Chp 19 Review

When will someone infected with HIV have the most viral particles in his or her blood? When the patient dies 1 to 2 months after the initial infection 1 year after the initial infection 3 to 4 years after the initial infection

1 to 2 months after the initial infection

Donor Recipient 1. AB, Rh- AB, Rh+ 2. A, Rh+ A, Rh- 3. A, Rh+ O, Rh+ 4. B, Rh- B, Rh+ 5. B, Rh+ A, Rh+ Which blood transfusions in Table 19.1 are incompatible? A) 2 and 5 B) 1, 2, and 3 C) 2, 3, and 5 D) 3 and 4 E) 1 and 2

2, 3, and 5

Herceptin is an example of which of the following? A monoclonal antibody used to treat breast cancer A treatment to prevent rejection of organ or tissue transplants A cancer vaccine A treatment for autoimmune diseases

A monoclonal antibody used to treat breast cancer

Which of the following is a possible outcome of an HIV infection? A) Virions may remain latent. B) There may be persistent yeast infections. C) Infection may initially be asymptomatic. D) The disease does not progress to AIDS. E) All of the answers are correct

All of the answers are correct

Which of the following describes a cytotoxic autoimmune reaction? A) Antibodies react to cell-surface antigens. B) Antibodies are not made. C) Cells are killed. D) Immune complexes form. E) Mediate by T cells.

Antibodies react to cell-surface antigens.

A healthy immune system destroys cancer cells with A) tumor-specific antigens. B) CTLs. C) CTLs and activated macrophages. D) activated macrophages. E) CD+ T cells.

CTLs and activated macrophages

Which of the following diseases is most likely to be similar to AIDS in terms of the specific immunodeficiency? X-linked infantile agammaglobulinemia DiGeorge syndrome Common variable hypogammaglobulinemia Selective IgA deficiency Severe combined immunodeficiency

DiGeorge syndrome

All of the following lead to drug-induced thrombocytopenic purpura. Which occurs first? A) Antibodies and complement react with platelets. B) Antibodies against haptens are formed. C) Drug binds to platelets. D) Platelets are destroyed. E) Purpura occurs on the skin

Drug binds to the platelets

In immune complex reaction shown in Figure 19.1, what is the end result of the reaction? A) IgG is directed against cell membrane antigens. B) Complement is activated. C) Neutrophils are attracted and release enzymes. D) Endothelial cells are damaged. E) Antibodies destroy neutrophils

Endothelial cells are damaged

All hypersensitivities involve antibody-antigen reactions

False

Skin tests are reliable indicators for the diagnosis of food-related allergies.

False

Vaccines against HIV have proven to be very effective in halting the spread of disease

False

Xenotransplantation is an effective alternative to using isografts.

False

Which of the following statements about type IV reactions is FALSE? A) Reactions are primarily due to T cell proliferation. B) Reactions are not apparent for a day or more. C) Cytokines initiate tissue damage. D) Allergic contact dermatitis is an example. E) Hemolytic disease of the newborn is an example

Hemolytic disease of the newborn is an example

Anaphylaxis is the term for reactions caused when certain antigens combine with A) IgE antibodies. B) macrophages. C) IgG antibodies. D) complement. E) histamine.

IgE antibodies

The desensitization injections for allergy treatments are aimed at producing __________. IgG IgA IgM IgD IgE

IgG

Which is NOT a mechanism used in anti-HIV drugs? Blocking reverse transcriptase Inhibition of HIV integrase Inhibition of cell-wall synthesis Blocking viral fusion Protease inhibition

Inhibition of cell-wall synthesis Fusion/entry, reverse transcriptase, integrase, and protease inhibitors are the common types of available drugs.

What is the importance of the human leukocyte antigen (HLA) complex? It controls production of molecules involved in self-recognition. It is destroyed by HIV infection. It controls production of antibodies. It is targeted by immunosuppressive therapy.

It controls production of molecules involved in self-recognition.

Which is true regarding Herceptin therapy? A) It neutralizes the growth factor EGF. B) It acts as an immunotoxin to target and kill cancer cells. C) It is used to treat some breast cancer patients. D) It is a vaccine to prevent the development of cancer. E) It is an endotoxin that stimulates TNF by macrophages

It is used to treat some breast cancer patients.

Although maternal-fetal incompatibilities are possible in the ABO blood group, the incidence of adverse reactions in the fetus or newborn is far less common than in the case of Rh incompatibilities. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? The A and B antigens are not expressed on fetal red blood cells. Antibody production is greatly reduced during pregnancy. Maternal anti-A and anti-B antibodies typically do not cross the placenta. Maternal antibodies are destroyed when they enter fetal circulation. YOU WERE UNSURE AND INCORRECT Blocking antibodies exist in the fetal circulation.

Maternal anti-A and anti-B antibodies typically do not cross the placenta.

Which of the following descriptions does NOT match the autoimmune disease it is paired with? Graves' disease: the thyroid gland is stimulated by abnormal antibodies and becomes hyperactive Psoriasis: IgE antibodies cause release of histamines in the skin, resulting in itchiness and red patches Myasthenia gravis: antibodies coat acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions, causing muscle weakness and eventually leading to death Rheumatoid arthritis: immune complexes accumulate in joints, causing joint damage and pain

Psoriasis: IgE antibodies cause release of histamines in the skin, resulting in itchiness and red patches

Which of the following could be predicted for an individual with a mutation in the gene encoding CCR5? Inability to produce antibodies Inability to produce cytokines Inability to be stimulated by interleukin-1 Inability to interact with macrophages and dendritic cells during antigen presentation Resistance to HIV infection

Resistance to HIV infection

Hemolytic disease of the newborn can result from an A) Rh+ mother with an Rh- fetus. B) Rh- mother with an Rh+ fetus. C) AB mother with a B fetus. D) AB mother with an O fetus. E) Rh- mother and an A fetus.

Rh- mother with an Rh+ fetus.

Following an organ transplant, therapeutic immunosuppression to prevent organ rejection may be accomplished by any of the following EXCEPT __________. chimeric monoclonal antibodies cyclosporine RhoGAM blocking IL-2 suppression of cell-mediated immunity

RhoGAM

Which of the following is/are NOT targeted by current AIDS treatments? Viral protease Ribosomes Gp120 Reverse transcriptase

Ribosomes

HIV spikes attach to CD4+ receptors found on A) T helper cells. B) macrophages. C) dendritic cells. D) T helper cells and macrophages. E) T helper cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells.

T helper cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells

What causes the rapid decline in the HIV population in the blood 3 to 6 months after the initial infection? New viruses are not being released from the T cells. The patient begins to make antibodies against HIV. Neither of the listed choices is correct. Both of the listed choices are correct.

The patient begins to make antibodies against HIV.

Which of the following statements about human embryonic stem cells is TRUE? A) They are obtained in great numbers from umbilical cords of newborns. B) They express no MHC II antigens. C) They are pluripotent. D) They are typically obtained from the zygote stage of embryonic development. E) They are pluripotent and typically obtained from the blastocyst stage of embryonic development.

They are pluripotent and typically obtained from the blastocyst stage of embryonic development.

Which of the following predictions can be made regarding the immune responses of individuals with AIDS? They produce good immune responses against fungal pathogens. They cannot make any antibody. They can only make antibody in response to T-dependent antigens. They can make antibody in response to T-independent antigens. They produce good immune responses against protozoan pathogens.

They can make antibody in response to T-independent antigens.

Which of the following statements about type I reactions is FALSE? A) They involve helper T cells. B) They involve IgE antibodies. C) The symptoms are due to histamine. D) Antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. E) The symptoms occur soon after exposure to an antigen.

They involve helper T cells.

Autoimmune diseases occur when the immune system is unable to discriminate "self" from "nonself."

True

HIV attack of CD4+ T cells causes suppression of both cell-mediated and humoral immune responses

True

Individuals who do not express CCR5 are highly resistant to infection by HIV

True

In the serological method for tissue typing, if human cells expressing HLA-I are mixed with anti-HLA-I, complement, and trypan blue, what would indicate the cells are HLA-I? A) Enzyme is released from neutrophils. B) Cells are damaged by complement. C) Trypan blue enters the cells. D) Anti-HLA antibodies bind to HLAs on lymphocytes. E) None of the answers are correct; the T cells are missing.

Trypan blue enters the cells

Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type B, Rh+? A) anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh B) anti-A, anti-Rh C) anti-A D) anti-B, anti-Rh E) anti-B

anti-A

In immune complex reaction shown in Figure 19.1, what is the small, circular/spherical structure labeled "a"? A) antibody B) antigen C) complement D) neutrophil E) mast cell

antigen

The process of desensitization to prevent allergies involves the injection of increasing amounts of A) IgE. B) IgG. C) antihistamine. D) antigen. E) RhoGAM.

antigen

Desensitization involves injection of A) antigens. B) IgG antibodies. C) IgE antibodies. D) antihistamine. E) histamine.

antigens

Which of the following is the least likely vaccine against HIV? A) attenuated virus B) glycoprotein C) protein core D) subunit E) All of these vaccines are equally likely.

attenuated virus

Immunodeficiencies are a result of all of the following EXCEPT A) HIV infection. B) cyclosporine. C) DiGeorge syndrome. D) Hodgkin's disease. E) autoimmune diseases

autoimmune diseases

Graft-versus-host disease will most likely be a complication of a(n) A) skin graft. B) bone marrow transplant. C) blood transfusion. D) Rh incompatibility between mother and fetus. E) corneal transplant.

bone marrow transplant

) The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to A) destruction of the antigen. B) complement activation. C) phagocytosis. D) antibodies against self. E) cytokines.

complement activation

Rheumatoid arthritis is due to deposition of A) IgG and IgA complexes in joints. B) IgA antibodies in joints. C) IgD and IgE complexes in joints. D) complement in joints. E) complexes of IgM and IgG and also complement in joints

complexes of IgM and IgG and also complement in joints

Symptoms of delayed cell-mediated reactions are due to A) IgE antibodies. B) neutrophils. C) cytokines. D) IgG antibodies. E) antigens.

cytokines

A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of A) delayed cell-mediated immunity. B) autoimmunity. C) acute contact dermatitis. D) psoriasis. E) innate immunity

delayed cell-mediated immunity.

Chemotherapy to inhibit the progression of HIV infection utilizes all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT A) termination of viral DNA. B) inhibition of viral proteases. C) blockage of viral attachment. D) prohibition of viral integration into host cell DNA. E) destruction of viral ribosomes.

destruction of viral ribosomes.

During the asymptomatic phase I of HIV disease, HIV infection is diagnosed by A) detecting viral RNA. B) detecting antibodies against HIV. C) counting CD4+ T cells. D) counting CD8+ T cells. E) the Western blot test.

detecting viral RNA

All stem cells are derived from embryonic stem cells.

false

Immune complexes cause tissue damage by __________. causing a drop in blood pressure fixing complement causing T cells to destroy host cells releasing cyclosporine

fixing complement Immune complexes form only when certain ratios of antigen and antibody occur. The antibodies involved are usually IgG. A significant excess of antibody leads to the formation of complement-fixing complexes that are rapidly removed from the body by phagocytosis.

The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are A) found in basophils and mast cells. B) antibodies. C) antigens. D) antigen-antibody complexes. E) the proteins of the complement system.

found in basophils and mast cells.

Attachment of HIV to the target cell depends on A) gp120 combining with the CD4+ receptor. B) gp120 combining with the chemokine receptor CCR5. C) gp41 binding to the CD4+ receptor. D) gp120 binding to the CD4+ plasma membrane. E) CXCR4 binding to the CD4+ receptor

gp120 combining with the CD4+ receptor

Worldwide, the primary method of transmission of HIV is A) heterosexual intercourse. B) homosexual intercourse. C) intravenous drug use. D) blood transfusions. E) nosocomial.

heterosexual intercourse

In rheumatoid arthritis, IgM, IgG, and complement deposit in joints. This is an example of A) cytotoxic autoimmunity. B) immune complex autoimmunity. C) cell-mediated autoimmunity. D) immunosuppression. E) acquired immunodeficiency.

immune complex autoimmunity.

Treatment with certain drugs to reduce transplant rejection can cause A) immunologic enhancement. B) immunologic surveillance. C) immunotherapy. D) immunosuppression. E) autoimmunity

immunosuppression.

Which of the following utilizes a combination of monoclonal antitumor antibody and immunotoxin? A) immunologic enhancement B) immunologic surveillance C) immunotherapy D) immunosuppression E) immune complex

immunotherapy

All of the following are true of hypersensitivity EXCEPT A) it occurs in the presence of an antigen. B) it is synonymous with "allergy." C) it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time. D) it is due to an altered immune response. E) it requires previous exposure to an antigen

it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time.

In hemolytic disease of the newborn, fetal red blood cells are targeted for destruction by __________. fetal IgG antibodies maternal IgG antibodies maternal IgE antibodies fetal IgE antibodies maternal IgM antibodies

maternal IgG antibodies

The number of T cells drops to below 200 cells/microliter in which phase of HIV infection? A) phase 1 B) phase 2 C) phase 3 D) initial phase E) asymptomatic phase

phase 3

An HIV-positive patient with fewer than 200 CD4+ T cells per microliter and Pneumocystis pneumonia would be diagnosed with __________. phase 2 HIV infection phase 3 HIV infection incubation phase phase 1 HIV infection

phase 3 HIV infection

HIV can remain latent in the host cell by integrating its reverse-transcriptase-produced DNA into the host chromosome, becoming a(n) __________. virion prophage provirus prion antivirus

provirus

HIV can evade host antibodies by A) remaining an inactive provirus. B) causing cell-to-cell fusion. C) remaining an inactive provirus, causing cell to cell fusion, and virions remaining latent in vacuoles. D) lowering the CD4+ cell count. E) virions remaining latent in vacuoles.

remaining an inactive provirus, causing cell to cell fusion, and virions remaining latent in vacuoles.

Allergic contact dermatitis is due to A) sensitized T cells. B) IgG antibodies. C) IgE antibodies. D) IgM antibodies. E) activated macrophages.

sensitized T cells

Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis? A) hay fever B) asthma C) shock D) hives E) immunodeficiency

shock

Which of the following regions has the greatest distribution of HIV infection and AIDS in the world? A) North America B) Eastern Europe and Central Asia C) South and Southeast Asia D) sub-Saharan Africa E) Latin America

sub-Saharan Africa

All of the following pertain to serological tests EXCEPT A) they can detect antibodies but not antigens. B) they can be used to diagnose various diseases. C) reactions can be detected by uptake of trypan blue by damaged cells. D) they are used to test for specific HLAs on lymphocytes. E) they are used to detect compatible tissues for transplantation

they can detect antibodies but not antigens

All of the following regarding "immune privileged sites" are true EXCEPT A) they include corneal and brain tissue. B) they do not have lymphatic vessels. C) they are rarely rejected. D) they include any tissue transplanted from a pig. E) they explain how animals tolerate pregnancies without rejecting the fetus

they include any tissue transplanted from a pig.

All of the following are considered examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT A) asthma. B) dust allergies. C) penicillin allergic reactions. D) pollen allergies. E) transplant rejections.

transplant rejections

A hypersensitivity reaction refers to immune responses to antigens beyond what would be normal

true

Cancer is similar to an infectious disease in that it is due to a failure of the body's defenses

true

HIV is believed to have arisen by mutation of a virus endemic to wild animals in Africa

true

Glomerulonephritis is a condition that occurs as a result of __________. type III hypersensitivity type II hypersensitivity cell-mediated autoimmunity type I hypersensitivity

type III hypersensitivity

All of the following are reasons why an HIV vaccine has not been developed EXCEPT A) there is no known animal model of natural immunity for HIV infection. B) use of a weakened virus would potentially transmit the infection. C) small, inexpensive animals which could be used for HIV vaccine research are not available. D) vaccines are not effective against viral infections. E) HIV has a high mutation rate so one vaccination would not be effective to treat the world-wide pandemic.

vaccines are not effective against viral infections.

When testing donated blood for compatibility you would find a person with O type blood A) has O type antigens on their red blood cells. B) will lack plasma antibodies to A and B type antigens. C) will lack A and B red blood cell antigens. D) lacks HLA and MHC antigens. E) will have anti-O antibodies in their plasma

will lack A and B red blood cell antigens

Which of the following types of transplant is least compatible? A) autograft B) allograft C) isograft D) xenotransplant E) All of these types of transplant are equally compatible

xenotransplant