measurement can help identify the client who may be at risk for hypovolemia. Heart sounds and breath sounds would be more important to assess if the client was receiving Lasix for fluid overload conditions, such as heart failure. Nutrition assessment is important to ensure that the client gets enough potassium, but dehydration is more common and needs more vigorous assessment.

7. A client is taking furosemide (Lasix). To detect a common adverse effect, the nurse obtains which assessment as a priority? a. Breath sounds b. Heart sounds c. Intake and output d. Nutritional patterns

ANS: A Hypotension can be a problem with CVVH if replacement fluid does not provide enough volume to maintain blood pressure. The specially trained nurse needs to monitor for ongoing fluid and electrolyte replacement. The sodium level is normal and the potassium level is slightly elevated, which could be normal findings for someone with acute kidney injury. A pulse rate of 90 beats/min is normal.

8. A client in the intensive care unit is started on continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH). Which finding is the cause of immediate action by the nurse? a. Blood pressure of 76/58 mm Hg b. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L c. Potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L d. Pulse rate of 90 beats/min

ANS: A Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) should not be given to a patient with a paralytic ileus (as indicated by absent bowel sounds) because bowel necrosis can occur. The BUN and creatinine, blood glucose, and LOC would not affect the nurse's decision to give the medication.

8. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is ordered for a patient with hyperkalemia. Before administering the medication, the nurse should assess the a. bowel sounds. b. blood glucose. c. blood urea nitrogen (BUN). d. level of consciousness (LOC).

ANS: B Kussmaul respirations indicate a worsening of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The client is increasing the rate and depth of breathing to excrete carbon dioxide through the lungs. Hypertension is common in most clients with CKD, and skin itching increases with calcium-phosphate imbalances, another common finding in CKD. Uremia from CKD causes ammonia to be formed, resulting in the common findings of halitosis and stomatitis.

9. The nurse is caring for four clients with chronic kidney disease. Which client should the nurse assess first upon initial rounding? a. Woman with a blood pressure of 158/90 mm Hg b. Client with Kussmaul respirations c. Man with skin itching from head to toe d. Client with halitosis and stomatitis