Chapter 7 & 8; Bones, Joints, Articulations

Compare the range of motion in the hand to that of the foot.

*Hand more ROM, Foot Less ROM Hand- Opposition brings the thumb and little finger together. Reposition a movement that moves the thumb and the little finger away from each other Foot- Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion are terms used to describe movements at the ankle/foot (causes " up and down movement"). Also, Inversion (lateral rotation - sole points medially) and eversion (medial inversion - sole points laterally) refer to the rotation of the foot around its long axis.

Tell the characteristics of a female pelvis that distinguish it from a male pelvis.

-an enlarged pelvic outlet, -wider and more circular pelvic inlet, -a broader pubic angle/ GREATER than 100 degrees -less curvature on the sacrum and coccyx, -a relatively broad pelvis that does not extend as far superiorly, and -ilia that project farther laterally, but do not extend as far superior to the sacrum.

Tell the places where bursae may be found.

-beneath the skin covering a bone -tendon sheaths -around most synovial joints -within connective tissue exposed to friction or pressure

Explain the functions of parathyroid hormone (how if functions).

-increase the level of calcium ions in the blood. -mobilize calcium from bone. -enhance the reabsorption of calcium at the kidneys. -stimulate osteoclast activity.

List 4 statements concerning the development of the skull

1. At birth the cranial bones are connected by areas of fibrous connective tissue. 2. The growth of the cranium is usually coordinated with the growth of the brain 3. The skulls of infants and adults differ in shape and structure of the skeletal elements. 4. The most significant growth of the skull occurs before age 5

List the 5 steps in the process of endochondral ossification.

1. Chondrocytes enlarge and the surrounding matrix begins to calcify. 2. Enlarged chondrocytes die. 3. Blood vessels invade the perichondrium. 4. Perichondrial cells become osteoblasts and produce a thin shell of bone. 5. Osteoblasts replace calcified cartilage with spongy bone. E D B B S- Even Dads Break Bones Sometimes

What are the four types of bones? - (BOOK SAYS 6!!) - know all

1. Long 2. Short 3. Flat 4. Irregular ----- 5. Sutural 6. Sesamoid

Name the subcellular components present in bone...

1. Organic Component - Osteoid; contains collagen fibers and ground substance 2. Inorganic component- 65% hydroxyapatites (calcium and salts- calcium phosphate)

What are all the functions of the skeletal system?

1. Support 2. Protection 3. Body Movement 4. Blood Cell Formation 5. Inorganic Salt Storage

What occurs (what are the consequences) when the articular cartilage of a joint is damaged?

1. The matrix begins to break down. 2. The exposed surface appears rough. 3. Friction in the joint increases. 4. Normal synovial joint function is unable to continue.

What four things can be described by the paranasal sinuses?

1. They provide an extensive area of mucous epithelium 2. They make skull bones lighter 3. The mucus they secrete enters the nasal cavities 4. They support cilia that move the mucus.

Name all of the functions of the axial skeleton.

1. forms long axis of body 2. supports the head, neck, and trunk 3. protects the brain, spinal cord and organs in the thorax

The femur can withstand _____ times its body weight without breaking.

10-15x

Humans normally have ___#__ pairs of ribs.

12

The vertebral column contains __#___ thoracic vertebrae

12

Each hand has _____ phalangeal bones.

14

Bone is composed of _____ percent cells?

2

The adult skeleton contains __#___ major bones.

206

The skull contains ___#____ bones.

22

Ossification of the sternum is not complete until at least what age?

25

The most significant skull growth occurs before what age?

5

Most mammals, including humans and giraffes, have _____ cervical vertebrae.

7

The knee joint is stabilized by ________ major ligaments.

7

The tarsus contains ________ bones.

7

The carpus contains (how many) bones?

8

How many bones make up the axial skeleton?

80

Name all the parts of the axial division of the skeletal system.

80 bones form the axial skeleton including the: skull, vertebral column and thoracic cage (don't forget hyoid!)

There are _____ carpal bones located in the wrist, which form ________ rows of bones in the wrist.

8; 2

Which is greater? A) Blood calcium levels when parathyroid hormone is increased B)Blood calcium levels when parathyroid hormone is decreased

A

Describe the costal groove.

A groove on the inferior side of the rib shaft, serves as an attachment for muscles, Intercostal nerves and associated major arteries and veins.

While on a school skiing trip in Colorado, Heidi falls and breaks her tibia and fibula in a Pott fracture. What would you expect as a prominent part of her clinical assessment several hours after the fall?

A hematoma

Explain the movement and give good examples of abduction.

A movement away from the midline of the body is called. A good example is spreading of the fingers.

The condition known as "flat feet" is due to a lower-than-normal longitudinal arch in the foot. A problem with which of the following would most likely contribute to this condition?

A weakness in the ligaments that attach the calcaneus to the distal ends of the metatarsals.

The movement of rotating a limb outward is called______?

Abduction

What is the function of the primary spinal curves?

Accommodation of the thoracic and abdominopelvic viscera

Explain the movement and give good examples of hyperextension.

An extension past the anatomical position. An example is extreme bending of the head backwards

While visiting your friend who recently gave birth, she comments on her infant's soft spot. You think to yourself that the correct term for the "soft spot" located at the intersection of the frontal, sagittal and coronal sutures is the?

Anterior fontanel

What role to the fontanels play in infant development?

Are fibrous connective tissue structures fill in between the bones of the cranium in a newborn infant. As the brain grows, the fibrous connective tissue structures allow skull bones to move apart and allow for brain growth.

__________ prevents damaging bone-to-bone contact within movable joints.

Articular cartilage

The radius articulates with the

At the proximal end: The capitulum of the humerus articulates via the head AND at the radial notch of the ulna At the distal end: the radial ulnar notch articulates with the head of ulna. Also, the distal surface of the radius has two facets, for articulation with the scaphoid and lunate carpal bones.

The first cervical vertebra is better known as the?

Atlas

What is the function of the hyoid bone and to what structures is it attached?

Attaches and anchors the tongue muscles, is linked to the styloid process by a ligament (stylohyoid ligaments), is superior to the larynx and does not directly articulate with other bones.

The second cervical vertebra is usually called the?

Axis

Which bones are part of the axial skeleton (list)?

Axisl skeleton consist of 80 bones. Skull contains 22 bones -from which 8 are cranial and 14 are facial 6 middle ear ossicles 1 hyoid bone 33 bones of vertebral column 1 sternum 24 ribs (12 pairs).

Which is greater? A)Osteoclast activity when calcitonin is present B) Osteoclast activity when calcitonin is absent

B

Athletes of what sport are at greatest risk of developing a shoulder injury?

Baseball pitchers

Tom stumbles and injures his hallux. What part of his anatomy is injured?

Big toe

Billy is injured during a high school football game. His chest is badly bruised and he is experiencing difficulty in breathing. What might the problem be?

Billy has probably broken one or more of his ribs. Movement of the ribs changes the size of the thoracic cavity, which is an important part of breathing. When the ribs are broken, breathing can become difficult (labored) because of pain when the ribs are moved.

Tell/list the properties and characteristics of synovial joints.

Bones are united by capsule (holds fluid) Often ligaments (tendons for support) Joint cavity with fluid Accessory structures

Name all the components of the skeletal system...

Bones, Cartilage, Ligaments and connective tissues

What is the name for the heel bone?

Calcaneus

Bone plays a central role in the regulation of blood levels of which mineral?

Calcium

The most abundant mineral in the human body is?

Calcium

After a fracture of the diaphysis has healed, the thickened region that results is called a?

Callus

A(n) ____________ is a rounded passageway for a passage of blood vessels and/or nerves.

Canal

The narrow passageways that contain cytoplasmic extensions of osteocytes are called?

Canaliculi

Vertebrosternal ribs are directly connected to the sternum by?

Cartilage

Name four spinal curves

Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar and Sacral

List the characteristics and functions of articular cartilage

Characteristics: 1. There is no perichondrium. 2. The matrix contains more water than other cartilages. 3. Surfaces are normally slick and smooth. 4. It is composed of cartilage similar to hyaline cartilage Functions: 1. Allows smooth movement of opposing joint surfaces 2. Distributes joint contact forces 3. serves as a wear resistant, smooth and nearly frictionless load bearing surface

______ describes a complex angular movement in a circle.

Circumduction

Which bone of the body is the one that is probably the most commonly fractured in a fall?

Clavicle

The superior and inferior temporal lines mark the points of attachment for the muscles that do what?

Close the mouth

Which type of fractures are completely internal (they do not break through the skin)?

Closed Fracture

A ___________ fracture does not break the skin.

Closed or simple

______________fibers are stronger than steel when stretched.

Collagen fibers

A transverse fracture of the wrist that may be comminuted is called a ____________.

Colles'

A ___________ fracture produces shattered bone fragments.

Comminuted

A ______________ fracture shatters the bone.

Comminuted

A open or ________ fracture projects through the skin.

Compound

The fracture of vertebrae subjected to extreme vertical stress is called a _________ fracture.

Compression

Damage to a bone because of extreme load, sudden impact or stresses applied from an unusual direction is called a(n) ____________.

Compression fracture

The smooth, rounded articular process of a bone is termed a?

Condyle

The suture that forms the articulation of the parietal bones with the frontal bone is the _______ suture.

Coronal

What process is in the insertion site for the temporalis muscle?

Coronoid process of the ramus of the mandible

The bony compartment that houses the brain is called the?

Cranium

What is the function of the nasal conchae?

Creation of turbulence which warms and filters air

A membrane that stabilizes the position of the brain is attached to what structure?

Crista Galli

What is the function of the hormone calcitonin?

Decrease the level of calcium ion in the blood

A bent nasal septum that slows or prevents sinus drainage is known clinically as a __________.

Deviated septum

The shaft of a long bone is called the

Diaphysis

The shaft of long bones is called the?

Diaphysis

During the process of ________, an existing tissue is replaced by bone.

Endochondral ossification

Name the small bones that form the medial wall of the eye socket.

Ethmoid bone Lacrimal Bone

Ribs 8-12 are called _________ because they do not attach directly to the sternum.

False ribs

What bone articulates with the coxal bone at the acetabulum?

Femur

The lateral malleolus is found on which bone?

Fibula

During the growth of a long bone, how is the epiphysis forced farther from the shaft?

