Combo with "Comptia Network+: The Basics and The OSI model" and 19 others

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anycast

An anycast communication flow is a one-to-nearest (from the perspective of a router's routing table) flow.

Runt

An erroneously shortened packet.

Which of the following features will a firewall MOST likely use to detect and prevent malicious traffic on the network? A. Zone filtering B. Signature identification C. Port identification D. Port scanner

B

Which of the following firewall rules will block destination telnet traffic to any host with the source IP address 1.1.1.2/24? A. Deny any source host on source port 23 to destination any B. Deny any source network 1.1.1.0/24 to destination any on port 23 C. Deny source host 1.1.12 on source port 23 to destination any D. Deny any source network 1.1.1.0/24 with source port 23 to destination any

B

Which of the following is the minimum subnet mask to allow 172.16.1.5 and 172.16.4.3 to be on the same subnet? A. /19 B. /21 C. /22 D. /24

B

Which of the following is the radio frequency and data rate for 802.11g as specified by the IEEE standards? A. 2.0 GHz at 33 Mbps B. 2.4 GHz at 54 Mbps C. 2.4 GHz at 128 Mbps D. 5.0 GHz at 54 Mbps

B

Which of the following protocols is MOST commonly used for the transfer of router configuration files? A. SSL B. TFTP C. DNS D. IMAP

B

Which of the following protocols is used to provide secure authentication and encryption over non- secure networks? A. RADIUS B. TLS C. PPTP D. HTTP

B

Which of the following protocols resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses? A. DNS B. ARP C. RARP D. NTP

B

Which of the following technologies is used on cellular networks? A. Ethernet B. CDMA C. CSMA/CA D. POTS

B

Which of the following would be used on a network to ensure access to resources if a critical host becomes unavailable? A. QoS B. CARP C. VLAN D. DHCP server

B

Which of the following would the telecommunications carrier use to segregate customer traffic over long fiber links? A. VLAN B. MPLS C. VPN D. PSTN

B

Which wireless standard works at a MAXIMUM data rate of up to 11Mbps? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.1q

B

A customer is implementing a VoIP infrastructure using an existing network. The customer currently has all network devices on the same subnet and would like the phones to be powered without the use of an AC adapter. Which of the following features should be enabled and configured to allow for reliable performance of the VoIP system? (Select THREE). A. WEP B. PoE C. VLANs D. SSL VPN E. IDS F. QoS

BCF

Which of the following are considered AAA authentication methods? (Select TWO). A. Kerberos B. Radius C. MS-CHAP D. TACACS+ E. 802.1X

BD

Which of the following is used to determine whether or not a user's account is authorized to access a server remotely? A. VPN B. RDP C. LDAP D. Encryption

C

Which of the following network protocols is used to transport email across the Internet? A. NTP B. SSH C. SMTP D. SNMP

C

Which of the following network topologies describes a network where each node is connected to every other node? A. Bus B. Star C. Mesh D. Ring

C

Which of the following network topologies would be separated into two networks if a client in the middle is removed or the cable is cut? A. Mesh B. Ring C. Bus D. Star

C

Which of the following port numbers is used for SNMP? A. 61 B. 151 C. 161 D. 1611

C

Which of the following protocols is MOST commonly associated with VoIP? A. LDAP B. HTTPS C. SIP D. SCP

C

Which of the following provides RSA encryption at the session layer? A. SSH B. ISAKMP C. SSL D. TLS

C

Which of the following reasons would MOST likely be used to implement QoS and traffic shaping solutions? A. Redundancy B. Fault tolerance C. Unified communications D. Uptime requirements

C

Which of the following records allows for reverse DNS lookups? A. AAAA B. A C. PTR D. CNAME

C

NEXT (near end cross talk)

Cross talk, or the impingement of the signal carried by one wire onto a nearby wire, that occurs between wire pairs near the source of a signal.

root port

In a STP topology, every non-root bridge has a single root port, which is the port on that switch that is closest to the root bridge, in terms of cost.

man-in-the-middle

In a ____ attack, a person redirects or captures secure transmissions as they occur.

site-to-site

In a _______ VPN, tunnels connect multiple sites on a WAN.

supplicant

In a network using 802.1X user authentication, a supplicant is the device that wants to gain access to a network.

authenticator

In a network using 802.1X user authentication, an authenticator forwards a supplicant's authentication request on to an authentication server. After the authentication server authenticates the supplicant, the authenticator receives a key that is used to communicate securely during a session with the supplicant.

PAN

Personal-area network - a network whose scale is smaller than a LAN. (ie: a connection between a PC and a digital camera via a USB cable.

IP datagram

The IP portion of a TCP\IP frame that acts as an envelope for data, holding information necessary for routers to transfer data between subnets.

release

The act of terminating a DHCP lease.

Padding

The bytes added to the data portion of an Ethernet frame to ensure this field is at least 46 bytes in size.

core

The central component of a cable designed to carry a signal.

resource record

The element of a DNS database stored on a name server that contains information about TCP/IP host names and their addresses.

regeneration

The process of retransmitting a digital signal.

scalable

The property of a network that allows you to add nodes or increase its size easily.

Internet telephony

The provision of telephone service over the Internet.

bend radius

The radius of the maximum arc into which you can loop a cable before you will cause data transmission errors.

videoconferencing

The real-time reception and transmission of images and audio among two or more locations.

echo request

The request for a response generated when one device pings another device.

noise

The unwanted signals, or interference, from sources near network cabling, such as electrical motors, power lines, and radar.

LLC (Logical Link Control) sublayer

The upper sublayer in the Data Link layer. The LLC provides a common interface and supplies reliability and flow control services.

TLS

Used to secure web protocols

virtual PBX

Usually a VoIP telephony solution hosted by a service provider, which interconnects with a company's existing telephone stem.

RIPv2 (Routing Information Protocol version 2)

_________ generates less broadcast traffic and functions more securely than RIPv1. But, it cannot exceed 15 hops, and it is less commonly used than some link-state routing protocols.

VMware

____ is the most widely implemented virtualization software today.

Loopback plug

A connector use for troubleshooting that plugs into a port and crosses over the transmit line to the receiver, allowing outgoing signals to be redirected back into the computer for testing.

SC (subscriber connector or standard connector)

A connector used with single-mode or multimode fiber-optic cable.

LC (local connector)

A connector used with single-mode or multimode fiber-optic cable.

Ghost

A frame that is not actually a data frame, but rather an aberration caused by a device misinterpreting stray voltage on a wire. Unlike true data frames, ghosts have no starting delimiter.

Daisy Chain

A group of connectivity devices linked together in a serial fasion.

octet

A grouping of 8 bits. An IPv4 address is comprised of four octets (that is, a total of 32 bits).

Cat 5e (Enhanced Category 5)

A higher-grade version of wiring that contains highquality copper, offers a high twist ratio, and uses advanced methods for reducing cross talk. It can support a signaling rate of up to 350 MHz

fully qualified host name

A host name plus domain name. For example, a host belonging to the loc.gov domain might be called Jasmine, making this Jasmine.loc.gov.

Passive hub

A hub that simply retransmit signals over the network.

You are working with a wireless network that is using channel 1 (2412MHz). What RF range would be used if you switched to channel 3? A. 2417 B. 2422 C. 2427 D. 2408

2422

If a NIC does not have a link light, there is a failure at which of the following OSI layers? A. Physical B. Session C. Data link D. Presentation

A

Joe, a network technician, is troubleshooting in a wiring closet in 2011. The cabling to all the equipment does not match the documentation from 2007. Which of the following configuration management methods has been overlooked? A. Change management B. System logs C. Asset management D. Baselining

A

Management wants to be sure that the existing wiring infrastructure conforms to CAT5e standards. Which of the following is the correct tool? A. Cable certifier B. Cable tester C. OTDR D. Protocol analyzer

A

Standards such as JPEG and ASCII operate at which of the following OSI model layers? A. Presentation B. Data link C. Session D. Application

A

The network administrator has been tasked to create a network segment where resources can be placed for public web access. Which of the following should be implemented? A. DMZ B. Honeynet C. PAT D. Port security

A

The network administrator installed a new dipole antenna that extends 100 feet (30.48 meters) from the existing AP. All components are correct, functional, and installed properly. However, during validation, there is a very weak signal coming from the antenna. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue? A. The installation exceeds the link limitations B. The antenna is mounted for vertical polarization C. The dBi output of the antenna is too low D. The radio is too powerful for the installation

A

The network technician is troubleshooting a connectivity issue on a CAT5 cable with a wire map and notices that only pins 1, 3, and 6 are mapping correctly. Which of the following pins are open and keeping traffic from flowing correctly? A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 8

A

The security measure used to reduce vulnerabilities for MOST network devices that require regular application and monitoring is: A. patch management B. security limitations C. documentation D. social engineering

A

SSID

(Service Set Identifier) A string of characters that identify a WLAN. APs participating in the same WLAN can be configured with identical SSIDs. An SSID shared among multiple APs is called an extended service set identifier (ESSID).

collision

A collision occurs when two devices on an Ethernet network simultaneously transmit a frame. Because an Ethernet segment cannot handle more than one frame at a time, both frames become corrupted.

Local collision

A collision that occurs when two or more stations are transmitting simultaneously. Excessively high collisions rates withing the network can usually be traced to cable or routing problems.

Late collision

A collision that takes place outside the normal window in which collisions are detected and redressed. Late collisions are usually caused by a defective station (such as a card, or transceiver) that is transmitting without first verifying line status or by failure to observe the configuration guidelines for cable length, which results in collisions being recognized too late.

Firmware

A combination of hardware and software. The hardware component of firmware is a ROM chip that Stores Data establish at the factory and possibly changed by configuration programs that can write two ROM.

nonbroadcast point-to-multipoint transmission

A communications arrangement in which a single transmitter issues signals to multiple, defined recipients.

point-to-multipoint

A communications arrangement in which one transmitter issues signals to multiple receivers. The receivers may be undefined, as in a broadcast transmission, or defined, as in a nonbroadcast transmission.

Intelligent HUB

A HUB that possesses processing capabilities and can therefore monitor network traffic, detect packet errors in collisions, pole connected devices for information, and gather the data in database format.

RTCP (Real-time Transport Control Protocol)

A companion protocol to RTP, defined in RFC 3550 by the IETF, RTCP provides feedback on the quality of a call or videoconference to its participants.

Blackout

A complete power loss.

Internet

A complex WAN that connects LANs and clients around the globe

BGP (Boarder Gateway Protocol)

A complex routing protocol used on border and exterior routers. BGP is the routing protocol used on internet backbones.

Switching

A component of a network's logical topology that manages how packets are filtered and forwarded between nodes on the network.

MCU (multipoint control unit)

A compter that provides support for multiple H.323 terminals (for example, serveral workstations participating in a videoconference) and manages communication between then. An MCU is also known as a video bridge.

softphone

A computer configured to act like an IP telephone. Softphones present the caller with a graphical representation of a telephone dial pad and can connect to a network via a LAN, WAN, PPP dial-up connection, or leased lined.

Web server

A computer installed with the appropriate software to supply Web pages to many different clients upon demand.

server

A computer on the network that manages shared resources. Servers usually have more processing power, memory, and hard disk space than clients.

client

A computer on the network that requests resources or services from another computer on a network.

node

A computer or other device connected to a network, which has a unique address and is capable of sending or receiving data

soft phone

A computer programmed to act like an IP telephone is known as a(n) ____.

The technician is working on a DNS problem. Which of the following software tool is the technician MOST likely to use to troubleshoot this issue? A. nslookup B. ipconfig C. ping D. nbtstat

A

Two workstations are unable to communicate on the network despite having known good cables. When one device is unplugged from the network the other device functions properly. Which of the following could be the cause of this failure? A. Duplicate IP address B. Incorrect subnet mask C. Incorrect gateway D. Wrong DNS

A

Users are reporting that all of a sudden some of the files stored on the remote file server share are becoming corrupted and cannot be opened. A technician is dispatched to the server room to troubleshoot. The technician verifies that no changes to the network infrastructure occurred recently. Which of the following tools is MOST likely to reveal why files are becoming corrupted? A. Environmental monitor B. OTDR C. Cable tester D. Punch down tool

A

Users are reporting that external web pages load slowly. The network administrator determines that the Internet connection is saturated. Which of the following is BEST used to decrease the impact of web surfing? A. Caching B. Load balancing C. Port filtering D. Traffic analyzer

A

Users have reported issues accessing an Internet website. The network technician wants to verify network layer connectivity. Which of the following tools can provide the verification? A. ping B. netstat C. route D. arp

A

When a packet that is entering a switch port is encapsulated, which of the following is the switch performing? A. 802.1q B. Collision avoidance C. Port mirroring D. STP

A

Which of the following BEST describes a load balancer? A. A device that splits traffic between multiple nodes of a clustered service. B. A device that allows multiple computers to access the internet through a single public IP address. C. A device that filters internet content based on rules and ACLs. D. A device that separates users onto separate WAPs for even distribution.

A

Which of the following BEST describes the definition of DHCP? A. DHCP is utilized to dynamically lease IP addresses to hosts. B. DHCP is utilized to statically lease IP address to hosts. C. DHCP is utilized to permanently lease IP address dynamically to hosts. D. DHCP is utilized to permanently lease IP address statically to hosts.

A

Which of the following DHCP options is used to exclude IP addresses from being distributed to other computers? A. Reservations B. Suffixes C. Leases D. Gateways

A

Which of the following WAN technologies has synchronous up/down speeds? A. T1 B. ADSL C. Satellite D. Cable broadband

A

Which of the following authentication solutions use tickets that include valid credentials to access additional network resources? A. Kerberos B. RADIUS C. Multi-factor authentication D. TACACS+

A

Which of the following cable types is MOST commonly used with POTS? A. CAT3 B. Multimode C. CAT6 D. Coaxial

A

Which of the following can a network technician change to help limit war driving? A. Signal strength B. SSID C. Frequency D. Channel

A

Which of the following can a technician use when installing a wireless network in a lounge to prevent inappropriate website images? A. Content filter B. VPN concentrator C. Load balancer D. Proxy server

A

Which of the following can be described as a DoS attack? A. Disabling a specific system and making it unavailable to users B. Implementing a keylogger C. Intercepting a packet and decrypting the contents D. Communicating with employees to get company information

A

Which of the following can be used to compromise a WPA encrypted wireless network when the rainbow table does not contain the key? A. Evil twin B. War chalking C. Buffer overflow D. Virus

A

Which of the following can function in an unsecure mode? A. SNMPv3 B. SSH C. SSL D. SCP

A

Which of the following components of wiring distribution is referred to as the core communications closet for an organization? A. MDF B. Smart jack C. IDF D. Demarc extension

A

Which of the following defines the amount of time a host retains a specific IP address before it is renewed or released? A. DHCP lease B. DNS suffix C. Subnet mask D. DHCP reservation

A

Which of the following describes a manually entered route? A. Static B. Dynamic C. Multicast D. Unicast

A

Which of the following differentiates a layer 3 switch from a layer 2 switch? A. Routing B. Bridging C. Switching D. Repeating

A

Which of the following does Kerberos use to authenticate? A. Tickets B. Servers C. Users D. Clients

A

Which of the following features can BEST be used to facilitate authorized remote access to a network? A. VPN concentrator B. Proxy server C. Content filter D. Load balancer

A

Which of the following is a Class A IP address? A. 10.4.0.1 B. 169.254.0.1 C. 192.168.0.1 D. 254.200.0.1

A

Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent new users from connecting to a wireless access point, but still allow already connected users to continue to connect? A. Create a MAC filter containing the current users. B. Turn off SSID broadcast. C. Change the encryption type to AES 256-bit for current users. D. Reduce the signal strength to 0 percent.

A

Which of the following is the FASTEST Ethernet technology? A. 10GBaseSR B. 10BaseT C. 100BaseFX D. 1000BaseT

A

Which of the following is the Telco end of a T1 demarc? A. Smart jack B. Network tap C. Proxy server D. IDF

A

Which of the following is the reason why a company's network may contain a DHCP server? A. To assign IP addresses to devices on the network B. To convert IP addresses to fully qualified domain names C. To provide POP3 and IMAP email functionality D. To allow secure remote access

A

Which of the following methods would be implemented to correct a network slowdown caused by excessive video streaming? A. Traffic shaping B. Proxy server C. VPN concentrator D. High availability

A

Which of the following network appliances will only detect and not prevent malicious network activity? A. IDS B. Network sniffer C. IPS D. Firewall

A

Which of the following network devices builds a table of ports to MAC addresses to forward packets only to necessary ports? A. Switch B. Hub C. Router D. Repeater

A

Which of the following network protocols is used for a secure command line interface for management of network devices? A. SSH B. TELNET C. IGMP D. HTTP

A

Which of the following network protocols is used to resolve FQDNs to IP addresses? A. DNS B. FTP C. DHCP D. APIPA

A

Which of the following performance benefits would multiple domain controllers BEST provide? A. Fault tolerance B. Caching engine C. Proxy server D. Quality of service

A

Which of the following ports would have to be allowed through a firewall for POP3 traffic to pass on its default port? A. 110 B. 123 C. 143 D. 443

A

Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the active scope? A. Reservations B. Lease times C. Removing IPs from the active leases D. Configuring the DNS options

A

Which of the following protocols does DNS utilize on port 53? A. TCP B. FTP C. RTP D. ICMP

A

Which of the following protocols is used to send time synchronization updates on a given network? A. NTP B. POP3 C. DNS D. IMAP

A

Which of the following protocols uses port 3389 by default? A. RDP B. TFTP C. IMAP D. DNS

A

Which of the following protocols works at the LOWEST layer of the OSI model? A. L2TP B. PPTP C. ISAKMP D. IPSec

A

Which of the following remote access types requires a certificate for connectivity? A. SSH B. PPP C. HTTPS D. WEP

A

Which of the following routing protocols utilizes the DUAL algorithm for determining best path? A. EIGRP B. RIPv2 C. OSPF D. RIP

A

Which of the following services are affected by closing the default ports of 80 and 21 via ACL on a company router? A. FTP and basic Internet traffic B. HTTPS and IMAP traffic C. DNS and TELNET traffic D. VPN and RDP traffic

A

Which of the following syslog severity codes indicates an emergency and that the system is unusable? A. 0 B. 1 C. 6 D. 7

A

Which of the following technologies prevents network collisions to maximize safe delivery of network data? A. CSMA/CA B. DWDM C. RADIUS D. SONET

A

Which of the following tools would a technician use to determine if a CAT6 cable is properly terminated? A. Cable tester B. Punch down tool C. Crimper D. Multimeter

A

Which of the following types of connectors is used with a CAT6 Ethernet cable? A. RJ-45 B. BNC C. RJ-11 D. DB-9

A

Which of the following uses port 23 by default? A. TELNET B. IMAP C. FTP D. SNMP

A

Which of the following will BEST block a host from accessing the LAN on a network using static IP addresses? A. IP filtering B. Port filtering C. MAC address filtering D. DHCP lease

A

Which of the following wireless standards uses a block encryption cipher rather than a stream cipher? A. WPA2-CCMP B. WPA C. WEP D. WPA2-TKIP

A

Which of the following wireless technologies only uses the 5GHz spectrum but reaches a theoretical throughput of only 54Mbps? A. A B. B C. G D. N

A

Which of the following would MOST likely be used by a network administrator to test DNS resolution? A. dig B. ipconfig C. netstat D. nbtstat

A

fragmentation

A Network layer service that subdivides segments it receives from the Transport layer into smaller packets.

Star Topology

A Network that has a central point (Switch) from which all attached devices radiate.

ARP table

A database of records that maps MAC addresses to IP addresses. It is stored on a computer's hard disk where it is used by the ARP utility to supply the MAC addresses of network nodes, given their IP addresses.

