Chapter 9, 10, 11, 12 Quizzes

Which of the following patient responses would establish the "E" in the SAMPLE history? A) "I was mowing the lawn when the pain began." B) "The chest pain started about 45 minutes ago." C) "I was in the hospital a week ago." D) "I am not having any difficulty breathing."

A) "I was mowing the lawn when the pain began."

Which of the following statements regarding the metered-dose inhaler (MDI) is correct? A) An MDI delivers the same amount of medication every time it is used. B) Shaking an MDI prior to use will cause deactivation of the medication. C) MDIs are contraindicated for patients with asthma or emphysema. D) MDIs are most commonly used by patients with cardiovascular disease.

A) An MDI delivers the same amount of medication every time it is used.

Which of the following is an example of a brand (trade) name of a drug? A) Tylenol B) nitroglycerin C) furosemide D) ibuprofen

A) Tylenol

A decrease in the blood pressure may indicate: A) a loss of vascular tone. B) arterial constriction. C) increased blood volume. D) forceful cardiac contraction.

A) a loss of vascular tone.

While assisting a paramedic in the attempted resuscitation of a 55-year-old male in cardiac arrest, you should expect the paramedic to: A) administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect. B) give the patient nitroglycerin to increase his blood pressure. C) withhold drug therapy until an intraosseous catheter is in place. D) give the patient activated charcoal to rule out a drug overdose.

A) administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect.

The process of binding or sticking to a surface is called: A) adsorption. B) absorption. C) suspension. D) digestion.

A) adsorption.

A 62-year-old male presents with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin but states that he has not taken any. After administering 100% oxygen and contacting medical control, you should: A) assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg. B) begin immediate transport and request a rendezvous with a paramedic unit. C) administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin before assessing his blood pressure. D) administer the nitroglycerin unless he has taken Viagra within the past 72 hours.

A) assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg.

When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is MOST important to remember that: A) blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock. B) irreversible shock often responds well to a prompt blood transfusion. C) multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock. D) the patient's respirations are deep during the early stages of shock.

A) blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock.

When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is MOST important to remember that: A) blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock. B) multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock. C) irreversible shock often responds well to a prompt blood transfusion. D) the patient's respirations are deep during the early stages of shock.

A) blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock.

Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway? A) bronchus B) larynx C) oropharynx D) pharynx

A) bronchus

One of the primary waste products of normal cellular metabolism that must be removed from the body by the lungs is: A) carbon dioxide. B) lactic acid. C) carbon monoxide. D) pyruvic acid.

A) carbon dioxide.

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock? A) cardiac tamponade B) spinal cord injury C) simple pneumothorax D) liver laceration

A) cardiac tamponade

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epinephrine? A) decreases heart rate and blood pressure B) dilates passages in the lungs C) constricts blood vessels D) secreted naturally by the adrenal glands

A) decreases heart rate and blood pressure

Neurogenic shock occurs when: A) failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. B) the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging. C) there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container. D) massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury.

A) failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation.

In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by: A) hypothermia. B) hypovolemia. C) tachycardia. D) diaphoresis.

A) hypothermia.

Which of the following medication routes would be the MOST appropriate to use in an unconscious patient when intravenous access cannot be obtained? A) intraosseous (IO) B) transcutaneous C) subcutaneous D) intramuscular

A) intraosseous (IO)

A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a: A) nonrebreathing mask. B) nasal cannula. C) bag-mask device. D) mouth-to-mask device.

A) nonrebreathing mask.

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely cause the pupils to remain significantly constricted? A) overdose of an opiate drug B) severe cerebral hypoxia C) oculomotor nerve pressure D) intracranial hemorrhaging

A) overdose of an opiate drug

You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should: A) reassess his condition in 5 minutes. B) arrange for an ALS rendezvous. C) repeat your secondary assessment. D) take his vital signs in 15 minutes.

A) reassess his condition in 5 minutes.

A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should: A) reassess the patient and document her response to the medication. B) administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress. C) contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did. D) check the drug's expiration date to ensure that it is still current.

A) reassess the patient and document her response to the medication.

When the body senses a state of hypoperfusion, the sympathetic nervous system releases epinephrine, the effects of which include: A) tachycardia. B) restlessness. C) tachypnea. D) vasodilation.

A) tachycardia.

The "Golden Period" begins when an injury occurs and ends when: A) the patient receives definitive care. B) you depart the scene for the hospital. C) you arrive at the emergency department. D) the patient is admitted to the ICU.

A) the patient receives definitive care.

Reassessment is performed to determine all of the following, EXCEPT: A) the reason why the patient called EMS. B) the patient's response to your treatment. C) whether or not the patient is deteriorating. D) the nature of any newly identified problems.

A) the reason why the patient called EMS.

The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called: A) ventilation. B) diffusion. C) oxygenation. D) respiration.

A) ventilation.

While evaluating a patient with chest pain, your partner tells you that the patient's blood pressure is 140/94 mm Hg. The lower number represents the pressure from the: A) ventricles relaxing. B) ventricles contracting. C) atria relaxing. D) atria contracting.

A) ventricles relaxing.

When assessing motor function in a conscious patient's lower extremities, you should expect the patient to: A) wiggle his or her toes on command. B) feel you touching the extremity. C) note any changes in temperature. D) identify different types of stimuli.

A) wiggle his or her toes on command.

A 23-year-old male experienced severe head trauma after his motorcycle collided with an oncoming truck. He is unconscious, has rapid and shallow breathing, and has copious bloody secretions in his mouth. How should you manage his airway? A) Suction his oropharynx with a rigid catheter until all secretions are removed. B) Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilation. C) Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and provide suction and assisted ventilations. D) Provide continuous ventilations with a bag-mask device to minimize hypoxia.

B) Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilation.

Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct? A) Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure. B) Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire. C) Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position. D) Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment.

B) Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire.

Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct? A) A patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume. B) Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate. C) Patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation. D) The single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate.

B) Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate.

Which of the following statements regarding the epinephrine auto-injector is correct? A) The adult auto-injector delivers 0.5 to 1 mg of epinephrine. B) The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug. C) EMTs do not need physician authorization to use the auto-injector. D) The auto-injector delivers epinephrine via the subcutaneous route.

B) The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug.

Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by: A) surfactant-destroying organisms. B) adequate amounts of surfactant. C) water or blood within the alveoli. D) pulmonary capillary constriction.

B) adequate amounts of surfactant.

An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will: A) assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing. B) be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses. C) have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths/min. D) exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs.

B) be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses.

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock? A) simple pneumothorax B) cardiac tamponade C) liver laceration D) spinal cord injury

B) cardiac tamponade

When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes simvastatin (Vytorin) and clopidogrel (Plavix). This medication regimen suggests a history of: A) non-insulin-dependent diabetes. B) cardiovascular disease. C) reactive airway disease. D) bacterial infection.

B) cardiovascular disease.

Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia? A) tachycardia B) cyanosis C) anxiety D) restlessness

B) cyanosis

Cyanosis of the skin is caused by: A) peripheral vasodilation. B) decreased blood oxygen. C) venous vasoconstriction. D) increased blood oxygen.

B) decreased blood oxygen.

Upon arriving at a potentially unsafe scene, you should: A) request another ambulance. B) ensure that you are safe. C) remove all bystanders. D) move the patient to safety.

B) ensure that you are safe.`

Activated charcoal is frequently suspended in sorbitol, a complex sugar that: A) binds to any chemicals that are in the stomach. B) facilitates movement through the digestive system. C) significantly slows the process of digestion. D) disguises the unpleasant taste of the activated charcoal.

B) facilitates movement through the digestive system.

Which of the following is an example of a symptom? A) cyanosis B) headache C) hypertension D) tachycardia

B) headache

Shock is the result of: A) widespread constriction of the blood vessels. B) hypoperfusion to the cells of the body. C) temporary dysfunction of a major organ. D) the body's maintenance of homeostasis.

B) hypoperfusion to the cells of the body.