First, The chondrocytes near the center of the shaft increase greatly in size. Next, The matrix is then reduced to a series of small struts that soon begin to calcify. Next, the enlarged chondrocytes then die and disintegrate, leaving cavities within the cartilage. Next, Blood vessels penetrate the cartilage and fibroblasts migrating with the blood vessels differentiate into osteoblasts and begin producing spongy bone at a primary ossification center. Next, Bone formation then spreads along the shaft toward both ends. Finally, on the shaft, the chondrocytes become ossified, "chasing" the expanding epiphyseal cartilage away from the shaft.

A rib is an example of which type of bone?

Flat

Ribs that have no connection to the sternum are called?

Floating Ribs

__________ are non-ossified fibrous attachments between cranial bones.

Fontanels

A rounded hole through a bone is termed a?

Foramen

A deep hollow on a bone is termed a?

Fossa

Frank gets into a brawl at a sports event and receives a broken nose. After the nose heals, he starts to have sinus headaches and discomfort in the area of his maxillae. What is probably the cause of Frank's discomfort?

Frank probably has a deviated septum as the result of his broken nose. In a deviated septum the cartilaginous portion of the septum is bent where it joins the bone. This condition often blocks the drainage of one or more sinuses with resulting sinus headaches, infections, and sinusitis.

In a ____________ fracture one side of the shaft is split and the other side is bent.

Greenstick

Another name for the first toe is the?

Hallux

The expanded articular end of an epiphysis that is separated from the shaft by a narrower neck is termed a(n)?

Head

Name the bones of the pelvis formed by the fusion of several bones?

Hip bones formed by the ...Ilium, ischium and pubis

The articular cartilage of a typical long bone is composed of what type of cartilage?

Hyaline cartilage

In bone, the calcium phosphate forms crystals of ?

Hydroxyapatite

7

Identify the diaphysis of the femur

3

Identify the internal occipital crest. #?

6- Surgical Neck

Identify the place where the humerus often fractures

2

Identify the sphenoid bone. #?

Periosteum

Identify the structure at "4"?

Bursa

Identify the structure at label 1

Epiphysis

Identify the structure labeled "2".

Corocoid Process

Identify the structure labeled 1

Spinous process

Identify the structure labeled 1

linea aspera

Identify the structure labeled 12

Glenoid Cavity

Identify the structure labeled 2

Lamina

Identify the structure labeled 2

greater trochanter

Identify the structure labeled 2

synovial membrane

Identify the structure labeled 2

Transverse process

Identify the structure labeled 3

lateral epicondyle

Identify the structure labeled 3

Inferior articular facet

Identify the structure labeled 4

intracapsular ligament

Identify the structure labeled 5

Pedicle

Identify the structure labeled 7

Spine

Identify the structure labeled 7

medial epicondyle

Identify the structure labeled 9

A: ? Concentric Lamellae

Identify the structures labeled "4"

The largest component coxal bone is the?

Ilium

List all the bones of the face

Inferior nasal concha (2) Lacrimal bones (2) Mandible Maxilla (2) Nasal bones (2) Palatine bones (2) Vomer Zygomatic bones (2)

The space occupied by an osteocyte is called?

Lacunae

The parietal bones and occipital bones articulate at the ____ suture.

Lambdoid

The humerus is an example of which type of bone?

Long Bone

Explain the characteristics of a person suffering from Marfan's syndrome

Long arms, legs and fingers Tall and thin body type Curved spine Chest sinks in or sticks out Flexible joints Flat feet Crowded teeth Stretch marks on the skin that are not related to weight gain or loss ***NOT SHORT STUBBY FINGERS***

You witness one of your friends in a fight. Your friend Greg is hit in the jaw and when looking at him, his face looks misaligned. You immediately take him to the emergency room and are not surprised to learn that he has a broken

Mandible

At what point does the clavicle articulate with the scapula?

Manubrium

The prominent bulge just posterior and inferior to the external auditory meatus is the?

Mastoid process

Fat is stored within the _________ cavity?

Medullary cavity

Intramembranous ossification begins with differentiation of what type of cells?

Mesenchyme

The narrow region between the head and shaft of a long bone is called the?

Metaphysis

The region of a long bone between the end and the shaft is known as the?

Metaphysis

Would you expect to see changes in blood levels of the hormones calcitonin and PTH as a result of vitamin D3 deficiency? Explain.

No, A person deficient in vitamin D3 would not be able to absorb calcium effectively from the digestive tract, leading to a shortage of calcium in the blood. To maintain homeostasis, the decrease in blood calcium would trigger the release of PTH. The PTH, in turn, would stimulate osteoclasts to release enough calcium from the bone to maintain proper calcium levels in the blood. Levels of calcitonin would decrease, because release of this hormone is triggered by high blood calcium levels.

The foramen magnum is found in the

Occipital bone

Explain the process of Intramembranous Ossification and give examples of (tell) where it occurs. List 4 steps.

Occurs in the dermis. Produces dermal bones such as the mandible and clavicle. 4 steps: 1. Condensation of Mesenchyme into soft sheets permeated with blood capillaries 2. Deposition of osteoid tissue by osteoblasts on mesenchymal surface; entrapment of first osteocytes; formation of periosteum. 3. Honeycomb of bony trabeculae formed by continued mineral deposition; creation of spongy bone. 4. Surface bone is filled in by bone deposition, converting spongy bone to compact bone. Persistence of spongy bone in the middle layer.

The depression on the posterior surface at the distal end of the humerus is the?

Olecranon fossa

Name all of the surface features on the ulna

Olecranon process, Trochlear notch, coronoid process, head, styloid process

How (in what orientation) are the trabeculae of spongy bone arranged?

Organized along stress lines

Explain the process of Endochondral Ossification and give examples of (tell) where it occurs. List 6 steps.

Ossifies bones that originate as hyaline cartilage Produces most bones 6 steps: 1. Enlargement of chondrocytes. 2. Formation of superficial bone. 3. Production of spongy bone at a primary ossification center. 4. Further growth in length and diameter. 5. Formation of secondary ossification centers. 6. Formation of an epiphyseal cartilage between epiphysis and diaphysis.

How are osteoarthritis and rheumatism different?

Osteoarthritis is a "wear-and-tear" disease seen usually in the elderly. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease in which the body's immune system attacks synovial joints, triggered by an infection or some other cause.

Name the cells that secrete the organic components of the bone matrix?

Osteoblasts

Cells that are found in small depressions on the endosteal surfaces are the ?

Osteoclasts

____________ free calcium from bone to maintain blood cell calcium levels.

Osteoclasts

The lacunae of osseous tissue contain?

Osteocytes

_______ is the organic component of the matrix in developing or repairing bone.

Osteoid

Stem cells that can differentiate into osteoblasts are called ___________ cells.

Osteoprogenitor

_______ are mesenchymal cells that develop into osteoblasts.

Osteoprogenitor

Which of the facial bones is paired? Which is unpaired?

Paired: Inferior nasal concha (2) Lacrimal bones (2) Maxilla (2) Nasal bones (2) Palatine bones (2) Zygomatic bones (2) Unpaired: Volmer Mandible

In relationship to the diaphysis of a long bone, what is the orientation of the osteons?

Parallel

The ligament that surrounds the __________ attaches to the tibial tuberosity.

Patella

Blood is distributed from the surface of a bone to deeper central canals through channels known as?

Perforating canals

A boot-top fracture that involves both lower leg bones is called a ________.

Pott

A fracture at the ankle involving both lower leg bones is often called a ________ fracture.

Pott

Name the organs protected by the sacrum.

Protects the 2nd and 3rd lumbar, reproductive, digestive, and excretory organs. - reproductive organs, rectum, bladder and anal canal

What occurs in the structure of bone (what is present) that allows bone to be strong, somewhat flexible and highly resistant to shattering?

Protein-Crystal interactions

What is the function of the ligamentum nuchae?

Provides for muscles attachments due to short cervical spinous processes.

Describe the jugular notch, including any articulations that occur here.

Proximal/medial of the clavicle. Located between the clavicular articulations, is a shallow indentation on the superior surface of the manubrium.

Name the forearm bones

Radius, Ulna

The medullary cavity of bones contain?

Red and yellow bone marrow

While performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an unconscious person, you are careful to position your hands correctly to avoid damage to what structure(s)

Ribs and Xiphoid Process

The suture that forms the articulation of the two parietal bones is the __________ suture.

Sagittal

Which type of bones develop within tendons?

Sesamoid Bones

The carpal bones are examples of which type of bones?

Short bones

Where in the body do we find ball and socket joints?

Shoulder

A chamber within a bone normally filled with air is a?

Sinus

Describe the surface of articular cartilage.

Slick and Smooth

A male has a ___________ pelvic outlet when compared to the woman's pelvic outlet.

Smaller

A skull bone that could be described as looking like a bat with wings extended is the?

Sphenoid Bone

The following structures are associated with which bone? Foramen ovale, optic canals, pterygoid processes, sella turcica.

Sphenoid Bone

A ____________ fracture is produced by twisting stresses applied to the bone.

Spiral

The type of bone that is adapted to withstand stresses that arrive from many directions is _____ bone.

Spongy

Which type of bone does not contain capillaries, but receives nutrients through its canaliculi?

Spongy

Which type of bone reduces the weight of the skeleton and reduces the load on muscles?

Spongy

At what point does the clavicle articulate with the Manubrium

Sternum

Which bones include a manubrium?

Sternum

Describe the sternum including its components and surface features.

Sternum contains the manubrium, the jugular notch, the body and the xiphoid process.

Which type of bones are small oddly shaped bones that fill gaps between bones of the skull?

Sutural Bones

The mastoid process, petrous portion, internal acoustic meatus and mandibular fossa are all associated with which bone?

Temporal

The styloid process, zygomatic process and auditory ossicles are associated with which bone?

Temporal

The external acoustic meatus is a foramen in which skull bone?

Temporal bone

Almost 2/3 of the weight of bone consists of?

The Bone matrix, of which 65% is made up of calcium phosphate (hydroxyapatite)

Why is the inferior region of the shoulder joint most vulnerable to dislocation?

The anterior, superior, and posterior surfaces of the shoulder joint are reinforced by ligaments, muscles, and tendons, but the inferior capsule is poorly reinforced. As a result, a dislocation caused by an impact or a violent muscle contraction is most likely to occur at this site. Such a dislocation can tear the inferior capsular wall and the glenoid labrum.

Describe how the arches of the foot assist in weight distribution.

The arches absorb shock as weight distribution shifts during movements. The longitudinal arch absorbs most of the shock of steps, while the transverse arch distributes the weight evenly.

How would removing hydroxyapatite from bone matrix affect the physical properties of a bone?

The bone would be more flexible.

What occurs through the action of osteoclasts?

The breakdown of bone. AKA Osteolysis (cell splitting)

Which bones constitute the pectoral girdle

The clavicle and the scapula

Explain the movement and give good examples of the movement depression

The downward movement of structures of the body. Good example is opening the mouth

What structure allows a bone to grow in length?

The epiphyseal plates

Which joint consists of three separate articulations?

The knee. 1. the patellofemoral joint 2. the lateral tibiofemoral joint 3. the medial tibiofemoral joint

Compare the lumbar vertebrae to the other vertebrae regarding their size and their ability to articulate.

The lumbar are most massive and least mobile

Why are ruptured intervertebral discs more common in lumbar vertebrae and dislocations and fractures more common in cervical vertebrae?

The lumbar vertebrae have massive bodies and carry a lot of weight; these factors contribute to the rupturing of an intervertebral disc. The cervical vertebrae are more delicate and have small bodies; these factors increase the possibility of dislocations and fractures in the cervical vertebrae.

What is the relationship between the strength of a joint and the amount of movement allowed at that joint?

The more stability you have, the more ligaments you have and therefore have less mobility. The less stability you have the less ligaments you have and therefore have more mobility.

Write down all the facts you know about the structure and function of the coccyx, just like you did for the sacrum.

The most caudal vertebral region . Anchors a muscle that constricts the anal opening Consists of three to five coccygeal vertebrae Fusion is delayed until mid-20s

Why is it necessary for the bones of the pelvic girdle to be more massive than the bones of the pectoral girdle?

The pelvic girdle must withstand the load of bearing and moving the entire body whereas the pectoral girdle only supports the upper limbs.

If there were no paranasal sinuses, what would be the consequences?

The skull would be heavier. Stronger neck muscles would be required. Less mucus in the nasal cavity. A reduced ability to trap dust and particles.

A: Osteolysis- The recycling of compact bone

The structure labeled "3" is the result of which process?

When the triceps brachii muscle contracts, what movements does it produce?

The triceps brachii attaches to the olecranon process. Contraction of the triceps brachii muscle causes the ulna to rotate around the distal humerus, causing extension of the forearm.

What is the distinction between the false pelvis and the true pelvis?

The true pelvis encloses the pelvic cavity and its superior limit is a line that extends from either side of the base of the sacrum, along the arcuate line and pectineal line to the pubic symphysis. The false pelvis consists of the expanded, bladelike portions of each ilium superior to the pelvic brim.

Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female.

These include: an enlarged pelvic outlet, a broader pubic angle, less curvature on the sacrum and coccyx, wider and more circular pelvic inlet, a relatively broad pelvis that does not extend as far superiorly, and ilia that project farther laterally, but do not extend as far superior to the sacrum.

What is an osteocyte?

They are mature cells that maintain bone and are trapped in lacunae.

Describe the floating ribs

They make no connection (no articulation) with other ribs or the sternum. Protects the kidneys.

The four curves of the adult spinal column are not all present at birth. Name the primary curves, and the secondary curves and tell when the secondary curves appear and why.

Thoracic and sacral are primary curves and are present at birth. Cervical and lumbar appear later and are secondary curves.

The medial border of the fibula is bound to the _____ by the interosseous membrane.

Tibia

The medial bulge at your ankle is a projection from which bone?

Tibia

What is the function of the alveolar process of the mandible.

To support the lower teeth

Which bones are parts of the appendicular skeleton (list)? skull

Total of 126 bones: Left and right clavicles (2) Left and right scapulas (2) Left and right humerus (2) Left and right ulnas (2) Left and right radius (2) Left and right carpals (16) metacarpals (10) proximal phalanges (10), intermediate phalanges (8) distal phalanges (10) Left and right pelvic bones Left and right femur (2) patella (2) tibia (2) fibula (2) Left and right tarsals (14) metatarsals (10) proximal phalanges (10) intermediate phalanges (8) distal phalanges (10)

The matrix in spongy bone forms struts and arches is called?

Trabeculae

A fracture of the bone across its long axis is called a?

Transverse fracture

The large proximal projection on the femur is termed the?

Trochanter

A ________ is a smooth, grooved bone process shaped like a pulley.

Trochlea

A small rough bump on a bone where a tendon attaches is called a?

Tuberosity

Tell the characteristics of bone matrix...

Very dense and 1. Organic Component - Osteoid; contains collagen fibers and ground substance 2. Inorganic component- 65% hydroxyapatites (calcium and salts- calcium phosphate) Physical- very dense, has osteocytes, canaliculi, channels

Humerus

What bone articulates on the structure labeled 2

Frontal Bone

What is the name of the structure labeled "1"?

Foramen Rotundum

What is the name of the structure labeled "7"?

foramen ovale

What is the name of the structure labeled "8"?

Crista galli

What is the name of the structure labeled 4?

Secondary Ossification Center

What process is shown at "6"?

4- Meniscus

What structure acts as a cushion and consists of fibrocartilage?

Hyaline Cartilage

What type of tissue occurs at "1"?

articular cartilage

What type of tissue occurs at the structure labeled 3

8- Olecranon Fossa

When the arm is straight which structure accepts the olecranon?

3 - epiphyseal plate

Where does growth in length occur?

A: 5 (Spongy Bone)

Where in the figure (what #) would osteoclasts be most active?

5- Vertebral Foramen

Where is the spinal cord located?

6 - Sella Turcica

Which structure (#) encloses the pituitary gland?

5 Cribriform plate

Which structure (#) has the foramina for the olfactory nerves?

A: 5

Which structure (what #?) is characteristic of spongy bone?

5- Head

Which structure articulates with the acetabulum?

5- Head

Which structure articulates with the glenoid cavity?

6 - The Body

Which structure contacts the intervertebral disc?

A: 2 (One big round circle)

Which structure is termed an osteon?

5

Which structure is the acromion?

Capitulum - #3

With which structure (#) does the radius rotate?

Secondary ossification centers occur where?

Within the epiphyses

To settle a bet, you need to measure the length of your lower limb (head of femur to distal condyle of tibia). What landmarks would you use to make the measurement?

You could feel the inferior iliac notch, which is at the same level as the head of the femur. You could feel the medial malleolus of the tibia at the ankle.

Explain the movement and give good examples of flexion.

a bending movement around a joint in a limb (such as the knee or elbow) that decreases the angle between the bones of the limb at the joint. A good example is moving the hand toward the shoulder.

While playing softball, Gina is struck in the frontal squama by a wild pitch. What complaints would you expect her to have?

a headache

Premature closure of the sagittal suture would result in what skull shape?

a long and narrow head.

What is the name for a movement away from the midline of the body?

abduction

A rim of fibrocartilage in the joint cavity of the hip is called ______?

acetabular labrum

Which ligament connects the clavicle and the acromion?

acromioclavicular

The movement of rotating a limb toward the anterior surface of the body is called _______?

adduction

The odontoid process is found on what bone

aka dens on the axis

What is the name for a slightly movable joint?

amphiarthrosis

This soft fibrous membrane in an infant's skull located at the junction of the frontal, coronal, and sagittal sutures.

anterior fontanel

The location where two bones meet is called a joint or a(n) _____?

articulation

When production of sex hormones increases at puberty, epiphyseal plates....

become narrower

The central canal of an osteon contains?

blood vessels

During appositional bone growth, what occurs?

bones grow wider

Gesturing "no" with the head depends on the structure(s) of which cervical vertebrae?

both the atlas and the axis

Small pockets of synovial fluid that reduce friction and act as a shock absorber where ligaments and tendons rub against other tissues are called?

bursa

The Achilles tendon attaches to which anatomical structure?

calcaneus

Elevated levels of calcium ion in the blood stimulate the secretion of what hormone?

calcitonin (builds bone)

The bones that give the wrist a wide range of motion are the?

carpals

Endochondral Ossification begins with the formation of a(n)?

cartilage model

Which curves of the spine develop late in fetal development?

cervical and lumbar

The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is at what articulation? Where which bones articulate?

clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum

The ________ are S-shaped bones that articulate lateral to the jugular notch.

clavicles

The five vertebral regions are the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and _____________.

coccygeal

The radiocarpal joint is which type of joint?

condylar

The joints that connect the four fingers with the metacarpal bones are which type of joint?

condylar joints

As a result of an accident Bill suffers a dislocated jaw. This injury would involve what process of the mandible?

condylar process of the mandible

The occipital ________ are where the occipital bone articulates with the first cervical vertebra.

condyles

Two prominent features of the clavicle are the ______ at the distal end and the ________ tuberosity at the proximal end

conoid tubercle; costal

Which ligaments assist in stabilization of the shoulder joint?

coracoacromial and coracoclavicular ligaments

The frontal and parietal bones articulate at the ________ suture

coronal

The ligaments that limit the anterior-posterior movement of the femur and maintain the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles are the _______ ligaments.

cruciate

The surface feature present along the lateral border of the shaft of the humerus is the

deltoid tuberosity

The movement of a body part downward is called ______.

depression

A synovial joint is an example of which type of joint?

diarthrosis

What is the name for a freely movable joint?

diarthrosis

The weight of the body is supported by which bone(s) of the foot?

distal metacarpals and the calcaneus.

Lifting a stone with a tip of the foot is an example of which movement?

dorsiflexion

The movement of a body part upward is called ______.

elevation

Which movement would you associate with the chewing of food?

elevation

The lining of the medullary cavity is called the?

endosteum

Jack gets into a fight and is punched in the nose. Which bone is most likely fractured?

ethmoid bone

Name the bones that compose the nasal complex

ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, maxillary

A twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole of the foot outward is known as _____?

eversion

Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of?

facets for the articulation of ribs

What structures are distinctive features of thoracic vertebrae?

facets for the articulation of ribs

Usually found outside the capsule, ___________ protect the articular cartilage and act as packing material for the joint.

fat pads

Name (list) the accessory synovial structures.

fat pads menisci tendons bursae

The largest bone of the lower limb is the?

femur

The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the?

femur

Syndesmosis is to ligament as symphysis is to?

fibrous cartilage.

List and explain all of the movements that can occur at the intervertebral joints.

flexion rotation lateral flexion extension

Nodding your head "yes" is an example of what type of movement?

flexion and extension

Contraction of the muscle that is attached to the radial tuberosity results in what action on which body part?

flexion of the forearm

The movements known as dorsiflexion and plantar flexion involve moving which body parts?

foot

Identify the opening surrounded by the occipital bone

foramen magnum

Name the bones in which the paranasal sinuses are located

frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, maxillae

What condition is the result of excessive growth hormone prior to puberty?

giantism

The appendicular skeleton includes the bones of the upper and lower extremities and their supporting elements called?

girdles

The shoulder joint, or ______joint, permits the greatest range of motion in any joint.

glenohumeral

The scapula articulates with the humerus at its _______ cavity.

glenoid

The glenoid fossa is rimmed by the fibrocartilaginous ______.

glenoid labrum

The intercarpal articulations are which type of joint?

gliding

The joints between vertebrae are examples of which type of joints?

gliding

Which type of joint is found between the carpal bones?

gliding

Powerful hip muscles attach posteriorly to the femur along what structure?

gluteal lines

Which surface features along the ilium mark attachment sites for large hip muscles?

gluteal lines

Dense connective tissue is to a suture as a periodontal ligament is to_______.

gomphosis

The synarthrosis that binds the teeth to the bony sockets is called a?

gomphosis

Which surface features are located near the proximal end of the humerus?

greater tubercle, lesser tubercle, head, intertubercular groove

Tell the characteristics of the male pelvis that distinguish it from a female pelvis.

heavy, rough textured bone heart-shaped pelvic inlet angle of pubic arch LESS than 100 degrees relatively deep iliac fossa ilia extend far above sacrum

The ankle joint is an example of which type of joint?

hinge

The elbow joint is an example of what type of joint?

hinge

List all of the structural classifications of synovial joints

hinge gliding/plane saddle pivot ball and socket Condyloid joint/ellipsoidal joint

The largest and strongest articulation at the elbow is the?

humero-ulnar joint

An extension past the anatomical position is known as?

hyperextension

Extending a body part past anatomical position is called?

hyperextension

The superior border of the ilium that acts as a point of attachment for both ligaments and muscles is the?

iliac crest

The pelvic organs are mostly found within what fossa?

iliac fossa

Name all the ligaments associated with the hip joint.

iliofemoral ligament pubofemoral ligament ischiofemoral ligament ligamentum teres

The greater sciatic notch is a feature on which bone

ilium

The sacrum articulates with the?

ilium

Each coxal bone consists of the following three fused bones...

ilium, ischium, and pubis

Each one of the coxal bones is formed by the fusion of (how many)____ bones.

ilium, ischium, and pubis

Ridges that anchor muscles that stabilize the head are the?

inferior and superior nuchal lines

A common injury to the ankle occurs by excessive turning of the sole inward, termed_________.

inversion

When seated, the weight of the body is born by the?

ischial tuberosities

When cartilage is produced at the epiphyseal side of the metaphysis at the same rate as bone is deposited on the opposite side, what is happening regarding the bone?

its is growing longer

The internal jugular vein passes through the?

jugular foramen

Name the bones that compose the orbital complex

lacrimal, sphenoid, ethmoid, frontal

The vertebral arch is formed by the pedicles and what structure?

laminae

The girdles of the appendicular skeleton support the bones of the?

limbs

In compact bone how are the osteons orientated?

lined up in the same direction/parallel

When the epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone, what is the significance?

long bones have reached their adult length

The widest intervertebral discs are found in the ________ region.

lumbar

Name the leading cause of a herniated intervertebral disc.

lumbar disc herniation

A nerve that carries sensory information from the teeth and gums to the lower jaw passes through the _____?

mandibular foramen

Name the location where the lower jaw articulates with the temporal bone.

mandibular fossa

The part of the sternum that articulates with the clavicles is the?

manubrium

A point of attachment for muscles that rotate or extend the head is the?

mastoid process.

In the anatomical position, the ulna is located _____to the radius.

medially

______________ subdivide synovial cavities, channel the flow of synovial fluid and allow for variations in the shapes of the articular surfaces.

meniscus

The bones that form the palm are the?

metacarpals

Which structure carries tears to the nasal cavity?

nasolacrimal duct/lacrimal canal

Lateral to the coronoid process, the radial ________ accommodates the head of the radius in the radio-ulnar joint.

notch

The opening in the diaphysis through which blood vessels pass is named the __________ foramen.

nutrient

The pubic and ischial rami encircle the?

obturator foramen

Muscles that extend the elbow attach to the?

olecranon process

To pinch with a thumb and finger involves a movement called

opposition

The deposition of calcium salts in bone tissues is referred to as?

ossification

__________ is also known as degenerative joint disease.

osteoarthritis

The most abundant cell type in bone is?

osteocytes.