Which of the following would a technician do to monitor remote traffic through an access point? A. Enable an SNMP agent B. Enable network mapping C. Set monitoring SSID D. Select WPA2

A

Which of the following would be used to connect a singlemode fiber cable to a CAT6 connection? A. Media converter B. T1-crossover C. Multimode cable D. Coaxial

A

Which of the following would be used to run an instance of a Layer 2 device within an application? A. Virtual switch B. Virtual router C. Virtual PBX D. NaaS

A

While preparing to replace an old CAT3 cable with a CAT6 cable to implement VoIP, a facilities employee mistakenly disconnects the entire patch panel, including valid wiring to live workstations. Which of the following should an administrator use in order to connect those ports FIRST? A. Toner B. Multimeter C. Reflectometer D. Cable tester

A

thin client

A ______ _______ uses very little hard disk space or processing power from the workstation on which it is installed.

Full Backup

A backup in which all data on all servers is copied to a storage medium, regardless of whether the data is new or changed.

Incremental Backup

A backup in which only data that has changed since the last full or incrmental backup is copied to to a storage medium.

Differential Backup

A backup method in which only data that has changed since the last ful or incremental backup is compied to a storage medium, and in which that same information is marked for subsequent backup, regardless of whether it has changed.

Grandfalther-Father-Son

A backup rotation scheme that uses daily (son), weekly (father), and mothly (grandfather) backup sets.

content engine

A dedicated appliance whose role is to locally cache content received from a remote network (for example, a destination on the Internet). Subsequent requests for that content can be serviced locally, from the content engine, thus reducing bandwidth demand on a WAN.

Failure

A deviation from a specified level of system performance for a given period of time.

UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply)

A battery-operated power source directly attached to one or more devices and to a power supply that prevents undesired features of the power source from harming the device or interrupting its services.

braiding

A braided metal shielding used to insulate some types of coaxial cable.

Firewall

A device (either a router or a computer running special software) that selectively filters or blocks traffic between networks. Firewalls are commonly used to improve Data Security.

NAS (Network Attached Storage)

A device or set of devices attached to a client/server network, dedicated to providing highly fault-tolerant access to large quantities of data.

router

A device that connects network segments and directs data based on information contained in the data packet.

Surge Protector

A device that directs excess voltage away from equipment plugged into it and redirects it to a ground, thereby protecting the equipment from harm.

media converter

A device that enables networks or segments using different media to interconnect and exchange signals.

DCE (data circuit-terminating equipment)

A device, such as a multiplexer or modem, that processes signals. It supplies a clock signal to synchronize transmission between DTE and DCE.

PCI

A 32 or 64-bit bus that can run at 33 or 66 MHz, introduced in its original form in the 1990s. The PCI bus is the NIC connection type used for nearly all new PCs. It's characterized by a shorter length then ISA or EISA cards, but has a much faster data transmission capability.

Expansion board

A circuit boards used to connect a device to a computer's motherboard.

classful mask

A classful mask is the default subnet mask applied to Class A, B, and C IPv4 networks. Specifically, Class A networks have a classful mask of 255.0.0.0. Class B networks have a classful mask of 255.255.0.0, and Class C networks have a classful mask of 255.255.255.0.

single

A directional antenna issues wireless signals along a(n) ____ direction.

data packet

A discrete unit of information sent from one node on a network to another.

BGP (Border Gateway Protocol)

A distance-vector routing protocol suited to WANs is ______. It is also the most complex of the routing protocols. Because it can span multiple, autonomous networks, it is the routing protocol of choice for Internet traffic.

standard

A documented agreement containing technical specifications or other precise criteria that are used as guidelines to ensure the materials, products, processes, and services suit their intended purpose.

Cold Spare

A duplicate component that is not installed, but can be installed in case of a failure.

Server Mirroring

A fault tolerance technique in which one server duplicates the transactions and data storage of another, identical server.

Mirroring

A fault-tolerance technique in which one component or device duplicates the activity of another.

Replication

A fault-tolerance technique that involves dynamic copying of data from one location to another.

Clustering

A fault-tolerance technique that links mutliple servers to act as a single server.

Archive Bit

A file attribute that can be checked (or set to "on") or unchecked (or set to "off") to indicate whether the file needs to be archived.

File server

A file server is a server that provides file services.

Cat 3 (Category 3)

A form of UTP that contains four wire pairs and can carry up to 10 Mbps, with a possible bandwidth of 16 MHz.

Cat 4 (Category 4)

A form of UTP that contains four wire pairs and can support up to 16- Mbps throughput. It may be used for 16-Mbps token ring or 10-Mbps Ethernet networks.

Cat 5 (Category 5)

A form of UTP that contains four wire pairs and supports up to 100- Mbps throughput and a 100-MHz signal rate.

fiber-optic cable

A form of cable that contains one or several glass or plastic fibers in its core. Data is transmitted via pulsing light sent from a laser or light-emitting diode (LED) through the central fiber (or fibers).

network class

A classification for TCP/IP-based networks that pertains to the network's potential size and is indicated by an address's network ID and subnet mask. Network Classes A, B, and C are commonly used by clients on LANs; network Classes D and E are reserved for special purposes.

Node

A client, server, or other device that can communicate over a network and that is identified by a unique number, known as its network address,

socket

A logical address assigned to a specific process running on a computer. Some are reserved for operating system functions.

multicasting

A means of transmission in which one device sends data to a specific group of devices (not necessarily the entire network segment) in a point-to-multipoint fashion.

amplitude

A measure of a signal's strength.

Volt-Amp (VA)

A measure of electrical power

hertz (Hz)

A measure of frequency equivalent to the number of amplitude cycles per second.

bandwidth

A measure of the difference between the highest and lowest frequencies that a medium can transmit.

checksum

A method of error checking that determines if the contents of an arriving data unit match the contents of the data unit sent by the source.

flow control

A method of gauging the appropriate rate of data transmission based on how fast the recipient can accept data.

Hardware RAID

A method of implementing RAID that relies on an externally attached set of disks and a RAID disk controller, which manages the RAID array.

Software RAID

A method of implementing RAID that uses software to implement and control RAID techniques over virtually any type of hard disk(s).

prefix notation

A method of indicating how many bits are in a subnet mask. For example, /24 is prefix notation for a 24-bit subnet mask. Prefix notation is also known as slash notation.

statistical multiplexing

A method of multiplexing in which each node on a network is assigned a separate time slot for transmission, based on the node's priority and need.

Filtering database

A collection of data created and used by a bridge that correlate the MAC addresses of connected workstations with their locations. A filtering database is also known as a forwarding table.

root server

A DNS server maintained by ICANN and IANA that it is an authority on how to contact top-level domains, such as those ending with .com, .edu, .net, .us, and so on. ICANN oversees the operation of 13 root servers around the world.

point-to-point

A data transmission that involves one transmitter and one receiver.

TDM (time division multiplexing)

A method of multiplexing that assigns a time slot in the flow of communications to every node on the network and, in that time slot, carries data from that node.

Dynamic routing

A method of routing that automatically calculates the best path between two nodes and accumulates this information in a routing table. If congestion or failures affect the network, a router using dynamic routing can detect the problems and reroute data through a different path. Modern networks primarily use dynamic route.

Store - and - forward mode

A method of switching in which a switch reads the entire data frame into its memory and checks it for accuracy before transmitting it. Although this method is more time consuming than the cut-through method, it allows store - and - forward switches to transmit data more accurately.

dotted-decimal notation

A method of writing an IPv4 address or subnet mask, where groups of 8 bits (called octets) are separated by periods.

Router

A multi port device that operates at layer 3 of the OSI model and uses logical addressing information to direct data between networks or segments. Routers can connect dissimilar LANs and WANs running at different transmission speeds and using a variety of network layer protocols. They determine the best path between nodes based on traffic congestion, available vs. unavailable routes, load balancing targets, and other factors.

multicast

A multicast communication flow is a one-to-many flow.

WDM (wavelength division multiplexing)

A multiplexing technique in which each signal on a fiber-optic cable is assigned a different wavelength, which equates to its own subchannel. Each wavelength is modulated with a data signal. In this manner, multiple signals can be simultaneously transmitted in the same direction over a length of fiber.

DWDM (dense wavelength division multiplexing)

A multiplexing technique used over single-mode or multimode fiber-optic cable in which each signal is assigned a different wavelength for its carrier wave.

peer-to-peer network

A network in which every computer can communicate directly with every other computer.

Network Monitor

A network monitoring program from Microsoft that comes with Windows Server 2003 and Server 2008 (as well as with Windows NT and Windows 2000 Server).

Zeroconf (Zero Configuration)

A collection of protocols designed by the IETF to simplify the setup of nodes on a TCP/IP network. It assigns a node an IP address, resolves the node's host name and IP address without requiring a DNS server, and discovers services, such as print services, available to the node, also without requiring a DNS server.

ISO (International Organization for Standardization)

A collection of standards organizations representing 157 countries with headquarters located in Geneva, Switzerland.

ISO (International Organization for Standardization)

A collection of standards organizations representing 157 countries with headquarters located in Geneva, Switzerland. Its goal is to establish international technological standards to facilitate the global exchange of information and barrier-free trade.

Which of the following cable types supports the FURTHEST distance when connecting various MDFs? A. Multimode B. UTP C. Singlemode D. CAT6

C

Which of the following cables supports 10Gbps throughput and 100 meters as the maximum distance? A. T1 crossover B. Singlemode fiber C. CAT6a D. Coaxial

C

Which of the following can be used to limit wireless network access to a single computer? A. Configure PPP B. Packet sniffing C. MAC address filtering D. Omni-directional antennas

C

Which of the following can be used to prioritize network streams to optimize performance for certain traffic types? A. VLAN B. VPN C. QoS D. PoE

C

Which of the following commands can a network technician use to check whether the DNS server for a given domain is reachable? A. nmap B. nbtstat C. dig D. arp

C

Which of the following commands will provide an administrator with the number of hops a packet takes from host to host? A. nslookup B. ping C. traceroute D. route

C

Which of the following commands would be used to identify how many hops a data packet makes before reaching its final destination? A. route B. netstat C. traceroute D. ping 127.0.0.1

C

Which of the following configurations of a wireless network would be considered MOST secure? A. WEP using MAC Filtering B. WEP and hiding the SSID C. WPA2 D. WPA TKIP and hiding the SSID

C

Which of the following is an example of a Class C address? A. 10.19.0.79 B. 127.34.8.197 C. 176.96.1.222 D. 192.168.1.105

D

Which of the following is the MAXIMUM potential speed of CAT5e UTP cable? A. 10BaseT B. 100BaseT C. 100BaseFX D. 1000BaseT

D

Which of the following is the MOST secure way to prevent malicious changes to a firewall? A. SNMPv2 access only B. TELNET access only C. SSH access only D. Console access only

D

Which of the following is the only standard that can operate at either frequency? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11n

D

Which of the following is the unit used to transfer information at Layer 2 of the OSI model? A. Packet B. Socket C. Session D. Frame

D

Which of the following is used to ensure traffic flows efficiently on multiple T-1 circuits? A. DNS server B. Content filter C. Proxy server D. Load balancer

D

Which of the following is used to limit the amount of bandwidth used on a link for different applications to improve overall performance? A. QoS B. Fault tolerance C. Load balancing D. Traffic shaping

D

Which of the following network protocols is used to transport email between servers? A. IMAP4 B. POP3 C. SNMP D. SMTP

D

Which of the following network topologies is ONLY possible between two users? A. Star B. Client-server C. Hybrid D. Peer-to-peer

D

Which of the following preventative measures would BEST secure a web server from being port scanned by attackers publicly? A. Content filter B. Proxy server C. ACL implicit allow D. Firewall

D

Which of the following protocols are used to provide accurate time to network devices? A. SMTP B. FTP C. TLS D. NTP

D

Which of the following protocols would the network administrator use to protect login credentials when accessing a router terminal session? A. SCP B. SNMPv3 C. SSL D. SSH

D

Which of the following provides secure access to a network device? A. SNMPv2 B. FTP C. RSH D. SSH

D

Which of the following provides the STRONGEST security for a tunneled connection over the Internet? A. RDP B. SMTP C. RAS D. IPSec

D

Which of the following reduces the deployment cost of a wireless LAN? A. WPA B. 802.1x C. MIMO D. PoE

D

Which of the following security appliances are used to only identify traffic on individual systems? A. Host based IPS B. Application based IPS C. Network based IDS D. Host based IDS

D

Which of the following would a network administrator recommend to satisfy fault tolerance needs within the datacenter? A. Multimode fiber B. Setting up a new hot site C. Central KVM system D. Central UPS system

D

Which of the following would be used in a firewall to block incoming TCP packets that are not from established connections? A. Access control lists B. Port address translation C. Blocking unauthorized ports D. Stateful inspection

D

MAN (metropolitan area network)

A network that is larger than a LAN and connects clients and servers from multiple buildings--for example, a handful of government offices surrounding a state capitol.

MAN (metropolitan area network)

A network that is larger than a LAN, typically connecting clients and servers from multiple buildings, but within a limited geographic area

WAN (wide area network)

A network that spans a long distance and connects two or more LANs.

Client/Server Network

A network that uses a server to enable clients to share data, data storage space, and devices is known as a client/server network.

VLAN

A network within a network that is logically defined by proving its devices' switch ports in the same broadcast domain. A VLAN can consist of any type of network node in any geographic location and can incorporate nodes connected to different switches.

Access Method

A network's method of controlling how nodes access the communications channel.

token ring

A networking technology developed by IBM in the 1980s. It relies upon direct links between nodes and a ring topology, using tokens to allow nodes to transmit data.

Ethernet

A networking technology originally developed at Xerox in the 1970s and improved by Digital Equipment Corporation, Intel, and Xerox. Ethernet, which is the most common form of network transmission technology, follows the IEEE 802.3 standard.

IPv6 (IP version 6)

A newer standard for IP addressing that will replace the current IPv4 (IP version 4). Most notably, it uses a newer, more efficient header in its packets and allows for 128-bit source and destination IP addresses. The use of longer addresses will allow for many more IP addresses to be in circulation.

alias

A nickname for a node's host name. This can be specified in a local host file.

ACK (acknowledgment)

A response generated at the Transport layer of the OSI model that confirms to a sender that its frame was received. The ACK packet is the third of three in the three-step process of establishing a connection.

Baseline

A record of how a network operates under normal conditions (including its performance, collision rate, utilization rate, and so on). Baselines are used for comparison when conditions change.

patch cable

A relatively short section (usually between 3 and 25 feet) of cabling with connectors on both ends.

Tape Backup

A relatively simple and economical backup method in which data is copied to magnetic tape.

Terminator

A resistor that is attached to each end of a bus-topology network and that causes the signal to stop rather than reflect back towards its source.

multilayer switch

Like a router, a multilayer switch can make traffic forwarding decisions based on Layer 3 information. Although multilayer switches more closely approach wire-speed throughput that most routers, routers tend to have a greater feature set and are capable of supporting more interface types than a multilayer switch.

switch

Like an Ethernet hub, an Ethernet switch interconnects network components. Like a hub, switches are available with a variety of port densities. However, unlike a hub, a switch doesn't simply take traffic in on one port and forward copies of that traffic out all other ports. Rather, a switch learns which devices reside off of which ports. As a result, when traffic comes in a switch port, the switch interrogates the traffic to see where it's destined. Then, based on what the switch has learned, the switch forwards the traffic out of the appropriate port, and not out all of the other ports.

RAID (Redundant Array of Independent [or Inexpensive] Disks)

A server redundancy measure that uses shared, multiple physical or logical hard disks to ensure data integrity and availability.

name server

A server that contains a database of TCP/IP host names and their associated IP addresses. It supplies a resolver with the requested information. If it cannot resolve the IP address, the query passes to a higher-level name server.

remote access server

A server that runs communications services that enable remote users to log on to a network. Also known as an access server.

APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing)

A service available on computers running the Windows 98, ME, 2000, XP, Vista, Server 2003, or Server 2008 operating system that automatically assigns the computer's network interface an IP address from the range of 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255 if an IP address hasn't benn assigned to that interface.

video-on-demand

A service in which a video is stored as an encoded file is delivered to a viewer upon his request.

IPTV (IP television)

A service in which television signals from broadcast or cable networks travel over packet-switched networks.

streaming video

A service in which video signals are compressed and delivered over the Internet in a continuous stream so that a user can watch and listen even before all the data has been transmitted.

SS7 (Signaling System 7)

A set of standards established b the ITU for handling call signaling on the PSTN (public switch telephone network).

Connectivity device

A specialized device that allows multiple network or multiple parts of one network to connect and exchange data.

file server

A specialized server that enables clients to share applications and data across the network.

USB port

A standard external bus that can be used to connect multiple types of peripherals, including modems, mice, and NICs, to a computer. Two USB standards exist: USB 1.1 USB 2.0. USD 3.0 promises to be released soon. Most modern computers support the USB 2.0 standard.

BNC (Bayonet Neill-Concelman, or British Naval Connector)

A standard for coaxial cable connectors named after its coupling method and its inventors.

DB-9 connector

A type of connector with nine pins that's commonly used in serial communication that conforms to the RS-232 standard.

MMF (multimode fiber)

A type of fiber-optic cable that contains a core with a diameter between 50 and 100 microns, through which many pulses of light generated by a lightemitting diode (LED) travel at different angles.

Message Switching

A type of switching in which a connection is established between two devices in the connection path; one device transfers the data to the second device, then breaks the connection.

Circuit Switching

A type of switching in which a connection is established between two network nodes before they begin transmitting data.

Packet Switching

A type of switching in which data is broken into packets before it is transported.

MPLS

A type of switching that enables any one of several layer 2 protocols to carry multiple types of layer 3 protocols.

full-duplex

A type of transmission in which signals may travel in both directions over a medium simultaneously.

half-duplex

A type of transmission in which signals may travel in both directions over a medium, but in only one direction at a time.

simplex

A type of transmission in which signals may travel in only one direction over a medium.

Heuristic scanning

A type of virus scanning that attempt to identify viruses by discovering viruslike behavior.

Polymorphic Virus

A type of virus that changes its characteristics (such as the arrangement of its bytes, size, and internal instructions) every time it is transferred to a new system, making it harder to identify.

Stealth Virus

A type of virus that hides itself to prevent detection

Thinnet

An IEEE Physical layer standard for achieving 10-Mbps throughput over coaxial copper cable. It is also known as 10Base-2. Its maximum segment length is 185 meters, and it relies on a bus topology.

Thicknet

An IEEE Physical layer standard for achieving a maximum of 10-Mbps throughput over coaxial copper cable. It is also known as 10Base-5. Its maximum segment length is 500 meters, and it relies on a bus topology.

newsgroup

An Internet-based forum for exchanging messages on a particular topic. These rely on NNTP for the collection an dissemination of messages.

Load Balancing

An automatic distribution of traffic over multiple links, hard disks, or processors intended to optimize resoponses

CCIE (Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert)

An elite certification that recognizes expert-level installation, confguration, management, and troubleshooting skills on networks that use a range of Cisco Systems' devices.

Which of the following is the control when observing network bandwidth patterns over time? A. Network log B. Baseline C. Flow data D. Interface statistics

B

Which of the following is the definition of a DNS server? A. Hosts proprietary business applications B. Translates FQDN's to IP addresses C. Provides network IDS/IPS security D. Assigns IP addresses to network devices

B

Which of the following is used to register and resolve IP addresses with their plain language equivalents? A. Proxy server B. DNS server C. Brouter equipment D. DHCP server

B

Which of the following monitoring devices are used only to recognize suspicious traffic from specific software? A. Signature based IPS B. Application based IDS C. Anomaly based IDS D. Application based IPS

B

Which of the following performs authentication and provides a secure connection by using 3DES to encrypt all information between two systems? A. HTTPS B. SSH C. RSA D. SSL

B

Which of the following should be mitigated by employing proper coding techniques when developing software? A. Distributed denial of service attacks B. Buffer overflows C. War driving D. Packet sniffing

B

Which of the following spreads out each of the individual wires of a UTP cable onto their own metal connector? A. BNC connection B. 110 block C. Plenum D. LC connector

B

Which of the following supports faster wireless broadband speeds? A. Satellite B. Wi-MAX C. ISDN D. OC-3

B

Which of the following switch features allows for both incoming and outgoing data across physical ports at the same time? A. Burst-frame B. Full-duplex C. Half-duplex D. VoIP

B

Which of the following technologies allows multiple staff members to connect back to a centralized office? A. Peer to Peer B. VPN C. PKI D. VLAN

B

Which of the following uses classless subnet masks across a network? A. Subnetting B. CIDR C. Supernetting D. Summarization

B

Which of the following uses types and codes rather than ports? A. EIGRP B. ICMP C. UDP D. IPv6

B

B

Which of the following plays a crucial role in the Public-key Infrastructure? A. IDS B. Certificate Authority C. VPN concentrator D. PGP

B

Which of the following protocols would be used by a video bridge to invite a video phone to join a videoconference? A. MGCP B. H.225 C. IGMP D. RSVP

C

Which of the following routing protocols is used on the Internet's backbone? A. EIGRP B. OSPF C. BGP D. RIP

C

Which of the following devices can improve performance for certain applications, in addition to enhancing network security? A. Packet-filtering firewall B. NAT gateway C. Proxy server D. Router

C

Which of the following devices enable multiple gateways to communicate? A. VoIP Router B. IP-PBX C. MGC D. IP phone

B

Which of the following elements of the PSTN is most likely capable of transmitting only analog signals? A. Central Office B. Local loop C. CSU/DSU D. Remote switching facility

B

Which of the following is a significant advantage to using an SFP interface on a router rather than an on-board NIC? A. The SFP will be capable of higher throughputs. B. The SFP can be added or removed without affecting operations, thus allowing for customization and future upgrades. C. The SFP can accept multiple types of connectors, allowing the router to connect two disparate network types. D. The SFP promises greater security, as it can encrypt and decrypt data.

B

Which of the following is an advantage to virtualizing many servers in your data center, compared with running each server on a separate physical machine? A. Virtualization will improve the servers' performance. B. Virtualization will conserve resources. C. Virtualization will make administration easier. D. Virtualization will save software costs.

False

Wireless networks are laid out using the same topologies as wired networks. True or False

Internet

The largest and most varied WAN in the world.

MTU (maximum transmission unit)

The largest data unit a network (for example, Ethernet or token ring) will accept for transmission.

RIPv2 (Routing Information Protocol version 2)

The latest version of RIP is named _____.

RTT (round trip time)

The length of time it takes for a packet to go from sender to receiver, then back from receiver to sender. It is usually measured in milliseconds.

switch

The letters or words added to a command that allow you to customize a utility's output. Switches are usually preceded by a hyphen or forward slash character.

MAC (Media Access Control) sublayer

The lower sublayer of the Data Link layer. The MAC appends the physical address of the destination computer onto the frame.

Physical layer

The lowest, or first, layer of the OSI model. Protocols in the Physical layer generate and detect signals so as to transmit and receive data over a network medium. These protocols also set the data transmission rate and monitor data error rates, but do not provide error correction.

VNC (Virtual Network Computing)

____ is an open source system designed to allow one workstation to remotely manipulate and receive screen updates from another workstation.

Remote Desktop

____ is the remote virtual computing software that comes with Windows client and server operating systems.

802.11n

____ may use either the 2.4-GHz or 5-GHz frequency range.

Host-only

____ mode is appropriate for test networks or if you simply need to install a different operating system on your workstation to use a program that is incompatible with your host's operating system.

Authentication

____ protocols are the rules that computers follow to accomplish authentication.

Dial-up networking

____ refers to dialing directly into a private network's or ISP's remote access server to log on to a network.

Geosynchronous earth orbiting

____ satellites are the type used by the most popular satellite data service providers.

Port scanner

____ software searches a node for open ports.

VPNs (Virtual Private Networks)

_____ are wide area networks that are logically defined over public transmission

UDP(User Datagram Protocol)

_____ is preferred over TCP for real-time applications such as telephone conversations and videoconferencing.

Unified

_____ messaging is a service that makes several forms of communication available from a single user interface.

Mesh

______ WANs are the most fault tolerant type of WAN because they provide multiple routes for data to follow between any two protocols.

IS-IS

______ is a link-state routing protocol which uses a best-path algorithm. Designed for use on interior routers only.

Q o S (Quality of Service)

______ is a measure of how well a network service matches its expected.

Physical layer

The lowest, or first, layer of the OSI model. Protocols in this layer generate and detect signals so as to transmit and receive data over a network medium. These protocols also set the data transmission rate and monitor data error rates, but do not provide error correction.

Motherboard

The main circuit that controls the computer.

TCP/IP core protocols

The major subprotocols of the TCP/IP suite, including IP, TCP, and UDP.

Fault

The malfunction of one component of a system

Routing protocols

The means by which the routers communicate with each other about network status. Routing protocols determine the best path for data to take between nodes.

transmission media

The means through which data are transmitted and received.

volt

The measurement used to describe the degree of pressure an electrical current exerts on a conductor.

Parity

The mechanism used to verify the integrity of data by making the number of bits in a byte sum equal either an odd or even number

routing metric

The method by which a routing protocol chooses the best path for data is known as its ______ _______.

Best Path

The most efficient route from one node on a network to another. Under optimal network conditions, the best path is the most direct path between two points. However, when traffic congestion, segment failures, and other factors create obstacles, the most direct path may not be the best.

RAID Level 5

The most popular fault-tolerant data storage technique in used today, in which it writes data in small blocks across several disks.

hosts

The name of the host file used on UNIX, Linux, and Windows systems. On a UNIX- or Linux-based computer, it is found in the /etc directory. On a Windows-based computer, it is found in the %systemroot%\system32\drivers\etc folder.

TCP/IP Suite

The native protocol of the internet

H.323 gatekeeper

The nerve center for networks that adhere to H.323. Gatekeepers authorize and authenticate terminals and gateways, manage bandwidth, and oversee call routing, accounting, and billing. Gatekeepers are optional on H.323 networks.

PSTN (Public Switched Telephone Network)

The network of lines and carrier equipment that provides telephone service to most homes and businesses. Now, except for the local loop, nearly all of the PSTN uses digital transmission. Its traffic is carried by fiber-optic or copper twisted pair cable, microwave, and satellite connections.

P2P Networks

The newer types of peer-to-peer networks (commonly abbreviated as P2P networks) link computers from around the world to share files between each others' hard disks.

overhead

The nondata information that must accompany data in order for a signal to be properly routed and interpreted by the network.

ICANN (Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers)

The nonprofit corporation currently designated by the United States government to maintain and assign IP addresses.

block size

The number of IP addresses in a subnet, including the subnet's address and the subnet's directed broadcast address.

frequency

The number of times that a signal's amplitude changes over a fixed period of time, expressed in cycles per second, or hertz (Hz).

twist ratio

The number of twists per meter or foot in a twisted pair cable.

RIP

The oldest routing protocol that is still widely used, RIPS do not work in very large network environments in which data may have to travel through more than 15 routers to reach their destination (for example, on the Internet). And, compared to other routing protocols, RIP slower and less secure.

security auditing

The process of evaluating security measures currently in place on a network and notifying the network administrator if a security breach occurs.

Certification

The process of mastering material pertaining to a particular hardware system, operating system, programming language, or other software program, then proving your mastery by passing a series of exams.

reassembly

The process of reconstructing data units that have been segmented.

Collision

The interference of one node's data transmission with the data transmission of another node sharing the same segment.

OSPF (Open Shortest Path First)

_______ is a link-state routing protocol used on interior or border routers. It imposes no hop limits on a transmission path.

Disaster Recovery

The process of restoring critical functionality and data to a network after an enterprise-wide outage that affects more than a single system or a limited group of users.

restore

The process of retrieving files from a backup.

subnetting

The process of subdividing a single class of network into multiple, smaller networks.

encapsulate

The process of wrapping one layer's PDU with protocol information so that it can be interpreted by a lower layer.

encapsulate

The process of wrapping one layer's PDU with protocol information so that it can be interpreted by a lower layer. For example, Data Link layer protocols encapsulate Network layer packets in frames.

A+

The professional certification established by CompTIA that verifies knowledge about PC operation, repair, and management.

Convergence

_______ is the use of one network to simultaneously carry voice, video, and data communications.

FITH (Fiber To The Home)

________ means that a telephone company connects residential users to its network with fiber-optic cable.

routable

The protocols that can span more than one LAN because they carry Network layer and addressing information that can be interpreted by a router.

VoIP (voice over IP)

The provision of telephone service over a packet-switched network running the TCP/IP protocol suite.

impedance

The resistance that contributes to controlling an electrical signal. It is measured in ohms.

echo reply

The response signal sent by a device after another device pings it.

QoS (Quality of Service)

The result of specification for guaranteeing data delivery within a certain period of time after transmission.

Router

a Layer 3 device, it makes forwarding decisions based on logical network addresses. Most modern networks use an IP address for routing.

Which command produces the following output? Interface: 24.77.218.58 --- 0x2 Internet Address Physical Address Type 24.77.216.1 00-00-77-99-a4-4c dynamic A. arp B. tracert C. ipconfig D. netinf

arp

unidirectional antenna

can focus their power in a specific direction, thus avoiding potential interference with other wireless devices and perhaps reaching greater distances than those possible with omnidirectional antennas. One application for unidirectional antennas is interconnecting two nearby buildings.

Cat 6e (Enhanced Category 6)

capable of a 550-MHz signaling rate and can reliably transmit data at multi-gigabit per second rates.

Client

defines the device an end-user uses to access a network. (ie: a workstation, laptop, smartphone, with wireless capabilities, a tablet, or a variety of other end-user terminal devices.)

Which command produces the following output? Name Type Status LAPTOP <00> UNIQUE Registered KCS <00> GROUP Registered LAPTOP <00> UNIQUE Registered A. nbtstat B. netstat C. ifconfig D. arp

nbtstat

TCP/IP

stack Also known as the DoD model , this four-layer model (as opposed to the seven-layer OSI model) targets the suite of TCP/IP protocols.

Transport Layer (TCP/IP)

stack Also known as the DoD model , this four-layer model (as opposed to the seven-layer OSI model) targets the suite of TCP/IP protocols.

BGP (Border Gateway Protocol)

A distance-vector routing protocol capable of considering many factors in its routing metrics. BGP, an Exterior Gateway Protocol, is the routing protocol used on Internet backbones.

ethtool

A popular tool for viewing and modifying network interface properties on Linux computers.

Uplink port

A port on a connectivity device, such as a hub or switch, used to connect it to another connectivity device.

Data port

A port on the connectivity device to which network nodes are connected.

Expansion slot

A receptacle on a computer's motherboard that contains multiple electrical contacts into which an expansion work can be inserted.

dynamic ARP table entry

A record in an ARP table that is created when a client makes an ARP request that cannot be satisfied by data already in the ARP table.

bridge

When more than two people participate in a videoconference, for example, in a point-to-multipoint or multipoint-to-multipoint scenario, a video ____ is required.

MTU

maximum transmission unit - The largest data unit a network (for example, Ethernet or token ring) will accept for transmission.

NIC.

network interface card

NOS

network operating system

ST (straight tip)

A connector used with single-mode or multimode fiber-optic cable.

Backup

A copy of data or program files created for archiving or safekeeping

IP (Internet Protocol)

A core protocol in the TCP/IP suite that operates in the Network layer of the OSI model and provides information about how and where data should be delivered. IP is the subprotocol that enables TCP/IP to internetwork.

UDP (User Datagram Protocol)

A core protocol in the TCP/IP suite that sits in the Transprot layer of the OSI model. It is a connectionless transport service.

TCP (Transmission Control Protocol)

A core protocol of the TCP/IP suite. TCP belongs to the Transport layer and provides reliable date delivery sevices.

toll bypass

A cost-saving benefit that results from organizations completing long-distance telephone calls over their packet-switched networks, thus bypassing tolls charged by common carriers on comparable PSTN calls.

C

A customer calls your ISP's technical support line, complaing that his connection to the Internet usually goes as fast as 128 Kbps, but today it is only reaching 64 Kbps. He adds that he has tried dialing up three different times with the same result. What type of connection does this customer have? A. PSTN dial-up B DSL C ISDN D. T1

5-4-3 Rule

A guideline for 10-Mbps Ethernet networks stating the between two communication nodes, the network cannot contain more that five network segments connected by four repeating devices, and no more than three of the segments may be populated.

half duplex

A half-duplex connection allows a device to either receive or transmit data at any one time. However, a half-duplex device cannot simultaneously transmit and receive.

Memory range

A hexadecimal number that indicates the area of memory that the NIC and CPU will use for exchanging, or buffering, data. As with IRQs, some memory ranges are reserved for specific devices - -most notably, the motherboard.

DNS (Domain Name System or Domain Name Service)

A hierarchical way of tracking domain names and their addresses, devised in the mid-1980s. Its database does not rely on one file or even one server, but rather is distributed over several key computers across the Internet to prevent catastrophic failure if one or a few computers go down. It is a TCP/IP service that belongs to the Application layer of the OSI model.

TDR (time domain reflectometer)

A high-end instrument for testing the qualities of a cable. It works by issuing a signal on a cable and measuring the way in which the signal bounces back (or reflects) to the TDR. Many performance testers rely on TDRs.

True

ATM is a WAN technology that functions in the Data Link Layer. True or False

Cat

Abbreviation for the word category when describing a type of twisted pair cable.

APIPA

(Automatic Private IP Addressing) Allows a networked device to self-assign an IP address from the 169.254.0.0/16 network. Note that this address is only usable on the device's local subnet (meaning that the IP address is not routable).

BSS

(Basic Service Set) WLANs that have just one AP are called BSS WLANs. BSS WLANs are said to run in infrastructure mode, because wireless clients connect to an AP, which is typically connected to a wired network infrastructure. A BSS network is often used in residential and SOHO locations, where the signal strength provided by a single AP is sufficient to service all of the WLAN's wireless clients.

BOOTP

(Bootstrap Protocol) A legacy broadcast-based protocol used by networked devices to obtain IP address information.

CSMA/CA

(Carrier Sense Multiple Access Collision Avoidance) is needed for WLAN connections, because of their half-duplex operation. A WLAN device listens for a transmission on a wireless channel to determine if it is safe to transmit. Additionally, the collision-avoidance part of the CSMA/CA algorithm causes wireless devices to wait for a random back-off time before transmitting.

You are troubleshooting an older 100BaseT network, and you suspect that the maximum cable length has been exceeded. What is the maximum length of a 100BaseT network segment? A. 25 meters B. 100 meters C. 185 meters D. 500 meters

100 meters

Which of the following standards uses category 6a cable?

10GBaseT

You are setting up a wide are network between two school campuses, and you decide to us BRI ISDN. What is the maximum throughput of your connection? A. 64Kbps B. 128Kbps C. 128Mbps D. 64Mbps

128Kbps.

You have been employed by a small company to implement a fault-tolerant hard disk configuration. You have purchased for 4TB hard disks, and you plan to install RAID 4 on the server. What is the storage capacity of the RAID solution? A. 12TB B. 4TB C. 8TB D. 16TB

12TB

You have configured network clients to obtain IP addresses using APIPA. Which of the following IP ranges would be assigned to client systems? A. 10.10.0.0 to 10.254.254.0 B. 169.168.0.0 to 169.168.255.255 C. 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.254.254 D. 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254

169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254

Which of the following is a valid Class C address that could be assigned to a workstation on the network? A. 200.200.200.200 B. 200.200.200.255 C. 143.67.151.17 D. 203.16.42.0

200.200.200.200

Your manager asks you to implement a fault-tolerant disk solution on your server. You have two 3TB hard disks and two controllers, so you decide to implement RAID 1. After the installation, your manager asks you how much storage space is now available for storing data. What do you tell her? A. 3TB B. 4TB C. 6TB D. 12TB

3TB

Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address? A. 42DE:7E55:6EF2:21AA:CBD4:D773 B. 42CD:7E55:63F2:21GA:CBD4:D773:CC21:554F C. 42DE:7E55:63F2:21AA D. 42DE:7E55:63F2:21AA:CBD4:D773:CC21:554F

42DE:7E55:63F2:21AA:CBD4:D7773:CC21:554F

You are installing a wireless network solution what uses a feature known as MIMO. Which wireless networking standard are you using? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11n

802.11n

While working on a PC, a technician notices 0.0.0.0 in the routing table. Which of the following does this indicate A. It is the default route. B. This is the address for the DHCP server. C. The PC has not been assigned an IP address. D. The firewall is down.

A

MAC address

A 12-character string that uniquely identifies a network node. The manufacturer hard codes the MAC address into the NIC. This address is composed of the block ID and device ID.

PCIe

A 32 - for 64-bit bus standard capable of transferring data up to 4.26 Gbps in full duplex transmission. PCI Express was introduced in 2002 and offers several advantages over traditional PCI. Its expansion cards can fit into older PCI slots with some modifications to the motherboard.

On -board NIC

A NIC that is integrated into a computer's motherboard, rather than connected via an expansion slot or peripheral bus.

protocols and software

A NOS that contains a "back door"is an example of a risk associated with ____.

IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol or Internet Group Multicast Protocol)

A TCP/IP protocol used to manage multicast transmissions. Routers use this to determine which nodes belong to a multicast group, and nodes use this to join or leave a multicast group.

PING (Packet Internet Groper)

A TCP/IP troubleshooting utility that can verify that TCP/IP is installed, bound to the NIC, configured correctly, and communicating with the network. This uses ICMP to send echo request and echo reply messages that determine the validity of an IP address.

packet-filtering

A ____ firewall is a router (or a computer installed with software that enables it to act as a router) that examines the header of every packet of data it receives to determine whether that type of packet is authorized to continue to its destination.

ISP (Internet service provider)

A business that provides organizations and individuals with Internet access and often, other services, such as e-mail and Web hosting.

label

A character string that represents a domain (either top-level, second-level, or third-level).

Hot Swappable

A characteristic that enables identical components to be interchanged (or swapped) while a machine is still running (hot).

Interrupt

A circuit board wire through which a device issues voltage, thereby signaling a request for the processor's attention.

BNC connector

A coaxial cable connector type that uses a twist-and-lock (or bayonet) style of coupling.

H.323 zone

A collection of H.323 terminals, gateways, and MCU's that are managed by a single H.323 gatekeeper.

BID (Bridge ID)

A combination of a 2-byte priority field and a bridge's MAC address, used in STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) to select a root bridge.

Gateway

A combination of networking hardware and software that connects to dissimilar kinds of networks. Gateway's perform connectivity, session management, and data translation, so they must operate in multiple layers of the OSI model.

Broadcast domain

A combination of ports on a switch that make up a Layer 2 segment. Two be able to exchange data with each other, broadcast domains must be connected by a Layer 3 device, such as a router Layer 3 switch. A VLAN is one type of broadcast domain.

host

A computer that enables resource sharing by other computers on the same network

Host

A computer that enables resource sharing by other computers on the same network.

workstation

A computer that runs a desktop operating system and connects to a network.

ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)

A core protocol in the TCP/IP suite that belongs in the Network layer of the OSI model. It obtains the MAC (physical) address of a host, or node, and then creates a local database that maps the MAC address to the host's IP (logical) address.

RARP (Reverse Address Resolution Protocol)

A core protocol in the TCP/IP suite that belongs in the Network layer of the OSI model. It relies on a RARP table to associate the IP (logical ) address of a node with its MAC (physical) address. It can be used to supply IP addresses to diskless workstations.

ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)

A core protocol in the TCP/IP suite that notifies the sender that something has gone wrong in the transmission process and that packets were not delivered.

multiplexer (mux)

A device that separates a medium into multiple channels and issues signals to each of those subchannels.

demultiplexer (demux)

A device that separates multiplexed signals once they are received and regenerates them in their original form.

Cable tester

A device that tests cables for one or more of the following conditions: continuity, segment length, distance to fault, attenuation along a cable, near-end cross talk, and termination resistance and impedance. Cable testers may also issue pass/fail ratings for wiring standards or store and print cable testing results.

transceiver

A device that transmits and receives signals.

Voltage event recorder

A device that, when plugged into the same outlet that will be used by a network node, gathers data about the power that outlet will provide the node.

Ohmmeter

A device used to measure resistance in an electrical circuit.

Voltmeter

A device used to measure voltage (or electrical pressure) on an electrical circuit.

channel

A distinct communication path between two or more nodes, much like a lane is a distinct transportation path on a freeway. may be separated either logically (as in multiplexing) or physically (as when they are carried by separate wires).

SAN (Storage Area Network)

A distinct network of multiple storage divices and servers that provides, fast, highly available, and highly fault-tolerant access to large quantities of data for a client/server network.

Fibre Channel

A distinct network transmission method that relies on fibre-optic media and its own proprietary protocol.

Supported services list

A document that lists every service that software package supported within an organization, plus the names of first- and second-level support contacts for those services or software packages.

Parttial-mesh Topology

A hybrid of a hub-and-spoke topology and a full-mesh topology. A partial-mesh can be designed to provide an optimal route between selected sites, while avoiding the expense of interconnecting every site to every other site.

Vault

A large tape storage library

IRQ

A message sent to the computer that instructs it to stop what it is doing and pay attention to something else. IRQ is often used to refer to the interrupt request number.

Integrity Checking

A method of comparing the current characteristics of files and disks against an archived version of these characteristics to discover any changes.

FM (frequency modulation)

A method of data modulation in which the frequency of the carrier signal is modified by the application of the data signal.

PoE (Power over Ethernet)

A method of delivering current to devices using Ethernet connection cables.

DDNS (Dynamic DNS)

A method of dynamically updating DNS records for a host. Its client computers are configured to notify a service provider when their IP addresses change, then the service provider propagates the DNS record change across the Internet automatically.

OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model

A model for understanding and developing computer-to-computer communication developed in the 1980s by ISO. It divides networking functions among seven layers: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application.

OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model

A model for understanding and developing computer-to-computer communication developed in the 1980s by ISO. It divides networking functions among seven layers: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session,Presentation, and Application.

AM (amplitude modulation)

A modulation technique in which the amplitude of the carrier signal is modified by the application of a data signal.

Brownout

A momentary decrease in voltage, also known as a sag.

Surge

A momentary increase in voltage caused by distant lightning strikes or electrical problems

Help desk analyst

A person who's proficient in basic (but not usually advanced) workstation and netwrok troubleshooting. Help desk analysts are part of first-level support.

OSPS

A routing protocol that makes up for some of the limitations of RIP and can coexist with RIP on a network.

FoIP (fax over IP)

A service that transmits faxes over TCP/IP network.

API (application program interface)

A set of routines that make up part of a software application.

Protocol analyzer

A software package or hardware-based tool that can capture and analyze data on a network. Protocol analyzers are more sophisticated than network monitoring tools, as they can typically interpret data up to Layer 7 of the OSI model.

External Disk Drive

A storage device that can be attached temporarily to a computer

Disk Duplexing

A storage fault-tolerance technique in which data is continually copied from one disk to another when it is saved, just as in dick mirroring.

Webcast

A streaming video, either on demand or live, that is delivered via the Web.

DiffServ (Differentiated Service)

A technique for ensuring QoS by prioritizing traffic. DiffServ places information in the DiffServ field in an IPv4 datagram. In IPv6 datagrams, DiffServ uses a similar field known as the Traffic Class field. The information indicates to the network routers how the data stream should be forwarded.

modulation

A technique for formatting signals in which one property of a simple carrier wave is modified by the addition of a data signal during transmission.

Static routing

A technique in which a network administrator programs a router to use specific paths between nodes. Because it does not account for occasional network congestion, failed connections, or device moves, static routing is not optimal.

Online Backup

A technique in which data is backed up to a central location over the Internet.

PBX (private branch exchange)

A telephone switch used to connect calls within a provate organization.

Cable performance tester

A troubleshooting tool that tests cables for continuity, but can measure cross talk, attenuation, and impedance; identify the location of faults; and store or print cable testing results.

Cat 7 (Category 7)

A twisted pair cable that contains multiple wire pairs, each separately shielded then surrounded by another layer of shielding within the jacket. It can support up to a 1-GHz signal rate. But because of its extra layers, it is less flexible than other forms of twisted pair wiring.

unicast

A unicast communication flow is a one-to-one flow.

network address

A unique identifying number for a network node that follows a hierarchical addressing scheme and can be assigned through operating system software.

PDU (protocol data unit)

A unit of data at any layer of the OSI model.

segment

A unit of data that results from subdividing a larger protocol data unit.

diskless workstation

A workstation that doesn't contain a hard disk, but instead relies on a small amount of read-only memory to connect to a network and to pick up its system files.

digital certificate

A(n) ____ is a password-protected and encrypted file that holds an individual's identification information, including a public key.

CO (Central Office)

A(n) _____ is the place where a telephone company terminates lines and switches calls between different locations.

MGC (Media Gateway Controllers)

A(n)____ is a computer that manages multiple media gateways.

An administrator needs to open ports in the firewall to support both major FTP transfer modes. Which of the following default ports was MOST likely opened? (Select TWO) A. 20 B. 21 C. 22 D. 23 E. 25 F. 53

AB

At which of the following layers do frames exist? (Select TWO). A. OSI model Data link layer B. TCP/IP model Network Interface layer C. OSI model Physical layer D. OSI model Network layer E. TCP/IP model Internet layer

AB

Which of the following TCP ports are used by FTP? (Select TWO). A. 20 B. 21 C. 22 D. 23 E. 25 F. 80

AB

A network administrator needs to implement a monitoring tool and be able to send log information to a server and receive log information from other clients. Which of the following should be implemented? (Select TWO). A. SNMP B. Network sniffer C. Syslog D. System log E. History log

AC

TCP

Acknowledged, Connection Orientated

application layer (TCP/IP stack)

Addresses concepts described by Layers 5, 6, and 7 (that is, the session, presentation, and application layers) of the OSI model.

False

After SONET, BPL has the best maximum throughput available. True or False

False

All VoIP calls are carried over the Internet. True or False

You have just purchased a new wireless access point. You change the security settings to use 128-bit encryption. How must the client systems be configured? A. All client systems must be set to 128-bit encryption. B. The client system inherits security settings from the AP. C. Wireless security does not support 128-bit encryption. D. The client wireless settings must be set to autodetect.

All client systems must be set to 128-bit encryption.

ANSI

American National Standards Institute

100

An 802.11g antenna has a geographic range of ____ meters.

spam

An unsolicited, unwanted e-mail.

loopback address

An IP address reserved for communicating from a node to itself (used mostly for troubleshooting purposes). The IPv4 loopback address is always cited as 127.0.0.1, although in fact, transmitting to any IP address whose first octet is 127 will contact the originating device. In IPv6, the loopback address is represented a ::1.

dynamic IP address

An IP address that is assigned to a device upon request and may change when the DHCP lease expires or is terminated. BOOTP and DHCP are two ways of assigning this.

static IP address

An IP address that is manually assigned to a device and remains constant until it is manually changed.

H.323

An ITU standard that describes an architecture and a suite of protocols for establishing and managing multimedia services sessions on a packet-switched network.

False

An ad hoc arrangement would work well for a WLAN with many users. True or False

loopback test

An attempt to contact one's own machine for troubleshooting purposes.

RAID Level 0

An implementation of RAID in which data is written in 64-KB blocks equally across all disks in the array.

RAID Level 1

An implementation of RAID that provides redundancy through disk mirroring, in which data from one disk is automatically copied to another disk as the information is written.

RAID Level 3

An implementation of RAID that uses disk striping for data and writes parity error correction code on separate parity disk

Continuity tester

An instrument that tests whether voltage (or light, in the case of fiber-optic cable) issued at one end of a cable can be detected at the opposite end of the cable. A continuity tester can indicate whether the cable will successfully transmit a signal.

ATA (analog telephone adapter)

An interal or externally attached adapter that converts analog telephone signals into packet-switched voice signals and vice-versa.

RIPv 2

An updated version of the original RIP protocol which makes up for some of its predecessor's overhead and security flaws. However, RIPv 2's packet forwarding is still limited to a maximum of 15 hops.

Fox and hound

Another term for the combination of devices known as a tone generator and a tone locator. The tone locator is considered the hound because it follows the tone generator (the fox).

Server

Another way of designing a network is to use a central computer, known as a server, to facilitate communication and resource sharing between other computers on the network, which are known as clients.

Which of the following assists a network administrator in reverse engineering malware and viruses? A. Virtual switches B. Virtual machines C. VLANs D. IDS

B

Which of the following can use a third party back-end LDAP user database for authentication? A. ISAKMP B. TACACS+ C. PKI D. CHAP

B

Which of the following characteristics allows an 802.11g WAP to have transfer speeds up to 108Mbps? A. MIMO technology B. Channel bonding C. Encryption type D. Frequency

B

Which of the following commands displays the routing table on a server or workstation? A. nbtstat B. route C. traceroute D. nmap

B

Which of the following connector types would be found with a VoIP system utilizing CAT6 cabling? A. SC B. RJ-45 C. RJ-11 D. BNC

B

Software distribution

Automatically transferring a file or installing an application from the server to a client on the network.

A MAC address is a part of which of the following OSI model layers? A. Network B. Data Link C. Physical D. Transport

B

Which of the following connectors is usable in SFP modules? A. ST B. LC C. LX D. SX

B

data link layer

As Layer 2 of the OSI model, this layer is concerned with the packaging of data into frames and transmitting those frames on a network, performing error detection/correction, uniquely identifying network devices with an address, and handling flow control.

transport layer (OSI model)

As Layer 4 of the OSI model, it acts as a dividing line between the upper layers and lower layers. Specifically, messages are taken from the upper layers (Layers 5-7) and encapsulated into segments for transmission to the lower layers (Layers 1-3). Similarly, data streams coming from lower layers are decapsulated and sent to Layer 5 (the session layer) or some other upper layer, depending on the protocol.

session layer

As Layer 5 of the OSI model, it's responsible for setting up, maintaining, and tearing down sessions.

The phone company has provided a channelized T1 line. Which of the following should this line be connected to? A. Switch B. CSU/DSU C. IDF D. MDF

B

link aggregation

As defined by the IEEE 802.3ad standard, link aggregation allows multiple physical connections to be logically bundled into a single logical connection.

RSTP

As described in IEEE'S 802.1w standard, a newer version of the Spanning Tree Protocol that can detect and correct for network changes much more quickly.

Which of the following is a common physical network topology? A. Cross-over B. Loopback C. Star D. Straight

C

Which of the following describes a single computer that is setup specifically to lure hackers into revealing their methods, and preventing real attacks on the production network? A. Evil twin B. Honeypot C. DMZ D. Honeynet

B

Which of the following dynamic routing protocols selects routing paths based upon hop count? A. BGP B. RIP C. OSPF D. IGRP

B

Clients

Clients usually take the form of personal computers, also known as workstations.

Which of the following devices is utilized to ensure traffic does not become congested while traveling over redundant links? A. Access control list B. Load balancer C. Content filter D. Proxy server

B

The security administrator needs to restrict specific devices from connecting to certain WAPs. Which of the following security measures would BEST fulfill this need? A. WAP placement B. MAC address filtering C. Content filtering D. Encryption type and strength

B

RSVP (Resource Reservation Protocol)

As specified in RFC 2205, a QoS technique that attempts to reserve a specific amount of network resources for a transmission before the transmission occurs.

When troubleshooting a connectivity issue, which of the following commands will give the technician a list of the host names connected to the network? A. ping B. nbstat C. arp D. msconfig

B

Which of the following BEST describes a firewall that can be installed via Add/Remove programs on a Windows computer? A. Managed B. Software C. Hardware D. Wireless

B

Which of the following DHCP properties defines the size of the pool of available IP addresses? A. Options B. Scope C. Leases D. Reservations

B

Rendezvous

Apple Computer's implementation of the Zeroconf group of protocols.

Voltage event

Any condition in which voltage exceeds or drops below predefined levels.

DTE (data terminal equipment)

Any end-user device, such as a workstation, terminal (essentially a monitor with little or no independent data-processing capability), or a console (for example, the user interface for a router).

resolver

Any host on the Internet that needs to look up domain name information.

video over IP

Any type of video service, including IPTV, videoconferencing, and streaming video, that delivers video signals over packet-switched networks using the TCP/IP protocol suite.

Smart Jack

At the customer's demecration point, either inside or outside the building, RJ-48 connectors terminate in a ________ _________.

D

At which layers of the OSI model are gateways capable of functioning? A. Layer 1 and 2 B. Layer 2 and 3 C. Layer 1,2, and 3 D. At all layers

borrowed bits

Bits added to a classful subnet mask.

Which of the address types sends data to all systems on a subnet or network instead of single hosts? A. Multicast B. Unicast C. Broadcast D. Anycast

Broadcast

You are implementing a 1000BaseT network. Which logical topology does the network use? A. Ring B. Star C. Mesh D. Bus

Bus

False

By default, the 802.11 standard offers substantial security. True or False

Which of the following devices can be utilized to monitor and block websites accessible by a company? A. WINS server B. DNS server C. Content filter D. Reverse proxy

C

Which of the following security devices can receive and process HTTP requests from hosts to allow or deny traffic for web browsing purposes only? A. Load balancer B. VPN concentrator C. Proxy server D. DNS server

C

Which of the following should be installed to prevent inappropriate websites from being viewed? A. Load balancer B. VPN concentrator C. Content filter D. Proxy server

C

Which of the following source ports is MOST likely to be used by a client when making an outbound TCP connection to a windows server? A. 80 B. 445 C. 3000 D. 3389

C

CAN

Campus -area network - an interconnection of networks located in nearby buildings. (ie: buildings on a college campus)

content switch

Can be used to load balance requests for content across a group of servers containing that content. If one of the servers in the group needed to have maintenance performed, that server could be administratively removed from the group, as defined on the content switch. As a result, the content switch can help maximize up time when performing server maintenance. It minimizes the individual servers by distributing its load across multiple identical servers. A content switch also allows a network to scale, because one or more additional servers could be added to the server group defined on the content switch, if the load on existing servers increases. crimper Used to attach a connector (for example, an RJ-45 connector) to the end of an unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cable.

CSMA/CD

Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection

Which type of cable should be used to swap out a bad run in a 1000BaseT network? A. RG-58 B. Category 5 UTP C. Category 5e UTP D. Multimode fiber

Category 5e UTP

Unified communications

Centralized management of multiple network-based communications.

Address management

Centrally managing a finite number of network addresses for an entire network.

As part of a network upgrade, you have installed a router on your network, creating two networks. Now, workstations on one side of the router cannot access workstations on the other side. Which of the following configuration changes would you need to make to the workstations to enable them to see devices on the other network? (Choose two.) A. Change the IP address assignments on one side of the router so that the router is on a different IP network from the other one. B. Update the default gateway information on all systems so that they use the newly installed router as the gateway. C. Update the default gateway information on all systems so that they use a workstation on the other network as the default gateway. D. Make sure that the IP address assignments on all network workstations are the same.

Change the IP address assignments on one side of the router so that the router is on a different IP network from the other one. Update the default gateway information on all systems so that they use the newly installed router as the gateway.

During a busy administrative week, you install a new virus suite in your network of 55 computers, a new RAID array in one of the servers, and a new office suite on 25 of the computer systems. After all the updates, you are experiencing system errors throughout the entire network. What should you do to help isolate the problem? A. Disable the RAID array. B. Uninstall the office suite. C. Check the virus suite vendor's website for system patches or service packs. D. Reinstall the virus software.

Check the virus suite vendor's website for system patches or service packs.

Telnet

Clear text remote, tcp 23

FTP

Clear text, tcp 21,20, used to copy files

You recently installed a DHCP server to replace static IP addressing. You configure all client systems to use DHCP and then reboot each system. After they are rebooted, they all have an IP address in the 169.254.0.0 range. Which of the following statements is true? A. The DHCP server has been configured to assign addresses in the 169.254.0.0 IP range. B. The DHCP server must be rebooted. C. Client systems cannot access the new DHCP server. D. Client systems receive IP address information from the HOSTS file.

Client systems cannot access the new DHCP server.

Client/Server Architecture

Client/Server Architecture is sometimes used to refer to the design of a network in which clients rely on servers for resource sharing and processing.

Line-of-Sight

Clients are able to exchange signals with satellites as long as they have a __________ path.

Asset management

Collecting and storing data on the number and types of software and hardware assets in an organization's network.

TFTP

Conection-less, udp 69 , used to transfer files

UDP

Connection-less, Unacknowledged

Distributed Backbone

Consist of a number of connectivity devices connected to a series of central connectivity devices.

Serial Backbone

Consists of two or more internetworking devices connected to each other by a single cable.

Which of the following terms describes how long it takes routers to update changes in the network topology? A. Poison reverse B. Split horizon with poison reverse C. Convergence D. BGP

Convergence

Backup and restoration of data

Copying (or backing up) critical data files to a secure storage area and then restoring (or retrieving) data if the original files are lost or deleted.

Which of the following security methods is used to attract users attempting to gain unauthorized access to various systems within a single network? A. Network based IDS B. Firewall C. Network based IPS D. Honeynet

D

Which of the following should be used when throughput to the destination network is a priority? A. MTU B. Hop count C. Reliability of the path D. Bandwidth

D

Which of the following standards can operate at 40MHz channel spacing? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11n

D

Which of the following standards can operate at either 20MHz or 40MHz channel spacing? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11n

D

Which of the following technologies can cause interference for 802.11g? A. RADAR B. 802.11a C. IrDA D. Bluetooth

D

Which of the following tools could attempt to detect operating system vulnerabilities? A. nslookup B. honeynet C. netstat D. nessus

D

Which of the following uses distance vector algorithms to determine the BEST network route to a destination address? A. IS-IS B. OSPF C. BGP D. RIP

D

Which of the following wireless standards can transmit data up to 540Mbps? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11n

D

Which of the following wireless standards is the only one capable of operating in either of the 802.11 wireless spectrums? A. A B. B C. G D. N

D

Which of the following wireless standards provide speeds up to 150Mbps? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11n

D

Which of the following wireless standards would BEST allow a company to utilize new and old devices on the 5GHz spectrum while allowing for the highest possible speeds? A. A B. B C. G D. N

D

Which of the following wiring distribution types, often found in company closets, is used to connect wiring from individual offices to the main LAN cabling? A. MDF B. 66 block C. IDF D. Patch panel

D

The network interface layer of the TCP/IP model corresponds with which of the following layers of the OSI model? (Select TWO). A. Transport layer B. Network layer C. Session layer D. Physical layer E. Presentation layer F. Data link layer

DF

Which of the following services provides name resolution services for FQDNs? A. DNS B. DHCP C. WINS D. ARP E. NTP

DNS

You are working as a network administrator on a UNIX system. The system uses dynamic name resolution. What is used to dynamically resolve a hostname on a UNIX server? A. TCP B. ARP C. DNS D. UDP

DNS

License tracking

Determining how many copies of a single application are currently in use on the network and ensuring that number does not exceed the number of licenses purchased.

Traffic monitoring and control

Determining how much traffic is taking place on a networking and notifying administrators when the network becomes overloaded.

Hardware diagnosis and failure alert

Determining when a network component fails and automatically notifying the network administrator through e-mail or paging.

True

Dial-Up ISDN does not convert a computer's digital signals to analog before transmitting them over the PSTN. True or False

On several occasions your wireless router has been compromised, and intruders are logging onto it. Which of the following strategies could you use to increase the security of the wireless routers? (Choose the two best answers.) A. Use SSL B. Disable SSID broadcast C. Use MAC filtering D. Use wireless filtering

Disable SSID broadcast. Use MAC filtering.

RIP,RIPv2,BGP

Distance-vector routing protocols decide on the basis of the distance to a destination. The three Distance-vector routing protocols are?

Load balancing

Distributing data transfer activity evenly across a network so that no single device becomes overwhelmed.

DHCP

Dynamic Addressing

Which of the following is a path vector routing protocol? A. RIP B. EIGRP C. ISIS D. OSPF E. BGP

E

Which of the following are authentication methods that can use AAA authentication? (Select TWO). A. Kerberos B. PKI C. TKIP/AES D. MS-CHAP E. RADIUS F. TACACS+

EF

alien cross talk

EMI interference induced on one cable by signals traveling over a nearby cable.

EIA

Electronic Industries Alliance

Security auditing

Evaluation what security measures are currently in force and notifying the network administrator if a security breach occurs.

A miscreant has added to rogue access point to your wireless network. Users are mistakenly connecting to that access point instead of the legitimate one they should connect to. What is this type of attack which eavesdrops on the wireless network known as? A. Evil twin B. War driving C. WEP cracking D. DDoS

Evil twin

During the night, one of your servers powers down. Upon reboot, print services do not load. Which of the following would be the first step in the troubleshooting process? A. Examine the server log files. B. Reboot the server. C. Reinstall the printer. D. Reinstall the printer software.

Examine the server log files.

You are managing a network that uses both a UNIX server and a Windows server. Which of the following protocols can you use to transfer files between the two servers? A. Telnet B. PPP C. FTP D. PPTP

FTP

Availability

How consistently and reliably a file, device, or connectioncan be accessed by authorized personnel

active

In ____ scanning, the station transmits a special frame, known as a probe, on all available channels within its frequency range.

File services

File services refer to the capability of a server to share data files, applications, and disk storage space.

endpoint

In SIP terminology, any client, server, or gateway communicating on the network.

Which of the following backup methods clear the archive bit? (Choose the two best answers.) A. Differential B. Sequential C. Full D. Incremental

Full Incremental

10GBase-LW

Has a Maximum Distance per Segment length of 10,000 meters.

100Base-TX

Has a Maximum Distance per Segment length of 100 meters

10GBase-EW

Has a Maximum Distance per Segment length of 40,000 meters.

Frequency

In wireless communication, to exchange info, 2 antennas must be tuned to the same ____________.

B

How many keys are required for public key encryption? A. One B. Two C. Four D. None

True

Human errors, ignorance, and omissions cause more than half of all security breaches sustained by networks. True or False

Which of the following statements is true of IMAP? A. IMAP leaves messages on the mail server so that they can be viewed and accessed from various locations. B. IMAP is used to send as well as receive email. C. IMAP can be used only to send mail. D. IMAP uses port 110.

IMAP leaves messages on the mail server so that they can be viewed and accessed from various locations.

ICMP

IP helper protocol, includes echo and echo reply

False

IP telephones are directly connected to the local loop. True or False

ARP

IP to MAC resolution

video over IP

IPTV, videoconferencing, streaming video, and IP multicasting belong to the range of services known as ______.

23

ISDN PRI uses ____ B channels and one 64-Kbps D channel.

B

If a firewall does nothing more than filter packets, at what layer of the OSI model does it operate? A. Transport B. Network C. Data Link D. Session

warchalking

If an open WLAN (or a WLAN whose SSID and authentication credentials are known) is found in a public place, a user might write a symbol on a wall (or some other nearby structure) to let others know the characteristics of the discovered network. This practice, which is a variant of the decades-old practice of hobos leaving symbols as messages to fellow hobos, is called warchalking.

interference

If intermittent and difficult-to-diagnose wireless communication errors occur, ____ might be the culprit.

subnet mask

In IPv4 addressing, a 32-bit number that, when combined with a device's IP address, indicates what kind of subnet the device belongs to.

user agent server

In SIP terminology, a server that responds to user agent clients' requests for session initiation and termination.

user agent

In SIP terminology, a user agent client or user agent server.

IP-PBX(PBX stands for private branch exchange)

In general, a(n) _____ is a private switch that accepts and interprets both analog and digital voice signals.

Third-level support

In network troubleshooting, a person or group with deep knowledge about specific networking topics to whom second-level support personnel escalate challenging problems.

Second-level support

In network troubleshooting, a person or group with deeper knowledge about a subject and to whom first-level support personnel escalate problems.

First-level support

In network troubleshooting, the person or group who initially fields requests for help from users.

Escalate

In network troubleshooting, to refer a problem to someone with deeper knowledge about the subject. For example, a first-level support person might escalate a router configuration issue to a second- or third-level support person.

transmission

In networking, the application of data signals to a medium or the progress of data signals over a medium from one point to another.

AF (Assured Forwarding)

In the DiffServ QoS technique, a forwarding specification that allows routers to assign data streams one of several prioritization levels. AF is specified in the DiffServ field in an IPv4 datagram.

A user on your network can send data packets within the local subnet but cannot send packets beyond the local subnet. Which of the following is likely the problem? A. Invalid permissions B. Incorrect gateway information C. No DNS server is installed D. Now WINS server is installed

Incorrect gateway information

Your ISP account manager suggests that it might be appropriate for you to install a DNS server internally. Which of the following functions does the DNS server perform? A. It performs network address translation services. B. It streamlines the resolution of NetBIOS names to IP addresses. C. It allows some hostname-to-IP address resolutions to occur internally. D. It allows users to retrieve Internet web pages more quickly.

It allows some hostname-to-IP address resolutions to occur internally.

True

It is more difficult to transmit VoIP and video over IP signals over a packet-switched network than it is to transmit data signals. True or False

Which of the following authentication systems uses tickets as part of its authentication process? A. HTTPS B. POP3 C. Kerberos D. SSL

Kerberos

Hub

Known as an Ethernet hub, it is an older technology used to interconnect network components, such as clients and servers. The available ports on a hub vary, It DOES NOT perform any inspection of the traffic it passes, instead it just receives traffic in a port and repeats that same traffic out all of its other ports.

LAN (local area network)

LAN is a network of computers and other devices that is confined to a relatively small space, such as one building or even one office.

physical layer

Layer 1 of the OSI model, it is concerned with the transmission of bits on a network. In addition is looks at wiring standards for connectors and jacks. What the physical topology looks like. Also deals with synchronizing bits or timing, bandwidth and multiplexing strategies.

network layer

Layer 3 of the OSI model, it is primarily concerned with forwarding data based on logical addresses. Packets are a Layer 3 Protocol

presentation layer

Layer 6 of the OSI model, it is responsible for the formatting of data being exchanged and securing the data with encryption.

application layer (OSI model)

Layer 7 of the OSI model, it provides application services to a network. An important, and an often-misunderstood concept, is that end-user applications do not reside at the application layer. Instead, the application layer supports services used by end-user applications. Another function of the application layer is advertising available services.

LAN

Local-area network - interconnects network components within a local region. (ie: within a building.)

LLC

Logical Link Control Sublayer - The upper sublayer in the Data Link layer. The LLC provides a common interface and supplies reliability and flow control services.

Broadcast Domain

Logically grouped network nodes that can communicate directly via broadcast transmissions.

Mail services

Mail services coordinate the storage and transfer of e-mail between users on a network.

MEGACO

Many network engineers consider_____ to be superior to MGCP.

unicast

Many streaming video services-and nearly all of those issued over a public network, such as the Internet-are examples of _____ transmissions.

MAN

Metropolitan-area network - Interconnects locations scattered throughout a metropolitan area. (ie: Chicago Public Schools)

True

Most cloud service providers use virtualization software to supply multiple platforms to multiple users. True or False

Parallel Backbone

Most robust type of network backbone

22,300

Most satellites circle the Earth ____ miles above the equator in a geosynchronous orbit.

IGMP

Multicast group managment

When designing a network, you have been asked to select a cable that offers the most resistance to crosstalk. Which of the following are you likely to choose? A. Multimode fiber-optic B. Shielded twisted pair C. UTP D. Shielded mesh

Multimode fiber-optic

Which of the following media types is used with the 802.3 1000BaseSX standard? A. Coaxial B. UTP C. Single-mode fiber-optic D. Multimode fiber-optic

Multimode fiber-optic

DNS

Name Resolution, udp 53

SMNP

Network maganment, udp 161

Network Management Services

Network management services centrally administer management tasks on the network, such as ensuring that no more than 20 workstations are using Adobe Photoshop at one time in an organization that purchased a 20-user license for the software.

True

Network security is more often compromised "from the inside" than from external sources. True or False

Resources

Networks enable multiple users to share devices (for example, printers) and data (such as spreadsheet files), which are collectively known as the network's resources.

redirect server

On a SIP network, a server that accepts and responds to requests from user agents and SIP proxy servers for location information on recipients that belong to external domains.

proxy server

On a SIP network, a server that accepts requests for location information from user agents, then queries the nearest registrar server on behalf of those user agents. If the recipient user agent is in the SIP proxy server's domain, then that server will also act as a go-between for calls established and terminated between the requesting user agent and the recipient user agent.

registrar server

On a SIP network, a server that maintains a database containing information about the locations (network addresses) of each user agent in its domain. When the user agent joins a SIP network, it transmits its location information to the SIP registrar server.

H.323 gateway

On a network following the H.323 standard, a gateway that provides translation between network devices running H.323 signaling protocols and devices running other types of signaling protocols (for example, SS7 on te PSTN).

H.323 terminal

On a network following the H.323 standard, any node that provides audio, visual, or data information to another node.

D

On an ISDN connection, what device separates the voice signal from the data signals at the customer premises? A. Network termination B. Terminal equipment C. Multiplexer D. Terminal adapter

False

PPTP and L2TP are the only protocols that can be used to carry VPN traffic.

Which of the following statements best describes PRI ISDN? A. PRI ISDN uses 128 B channels and two D channels. B. PRI ISDN uses 23 B channels and one D channel. C. PRI ISDN uses two B channels and one D channel. D. PRI ISDN uses 23 D channels and one B channel.

PRI ISDN uses 23 B channels and one D channel.

You suspect that someone is capturing the data sent on your network. You want to capture data to ensure that it is encrypted and cannot be read by intruders. Which of the following network utilities can both intruders and administrators use to capture network traffic? A. Port scanner B. Packet filter C. Data watcher D. Packet sniffer

Packet Sniffer

66 block

Part of an organization's cross-connect facilities, a type of punch-down block used for many years to terminate telephone circuits. It does not meet Cat 5 or better standards, and so it is infrequently used on data networks.

plenum

Plenum cabling is fire retardant and minimizes toxic fumes released by network cabling if that cable were to catch on fire. As a result, plenum cabling is often a requirement of local fire codes for cable in raised flooring or in other open air return ducts.

firewall

Primarily a network security appliance, a firewall can protect a trusted network (for example, a corporate LAN) from an untrusted network (for example, the Internet) by allowing the trusted network to send traffic into the untrusted network and receive the return traffic from the untrusted network, while blocking traffic for sessions that were initiated on the untrusted network.

Print services

Print services refer to the capability to share printer across a network.

Placing a node on which of the following types of networks would require that you obtain and address from the IANA (whether you do so directly or an ISP does so on your behalf)? A. Private network B. Public network C. Ethernet network D. LAN

Public network

authentication, authorization, and accounting

RADIUS and TACACS belong to a category of protocols known as AAA (____).

Which of the following protocols maps Layer 2 addresses to Layer 3 addresses on a TCP/IP network? A. ARPA B. ARP C. AARP D. RARP

RARP

B

Which of the following requires port-based authentication? A. Kerberos B. RADIUS C. WEP D. WPA

RFID (radio frequency identification) tags

RFID tags emit a wireless signal at all times across a network, which can communicate with other devices.

802.11b

Ratified in 1999, this standard supports speeds as high as 11 Mbps. However, 5.5 Mbps is another supported data rate. The 802.11b standard uses the 2.4-GHz band and the DSSS transmission method.

RTP

Real-time Transport Protocol - A Layer 4 protocol that carries voice (and interactive video).

Logical Topology

Refers to the way in which data is transmitted between nodes.

You have been hired to review the security of a company's network. Upon investigation, you notice that a wireless AP has been installed in a wiring closet without the consent of the administrator. The AP is actively used by remote users to access resources on the company's network. Which security problem does this represent? A. Rogue protocol interception B. Rogue AP C. Network sniffing D. Social engineering

Rogue AP

Which two of the following devices can operate at the network layer of the OSI model? A. AP B. Switch C. Hub D. Router

Router

distance-vector, link-state, or a hybrid of distance-vector and linkstate

Routing protocols can be divided into three types, which are:

False

SIP and H.323 account for communication between media gateways. True or False

SSH

Secure Shell, tcp 22, Linux and Cisco remote Management

HTTPS

Secure WWW, tcp 443

slash notation

See prefix notation. A method of indicating how many bits are in a subnet mask. For example, /24 is prefix notation for a 24-bit subnet mask. Prefix notation is also known as slash notation.

SIP

Session Initiation Protocol - A VoIP signaling protocol used to set up, maintain, and tear down VoIP phone calls.

You have been called in to replace a faulty ST connector. Which of the following media types are you working with? A. RG-58 B. RB-62 C. Single-mode fiber D. SCSI

Single-mode fiber

Which of the following network types is easiest to add new nodes to? A. Bus B. Ring C. Star D. Mesh E. Hybrid

Star

private IP addresses

Specific Class A, B, and C networks have been designed for private use. Although these networks are routable (with the exception of the 169.254.0.0-169.254.255.255 address range), within the organization, service providers do not route these private networks over the public Internet.

True

Spread spectrum is a popular way of making wireless transmissions more secure. True or False

Which term describes the process of using parts of the node address range of an IP address as the network ID? A. Subnetting B. Supernetting C. Subnet masking D. Super routing

Subnetting

C

Suppose you work for a bank and are leasing a frame relay connection to link an automatic teller machine located in a rural grocery store with your bank's headquarters. Which of the following circuits would be the best option, given the type of use this automatic teller machine will experience? A. DLC B. PVC C SVC D. HLC

What network device forwards packets only to an intended port? A. Hub B. Switch C. PPPoE D. PPP

Switch

Which of the following devices are specifically designed to deal with attenuation? (Choose two.) A. Switch B. Passive hub C. DHCP server D. Repeater

Switch Repeater

Which of the following protocols can recover from lost or corrupted packets in a network transmission? A. L2TP B. TCP C. FTP D. ARP

TCP

Dynamic Ports

TCP/IP ports in the range of 49,152 through 65,535, which are open for use without requiring administrative privileges on a host or approval from IANA.

802.3

The IEEE standard for Ethernet

802.3

The IEEE standard for Ethernet networking devices and data handling (using the CSMA/CD access method).

802.16

The IEEE standard for broadband wireless metropolitan area networking (also know as WiMAX).

802.16

The IEEE standard for broadband wireless metropolitan area networking (also known as WiMAX).

802.2

The IEEE standard for error and flow control in data frames.

802.5

The IEEE standard for token ring

802.5

The IEEE standard for token ring networking devices and data handling.

802.11

The IEEE standard for wireless networking.

802.1D

The IEEE standard that describes , among other things, bridging and STP

802.3ae

The IEEE standard that describes 10-Gigabit Ethernet

802.3ab

The IEEE standard that describes 1000Base-T

802.3an

The IEEE standard that describes 10GBase-T

Well Known Ports

The TCP/IP port numbers 0 to 1023, so named because they were long ago assigned by Internet authorities to popular services (for example, FTP and Telnet), and are, therefore, well known and frequently used.

Registered Ports

The TCP/IP ports in the range of 1024 to 49,151. These ports are accessible to network users and processes that do not have special administrative privileges.

PSTN

The ________ encompasses the entire telephone system, from the wires that enter homes and businesses to the Network Centers that connect different regions of a country.

Trunking

The aggregation of multiple logical connections and one physical connection between connectivity devices. In the case of VLANs, trunking allows data from multiple VLANs to share a single interface on a switch.

lease

The agreement between a DHCP server and client on how long the client can use a DHCP-assigned IP address. DHCP services can be configured to provide lease terms equal to any amount of time.

throughput

The amount of data that a medium can transmit during a given period of time.

plenum

The area above the ceiling tile or below the subfloor in a building.

20

The average geographic range for an 802.11a antenna is ____ meters.

Mail server

The computer responsible for mail services.

IPv4 (IP version 4)

The current standard for IP addressing that specifies 32-bit addresses composed of four octets.

Transport layer

The fourth layer of the OSI model. In this layer protocols ensure that data are transferred from point A to point B reliably and without errors. this layer services include flow control, acknowledgment, error correction, segmentation, reassembly, and sequencing.

Network services

The functions that are provided by a network, such as e-mail, printer sharing, file sharing, voice,Internet and Web site delivery, etc.

softphone

The popular Internet telephony software, Skype, is a type of ____.

Collision Domain

The portion of an Ethernet network in which collisions could occur if two nodes transmit data at the same time.

network ID

The portion of an IP address common to all nodes on the same network or subnet.

Presentation layer

The sixth layer of the OSI model. Protocols in the Presentation layer translate between the application and the network. Here, data are formatted in a schema that the network can understand, with the format varying according to the type of network used. The Presentation layer also manages data encryption and decryption, such as the scrambling of system passwords.

Presentation layer

The sixth layer of the OSI model. Protocols in this layer translate between the application and the network. Here, data are formatted in a schema that the network can understand, with the format varying according to the type of network used. This layer also manages data encryption and decryption.

soft skills

The skills such as customer relations, leadership ability, and dependability

False

The software required to establish VPNs is usually expensive. True or False

Device driver

The software that enables the device to communicate with the computer's operating system.

domain name

The symbolic name that identifies a domain. Usually, it is associated with a company or other type of organization, such as a university or military unit.

User

The term client may also refer to the human user of a client workstation or to client software installed on the workstation.

off-site

The term off-site in the context of virtualization technologies refers to hosting virtual devices on hardware physically located in a service provider's data center.

On-site

The term on-site in the context of virtualization technologies refers to hosting virtual devices on hardware physically located in a corporate data center.

Remote user

The term remote user refers to a person working on a computer on a different network or in a different geographical location from the LAN's server.

Network layer

The third layer in the OSI model. Protocols in the Network layer translate network addresses into their physical counterparts and decide how to route data from the sender to the receiver.

Network layer

The third layer in the OSI model. Protocols in this layer translate network addresses into their physical counterparts and decide how to route data from the sender to the receiver.

Transmission media

The through which data is transmitted and received.

convergence time

The time it takes for a router to recognize a best path in the event of a change or network outage.

Convergence time

The time it takes for a router to recognize the best pass in the event of a change or network outage.

Bus

The type of circuit used by a computer's motherboard to transmit data to components. Most new Pentium computers use buses capable of exchanging 32 or 64 bits of data. As the number of bits of data a bus handles increases, so too does the speed of the device attached to the bus.

Internet layer

This layer of the TCP/IP stack maps to Layer 3 (network layer) of the OSI model. Although multiple routed protocols (for example, IP, IPX, and AppleTalk) reside at the OSI model's network layer, the Internet layer of the TCP/IP stack focuses on IP as the protocol to be routed through a network.

NTP

Time Sync, udp 123

Which of the following are reasons to implement a proxy server? (Choose two.) A. To centrally control Internet access. B. To protect the internal network from intruders. C. To provide NAT services. D. To provide automatic IP addressing on the network

To centrally control Internet access. To provide NAT services.

virtual adapter

To connect to a network, a virtual machine requires a _______.

route

To intelligently direct data between networks based on addressing, patterns of usage, and availability of network segments.

ping

To send an echo request signal from one node on a TCP/IP-based network to another, using the PING utility.

Bus Topology

Typically a main cable runs through the area, all devices requiring connectivity tap into or are connected to this main cable.

Spam

Unsolicited or junk e-mail.

