Cloud Computing
For what purposes does the IoT often use cloud technologies? Choose TWO. a. Communication b. Compute c. Virtualization d. Storage
a. Communication d. Storage
Which tier is most protected? a. Data tier b. Presentation tier c. Subnet tier d. Logic tier
a. Data tier
Which resource might you use to quickly determine how to respond to a physical security breach? a. Call tree b. Chain of custody c. DR kit d. Playbook
d. Playbook
Multitenancy enables what cloud characteristic? a. Rapid elasticity b. Broad network access c. On-demand self-service d. Resource pooling
d. Resource pooling
Which of the following terms is used to describe a cloud service model in which both the CSP and a user have different responsibilities over resources? a. Secondary Responsibility b. Split Responsibility c. Single Responsibility d. Shared Responsibility
d. Shared Responsibility
What is the highest level of normalization that you can achieve with a database?
6NF - Sixth Normal Form
You have a version control system installed. Several developers work with this system. A new developer wants to work on the code. What is the first task that the developer must perform?
Check out the existing code
In which type of software environment are you most likely to find Microsoft Visual Studio and Eclipse?
Development
Which of the following loop runs until a statement becomes true?
Until loop
Which of the following statements is true for the scalability of a system?
You can add more resources to the system to gain optimal application performance
Which of the following things need to be considered from a business need perspective when building networking infrastructure in the cloud?(Choose all that apply). a Subnetting b Sizing c Administration / Upkeep d Routing
a Subnetting b Sizing d Routing
When enabling Dynamic Memory in Hyper-V private cloud environments, what is the maximum amount of RAM supported by Hyper-V? a. 1,048,576MB b. 104,857MB c. 10,48 MB d. 1043MB
a. 1,048,576MB
What is the benefit of utilizing a VPC in a public cloud environment instead of physical networking hardware in a private infrastructure? a. A single management console b. Networking speeds are generally faster c. No SPOF concerns d. No requirement for networking specialists to develop the infrastructure
a. A single management console
As you're developing your hybrid cloud, you move a handful of servers and two applications to the cloud. Both applications need to communicate with a database that will remain on-prem. What technology will allow the applications to communicate with the database without human intervention? a. API b. CLI c. GUI d. VPN
a. API
Which of the following models applies to multiple VMs hosted by a single server or host device? a. Affinity b. Anti-Affinity
a. Affinity
You work as a software developer and require early access to an operating system's updates so you can recode your application before OS updates are released to the public. Which OS channel are you most likely getting access to? a. Dev b. Beta c. Stable d. Canary
a. Dev
When migrating storage you must consider which of the following?(Choose all at apply). a. Fees b. Time c. Amount of Data d. Connection
a. Fees b. Time c. Amount of Data d. Connection
Which of the following types of hardware components would you consider the most important when it came to dealing with visually demanding processes? a. GPU b. Applications c. Memory d. CPU
a. GPU
Which of the following acronyms refers to a brokerage service that can be deployed to assist with integration in a cloud environment? a. ICSB b. CISB c. ACSB d. CASB
a. ICSB
Which of the following statements best describes containers? a. It is a virtualized application that shares an OS with other virtualized applications. b. Scaling more instances. c. How much data we can move over a network at one time. d. It is how fast we can read and write data.
a. It is a virtualized application that shares an OS with other virtualized applications.
Which of the follwing is a virtualization technology used to virtualize physical devices and resources, such as creating a virtual machine or virtual switch? a. Microsoft Hyper-V b. Azure c. Docker d. AWS
a. Microsoft Hyper-V
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a cloud-within-a-cloud deployment model? a. Minimal cost b. Seamless migration c. Platform familiarity d. Unlimited scalability
a. Minimal cost
What CSP cost-saving strategy can you overcome by using a dedicated host? a. Oversubscription b. High availability c. Tenancy d. Overcommitmen
a. Oversubscription
Microsoft Hyper-V application has the ability to virtualize a virtual switch. a. Physical and virtual networking devices. b. The hypervisor for storage resources c. Virtual networking devices only on the same host d. Only Physical devices
a. Physical and virtual networking devices.
Which of the following is the first stage of Incident Response planning? a. Preparation b. Identification c. Containment d. Eradication
a. Preparation
For the device used in this module, 2.60GHz is the computer's what? a. Processor clock speed b. Processor cache c. Radio frequency d. Processor storage size
a. Processor clock speed
You've just deployed an update to an HR application that is widely used throughout your company. Which type of testing should you conduct to ensure your scheduling and shift planning software has not been adversely affected by the HR application update? a. Regression testing b. Usability testing c. Progressive testing d. Beta testing
a. Regression testing
When performing Containment, Eradication and Recovery for any threat, it is important that you perform which of the following? a. Regular evidence captures b. Immediately take the offending resource offline. c. immediately bring down the entire infrastructure to avoid further damage d. Make decisions that you feel would remedy the situation quickly
a. Regular evidence captures
Which technology enables a CPU core to function as two threads? a. SMT b. Affinity c. Elasticity d. IPC
a. SMT
Which document might require an NDA before you can read it? a. SOC 2 ISO/IEC 27001 c. SAS 70 d. SSAE 18
a. SOC 2
Which of the following statements best describes Vertical scaling? a. Scaling an instance's resources. b. How much data we can move over a network at one time. c. Scaling more instances d. It is how fast we can read and write data.
a. Scaling an instance's resources.
What is the name of the AWS device that can be shipped to you so you can load your data onto and then ship back to AWS? a. Snowball b. Time Machine c. Bucket d. Snowcone
a. Snowball
Which of the following types of cloud environments would apply to an infrastructure built to allow change testing before pushing updates? a. Staging b. Blue-Green c. Development d. Production
a. Staging
Which of the following functions most like a typical operating system? a. Type 1 hypervisor b. Type 2 hypervisor c. Kubernetes d. Docker
a. Type 1 hypervisor
What does the term VoIP stand for? a. Voice over Internet Protocol b. Voice over Instant Process c. Vital open Information Packet d. Virtual open Internet Protocol
a. Voice over Internet Protocol
During which step of the troubleshooting process should you back up data? a. While identifying the problem b. While testing your theory as to the probable cause c. While establishing a plan of action d. While verifying full system functionality
a. While identifying the problem
Which of the following actions does the Virtual Network Gateway perform? a. a bridge connecting workloads b. Filter dividing workloads c. Firewall scanning workloads d. Monitor logging workloads
a. a bridge connecting workloads
For proper escalation and knowledge-sharing of an incident as and when it occurs, which of the following is an imperative document that should be accessible by the whole response team? a. call tree b. Monitoring Plan c. Company Directory d. Legal Documentation
a. call tree
Which of the following tools used to create a VHD file were created by Microsoft? a. disk2vhd b. disk2iso c. disk2vdi d. disk2hd
a. disk2vhd
Which of the following is the primary purpose of a load balancer? a. evenly distribute the workloads across various resources. b. Logs the current work load being processed c. Balances Azure resources to ensure desired state configuration is maintained
a. evenly distribute the workloads across various resources.
Which of the following types of infrastructure is at a higher risk of oversubscription? a. public b. private
a. public
True or false: When planning for capacity, you can utilize standard templates to set out baseline expectations. a. true b. false
a. true
Which of the following types of file can be used to install an operating system such as Ubuntu? a. .peb b. .iso c. .image d. .exe
b. .iso
Which is largest? a. 1 GB b. 1 GiB c. 1 MB d. 1 MiB
b. 1 GiB
Which of the following is a legitimate CIDR block for a subnet? Choose TWO. a. 172.300.7.0/25 b. 192.168.168.0/10 c. 192.168.4.0/24 d. 10.10.10.0/33
b. 192.168.168.0/10 c. 192.168.4.0/24
In terms of incident response planning, what does the term Tabletop refer to? a. A theoretical training session on different threats b. A scenario-based training exercise c. A planning phase in which the entire response plan is scoped d. An online suite of courses that aim to emulate real-world environments
b. A scenario-based training exercise
Which of the following applications are only provided as part of the Business Premium Microsoft 365 subscription?(Choose all at apply). a. Intune b. Azure Information Protection c. Outlook d. Access
b. Azure Information Protection a. Intune
The Azure Cloud Shell console supports which of the following languages? a. C++ b. Bash c. Python d. Java e. All of the above
b. Bash
Which of the following capacity requirements should you consider when planning an infrastructure?(Choose all that apply). a. User Experience b. Hardware c. Sofware d. Business Needs.
b. Hardware c. Sofware d. Business Needs.
Which of the following virtualization tools can be installed using Server Manager in Windows Server operating systems? a. VirtualBox b. Hyper-V Manager c. VMWare ESXi d. Ubuntu
b. Hyper-V Manager
During which incident response phase are backup systems activated? a. Post-incident b. Identification c. Investigation d. Recovery
b. Identification
Why might you NOT want to use an LTS release of an application? a. Increased integrity b. Lack of updates c. Increased consistency over time d. Early access
b. Lack of updates
Will you have to create a new store each time you access Azure Cloud Shell? a. No, this process only needs to be configured once for Bash and then once for PowerShell b. No, this is a one-time process and will be automatically attached for all future sessions. c. Yes, this process will be initiated after each login to an Azure subscription d. Yes, the Azure cloud shell is a temporary resource used to manage Azure resources
b. No, this is a one-time process and will be automatically attached for all future sessions.
Which driver type will most likely provide the most functionality for a device? a. Vendor b. Open source c. Pass-through d. Generic
b. Open source
When you speak to Alexa, you initiate the processing of code that runs in the cloud without creating a new server to do so. Which cloud service model most likely provides the service that processes this code? a. IaaS b. PaaS c. DBaaS d. SaaS
b. PaaS
What factor is improved by SR-IOV? a. Security b. Performance c. Availability d. Adaptability
b. Performance
Which of the following testing techniques measures the functionality of an infrastructure once updates have been applied? a. Functional testing b. Regression testing c. Usability testing d. Performance testing
b. Regression testing
Which rule would ensure two VMs are always hosted on different physical machines? a. Required affinity rule b. Required anti-affinity rule c. Preferred anti-affinity rule d. Preferred affinity rule
b. Required anti-affinity rule
Which of the following would be considered communication tools? a. Oracle Identity Management b. Slack c. OneDrive d. Monday
b. Slack
Which of the following terms best describes the Hub and Spoke approach? a. Mesh network b. Star network c. Ring Network
b. Star network
Enabling Dynamic Memory on a Virtual machine in Hyper-V Manager allows the hypervisor to do what? a. Reserves a maximum amount of memory only accessible by the configured VM b. This allows the Hypervisor to artificially expand the memory pool by using or reclaiming unused memory assigned to the hosted virtual machines. c. Increases the virtual machines' priority when allocating memory
b. This allows the Hypervisor to artificially expand the memory pool by using or reclaiming unused memory assigned to the hosted virtual machines.
A larger delta results in reduced data _________________. a. security b. integrity c. latency d. connectivity
b. integrity
What resource can provide file access to several containers over a long period of time? a. Image repository b. Secrets file c. Microservice d. Persistent storage
d. Persistent storage
Which of the following scenarios would you consider a Single Point of Failure?(Choose all that apply). a. A Public Cloud infrastructure that does not have sufficient disaster recovery and is stored only on one AZ b. Business-critical software that runs as part of an infrastructure that has not been updated and is vulnerable to security flaws c. A Hypervisor that hosts a single business-critical VM that has no failover planning d. A Hypervisor that hosts many different devices that runs on an unsupported legacy Operating System
c. A Hypervisor that hosts a single business-critical VM that has no failover planning d. A Hypervisor that hosts many different devices that runs on an unsupported legacy Operating System a. A Public Cloud infrastructure that does not have sufficient disaster recovery and is stored only on one AZ b. Business-critical software that runs as part of an infrastructure that has not been updated and is vulnerable to security flaws
D. The baseline fetal heart rate is >160 with no accelerations or variability. There are regular contractions. Prolonged periods of fetal tachycardia are frequently found with maternal fever or chorioamnionitis. a. CPU b. Application Response Time c. Active SSH connections d. Memory
c. Active SSH connections
Which of the following scenarios describes a Serverless infrastructure? a. A server that has been built in a Public Cloud subscription b. A network of millions of devices that provide services and data via the internet c. An infrastructure that aims to take general management and maintenance of servers away from users d. An architecture that does not use any servers to store data
c. An infrastructure that aims to take general management and maintenance of servers away from users
Which technique enables a client service to adjust its rate of requests to accommodate service overload? a. Rate limiting b. Container orchestration c. Concurrency control d. Hard-coded memory limitations
c. Concurrency control
What type of migration would support the transition of an application from a VM instance to a container instance? a. VM migration b. Storage migration c. Cross-service migration d. Online migration
c. Cross-service migration
Which of the following is the final stage of incident response planning? a. eradication b. Recovery c. Follow-up d. Investigation
c. Follow-up
Which of the following concepts is ensured by redundant routers and switches? a. VPC b. AZ c. HA d. SDN
c. HA
What kind of service do you need to store and access container images? a. Persistent storage volume b. Microservice c. Hypervisor c. Hypervisor
c. Hypervisor
Your company transitions a dozen servers to the cloud instead of purchasing several new servers to replace aging equipment. The monthly cost of these cloud-hosted servers that can grow with the business is significantly lower than the anticipated cost of purchasing new hardware that would have, at first, greatly exceeded the current needs of the business. What feature of the cloud has your company taken advantage of? a. Broad network access b. Multitenancy c. Measured service d. Cross-platform compatibility
c. Measured service
From which of the following can the Azure Cloud Shell console be accessed from? a. It can be accessed by typing $Home///cloudDrive in the web browser search bar b. Through the portal menu located at the top left corner of the navigation pane c. On the navigation pane at the top of the screen, click on the Cloud Shell icon, located to the right of the Search bar. d. By typing PowerShell on the navigation pane at the top of the screen
c. On the navigation pane at the top of the screen, click on the Cloud Shell icon, located to the right of the Search bar.
To deploy a series of test environments in the cloud, you want a script that will design and configure several servers, some network infrastructure, and firewall rules. What process will produce the script you need? a. Multitenancy b. Self-healing infrastructure c. Orchestration d. Automation
c. Orchestration
How do you change applicable routes in an Azure VNet? a. Edit system routes. b. Create a new VNet with different system routes. c. Override system routes with custom routes. d. Delete system routes.
c. Override system routes with custom routes.
Which of the following types of service model would apply to SQL databases created in a public cloud environment? a. Infrastucture as a Service (IaaS) b. On-Premises c. Platform as a Service (PaaS) d. Software as a Service (SaaS)
c. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Which document can ensure you will receive compensation if your company's Internet service has an extended outage? a. GDPR b. HIPAA c. SLA d. NDA
c. SLA
Which of the following statements are true for Service Level Agreements in a cloud environment?(Choose all that apply). a. SLAs specify which types of remedial options are available if a product or service fails to achieve targets b. SLAs provide targets for overall performance of products and services c. SLAs provide CSP commitments for products and services d. SLAs aim to prevent downtime of servers 100% of the time for all resources
c. SLAs provide CSP commitments for products and services b. SLAs provide targets for overall performance of products and services a. SLAs specify which types of remedial options are available if a product or service fails to achieve targets
Which technology is used to improve vNIC performance? a. RFC 1918 b. NFV c. SR-IOV d. SDDC
c. SR-IOV
Which of the following statements best describes Horizontal scaling? a. Scaling an instance's resources b. How much data we can move over a network at one time. c. Scaling more instances. d. It is how fast we can read and write data.
c. Scaling more instances.
Which of the following service model leaves full responsibility for all resources and services with the provider? a. On-Premises b. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) c. Software as a Service (SaaS) d. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
c. Software as a Service (SaaS)
Which of the following are created when migrating a database? a. block b. VDI c. dump d. VHD
c. dump
Can a subnet can be created without a virtual network? a. Yes, Subnets are created on NICs and only need a VM association b. No, Subnets cannot be created they are all generated by Azure c. Yes, Subnets are small independent virtual networks d. No, Subnets are smaller segments of a virtual network
d. No, Subnets are smaller segments of a virtual network
Which of the following defines a Virtual Network Manager? a. peering enables you to seamlessly connect two or more Virtual Networks in Azure Subscription b. connects your on-premises networks to Azure through Site-to-Site c. management service that enables you to manage virtual networks across subscriptions in a central location. d. provide control over network traffic flowing in and out of services running in Azure.
c. management service that enables you to manage virtual networks across subscriptions in a central location.
Which of the following default address ranges is generated when creating a new virtual network? a. 192.168.0.0/24 b. 172.16.0.0/25 c. 100.0.0.0/24 d. 10.0.0.0/16
d. 10.0.0.0/16
Which IP address belongs within the CIDR block 172.25.1.0/23? a. 172.25.0.254 b. 192.25.1.100 c. 192.24.1.0 d. 172.25.2.10
d. 172.25.2.10
Which of the following tools can assist in remediating replication issues in private cloud environments? a. MMC b. Amazon Simple Storage c. Azure NSGs d. Active Directory
d. Active Directory
Which of the following is the name of the image files that Amazon AWS uses for virtual machines? a. Virtual Hard Disk (VHD) b. disk2vhd c. Virtual Disk Image (VDI) d. Amazon Machine Image (AMI)
d. Amazon Machine Image (AMI)
In the context of analyzing trends, which of the following terms refers to the basic or average level of the consumption of resources at any one time? a. Standard b. Examplar. c. Guideline d. Baseline
d. Baseline
Where does an AWS VM instance find its OS files? a. SAN b. AMI c. Template d. Boot volume
d. Boot volume
What kind of expense is the purchase of a new firewall device? a. OpEx b. Shadow c. Standard d. CapEx
d. CapEx
Which of the following functionalities can Microsoft Teams provide a business?Consider all options that are available when utilizing this tool.(Choose all at apply). a. Communications b. Storage c. VDI d. Collaborative
d. Collaborative a. Communications b. Storage
Which of the following forms of license agreement refers to billing based on the utilization of a CPU or VCPU? a. Socket-based b. Subscription services c. Volume-based d. Core-based
d. Core-based
You're moving your application server from AWS Lightsail to AWS EC2. What kind of migration is this? a. Cloud migration b. Database migration c. Storage migration d. Cross-service migration
d. Cross-service migration
What type of cloud network traffic incurs fees? a. Traffic between two VMs in the same VPC b. Ingress traffic to a storage bucket c. Traffic between two VMs in the same subnet d. Egress traffic from a database
d. Egress traffic from a database
Which of the following tools in Hyper-V can be used to replicate a VM? a. Copy b. Duplicate c. Redeploy d. Export
d. Export
A load balancer requires which of the following components to be configured? a. Backend pools b. VM c. All of the above d. Frontend IP e. Virtual network and subnet
d. Frontend IP a. Backend pools e. Virtual network and subnet
Which cloud platform's VPC or VNet can extend beyond a single region? a. VMware b. Azure c. AWS d. GCP
d. GCP
Which of the following configurations would be considered CPU oversubscribed? a. Host machine has 4 coresVM1 assigned 2 coresVM2 assigned 2 cores b. Host machine has 6 coresVM1 assigned 3 coresVM2 assigned 1 coreVM3 assigned 1 core c. Host machine has 4 coresVM1 assigned 2 coresVM2 assigned 2 coresVM3 assigned 2 cores d. Host machine has 4 coresVM1 assigned 2 coresVM2 assigned 4 coresVM3 assigned 1 core
d. Host machine has 4 coresVM1 assigned 2 coresVM2 assigned 4 coresVM3 assigned 1 core c. Host machine has 4 coresVM1 assigned 2 coresVM2 assigned 2 coresVM3 assigned 2 cores
Which of the following statements best describes Bandwidth? a. Scaling an instance's resources. b. It is a virtualized application that shares an OS with other virtualized applications. c. It is how fast we can read and write data. d. How much data we can move over a network at one time.
d. How much data we can move over a network at one time.
Which of the following refers to the speed at which resources communicate with other resources on a network? a. Bandwith Speed b. Latency Speed c. O/I Speed d. I/O Speed
d. I/O Speed
Which of the following types of service model best applies to VDI? a. STaaS b. PaaS c. SaaS d. IaaS
d. IaaS
Which of the following statements best describes IOPS? a. How much data we can move over a network at one time. b. Scaling more instances. c. Scaling more instances. d. It is how fast we can read and write data.
d. It is how fast we can read and write data.
Which channel would provide the most stable release of an application to be deployed in a branch office with minimal technical staff? a. Canary b. Stable c. Beta d. LTS
d. LTS
Which cloud stack layer corresponds to IaaS services? a. Virtualization layer b. Image layer c. Physical layer d. Network layer
d. Network layer