Chapter 9
74) (Refer to Area 2 in Figure 22 .) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions?
122.8 MHz
75) (Refer to Area 2 in Figure 22 .) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
122.8 MHz
76) (Refer to Area 2 in Figure 22 .) What is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur D'Alene to request fuel?
122.8 MHz
77) (Refer to Area 2.) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is
122.9 MHz
70) (Refer to Area 4.) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is
123.0 MHz
68) (Refer to Area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is
126.0 MHz
67) (Refer to Area 3.) If Dallas Executive Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
127.25 MHz
14) With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,
18,000 feet MSL.
15) Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than
2,000 feet AGL.
32) (Refer to Area 8.) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area southwest of Dallas Executive?
3,549 feet MSL
60) (Refer to Area 3.) The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 010° radial is
454 feet MSL
1) (Refer to Area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport.
47.33'N-116.11'W (Shoshone County Airport is below 3, just west of the 116° line of longitude. There are 60 min. between the 116° line and the 117° line, depicted in 1-min. tick marks. Shoshone is 11 tick marks (11 min.) past the 116° line. Find the labeled 48° latitude line just northeast of the 116° line. The latitude and longitude lines are presented each 30 min. Since lines of latitude are also divided into 1 min. tick marks, the airport is three tick marks above the 47°30' line or 47°33'N. The correct latitude and longitude is thus 47°33'N - 116°11'W.)
99) Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)?
Chart Supplement and Distant (D) NOTAM's
41) (Refer to east of Area 5.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is
Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL
88) Where is Loup City Municipal located with relation to the city?
Northwest approximately 1 mile
83) According to the Chart Supplement, what times can a pilot obtain fuel and services in September at Toledo Express (TOL) Airport?
0800 - 0000 hr. local time
58) (Refer to Area 3.) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?
1,548 feet MSL
31) (Refer to Area 7.) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to
2,900 feet MSL
27) What is the base of Class B airspace at Lakeview (30F) Airport (Area 2)?
3,000
8) (Refer to Area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport.
36.24'N-76.01'W
3) (Refer to Area 2.) What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport?
47.25'N-98.06'W
54) A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?
Class D
9) (Refer to Area 6.) The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace?
Class E
4) (Refer to Area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47° 41 minutes 00 seconds N latitude and 101° 36 minutes 00 seconds W longitude?
Fischer
78) Weather information is available at the Coeur d'Alene (COE) Airport (Area 2)
from AWOS 3 135.075
93) If the SSV Class of VORTAC is listed as a Terminal Class, the altitudes and distance to adequately receive the signal of the VORTAC is
1,000 feet to 12,000 feet and 25 NM
25) (Refer to Area 1.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet?
1,273 feet MSL
26) (Refer to Area 2.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet?
1,403 feet MSL
7) At Sioux Gateway/Col Day (N42°24.16' W96°23.06'), which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions when the control tower is closed?
118.7 MHz (CTAF)
71) (Refer to Area 5.) What is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport?
122.8 MHz
59) (Refer to Area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?
1,300 feet MSL
66) As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of
10 miles
40) (Refer to Area 3.) When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than
2,000 feet AGL
42) (Refer to Area 2.) What kind of airport is Deshler (6D7)?
A public airport with a runway that is not a hard surface
16) The terrain elevation of the light tan (light colored) area between Minot (Area 1) and Audubon Lake (Area 2) varies from
2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL. (The tan area indicates terrain between 2,000 ft. and 3,000 ft. The elevation contours on sectionals vary by 500 ft. increments. The 2,000 ft. contour line is located where the color changes from light green to light tan. Since there is no other contour line in the light tan area, the terrain elevation is between 2,000 ft. and 2,500 ft. MSL. Also, Poleschook Airport (halfway between 1 and 2) indicates an elevation above MSL of 2,245.)
51) (Refer to Area 1.) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace?
2,901 feet MSL
13) Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?
Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue
20) What must a pilot do or be aware of when transitioning an Alert Area?
Be aware that the area may contain unusual aeronautical activity or high volume of pilot training
21) (Refer to Area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet AGL are
3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud
37) (Refer to Area 2.) Identify the airspace over Bryn Airport.
Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace -- 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL
18) What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted
17) (Refer to Area 3.) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644?
IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 Knots.
35) The Devils Lake East MOA (Area 1) is a
Military operations area
82) FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?
70
44) The controlled airspace located at the Corpus Christi VORTAC (Area 5) begins at
700 feet AGL
80) FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic and General Operating Rules are issued under which subject number?