Tidal volume is defined as the volume of air that: A) is forced into the lungs as a result of positive pressure. B) moves into or out of the lungs in a single breath. C) is moved through the lungs in a single minute. D) remains in the lungs following a complete exhalation.

B) moves into or out of the lungs in a single breath.

A 59-year-old male presents with severe vomiting and diarrhea of 3 days' duration. He is confused and diaphoretic, and his radial pulses are absent. His blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg. After applying 100% supplemental oxygen, you should: A) perform a head-to-toe exam. B) prepare for immediate transport. C) allow him to drink plain water. D) obtain a repeat blood pressure in 5 minutes.

B) prepare for immediate transport.

A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival? A) application of the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) B) rapid transport to a trauma center C) full immobilization of her spine D) 100% oxygen administration

B) rapid transport to a trauma center

When given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain, nitroglycerin: A) constricts the veins throughout the body. B) relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries. C) increases myocardial contraction force. D) increases blood return to the right atrium.

B) relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries.

A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should: A) insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block. B) remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. C) continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx. D) select a smaller oropharyngeal airway and attempt to insert it.

B) remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx.

After performing a head tilt-chin lift maneuver to open the airway of an unresponsive patient, you should: A) place him or her in the recovery position. B) suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct. C) provide positive-pressure ventilatory assistance. D) assess respiratory rate, depth, and regularity.

B) suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct.

During a 30-minute transport of a stable patient, you should reassess him or her at least ________ times. A) 3 B) 4 C) 2 D) 6

C) 2

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called: A) agonal respirations. B) ataxic respirations. C) Cheyne-Stokes respirations. D) eupneic respirations.

C) Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems? A) It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung tissue. B) It prevents alveolar collapse by pushing air into the lungs during the inhalation phase. C) It forces the alveoli open and pushes more oxygen across the alveolar membrane. D) It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for the lungs to expand.

C) It forces the alveoli open and pushes more oxygen across the alveolar membrane.

Which of the following statements regarding positive-pressure ventilation is correct? A) Positive-pressure ventilation allows blood to naturally be pulled back to the heart from the body. B) To prevent hypotension, the EMT should increase the rate and force of positive-pressure ventilation. C) With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing. D) Unlike negative-pressure ventilation, positive-pressure ventilation does not affect the esophageal opening pressure.

C) With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing.

Which of the following patients is in decompensated shock? A) a 28-year-old female with pale skin and rapid, shallow respirations B) a 23-year-old restless male with cool, clammy skin and tachycardia C) a 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils D) a 32-year-old male with anxiety and a systolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg

C) a 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils

The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the: A) apex of the lung. B) bronchioles. C) alveolar sacs. D) pulmonary capillaries.

C) alveolar sacs.

A 37-year-old male is found unconscious in his car. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and labored. As you and your partner are assessing and treating the patient, a police officer hands you a medication named Alupent, which he found in the backseat of the patient's car. This medication suggests that the patient has a history of: A) heart disease. B) hypertension. C) asthma. D) allergic reactions.

C) asthma.

When palpating the carotid pulse of a responsive older patient, you should: A) avoid gentle pressure so that weak pulses can be detected. B) firmly compress the artery because the pulse is often weak. C) avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously. D) ensure that his or her head is in a hyperextended position.

C) avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously.

Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: A) anaphylactic shock. B) septic shock. C) cardiogenic shock. D) neurogenic shock.

C) cardiogenic shock.

When treating an 80-year-old patient who is in shock, it is important to remember that: A) compensation from the respiratory system usually manifests with increased tidal volume. B) the older patient's central nervous system usually reacts more briskly to compensate for shock. C) changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting. D) medications older patients take for hypertension often cause an unusually fast heart rate.

C) changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting.

The MOST significant complication associated with oropharyngeal suctioning is: A) oral abrasions from vigorous suctioning. B) vomiting from stimulating the anterior airway. C) hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts. D) clogging of the catheter with thick secretions.

C) hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts.

The goal of the primary assessment is to: A) determine if the patient's problem is medical or trauma. B) determine the need to perform a head-to-toe assessment. C) identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions. D) identify patients that require transport to a trauma center.

C) identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions

A drug is contraindicated for a patient when it: A) is used to treat a multitude of conditions. B) is used to treat a specific medical condition. C) may cause harm or have no positive effect. D) produces actions other than the desired ones.

C) may cause harm or have no positive effect.

In ___________ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner. A) EMT-administered B) patient-assisted C) peer-assisted D) paramedic-administered

C) peer-assisted

Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: A) whole blood. B) platelets. C) plasma. D) red blood cells.

C) plasma.

Central chemoreceptors located in the medulla provide feedback to increase the rate and depth of breathing when they sense: A) decreased levels of oxygen in the blood and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. B) increased levels of oxygen in the blood and a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. C) slight elevations in carbon dioxide or a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. D) slight decreases in carbon dioxide and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

C) slight elevations in carbon dioxide or a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

The nasal cannula is MOST appropriately used in the prehospital setting: A) if long-term supplemental oxygen administration is required. B) when the patient breathes primarily through his or her mouth. C) when the patient cannot tolerate a nonrebreathing mask. D) if the patient's nasopharynx is obstructed by secretions.

C) when the patient cannot tolerate a nonrebreathing mask.

At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to: A) 24%. B) 52%. C) 35%. D) 44%.

D) 44%.

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? A) Glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic. B) Glucose is a complex sugar that rapidly absorbs into the bloodstream. C) Glucose is usually administered by the EMT via the intravenous route. D) Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream.

D) Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream.

Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct? A) A significant MOI always results in patient death or permanent disability. B) The exact location of a patient's injuries can be determined by the MOI. C) A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma. D) The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries.

D) The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries.

Palliating factors regarding a patient's pain involve those that: A) worsen the pain. B) initiate the pain. C) change the pain. D) alleviate the pain.

D) alleviate the pain.

When perfusion to the core of the body decreases: A) blood is diverted to the gastrointestinal tract. B) the voluntary nervous system releases hormones. C) decreased cardiac contractility occurs. D) blood is shunted away from the skin.

D) blood is shunted away from the skin.

You are dispatched to a movie theater for a 39-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction. As you are assessing her, she pulls an epinephrine auto-injector out of her purse and hands it to you. After administering 100% oxygen, you should: A) check the drug's expiration date. B) administer the drug. C) verify the medication name. D) contact medical control.

D) contact medical control.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to: A) advise her that she needs to go to the hospital. B) provide emotional support regarding her sister. C) obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history. D) determine if she was injured when she fainted.

D) determine if she was injured when she fainted.

A patient with profuse sweating is referred to as being: A) edematous. B) plethoric. C) flushed. D) diaphoretic.

D) diaphoretic.

Which of the following medication routes has the slowest rate of absorption? A) inhalation B) sublingual C) rectal D) oral

D) oral

Shortly after assisting a 65-year-old female with her prescribed nitroglycerin, she begins complaining of dizziness and experiences a drop of 30 mm Hg in her systolic blood pressure. The patient remains conscious and her breathing is adequate. You should: A) wait 5 minutes and reassess her blood pressure. B) assist ventilations with a bag-mask device. C) transport her in a sitting position. D) place her supine and elevate her legs.

D) place her supine and elevate her legs.

A 50-year-old male presents with an altered mental status. His wife tells you that he had a "small stroke" 3 years ago but has otherwise been in good health. The patient is responsive but unable to follow commands. After administering oxygen, you should: A) inquire about his family history. B) perform a head-to-toe assessment. C) repeat the primary assessment. D) prepare for immediate transport.

D) prepare for immediate transport.

You are ventilating a 40-year-old uninjured man who is apneic but has a pulse. When your partner reassesses his blood pressure, he notes that it has decreased significantly from previous readings. You elevate the patient's legs, but this action has no effect. You should: A) perform a head-to-toe assessment to look for bleeding. B) increase the volume of your ventilations and reassess his blood pressure. C) ensure that you are delivering one breath every 3 to 5 seconds. D) reevaluate the rate and volume of your ventilations.

D) reevaluate the rate and volume of your ventilations.