SIP

VoIP connection

RTP

VoIP transport

Publicly

WANs typically send data over ________ available communications network.

HTTP

WWW, tcp port 80

FITH (Fiber to the Home)

What does FITH stand for?

FTTP (Fiber To The Premises)

What does FTTP stand for?

Cat 3

What is the minimum cabling standard required for 10Base-T Ethernet.

Cat 6

What is the minimum cabling standard required for 10GBase-T Ethernet.

A

What is the purpose of ISDN's D channel? A. To carry call session information B. To carry error-checking information C. To enable time division multiplexing D. To carry data

Ensure the data is at least 46 bytes

What is the purpose of padding an Ethernet frame?

B

What potential problem does STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) address? A. An excess of erroneously short packets B. A broadcast storm C. Network congestion due to a router failure D. Slow convergence time

A

What protocol manages addressing for multicast groups? A. IGMP B. MGCP C. MEGACO D. H.245

Fixed Packet

What sets ATM apart from Ethernet is its _______ ______size.

C

What technique does T1 technology use to transmit multiple signals over a single telephone line? A. Amplitude modulation B. Wave division multiplexing C. Time division multiplexing D. Frequency modulation

A

Which of the following techniques would prevent an FTP bounce attack? A. Configuring your firewall to deny requests to ports 20 and 21 B. Performing a port scan of your network using NMAP C. Configuring the FTP service to require a password D. Restricting the size of your FTP server's memory allocation table

Which of the following is not a type of Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) technology? A. VHDSL B. RADSL C. ADSL D. XTDSL

XTDSL

D

You are designing an 802.11n wireless network for a local cafe. You want the wireless network to be available to the cafe's customers, but not to anyone with a wireless NIC who happens to be in the vacinity. Which of the following security measures require customers to enter a network key to gain access to your network via the access point? A. SSL B. IPSec C. TLS D. WPA2

B

You have decided to add a honeypot to your network. Wher on the network would you place it? A. On your company's Web server B. In a decoy DMZ C. Between the Access server and RADIUS server D. Attached to a workgroup switch

SIP (Session Initiation Protocol)

__ signalling functions are more limited than those performed by the protocols in the H.323 group.

Virtual bridges

____ connect vNICs with a network, whether virtual or physical.

bit (binary digit)

a single pulse in the digital encoding system. It may have only one of two values: 0 or 1.

Media

a way to interconnect devices on a network. For example, copper cabling, fiber-optic cable or wireless connections.

peer-to-peer network

allows interconnected devices (ie: PCs) to share their resources with one another. These resources could be for example, files or printers.

Switch

an Ethernet switch interconnects network components.It is available with a variety of port densities. A switch learns which devices reside off of which ports. As a result, the switch learns where the traffic is destined and forwards the traffic out only the appropriate port, not out all of the other ports.

API

application program interface - A set of routines

DB-25

connector A type of connector with 25 pins that's commonly used in serial communication that conforms to the RS-232 standard.

Server

serves up resources to a network. For example, E-mail access provided by an E-mail server, web pages provided by a web server, or data files available on a file server.

SMTP

email, Server to Server and sending, tcp 25

POP3

email, downloads inbox, tcp 110

IMAP

email, works with mail on server, tcp 143

You have installed a web-based database system on your PC so that you can enter troubleshooting information and retrieve it from any location on the network. Your system's IP address is 192.168.1.164. You are not overly concerned about security, but as a basic measure, you allocate the web server application a port number of 9191 rather than the default port of 80. Assuming that you are working from another system on the network, what would you type into the address bar of a web browser to access the database? A. http://192.168.1.164.9191 B. http://192.168.1.164/9191 C. http://192.168.1.164//9191 D. http://192.168.1.164:9191

http://192.168.1.164:9191

What utility would you use to check the IP configuration on a Windows 7 system? A. netstat B. nslookup C. ping D. ipconfig

ipconfig

Ethernet

is a Layer 1 technology developed by Xerox and encompasses a variety of standards, which specify various media types, speeds, and distance limitations.

telecommunications closet Also known as a "telco room,"

the space that contains connectivity for groups of workstations in a defined area, plus cross-connections to IDFs or, in smaller organizations, an MDF. Large organizations may have several of it per floor, but the TIA/EIA standard specifies at least one per floor.

A user complains that access to a web page is slow. What utility can you use to find the bottleneck? A. ping B. Telnet C. tracert D. nbtstat

tracert

channel bonding

two wireless bands can be logically bonded together, forming a band with twice the bandwidth of an individual band. Some literature refers to channel bonding as 40 MHz mode , which refers to the bonding of two adjacent 20-MHz bands into a 40-MHz band.

DSSS

(Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum) Modulates data over an entire range of frequencies using a series symbols called chips . A chip is shorter in duration than a bit, meaning that chips are transmitted at a higher rate than the actual data. These chips not only represent encoded data to be transmitted, but also what appears to be random data. Because both parties involved in a DSSS communication know which chips represent actual data and which chips do not, if a third-party intercepted a DSSS transmission, it would be difficult for that party to eavesdrop on the data, because he would not easily know which chips represented valid bits. DSSS is more subject to environmental factors, as opposed to FHSS and OFDN, because it uses of an entire frequency spectrum.

DNS

(Domain Name System) (DNS) server - Performs the task of taking a domain name (for example, www.ciscopress.com) and resolving that name into a corresponding IP address (for example, 10.1.2.3).

DHCP

(Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) Dynamically assigns IP address information (for example, IP address, subnet mask, DNS server's IP address, and default gateway's IP address) to network devices.

ESS

(Extended Service Set) WLANs containing more than one AP are called ESS WLANs. Like BSS WLANs, ESS WLANs operate in infrastructure mode. When you have more than one AP, take care to prevent one AP from interfering with another. Specifically, nonoverlapping channels (that is, channels 1, 6, and 11 for the 2.4-GHz band) should be selected for adjacent wireless coverage areas.

FHSS

(Frequency-Hopping Spread Spectrum) Allows the participants in a communication to hop between predetermined frequencies. Security is enhanced, because the participants can predict the next frequency to be used while a third party cannot easily predict the next frequency. FHSS can also provision extra bandwidth by simultaneously using more than one frequency.

IBSS

(Independent Basic Service Set) A WLAN can be created without the use of an AP. Such a configuration, called an IBSS, is said to work in an ad-hoc fashion. An ad-hoc WLAN is useful for temporary connections between wireless devices. For example, you might temporarily interconnect two laptop computers to transfer a few files.

MIMO

(Multiple Input Multiple Output) uses multiple antennas for transmission and reception. These antennas do not interfere with one another, thanks to MIMO's use of spatial multiplexing, which encodes data based on the antenna from which the data will be transmitted. Both reliability and throughput can be increased with MIMO's simultaneous use of multiple antennas.

NaaS

(Network as a Service) - A service provider offering where clients can purchase data services (for example, e-mail, LDAP, and DNS services) traditionally hosted in a corporate data center.

OSI

(Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model) Commonly referred to as the OSI model or the OSI stack . This seven-layer model categorizes various network technologies. It is a way to organize network components.

OFDM

(Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing) While DSSS used a high modulation rate for the symbols it sends, OFDM uses a relatively slow modulation rate for symbols. This slower modulation rate, combined with the simultaneous transmission of data over 52 data streams, helps OFDM support high data rates while resisting crosstalk between the various data streams.

PoE

(Power over Ethernet) Defined by the IEEE 802.3af and 802.3at standards, PoE allows an Ethernet switch to provide power to an attached device (for example, a wireless access point, security camera, or IP phone), by applying power to the same wires in a UTP cable that are used to transmit and receive data.

STP

(Spanning Tree Protocol) Defined by the IEEE 802.1D standard, it allows a network to have redundant Layer 2 connections, while logical preventing a loop, which could lead to symptoms such as broadcast storms and MAC address table corruption.

TCP

(Transmission Control Protocol) A connection-oriented transport protocol. Connection-oriented transport protocols provide reliable transport, in that if a segment is dropped, the sender can detect that drop and retransmit that dropped segment. Specifically, a receiver acknowledges segments that it receives. Based on those acknowledgments, a sender can determine which segments were successfully received.

UDP

(User Datagram Protocol) A connectionless transport protocol. Connectionless transport protocols provide unreliable transport, in that if a segment is dropped, the sender is unaware of the drop, and no retransmission occurs.

WPA2

(Wi-Fi Protected Access version 2) Uses Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) for integrity checking and Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) for encryption. These algorithms enhance the security offered by WPA.

WPA

(Wi-Fi Protected Access) developed its own security standard to address the weaknesses of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP). This new security standard was called Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) version 1.

WEP

(Wired Equivalent Privacy) A security standard for WLANs. With WEP, an AP is configured with a static WEP key. Wireless clients needing to associate with an AP are configured with an identical key (making this a preshared key [PSK] approach to security). The IEEE 802.11 standard specifies a 40-bit WEP key, which is considered to be a relatively weak security measure.

AP

(Wireless Access Point) A device that connects to a wired network and provides access to that wired network for clients that wirelessly attach to the (AP) access point.

CSMA/CD

(carrier sense multiple access collision detect) Used on an Ethernet network to help prevent a collision from occurring and to recover if a collision does occur. CSMA/CD is only needed on half-duplex connections.

CIDR

(classless interdomain routing) Shortens a classful subnet mask by removing right-justified 1s from a classful mask. As a result, CIDR allows contiguous classful networks to be aggregated. This process is sometimes called route aggregation.

CRC

(cyclic redundancy check) A mathematical algorithm that is executed on a data string by both the sender and receiver of the data string. If the calculated CRC values match, the receiver can conclude that the data string was not corrupted during transmission.

dB

(decibel (dB)) A ratio of radiated power to a reference value. In the case of dBi, the reference value is the signal strength (that is, the power) radiated from an isotropic antenna, which represents a theoretical antenna that radiates an equal amount of power in all directions (in a spherical pattern). An isotropic antenna is considered to have gain of 0 dBi.

EMI

(electromagnetic interference) An electromagnetic waveform that can be received by network cable (possibly corrupting data traveling on the cable) or radiated from a network cable (possibly interfering with data traveling on another cable).

LAN

(local area network) A network of computers and other devices that is confined to a relatively small space, such as one building or even one office.

MMF

(multimode fiber) Multimode fiber-optic cabling has a core with a diameter large enough to permit the injection of light into the core at multiple angles. The different paths (that is, modes ) that light travels can lead to multimode delay distortion, which causes bits to be received out of order, because the pulses of light representing the bits traveled different paths (and therefore, different distances).

PDU

(protocol data unit) The name given to data at different layers of the OSI model. Specifically, the PDU for Layer 4 is segment. The Layer 3 PDU is packet, the Layer 2 PDU is frame , and the Layer 1 PDU is bit .

STP

(shielded twisted-pair STP) cabling prevents wires in a cable from acting as an antenna, which might receive or transmit EMI. STP cable might have a metallic shielding, similar to the braided wire that acts as an outer conductor in a coaxial cable.

SMF

(single-mode fiber) SMF cabling has a core with a diameter large enough to permit only a single path for light pulses (that is, only one mode of propagation). By having a single path for light to travel, SMF eliminates the concern of multimode delay distortion .

TDM

(time-division multiplexing) Supports different communication sessions (for example, different telephone conversations in a telephony network) on the same physical medium, by allowing sessions to take turns. For a brief period of time, defined as a time slot, data from the first session is sent, followed by data from the second sessions. This continues until all sessions have had a turn, and the process repeats itself.

UTP

(unshielded twisted-pair) cable Blocks EMI from the copper strands making up a twisted-pair cable by twisting the strands more tightly (that is, more twists per centimeter [cm]). By wrapping these strands around each other, the wires insulate each other from EMI.

VLAN

(virtual Local-Area Network) A single broadcast domain, representing a single subnet.Typically, a group of ports on a switch are assigned to a single VLAN. For traffic to travel between two VLANs, that traffic needs to be routed.

You are troubleshooting a network connectivity error, and you need to issue a continuous ping command. Which of the following switches is used with ping to send a continuous ping message? A. -p B. -t C. -c D. -r

-t

You need to install a network printer, and you require the printer's MAC address to finish the installation. Which of the following is a valid MAC address? A. 192.168.2.13 B. 0x00007856 C. 00:04:e2:1c:7b:5a D. 56g78:00h6:1415

00:04:e2:1c:7b:5a

You are working with an IPv6 network, and you need to ping the local loopback address. You know that the loopback address for the IPv4 is 127.0.0.1, and you need the equivalent for the IPv6 network. Which address should you use? (Choose two.) A. 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 B. ::1 C. ::127 D. FE80::

0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 ::1

In a hardware loopback plug, which wire numbers are connected? (Choose the two best answers.) A. 3 and 5 B. 1 and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. 3 and 4 E. 2 and 6

1 and 3 2 and 6

1 gigabit per second (Gbps)

1,000,000,000 bits per second.

To increase wireless network security, you have decided to implement port-based security. Which of the following standards specifies port-based access control? A. 802.11x B. 802.1x C. 802.11b D. 802.1b

802.1x

Which of the following IEEE specifications does CSMA/CD relate to? A. 802.11b B. 802.2 C. 802.5 D. 802.3

802.3

A client's computer is unable to access any network resources. Which of the following utilities can a technician use to determine the IP address of the client's machine? A. ipconfig B. nslookup C. dig D. tracert

A

A company has asked the network administrator to restrict access to any websites with unauthorized material. Which of the following technologies would BEST accomplish this? A. Content filter B. Packet filter C. IPS D. IDS

A

A company has gone through several upgrades on their network but unfortunately have no way of identifying who approved the upgrades. Which of the following should be implemented to track this type of work? A. Change management B. Asset management C. Access log D. Baselines

A

A company is experiencing a denial of service attack and wants to identify the source IP address of the attacker in real time. Which method is the BEST way to accomplish this? A. Network sniffer B. Syslog C. SNMPv3 D. System logs

A

A company needs to find a way to best route latency-sensitive traffic appropriately on an already congested network. Which of the following would be BEST suited for this purpose? A. QoS B. PPPoE C. RADIUS D. VPN

A

domain

A group of computers that belong to the same organization and have part of their IP addresses in common.

A network administrator has decided to tighten company security after a recent data breach. The new scheme calls for a strong 10 character password, a special 4 digit pin code, and a one-time use dynamic token that is accessed via a smartphone application. Which of the following is being implemented? A. Two-factor authentication B. Biometric security C. Multi-factor authentication D. Single factor authentication

A

A network administrator is replacing old switches to support a VoIP deployment. Based on this parameter, which of the following is MOST likely to be implemented on these new switches? A. PoE B. STP C. NAT D. VTP

A

A network administrator is setting up a WAP and wants to disable the ability of gaining access from the parking garage. Which of the following should the network administrator review? A. Signal strength B. SSID name C. WPA2 encryption D. WEP encryption

A

A network administrator is tasked with blocking unwanted spam is being relayed by an internal email server. Which of the following is the FIRST step in preventing spam that is originating from bots on the network? A. Closing off port 25 on the firewall B. Closing off port 53 on the firewall C. Turning off the SMTP service on the email server D. Turning off the IMAP service on the email server

A

A network administrator is tasked with deploying a company-wide wireless system which allows for accurate tracking of employees' wireless device locations via WAP triangulation. Which of the following is the MOST important aspect of the deployment? A. WAP placement B. TX/RX channel C. Signal strength D. Transmission power

A

A network administrator tests a multimode fiber cable from end-to-end on a new link that is down and notices that the dB loss is -.09. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. TXRX reversed B. dB loss too high C. dB loss too low D. Bad connectors

A

A network administrator wants to balance the amount of data between two networking cards. Which of the following can be used for two or more networking cards? A. NIC bonding B. Proxy server C. Firewall ACLs D. VLANs

A

A network administrator wants to see what ports are open on a server. Which of the following commands will show open ports? A. netstat B. tracert C. nbtstat D. nslookup

A

A network technician has a RADIUS server IP address that must be included as part of the security settings for a WAP. Which of the following encryption types should the technician select? A. WPA enterprise B. TKIP C. WPA2 CCMP D. WEP 128-bit

A

A network technician has configured a new firewall with a rule to deny UDP traffic. Users have reported that they are unable to access Internet websites. The technician verifies this using the IP address of a popular website. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the error? A. Implicit deny B. HTTP transports over UDP C. Website is down D. DNS server failure

A

A network technician has determined a managed network switch has failed. The technician knows how to install a new switch, but not how to properly configure it. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the technician take NEXT? A. Escalate the problem B. Identify potential effects C. Test the theory to determine cause D. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem

A

A network technician is troubleshooting signal problems with certain WAPs in an office and finds consistently high ping times across the units. Such an issue is called which of the following? A. Latency B. Attenuation C. Crosstalk D. Frequency hopping

A

A new technician has been tasked with implementing a QoS policy for the Network. The technician decides it would be best to monitor the information traversing the network to gain statistical information on ports and protocols utilized. Which of the following tools should the technician use to complete this objective QUICKEST? A. Traffic analyzer B. Network sniffer C. SNMPv3 D. System logs

A

A security appliance is blocking a DDoS attack on the network. Which of the following logs would be used to troubleshoot the traffic patterns trying to go across the network? A. IPS logs B. Application logs C. IDS logs D. History logs

A

A technician can increase the bandwidth of an 802.11n cell by: A. doubling the channel width. B. enabling diversity. C. disabling MIMO. D. adding a second access point.

A

A technician decides to upgrade a router before leaving for vacation. While away, users begin to report slow performance. Which of the following practices allows other technicians to quickly return the network to normal speeds? A. Change management B. Baselines C. Asset management D. Cable management

A

A technician finds that the network card is no longer functioning. At which of the following OSI layers is the problem occurring? A. Layer 1 B. Layer 3 C. Layer 5 D. Layer 7

A

A technician has been called about intermittent connectivity near IDF 2. Multiple cables were recently pulled through a common conduit. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the problem? A. Crosstalk B. Bad connectors C. Wrong DNS D. Duplicate IP address

A

A technician has been dispatched to investigate an issue where several users in the same aisle have stated they have had no network connection for over an hour. When the technician gets there, the network seems to be up and running. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? A. Ask the users for more information, such as which applications were not functioning. B. Power-cycle the switch that the users share to clear out cached DNS records. C. Escalate the issue to the network administrator to have their domain credentials reset. D. Close and document the service call, as there was no actual issue affecting the users.

A

A technician is having issues accessing the Internet from the workstation. They are able to ping the DNS server and their default gateway. Which of the following commands can be used to verify DNS is functioning properly? A. nslookup B. netstat C. traceroute D. nbtstat

A

A technician is troubleshooting authentication issues on a server. It turns out the clock on the server was 72 minutes behind. Setting the clock to the correct time fixed the issue. Given the scenario, which of the following authentication methods was being used? A. Kerberos B. CHAP C. TACACS+ D. RADIUS

A

A technician needs to install network device in a SOHO network. The office requires 9 wired workstations to share and print data. Which of the following can the technician use? A. A 12 port unmanaged switch. B. A wired router with an 8 port switch and a WAN port. C. A wireless router with an 8 port switch, and a WAN port. D. A 8 port firewall with one console port.

A

A technician needs to setup an Internet connection for a small office. There are five users that need the ability to use email and do online research. The office manager wants the connection to be always on and be as inexpensive as possible. Which of the following would BEST fit the needs of this office? A. Broadband B. T1 C. Frame Relay D. Satellite

A

A technician wants to separate networks on a switch. Which of the following should be configured to allow this? A. VLAN B. Trunking C. Spanning tree D. Traffic filtering

A

A technician, Joe, visits a site that has reported a network down emergency. He immediately reboots the switches and the router since the network is down. Which of the following network troubleshooting methodology steps should Joe have performed FIRST? A. Determine if anything has changed B. Once a theory is confirmed determine the next step is to resolve the problem C. Implement the solution or escalate as necessary D. Question the obvious

A

A user calls the helpdesk to report not being able to access network resources over the company's Wi-Fi connection. During information gathering, the user mentions that the wireless network their computer is signed into is not the same name as it had been previously. Which of the following is the underlying cause? A. SSID mismatch B. Incorrect WPA key C. Signal bounce D. Antenna placement

A

A user is connecting to the Internet at an airport through an ad-hoc connection. Which of the following is the MOST likely security threat? A. Man-in-the-middle B. Social engineering C. Phishing D. DoS

A

A user is trying to connect to the wireless network in the office but is unable to establish a consistent connection. The computer alternates connecting between several similarly configured access points. Which of the following would be the BEST way to address this issues? A. Adjust the signal strength of the access points with minimal coverage overlap. B. Increase the pool in each of the access points to avoid running out of IPs. C. Configure each access point to use a different method of encryption than the others. D. Reconfigure each of the access points so that they broadcast different SSIDs.

A

A user moves from one office to another. When the user logs onto their computer, it has local access to shared drives but no Internet access. A technician determines that the computer has an IP address in the wrong subnet. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. Incorrect VLAN B. MTU mismatch C. Hijacked HOSTS file D. Missing routes

A

A user would like to connect two laptops together and transfer files via the Ethernet ports. Which of the following should MOST likely be provided to the user to accomplish this? A. Crossover B. Rollover C. Loopback D. Straight cable

A

An administrator determines that an attack is taking place on the email server from a group of users on the same ISP. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate an attack on the network? A. Packet filtering B. Spam filtering C. MAC filtering D. CSU

A

An administrator determines there are an excessive number of packets being sent to a web server repeatedly by a small number of external IP addresses. This is an example of which of the following attacks? A. DDoS B. Viruses C. Worms D. Man-in-the-middle

A

An administrator is attempting to troubleshoot a program that is unable to resolve IP addresses from FQDNs. Which of the following commands is used to check reverse DNS settings? A. dig B. ifconfig C. nbtstat D. route

A

An administrator is trying to retrieve management information from the network devices on their LAN. Which of the following monitoring resources provides the ability to collect this information encrypted over the network? A. SNMPv3 B. VTP C. CDP D. IPSec

A

An administrator is using a packet sniffer to try to determine what is causing the traffic on the network. The administrator sees a lot of packets on port 25. Which of the following traffic types is MOST likely using port 25? A. SMTP B. SSH C. DNS D. TELNET

A

An administrator notices SMTP traffic is being blocked by the company firewall. Which of the following ports should be opened? A. 25 B. 53 C. 110 D. 443

A

An application is using port 2000 on a PC. Which of the following could an administrator do to determine what software is listening on that port? A. Run netstat B. Run dig C. Run nbtstat D. Run tracert

A

An employee connects to a work computer from home via the built-in Windows remote desktop connection. Which of the following is MOST likely being used to establish the connection? A. RDP B. RTP C. RIP D. RAS

A

Ann, a home user, wishes to confine a wireless network to devices ONLY inside of her house. Which of the following will accomplish this? A. Decreasing radio strength B. MAC filtering C. WEP encryption D. SSID broadcast disable

A

At which layer of the OSI model do MAC addresses operate? A. Data Link B. Network C. Application D. Physical

A

At which of the following layers do IP addresses exist? A. TCP/IP model Internet layer B. OSI model Data Link layer C. TCP/IP model Transport layer D. OSI model Physical layer

A

Enterprise IP routing policy is MOST clearly depicted in which of the following configuration management documents? A. Logical network diagrams B. Physical network diagrams C. Wiring schematics D. Group security role assignments

A

Honeypots and honeynets are different in which of the following ways? A. Honeynets are managed collections of honeypots. B. Honeypots only test software security, not hardware. C. Honeynets require specialized hardware to implement. D. Honeypots are usually servers and honeynets are routers and switches.

A

Hubs are differentiated from switches in that between the two, only hubs have: A. a single collision domain. B. a single broadcast domain. C. multiple collision domains. D. multiple broadcast domains.

A

ExpressCard

A PCMCIA standard that allows the external devices to connect to portable computers through a 26 -pin interface, with data transfer rates of 250 Mpbs in each direction. (For a total of 500 megabits per second), similar to the PCI express expansion board specification. ExpressCard modules come in two sizes: 34 mm 54 mm wide. Over time, PCMCIA expects the express card standard to replace the CardBus standard.

PC Card

A PCMCIA standard that specifies a 16 - bit interface running at 8 MHz for externally attached devices. PC cards' characteristics match those of the ISA expansion card. And like the Isa standard, the PC Card standard suffered from slower data transfer rates, compared to other PCMCIA standards.

CardBus

A PCMCIA standard that specifies a 32 bit interface running at 33 MHZ, similar to the PCI expansion board standard. Most modern laptops are equipped with CardBus slots for connecting external modems and an NICs, among other things.

1000Base-T

A Physical layer standard for achieving 1 GBPS over UTP. 1000Base-T achieves its higher throughput b y using all four pairs of wires in a Cat 5 or better twisted-pair cable to both transmit and receive signals. 1000Base-T also uses a different data encoding scheme than that used by other UTP Physical layer specifications.

1000Base-TX

A Physical layer standard for networks that achieves 1 Gbps over Cat 6 or better cabling using only two pairs of wires.

1000Base-SX

A Physical layer standard for networks that specifies 1-Gbps transmission over fiber-optic cable using baseband transmission. 1000Base-SX runs on multimode fiber. The SX represents it's reliance on short wavelengths of 850 nanometers.

100Base-T

A Physical layer standard for networks that specifies baseband transmission, twisted-pair cabling, and 100-Mbps throughput. 100Base-FX is the fiber version of Fast Ethernet.

10Base-T

A Physical layer standard for networks that specifies baseband transmission, twisted-pair media, and 10-Mbps throughput. 10Base-T networks have a maximum segment length of 100 meters and rely on a star topology.

RS-232 (Recommended Standard 232)

A Physical layer standard for serial communications, as defined by EIA/TIA.

flashing

A ____ attack occurs when an Internet chat user sends commands to a victim's machine that causes the screen to fill with garbage characters and requires the victim to terminate their chat sessions.

TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol)

A TCP/IP Application layer protocol that enables file transfers between computers. Unlike FTP, it relies on UDP at the Transport layer and does not require a user to log on to the remote host.

ifconfig

A TCP/IP configuration and management utility used with UNIX and Linux systems.

router's

A ____ main function is to examine packets and determine where to direct them based on their Network layer addressing information.

Terminal Adapter

A ______ _______ converts digital signals into analog signals for use with ISDN phones and other analog devices.

ITU (International Telecommunication Union)

A United Nations agency that regulates international telecommunications and provides developing countries with technical expertise and equipment to advance their technological bases.

False

A VM must use the same operating system, type of CPU, storage drive, and NIC as the physical computer it resides on.

concentrator

A VPN ____ authenticates VPN clients and establishes tunnels for VPN connections.

Data Link

A VPN tunneling protocol operates at the ____ layer.

Link-state

A ____ ____ routing protocol is one that enables routers across a network to share information, after which each router can independently map the network determine the best path between itself and a packet's destination node.

brute force

A ____ attack occurs when a hacker tries numerous possible character combinations to find the key that will decrypt encrypted data.

dictionary

A ____ attack occurs when a hacker uses programs that try a combination of a user ID and every word in a dictionary to gain access to the network.

denial-of-service

A ____ attack occurs when a system becomes unable to function because it has inundated with requests for services and can't respond to any of them.

Array

A group of hard disks

Stand-alone Computer

A computer that is not connected to other computers and that uses software applications and data stored on its local disks.

Web server

A computer that manages Web site services, such as supplying a Web page to multiple users on demand.

MGC (Media Gateway Controller)

A computer that manages multiple media gateways and facilitates the exchange of call control information between these gateways.

stand-alone computer

A computer that uses applications and data only from its local disks and that is not connected to a network.

session

A connection for data exchange between two parties. The term 'session' may be used in the context of Web, remote access, or terminal and mainframe communications, for example.

session

A connection for data exchange between two parties. The term session may be used in the context of Web, remote access, or terminal and mainframe communications, for example.

Switch

A connectivity device that logically subdivides a network into smaller individual collision domains. A switch operates at the data link layer of the OSI model and can interpret MAC address information to determine whether to filter or forward packets it receives.

Bridge

A connectivity device that operates at the Data Link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model and reads header information to forward packets according to their MAC addresses. Bridges use a filtering database to determine which packets to discard and which to forward. Bridges contain one input and one output port and separate network segments.

HUB

A connectivity device the retransmits incoming data signals to its multiple ports. Typically, HUBs contain one of uplink port, which is used to connect to network's a backbone.

F-type connector

A connector used to terminate coaxial cable used for transmitting television and broadband cable signals.

MT-RJ (mechanical transfer-registered jack)

A connector used with single-mode or multimode fiber-optic cable.

Jabber

A device that handles electrical signals improperly, usually affecting the rest of the network. A network analyzer will detect a jabber as a device that is always retransmitting, effectively bringing the network to a halt. A jabber usually results from a bad NIC. Occasionally, it can be caused by outside electrical interference.

modem

A device that modulates analog signals into digital signals at the transmitting end for transmission over telephone lines, and demodulates digital signals into analog signals at the receiving end.

terminal

A device with little (if any) of its own processing or disk capacity that depends on a host to supply it with applications and data-processing services.

baseband

A form of transmission in which digital signals are sent through direct current pulses applied to a wire. This direct current requires exclusive use of the wire's capacity, so this systems can transmit only one signal, or one channel, at a time.

broadband

A form of transmission in which signals are modulated as radiofrequency analog pulses with different frequency ranges.

multiplexing

A form of transmission that allows multiple signals to travel simultaneously over one medium.

media gateway

A gateway capable of accepting connections from multiple devices (for example, IP telephones, traditional telephones, IP fax machines, traditional fax machines, and so on) and translating analog signals into packetized, digital signals, and vice versa.

fax gateway

A gateway that can translate IP fax data into analog fax data and vice versa. A fax gateway can also emulate and interpret conventional fax signaling protocols when communicating with a conventional fax machine.

PCMCIA

A group of computer manufacturers who developed the interface for connecting any type of device to a portable computer. PCMCIA slots may hold memory, modem, network interface, external hard disk, or CD - ROM cards. PCMCIA - standard cards include PC Card, CardBus, and the newest, ExpressCard.

IDF (intermediate distribution frame)

A junction point between the MDF and concentrations of fewer connections—for example, those that terminate in a telecommunications closet.

RFI (radiofrequency interference)

A kind of interference that may be generated by broadcast signals from radio or TV towers.

100Base-FX

A largely outdated Physical layer standard for networks that specifies baseband transmission, multimode fiber cabling, and 100-Mbps throughput. 100Base-FX is the fiber version of Fast Ethernet.

link-local IP address

A link-local IP address is a non-routable IP address usable only on a local subnet.

client/server architecture

A network design in which clients (typically desktop or laptop computers) use a centrally administered server to share data, data storage space, and devices

populated segment

A network segment that contains end nodes, such as workstations. punch-down block A panel of data receptors into which twisted pair wire is inserted, or punched down, to complete a circuit.

unpopulated segment

A network segment that does not contain end nodes, such as workstations. Also called link segments.

WAN (wide area network)

A network that connects two or more geographically distinct LANs or MANs.

IANA (Internet Assigned Numbers Authority)

A nonprofit, United States government-funded group that was established at the University of Southern California and charged with managing IP address allocation and the domain name system. The oversight for many of IANA's functions was given to ICANN in 1998; however, IANA continues to perform Internet address and domain name system administration.

RIR (Regional Internet Registry)

A not-for-profit agency that manages the distribution of IP addresses to private and public entities.

RIR (Regional Internet Registry)

A not-for-profit agency that manages the distrubtion of IP addresses to private and public entities. ARIN is the RIR for North, Central, and South America and sub-Saharan Africa. APNIC is the RIR for Asia and the Pacific region. RIPE is the RIR for Europe and North Africa.

TTL (Time to Live)

A number that indicates the maximun time that a datagram or packet can remain on the network before it is discarded. Although this field was originally meant to represent units of time, on modern networks it represents the number of router hops a datagram has endured. The TTL for datagrams is variable and configurable, but is usually set at 32 or 64. Each time a datagram passes through a router, its TTL is reduced by 1. When a router receives a datagram with a TTL equal to 1, the router discards that datagram.

address

A number that uniquely identifies each workstation and device on a network

Address

A number that uniquely identifies each workstation or device on a network.

frame

A package for data that includes not only the raw data, or "payload," but also the sender's and recipient's addressing and control information. Frames are generated at the Data Link layer of the OSI model and are issued to the network at the Physical layer.

frame

A package for data that includes not only the raw data. or "payload," but also the sender's and receipient's addressing and control information. Frames are generated at the Data Link layer of the OSI model and are issued to the network at the Physical layer.

Giant

A packet that exceeds the medium's maximum packet size. For example, and Ethernet packet that is larger than 1518 bytes is considered a giant.

Runt

A packet that is smaller than the medium's minimum packet size. For instance, any Ethernet packet that is smaller than 64 bytes is considered a runt.

Jamming

A part of CSMA/CD in which, upon detecting a collision, a station issues a special 32-bit sequence to indicate to all nodes on an Ethernet segment that its previously transmitted frame has suffered a collision and should be considered faulty.

subnet

A part of a network in which all nodes share a network addressing component and a fixed amount of bandwidth.

segment

A part of a network. Usually, a segment is composed of a group of nodes that share the same communications channel for all their traffic.

Segment

A part of a network. Usually, a segment is composed of a group of nodes.

OTDR (optical time domain reflectometer)

A performance testing device for use with the fiber-optic networks. An ODTR works by issuing a light-based signal on a fiber-optic cable and measuring the way in which the signal bounces back (or reflects) to the OTDR. By measuring the length of time it takes the signal to return, an OTDR can determine the location of fault.

FireWire

A peripheral bus standard developed by Apple Computer and codified by the IEEE as the IEEE 1394 standard. Traditional FireWire connections support a maximum throughput of 400 megabits per second, but the newer version supports potential throughput rates of over three giga bits per second. In addition to connecting peripherals, FireWire can be used to network computers directly in a bus fashion

Help desk coordinator

A person who ensures that help desk analysts are divided into the correct teams, schedules shifts at the help desk, and maintains the infrastructure to enable analysts to better perform their jobs. They might also serve as third-level support personnel, taking responsibility for troubleshooting a problem when the second-level support analyst is unable to solve it.

remote user

A person working on a computer on a different network or in a different geographical location from the LAN's server.

Workstation

A personal computer (such as a desktop or laptop), which may or may not be connected to a network most clients are workstation computers.

Signal Bounce

A phenomenon, caused by improper termination on a bus topology network, in which signals travel endlessly between the two ends of the network.

1000Base-LX

A physical layer standard for networks that specifies 1-Gbps transmission over fiber-optic cable using baseband transmission. 1000Base-LX is a common fiber version of Gigabit Ethernet and can run on either single-mode or multimode fiber. The LX represents its reliance on long wavelengths of 1300 nanometers.

Hybrid Topology

A physical topology that combines characteristics of more than one simple physical topology.

Hot site

A place where the computers, devices, and connectivity necessary to rebuild a network exist, and all are appropriately configured, updated, and connected to match your network's current state

Warm Site

A place where the computers, devices, and connectivity necessary to rebuild a network exist, though only some are appropriately configured, updated, or connected to match the network's current state.

Cold Site

A place where the computers, devices, and connectivity necessary to rebuild a network exists, but they are not appropriately configured, updated, or connected to match the network's current state.

Backup Rotation Scheme

A plan for when and how often backups occur, and which backups are full, incremental, or differential.

phase

A point or stage in a wave's progress over time.

On-board port

A port that is integrated into the computer's motherboard.

Standby UPS

A power supply that provides continuous voltage to a device by switching virtually instantaineously to the battery when it detects a loss of power from the wall outlet.

Online UPS

A power supply that uses the A/C power from the wall oulet to continuously charge its battery, while providing power to a network device through its battery.

IP-PBX

A private switch that accepts and interprets both analog and digital voice signals (although some IP-PBXs do not accept analog lines). It can connect with both traditional PSTN lines and data networks. An IP-PBX transmits and receives IP-based voice signals to and from other network connectivity devices, such as a router or gateway.

Change management system

A process or program that provides support personnel with a centralized means of documenting changes made to the network.

CCNA (Cisco Certified Network Associate)

A professional certification that attests to one's skills in installing, configuring, maintaining, and troubleshooting medium-sized networks that use Cisco System's switches and routers.

ISOC (Internet Society)

A professional organization with members from 90 chapters around the world that helps to establish technical standards for the Internet.

Logic Bomb

A program designed to start when certain conditions are met.

Malware

A program or piece of code designed to harm a system or its resources.

Trajan Horse

A program that diguises itself as something useful, but actually harms your system

Virus

A program that replicates itself to infect more computers, either through network connections or through floppy disks passed among users.

Bot

A program that runs automatically.

SIP (Session Initiation Protocol)

A protocol suite codified by the IETF (in RFC 2543) as a set of Session layer signaling and control protocols for multiservice, packet-based networks. With few exceptions, SIP performs much the same functions as the H.323 signaling protocols perform. SIP was developed as a more efficient alternative to H.323 before H.323 was revised to expedite its call setup functions. But although SIP is more efficient, because it was released later, it has never enjoyed the same widespread usage as H.323.

IRC (Internet Relay Chat)

A protocol that enables users running special IRC client software to communicate instantly with other participants in a chat room on the Internet.

IPV4LL (IP version 4 Local Link)

A protocol the manages automatic address assignment among locally connected nodes. IPv4LL is part of the Zeroconf group of protocols.

MEGACO

A protocol used between media gateway controllers and media gateways. MEGACO is poised to replace MGCP on modern converged networks, as it supports a broader range of network technologies, including ATM. Also known as H.248.

MGCP (Media Gateway Control Protocol)

A protocol used for communication between media gateway controllers and media gateways. MGCP is defined in RFC 2507 but it was never officially adopted as a standard. MGCP is currently the most popular media gateway control protocol used on converged networks.

static ARP table entry

A record in an ARP table that someone has manually entered using the ARP utility. Static ARP table entries remain the same until someone manually modifies them with the ARP utility.

router

A router is considered a Layer 3 device, meaning that it makes its forwarding decisions based on logical network addresses. Most modern networks use IP addressing.

Border router

A router that connects an autonomous LAN with an exterior network --for example, the router that connects a business to its ISP.

Interior router

A router that directs data between nodes on an autonomous LAN.

Exterior router

A router that directs the data between nodes outside a given autonomous LAN, for example, routers used on the Internet's backbone.

transmission and hardware

A router that is not configured to drop packets that match certain or suspicious characteristics is an example of a risk associated with ____.

Modular router

A router with multiple slots that can hold different interface cards or other devices so as to provide flexible, customizable network interoperability.

EIGRP (enhanced interior gateway routing protocol)

A routing protocol developed in the mid 1980s by Cisco Systems that has a fast convergence time in a low network overhead, but is easier to configure and less CPU - intensive than OSPS. EIGRP also offers benefits of supporting multiple protocols and limiting unnecessary network traffic between routers.

EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol)

A routing protocol developed in the mid-1980s by Cisco Systems that has a fast convergence time and a low network overhead, but is easier to configure and less CPU-intensive than OSPF. EIGRP also offers the benefits of supporting multiple protocols and limiting unnecessary network traffic between routers.

Hybrid

A routing protocol that reflects characteristics of both link-state and distance-vector routing protocols and are known as _________.

Hoax

A rumor, or false alert, about a dangerous, new virus that could supposedly cause serious damage to your workstation.

False

A security policy should state exactly which hardware, software, architecture, or protocols will be used to ensure security. True or False

VoDSL (voice over DSL)

A service that relies on a DSL connection to transmit packetized voice signals.