90
91) What is the acronym for a computerized command response system that provides automated weather, radio check capability, and airport advisory information selected from an automated menu by microphone clicks?
AUNICOM
30) (Refer to Area 3.) The floor of Class B airspace at Dallas Executive Airport is
3,000 feet MSL
47) An aircraft takes off from Gnoss Airport (Area 4) and flies southeast 25.4 NM to Buchanan Airport. What maximum elevation figure would assure obstruction clearance during the flight?
3,200 feet MSL
33) (Refer to Area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is
4,000 feet MSL
69) (Refer to Area 2.) What is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport?
Broadcast intention when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz
95) You are preflight planning in the morning before an afternoon flight. Where would you find information regarding an "Airport surface hot spot?"
In the Chart Supplements U.S.
5) (Refer to Area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°34'30"N latitude and 100°43'00"W longitude?
Makeeff
97) When information is disseminated about a taxiway closure, it will be located in
NOTAM (D) distribution
52) The airspace surrounding the Gila Bend AF AUX Airport (GXF) (Area 6) is classified as Class
D
29) At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized?
Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field
43) (Refer to Area 3.) What is the airspace classification around Findlay (FDY) airport?
E (A magenta dashed line surrounding an airport identifies it as Class E airspace that extends to the surface. The presence of this dashed magenta line indicates that this airport offers a precision instrument approach.)
45) When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Bishop Airport (Area 4) to McCampbell Airport (Area 1) at an altitude of 2,000 feet MSL?
Entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace
84) When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with
Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz
2) Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?
Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles
11) (Refer to Area 1.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?
Mode C transponder and two-way radio
86) Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal?
Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts
73) (Refer to Area 3.) What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport?
Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern
49) (Refer to Area 6.) Sky Way Airport is
a nonpublic-use airport
48) (Refer to Area 1.) Dubey Airport is
a privately owned airport restricted to use.
96) To avoid landing at the wrong airport or runway, pilots should
consult airport diagrams and Chart Supplements
79) FAA advisory circulars are available to all pilots and are obtained by
downloading them from the FAA website
23) (Refer to Area 1.) For information about the parachute jumping at Caddo Mills Airport, refer to
the Airport/Facility Directory section of the Chart Supplement
57) (Refer to Area 3.) For information about glider operations at Ridgeland Airport, refer to
the Chart Supplement
85) Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are
to the left on Runway 14 and Runway 32; to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35
63) (Refer to Area 2.) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a
visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control
61) The flag symbols at Statesboro Bulloch County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are
visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace
56) What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day?
1 statute mile, clear of clouds
12) (Refer to Area 2.) The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is
19 feet
38) (Refer to Area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are
3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud
28) (Refer to Area 4.) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is
Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL
39) (Refer to Area 3.) Identify the airspace over Sprague Airport.
Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace -- 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL
94) According to the Chart Supplement, what are the operational requirements of a VORTAC?
Collocated VOR and TACAN navigational facilities
36) (Refer to Area 2.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?
Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers
64) Which public use airport depicted is indicated as having fuel?
Minot International (Area 1)
87) What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation?
Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz
90) Refer to Crawford Airport (N38°42.25' W107°38.62'). What is the traffic pattern for Runway 25?
Right hand traffic pattern
65) Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?
Rockwall (Area 1) and Sulphur Springs (Area 5)
46) When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Gnoss Airport (DVO) (Area 4) to Livermore Airport (LVK) (Area 5) at an altitude of 3,500 ft. MSL ? When entering
The Livermore Airport Class D airspace.
22) (Refer to Area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are
1,00 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.
81) FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?
60
92) What depicts a Class E airspace that begins at 700 feet AGL?
A magenta vignette that goes around an airport
72) (Refer to Area 3.) What is the recommended communications procedure for departure at Currituck County Airport?
Broadcast intentions prior to taxi and announcing runway of departure
24) Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the
Chart Supplement
19) Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has
received prior authorization from the controlling agency
98) What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedures (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication.
62) (Refer to Area 5.) The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?
Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet MSL
10) (Refer to Area 4.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302A?
Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles
34) (Refer to Area 5.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a
VOR/DME
6) (Refer to Area 3.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°21'N latitude and 101°01'W longitude?
Washburn
53) What is the dotted outlined area northeast of Gila Bend Airport, near Area 3?
Wilderness area
55) Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?
With the controlling agency's authorization
89) Refer to Crawford Airport (N38°42.25' W107°38.62'). Is fuel ever available at Crawford Airport?
Yes, 100LL fuel is available for emergency use only
50) (Refer to Area 6.) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of
both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL
