Chapter 9: Patient Assessment

Which of the following patients does NOT have signs of an altered mental status? (a) A patient with an acute allergic reaction and dizziness (b) A diabetic who opens his eyes when you ask questions (c) A patient with a head injury who is slow to answer questions (d) A patient who overdosed and moans when he is touched

(a) A patient with an acute allergic reaction and dizziness

What is the primary purpose of standard precautions? (a) Infection prevention (b) Ensuring scene safety (c) Determining communication standards (d) Streamlining incident command

(a) Infection prevention

In what phase of patient assessment do you determine MOI/NOI? (a) Scene size-up (b) Primary assessment (c) History taking (d) Secondary assessment

(a) Scene size-up

The MOST effective way to determine whether your patient's problem is medical or traumatic in origin is to: (a) perform a careful and thorough assessment. (b) establish the patient's medical history early. (c) take note of the patient's general appearance. (d) ask if bystanders are familiar with the patient.

(a) perform a careful and thorough assessment.

The normal respiratory rate for an adult should range from: (a) 10 to 12 breaths per minute. (b) 12 to 20 breaths per minute. (c) 18 to 24 breaths per minute. (d) 24 to 28 breaths per minute.

(b) 12 to 20 breaths per minute.

The goal of oxygenation for most patients is an oxygen saturation of: (a) 100% (b) 94% to 99% (c) 90% to 94% (d) 88% to 90%

(b) 94% to 99%

Which of the following devices would you use to measure a patient's ventilation, circulation, and metabolism? (a) Pulse oximetry (b) Capnography (c) Blood glucometry (d) Sphygmomanometer

(b) Capnography

When responding to a 45-year-old man involved in a motorcycle accident who is unresponsive, where should you palpate for a pulse? (a) Radial pulse (b) Carotid pulse (c) Brachial pulse (d) Femoral pulse

(b) Carotid pulse

Which of the following is an example of a symptom? (a) Cyanosis (b) Headache (c) Tachycardia (d) Hypertension

(b) Headache

At what point in the patient assessment process do you investigate the chief complaint? (a) Primary assessment (b) History taking (c) Secondary assessment (d) Reassessment

(b) History taking

You respond to a home where a 25-year-old woman is lying in bed. She is semiconscious but opens her eyes when you speak to her, and is lethargic. How do you rate her on the AVPU scale? (a) Awake and alert (b) Responsive to verbal stimuli (c) Responsive to pain (d) Unresponsive

(b) Responsive to verbal stimuli

What is the purpose of the primary assessment? (a) To evaluate the conditions in which you are operating (b) To identify and begin to treat immediate life threats (c) To perform a systematic physical examination (d) To identify and treat changes in a patient's condition

(b) To identify and begin to treat immediate life threats

When is it MOST appropriate to consider requesting additional ambulances at an accident scene? (a) After you have triaged all the critical patients (b) When you determine there are multiple patients (c) After noncritical patients have been identified (d) When all the deceased patients are accounted for

(b) When you determine there are multiple patients

While en route to the scene of a shooting, the dispatcher advises you that the caller states that the perpetrator has fled the scene. You should: (a) ask the dispatcher if he or she knows the location of the perpetrator. (b) confirm this information with law enforcement personnel at the scene. (c) request law enforcement personnel if the scene is unsafe upon arrival. (d) proceed to the scene as usual but exercise extreme caution upon arrival.

(b) confirm this information with law enforcement personnel at the scene.

When evaluating a patient with multiple complaints, the EMT's responsibility is to: (a) direct his or her attention to the most obvious signs and symptoms. (b) determine which complaint poses the greatest threat to the patient's life. (c) definitively rule out serious causes of each of the patient's complaints. (d) assess each complaint based on the patient's perception of its seriousness.

(b) determine which complaint poses the greatest threat to the patient's life.

The pulse oximeter is an assessment tool used to evaluate the: (a) percentage of red blood cells. (b) effectiveness of oxygenation. (c) saturation level of venous blood. (d) amount of exhaled carbon dioxide.

(b) effectiveness of oxygenation.

In infants and small children, skin color should be assessed on the: (a) forehead. (b) palms and soles. (c) chest and abdomen. (d) underside of the arms.

(b) palms and soles.

During the primary assessment, circulation is evaluated by assessing: (a) skin quality, blood pressure, and capillary refill. (b) pulse quality, external bleeding, and skin condition. (c) blood pressure, pulse rate, and external bleeding. (d) external bleeding, skin condition, and capillary refill.

(b) pulse quality, external bleeding, and skin condition.