What is the difference between osteogenesis, ossification and calcification?

osteogenesis: bone formation ossification: replacing other tissue with bone calcification: depositing of calcium salts

The structural units of mature compact bone are called?

osteons

The pelvic ___________ is bordered by the coccyx, the ischial spines, and the inferior border of the pubic symphysis.

outlet

The bony roof of the mouth is formed by which bone?

palatine bone and the maxillary bone

The nasal complex includes the bones that enclose the nasal cavity and the _______ sinuses

paranasal

The cranium is formed by which (list) bones?

parietal (2) and temporal (2), frontal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid

The ligament that encloses the _________ attaches to the tibial tuberosity.

patella

The ligament that provides support to the front of the knee joint is the ______ ligament.

patellar

The space enclosed by the true pelvis called the ______?

pelvic inlet (or pelvic cavity)

The clearest distinction between a male and female skeleton is seen in the characteristics of which bones?

pelvis

The bony portion of the nasal septum is formed by what structures?

perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and vomer bone.

The bones that form the fingers are the?

phalanges

The hypophyseal fossa of the sella turcica contains the what/which gland?

pituitary

Which foot movement enables the ballerina to stand on her toes?

plantar flexion

The back of the knee joint is reinforced by ________ ligaments.

popliteal

You __________ your jaw when you grasp your upper lip with your lower teeth.

protract

The two pubic bones join medially at the _______.

pubic symphysis

A projection at an angle on a bone is termed a(n)?

ramus

How does lack of exercise affect bones?

result in porous and weak bones

__________ is a general term for pain and stiffness that affects the skeletal or muscular system.

rheumatism

Name all the parts of the pelvis

sacrum coccyx coxal bone pubic symphysis ilium ischium pubis features such as: rami (lots) obturator foramen

The joint between the trapezium and the metacarpal bone of the thumb is an example of which type of joint?

saddle

The three sides of this bone form a broad triangle.

scapula

The vertebra prominens is another name for which vertebra?

seventh cervical

What are all of the functions of synovial fluid?

shock absorption lubrication provides nutrients protects articular cartilages

Which joint in the human body permits the greatest range of mobility of any joint in the body

shoulder

List the factors that increase the stability of the hip joint.

strong muscular padding. tough capsule. almost complete bony socket. supporting ligaments

Name the ways in which joints can be classified structurally.

structure and function

They hyoid bone is suspended by what structures

stylohyoid ligaments

Ligaments that support the hyoid bone are attached to what structure?

styloid process

The ___ of the radius helps stabilize the wrist joint.

styloid process

Name all of the landmarks associated with the occipital bone

superficial nuchal lines, jugular foramen, hypoglossal canals, occipital crest

Successive vertebrae articulate at facets on the ______of the superior vertebra and facets on the _______ adjacent inferior vertebrae.

superior articular process

List the four major types of synarthrotic joints.

sutures, gomphoses, synchondroses and synostosis

A suture is an example of which type of joint?

synarthrosis

What is the name for an immovable joint?

synarthrosis

Structurally, the pubic symphysis is classified as a(n) _________ articulation.

synarthrotic

Which type of joint is a ligamentous connection such as an interosseous ligament?

syndesmosis

An epiphyseal line is an example of which type of joint?

synostosis

The distal end of the tibia articulates with the?

talus

What organ is located in the lacrimal fossa?

tear gland

The zygomatic bone articulates with the __________ to form the zygomatic arch.

temporal

The zygomatic arch is formed by the union of processes from which two bones?

temporal bone and zygomatic bone

While volunteering in an outpatient clinic for underprivileged families in your neighborhood, you observe the nurse assessing an infant. The mother had complained about the baby not eating and having several episodes of diarrhea lasting 3 days. You know the nurse suspects possible dehydration when she checks the anterior fontanel. What is she looking for to confirm her suspicion?

the anterior fontanel for depression

Sutures can be found at all of the joints of an adult skull, except where?

the mandible and the cranium

Why is the elbow joint considered to be extremely stable?

the ulna and humerus interlock

As you proceed from the head down the vertebral column, describe the changes in the size weight and changes in the shape of the vertebral foramen.

the vertebral bodies become relatively larger and heavier. Vertebral Foramen larger by cervical vertebra and smaller by lumbar Atlas - C1 Axis- C2 Dense Cervical- smaller, distinguished by transverse foramen, Vertebral Foramen:Triangle shape Thoracic- has articulations for ribs, heart shaped, long spinous bodies, Vertebral Foramen: Round Shape Lumbar- largest, more round, Vertebral Foramen: Squashed circle- suggests spinal cord compression Sacrum- large fused together

The ribs articulate with which vertebrae?

thoracic vertebrae

The medial surface of the knee joint is reinforced by the ________ ligament.

tibial collateral

Name the boundaries of the pelvic outlet?

tip of coccyx inferior margin of symphysis

The interconnecting tiny arches of bone tissue found in spongy bone are called?

trabeculae

The ribs articulate with the _____ of the vertebrae.

transverse processes

Which of the following movements is good examples of the movement supination? A) opening the mouth B) turning the hand palm upward C) extreme bending of the head backwards D) moving the hand toward the shoulder E) spreading the fingers

turning the hand palm upward

Name all the upper limb bones.

ulna radius humerus carpals metacarpals PMD-carpals

Which group(s) of bones is classified as "irregular" in shape?

vertebrae

The part of the vertebrae that transfers weight along the axis of the vertebral column is the?

vertebral body

lumbar vertebra

vertebral body is quite large (thick and oval in shape) as the lumbar vertebrae must support a large amount of weight. The spinous process is short and thick.

The inferior portion of the nasal septum is formed by the?

vomer

Tina falls and fractures her pisiform bone. Which part of her body was injured?

wrist