For which of the following patients is spinal immobilization clearly indicated? (a) Woman who fell from a standing position and has a deformed shoulder (b) Man with an arrow impaled in his leg and no pulse distal to the injury (c) Man who was struck in the head and is now confused and has slurred speech (d) Woman in a minor motor-vehicle collision who complains of severe knee pain

(c) Man who was struck in the head and is now confused and has slurred speech

__________ is used for asking questions about pain. (a) SAMPLE (b) ABC (c) OPQRST (d) Pertinent negative

(c) OPQRST

What is the first concern when entering a scene? (a) ABCs (b) Physical assessment (c) Scene safety (d) Vital signs

(c) Scene safety

When treating a 6-year-old, you note a brassy crowing sound, especially when she breathes in. What is this? (a) Crackle (b) Snoring (c) Stridor (d) Wheezing

(c) Stridor

Which of the following terms would be used to describe the patient's pulse rate of 140 beats/min? (a) Bradycardia (b) Dyspnea (c) Tachycardia (d) Tachypnea

(c) Tachycardia

You are assessing a patient who fell off a ladder. He is conscious and alert and complaining of pain to his right side and shortness of breath. This is known as ________. (a) The mechanism of injury (b) The nature of illness (c) The chief complaint (d) A sign

(c) The chief complaint

Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct? (a) If your general impression of a patient does not reveal any obvious life threats, you should proceed directly to the secondary assessment. (b) The purpose of the secondary assessment is to systematically examine every patient from head to toe, regardless of the severity of his or her injury. (c) You may not have time to perform a secondary assessment if you must continually manage life threats that were identified during the primary assessment. (d) A focused secondary assessment would be the most appropriate approach for a patient who experienced significant trauma to multiple body systems.

(c) You may not have time to perform a secondary assessment if you must continually manage life threats that were identified during the primary assessment.

A 50-year-old male is found unconscious in his car. There were no witnesses to the event. When gathering medical history information for this patient, the EMT should: (a) wait for family members to arrive before asking any questions. (b) defer SAMPLE history questions until you arrive at the hospital. (c) determine if the patient has a medical alert bracelet or wallet card. (d) ask law enforcement officials if they are familiar with the patient.

(c) determine if the patient has a medical alert bracelet or wallet card.

During your assessment of a 6-month-old male with vomiting and diarrhea, you note that his capillary refill time is approximately 4 seconds. From this information, you should conclude that the infant's: (a) respiratory status is adequate. (b) systolic blood pressure is normal. (c) peripheral circulation is decreased. (d) skin temperature is abnormally cold.

(c) peripheral circulation is decreased.

When performing a reassessment of your patient, you should first: (a) obtain updated vital signs. (b) reassess your interventions. (c) repeat the primary assessment. (d) confirm medical history findings.

(c) repeat the primary assessment.

What is a pertinent negative? (a) A negative finding that requires further care and/or intervention (b) A negative finding that requires advanced life support (c) A negative finding that implies another condition may be present (d) A negative finding that requires no further care or intervention

(d) A negative finding that requires no further care or intervention

Which of the following pupillary changes would indicate depressed brain function? (a) Both pupils dilate when a bright light is removed. (b) Both pupils constrict when a bright light is introduced. (c) Both pupils react briskly to light instead of sluggishly. (d) Both pupils dilate with introduction of a bright light.

(d) Both pupils dilate with introduction of a bright light.

In an adult patient, a pulse rate that is greater than 100 beats/min is described as ________. (a) Bradycardia (b) Hypertension (c) Hypotension (d) Tachycardia

(d) Tachycardia

The goal of the primary assessment is to: (a) determine if the patient's problem is medical or traumatic. (b) identify patients that require transport to a trauma center. (c) determine the need to perform a head-to-toe assessment. (d) identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions.

(d) identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions.

You respond to a call for a female pedestrian who has been struck by a car. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a primary assessment. She is unconscious, has ineffective breathing, and has bloody secretions in her mouth. You should: (a) assist her breathing with a bag-valve mask. (b) quickly insert an oropharyngeal airway. (c) assess the rate and quality of her pulse. (d) immediately suction her oropharynx.

(d) immediately suction her oropharynx.

True or false: Wheezing is a harsh, high-pitched breath sound, generally heard during inspiration, that is caused by partial blockage or narrowing of the upper airway.

False. Stridor is a harsh, high-pitched breath sound, generally heard during inspiration, that is caused by partial blockage or narrowing of the upper airway. Wheezing is a high-pitched, whistling breath sound that is most prominent on expiration, and which suggests an obstruction or narrowing of the lower airways.

True or false: Tidal volume is a measure of the amount of air that is moved into or out of the lungs in one minute.

False. Tidal volume is a measure of the amount of air that is moved into or out of the lungs during one breath.

True or false: Counting respirations is most easily done by counting each peak chest rise.

True

True or false: Inhalation and exhalation times occur in a 1:3 ratio; the active inhalation phase lasts one-third the amount of time of the passive exhalation phase.

True

A patient in unstable condition should be reassessed at least every: (a) 5 minutes. (b) 10 minutes. (c) 15 minutes. (d) 20 minutes.

(a) 5 minutes.