VoATM (voice over ATM)

A service that uses the ATM network access method (and ATM cells) to transmit voice signals over a network.

H.225

A session layer call signaling protocol defined as part of ITU's H.323 multiservice network architecture. H.225 is responsible for call or videoconference setup between nodes on a VoIP or video-over-IP network, indicating node status, requesting additional bandwidth and call termination.

H.245

A session layer control protocol defined as part of ITU's H.323 multiservice network architecture. H.245 is responsible for controlling a session betwenn two nodes. For example, it ensures that the two nodes are communicating in the same format.

Base I/O Port

A setting that specifies, in hexadecimal notation, which area of memory will act as a channel for data traveling between the NIC and the CPU. Like its IRQ, a device's base I/O port cannot be used by any other device.

ferrule

A short tube within a fiber-optic cable connector that encircles the fiber strand and keeps it properly aligned.

analog

A signal that uses variable voltage to create continuous waves, resulting in an inexact transmission.

NTP (Network Time Protocol)

A simple Application Layer protocol in the TCP/IP suite used to syncronize the clocks of computers on a network. This depends on UDP for Transport layer services.

Disk Striping

A simple implementation of RAID in which data is written in 64-KB block equally across all disks in the array.

Multimeter

A simple instrument that can measure multiple characteristics of an electric circuit, including its resistance and voltage.

Tone locator

A small electronic device that emits a tone when it detects electrical activity on a wire pair. When used in conjunction with a tone generator, it can help locate the termination of a wire pair.

Tone generator

A small electronic device that issues a signal on a wire pair. When used in conjunction with a tone locator, it can help locate the termination of a wire pair.

Call tracking system

A software program used to document technical problem and how they were resolved (also known as help desk software).

Network monitor

A software-based tool that monitors traffic on the network from a server or workstation attached to the network. Network monitors typically can interpret up to Layer 3 of the OSI model.

token

A special control frame that indicates to the rest of the network that a particular node has the right to transmit data.

protocol

A standard method or format for communication between network devices. Protocols ensure that data are transferred whole, in sequence, and without error from one node on the network to another.

Protocol

A standard method or format for communication between networked devices.

AWG (American Wire Gauge)

A standard rating that indicates the diameter of a wire, such as the conducting core of a coaxial cable.

serial

A style of data transmission in which the pulses that represent bits follow one another along a single transmission line. In other words, they are issued sequentially, not simultaneously.

TIA (Telecommunications Industry Association)

A subgroup of the EIA that focuses on standards for information technology, wireless, satellite, fiber optics, and telephone equipment.

TIA (Telecommunications Industry Association)

A subgroup of the EIA that focuses on standards for information technology, wireless, satellite, fiber optics, and telephone equipment. Probably the best known standards to come from the TIA/EIA alliance are its guidelines for how network cable should be installed in commercial buildings, known as the "TIA/EIA 568-B Series."

TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol)

A suite of networking protocols that includes TCP, IP, UDP, and many others. Provides the foundation for data exchange across the internet.

Layer 4 switch

A switch capable of interpreting data at layer 4 of the OSI model.

Layer 3 switch

A switch capable of interrupting data at layer 3 of the OSI model.

Application Switch

A switch that provides function between layer 4 and layer 7 of the OSI model.

Application Switch

A switch that provides functions between Layer 4 and Layer 7 of the OSI model.

Content switch

A switch that provides functions between Layer 4 and Layer 7 of the OSI model.

Cut-through mode

A switching mode in which a switch reads the frames header and decides where to forward the data before it receives the entire packet. Cut-through mode is faster, but less accurate, than the other switching method, store and forward mode.

STP

A switching protocol defined in the IEEE 802.1D. STP operates in the data link layer to prevent traffic loops and by calculating paths that avid potential loops and by artificially blocking links that would complete a loop. Given changes to a network's links or devices, STP recalculates its paths.

host name

A symbolic name that describes a TCP/IP device.

binary

A system founded on using 1s and 0s to encode information.

IAB (Internet Architecture Board)

A technical advisory group of researchers and technical professionals responsible for Internet growth and management strategy, resolution of technical disputes, and standards oversight.

Zeroconf

A technology that performs three basic functions: assigning link-local IPaddresses, resolving computer names to IP addresses, and locating network services.

IP telephone

A telephone used for VoIP on a TCP/IP-based network. IP telephones are designed to transmit and receive only digital signals.

hop

A term used to describe each trip a unit of data takes from one connectivity device to another. Typically, this is used in the context of router-to-router communications.

Telnet

A terminal emulation protocol used to log on to remote hosts using the TCP/IP protocol. Resides in the Application layer of the OSI model.

host file

A text file that associates TCP/IP host names with IP addresses.

Butt set

A tool for accessing and testing a telephone company's local loop. The butt set, also known as a telephone test set or lineman's handset, is essentially a telephone handset with atatched wires that can be connected to a local loop terminations at a demarc or switching facility.

Spectrum analyzer

A tool that assesses the characteristics (for example, frequency, amplitude, and the effects of interference) of wireless signals.

country code TLD

A top-level domain that corresponds to a country. For example, the country code TLD for Canada is .ca, and the country code TLD for Japan is .jp.

Active Topology

A topology in which each workstation participates in transmitting data over the network.

EIA (Electronic Industries Alliance)

A trade organization composed of representatives from electronics manufacturing firms across the United States that sets standards for electronic equipment and lobbies for legislation favorable to the growth of the computer and electronics industries.

RTP (Real-time Transport Protocol)

A transport layer protocol used with voice and video transmission. RTP operates on top of UDP and provides information about packet sequenceto help receiving nodes detect delay and packet loss. It also assigns packets a timestamp that corresponds to when the data in the packet was sampled from the voice and video stream. This timestamp helps the receiving node synchronize incoming data.

Cat 6 (Category 6)

A twisted pair cable that contains four wire pairs, each wrapped in foil insulation. Additional foil insulation covers the bundle of wire pairs, and a fire-resistant plastic sheath covers the second foil layer. The foil insulation provides excellent resistance to cross talk and enables it to support a signaling rate of 250 MHz.

crossover cable

A twisted pair patch cable in which the termination locations of the transmit and receive wires on one end of the cable are reversed.

straight-through cable

A twisted pair patch cable in which the wire terminations in both connectors follow the same scheme.

address resource record

A type of DNS data record that maps the IP address of an Internet-connected device to its domain name.

Fast Ethernet

A type of Ethernet network that is capable of 100-Mbps throughput.

Gigabit Ethernet

A type of Ethernet network that is capable of 1000-Mbps, or 1-Gbps, throughput.

unicast address

A type of IPv6 address the represents a single interface on a device. An IPv6 unicast address begins with either FFC0 or FF80.

EEP ROM (electrically erasable programmable read - only memory)

A type of ROM that is found on a circuit board and whose configuration information can be erased and rewritten for electrical impulses.

connection oriented

A type of Transport layer protocol that requires the establishment of a connection between communicating nodes before it will transmit data.

connectionless

A type of Transport layer protocol that services a request without requiring a verified session and without guaranteeing delivery of data.

multicast address

A type of address in the IPv6 that represents multiple interfaces, often on multiple nodes, An IPv6 one of these begins with the following hexadecimal field: FF0x, where x is a character that identifies the address's group scope.

anycast address

A type of address specified in IPv6 that represents a group of interfaces, any one of which (and usually the first available of which) can accept a transmission. At this time, this is not designed to be assigned to hosts, such as servers or workstations, but rather to routers.

Collapsed Backbone

A type of backbone that uses a router or switch as the single central connection point for multiple subnetworks.

STP (shielded twisted pair)

A type of cable containing twisted-wire pairs that are not only individually insulated, but also surrounded by a shielding made of a metallic substance such as foil.

rollover cable

A type of cable in which the terminations on one end are exactly the reverse of the terminations on the other end. It is used for serial connections between routers and consoles or other interfaces.

twisted pair

A type of cable similar to telephone wiring that consists of color-coded pairs of insulated copper wires, each with a diameter of 0.4 to 0.8 mm, twisted around each other and encased in plastic coating.

coaxial cable

A type of cable that consists of a central metal conducting core, which might be solid or stranded and is often made of copper, surrounded by an insulator, a braided metal shielding, called braiding, and an outer cover, called the sheath or jacket.

UTP (unshielded twisted pair)

A type of cabling that consists of one or more insulated wire pairs encased in a plastic sheath. It does not contain additional shielding for the twisted pairs.

RG-8

A type of coaxial cable characterized by a 50-ohm impedance and a 10 AWG core.

RG-58

A type of coaxial cable characterized by a 50-ohm impedance and a 24 AWG core.

RG-59

A type of coaxial cable characterized by a 75-ohm impedance and a 20 or 22 AWG core, usually made of braided copper. Less expensive but suffering greater attenuation than the more common RG-6 coax, it is used for relatively short connections.

RG-6

A type of coaxial cable with an impedance of 75 ohms and that contains an 18 AWG core conductor. It is used for television, satellite, and broadband cable connections.

CD-RW (Compact Disc-Rewritable

A type of compact disc that can be written to more than once.

CD-R (Compact Disc-Recordable

A type of compact disc that can be written to only once

SMF (single-mode fiber)

A type of fiber-optic cable with a narrow core that carries light pulses along a single path data from one end of the cable to the other end. Data can be transmitted faster and for longer distances. However, it is expensive.

Stand-alone hub

A type of hub that serves a work group of computers that are separate from the rest of the network, also known as a workgroup hub.

cross talk

A type of interference caused by signals traveling on nearby wire pairs infringing on another pair's signal.

EMI (electromagnetic interference)

A type of interference that may be caused by motors, power lines, televisions, copiers, fluorescent lights, or other sources of electrical activity.

Optical Media

A type of media capable of storing digitized data, which uses a laser to write to it and read data from it.

CMOS

A type of microchip that requires very little energy to operate. In a PC, the CMOS stores settings pertaining to a computer's devices, among other things.

FDM (frequency division multiplexing)

A type of multiplexing that assigns a unique frequency band to each communications subchannel. Signals are modulated with different carrier frequencies, then multiplexed to simultaneously travel over a single channel.

video phone

A type of phone that includes a screen and can decode compressed video and interpret transport and signaling protocols necesary for conducting videoconference session.

Link - state

A type of routing protocol that enables routers across a network to share information, after which each router can interdependently map the network and determine the best path between itself and a packet's destination node.

network address

A unique identifying number for a network node that follows a hierarchical addressing scheme and can be assigned through operating system software. Network addresses are added to data packets and interpreted by protocols at the Network layer of the OSI model.

segment

A unit of data that results from subdiving a larger protocol data unit.

C. Re-establish a new theory or escalate.

A user is having difficulty connecting a laptop to the company's network via a wireless connection. The user can connect to the network via a wired NIC. The technician suspects the laptop's wireless NIC has failed. The technician performs hardware diagnostics on the wireless NIC and discovers the hardware is working fine. Which of the following network troubleshooting methodology steps should the technician do NEXT?

Format Prefix

A variable-length field at the beginning of an IPv6 address that indicates what type of address it is (for example, unicast, anycast, or multicast).

virtual desktop

A virtual desktop solution allows a user to store data in a centralized data center, as opposed to the hard drive of their local computer. Then, with appropriate authentication credentials, that user can access his data from various remote devices (for example, his smartphone or another computer).

File-infector Virus

A virus that attaches itself to executable files.

Encrypted Virus

A virus that is encrypted to prevent detection

Boot Sector Virus

A virus that resides on the boot sector of a floppy disk and is transferred to the partition sector or the DOS boot sector on a hard disk.

Network Virus

A virus that takes advantage of network protocols, commands, messaging programs, and data links to propagate itself.

Macro Virus

A virus that takes the form of an application program macro, which may execute when the program is in use.

patch panel

A wall-mounted panel of data receptors into which cross-connect patch cables from the punch-down block are inserted.

sneakernet

A way of exchanging data between computers that are not connected on a network. Sneakernet requires that data be copied from a computer to a removable storage

IS - IS

A weak state routing protocol that uses a best path algorithm similar to OSPF's. IS - IS was originally codified by ISO, which referred to routers as "intermediate systems," thus the protocol's name. Unlike OSPF, IS - IS is designed for use on interior routers only.

An administrator would like to inspect all traffic flowing over the SMTP protocol on a given network. Which of the following tools would accomplish this? (Select TWO). A. Packet sniffer B. Honeypot C. Port mirroring D. IPS E. Port scanner F. IDS

AC

Various desktop computers are not getting a link light even though the patch cables were replaced. Cables on a 110-block patch panel are suspected to be causing the issues. Which of the following hardware tools would MOST likely be used to troubleshoot and resolve the issue? (Select TWO). A. Cable certifier B. Ping command C. Punch down tool D. Crimper E. Toner probe

AC

A technician has been given the task to install a wireless network in a user's home. Which of the following should the technician consider when implementing the network? (Select TWO). A. That there is strong encryption enabled and configured on the access point. B. The user's home network has a correctly completed WHOIS entry. C. The access point is broadcasting the SSID based upon manufacturer's standards. D. There are no conflicts of channels in use by neighboring wireless networks. E. There are redundant internal DNS names set in the access point's settings. F. That the access point's MAC address is properly set in its configuration settings.

AD

Which of the following networking devices can exist at several layers of the OSI model at the same time? (Select TWO). A. Switch B. Cable C. Repeater D. Router E. Bridge F. Hub

AD

Which of the following connector types are used in terminating singlemode fiber cables? (Select TWO). A. LC B. F-connector C. DB-9 D. BNC E. RJ-11 F. SC

AF

Remote access server

Access services built-in to network operating systems that take advantage of the network just as if they were logged on to a workstation on the office LAN. A remote access server may also be known as simply an access server.

Which of the following is needed when using WPA2-Enterprise wireless encryption? A. TFTP B. RADIUS C. LDAP D. IPSec

B

virtual server

Allows a single physical server to host multiple virtual instances of various operating systems. This allows, for example, a single physical server to simultaneously host multiple Microsoft Windows ® servers and multiple Linux servers.

Scalable

Allows client/server networks to be more easily added onto and extended--than peer-to-peer networks.

coaxial cable

Also known as coax, a coaxial cable is composed of two conductors. One of the conductors is an inner insulated conductor. This inner conductor is surrounded by another conductor. This second conductor is sometimes made of a metallic foil or woven wire.

MDF (main distribution frame)

Also known as the main cross-connect, the first point of interconnection between an organization's LAN or WAN and a service provider's facility.

NNTP (Network News Transfer Protocol or Network News Transport Protocol)

An Application layer protocol in the TCP/IP suite that facilitates the exchange of newsgroup messages, or articles, between multiple servers and users.

DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)

An Application layer protocol in the TCP/IP suite that manages the dynamic distribution of IP addresses on a network.

BOOTP (Bootstrap Protocol)

An Application layer protocol in the TCP/IP suite that uses a central list of IP addresses and their associated devices' MAC addresses to assign IP addresses to clients dynamically. It was the precursor to DHCP.

HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)

An Application layer protocol that formulates and interprets requests between Web clients and servers.

hub

An Ethernet hub is an older technology used to interconnect network components, such as clients and servers. Hubs vary in their number of available ports. A hub does not perform any inspection of the traffic it passes. Rather, a hub simply receives traffic in a port and repeats that traffic out all of its other ports.

CRC (cyclic redundancy check)

An algorithm (or mathematical routine) used to verify the accuracy of data contained in a data frame.

ECC (Error Correction Code)

An algorithm used to detect and correct errors.

FTP (File Transfer Protocol)

An application layer protocol used to send and receive files via TCP/IP.

CompTIA (Computer Technology Industry Association)

An association of computer resellers, manufacturers, and training companies that sets industry-wide standards for computer professionals. CompTIA established and sponsors the A+ and Network+ (Net+) certifications.

Which of the following is the MAXIMUM rated speed for CAT5 cabling? A. 10Mbps B. 100Mbps C. 1000Mbps D. 10Gbps

B

WAN Link

An interconnection between two devices in a WAN.

IEEE (Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers)

An international society composed of engineering professionals. Its goals are to promote development and education in the electrical engineering and computer science fields.

True

An of-the-shelf workstation can be programmed to act like an IP telephone. True or False

Recordable DVD

An optical storage medium that can hold up to 4.7GB on one single-layered side.

ANSI (American National Standards Institute)

An organization composed of more than 1000 respresentatives from industry and government who together determine standards for the electronics industry in addition to other fields, such as chemical and nuclear engineering, health and safety, and construction.

IETF (Internet Engineering Task Force)

An organization that sets standards for how systems communicate over the Internet (for example, how protocols operate and interact).

10Base2 (see Thinnet)

An outdated IEEE Physical layer standard for achieving 10-Mbps throughput over coaxial copper cable. Thinnet was also known as 10Base2. Its maximum segment length is 185 meters, and it relies on a bus topology.

Worm

An unwanted program that travels between computers and across networks.

Wireless router

Attaches to a wired network and provides access to that wired network for wirelessly attached clients, like a wireless AP(access point). However, a wireless router is configured such that the wired interface that connects to the rest of the network (or to the Internet) is on a different IP network than the wireless clients. Typically, a wireless router performs NATing (network address translation) between these two IP address spaces.

A client has just leased a new office space in a busy commercial building and would like to install a wireless network. Several other tenants are on the same floor. Multiple wireless networks are present in the building. Which of the following can be changed on the client's wireless network to help ensure that interference from other wireless networks is at a minimum? A. WPA encryption key selection B. Channel selection C. Antenna types D. Disable SSID

B

A company has been given a Class C address to be utilized for all devices. The company has several subnets and the largest subnet has 15 hosts. Which of the following represents the MINIMUM CIDR notation of this subnet mask? A. /26 B. /27 C. /28 D. /29

B

A company has just installed a new network switch for an expanding department. The company is also piloting the use of a VoIP phone system for this department. Which of the following should be enabled on the new network switch? A. WINS B. QoS C. NAT D. DHCP

B

A company wants an administrator to perform a vulnerability test. The administrator finds the company has a POTS phone system. Which of the following can the administrator use to point out the phone system vulnerability? A. Honeypot B. Butt set C. Spyware D. Blue jacking

B

A computer's DNS has bad cach records.which tools can be used to clear the DNS record. A. netstat B. ipconfig C. nslookup D. tracert

B

A customer has requested that a new piece of network equipment be installed so that the customer can have multiple subnets for each department, but allow network traffic from each department to reach one another without the use of a router. Which of the following network devices would satisfy this customer's requirements? A. Packet filter B. Layer 3 switch C. Stateful firewall D. Wireless bridge

B

A firewall that detects and prevents attacks from outside the network based on learned data patterns can BEST be described as which of the following? A. Signature based IDS B. Behavior based IPS C. Host based IPS D. Network based IDS

B

A large company has experienced Internet slowdowns as users have increased their use of the Internet. Which of the following can the Network Administrator use to determine the amount of bandwidth used by type of application? A. Network maps B. Traffic analysis C. Syslog D. ICMP

B

A multi-layer switch operates at which of the following OSI layers? A. Layers 1 and 5 B. Layers 2 and 3 C. Layers 4 and 5 D. Layers 5 and 6

B

A network administrator has been assigned the 192.168.2.64/26 network and assigns the following computer's IP addresses: 192.168.2.70 192.168.2.100 192.168.2.125 192.168.2.130 When the administrator tries to ping the other computers from 192.168.2.130, an ECHO REPLY is not received. Which of the following must the network administrator do? A. Change the IP of 192.168.2.130 to 192.168.1.128. B. Change the IP of 192.168.2.130 to 192.168.2.126. C. Change the default gateway of 192.168.2.130 accordingly. D. Reconfigure the switch for the right VLAN.

B

A network administrator has just been notified about the loss of Internet connectivity. Another technician had just performed non-scheduled maintenance and mentioned that some cabling may have been moved. Which of the following MOST likely caused the loss of Internet connectivity? A. Broadcast storm B. TX/RX cables reversed C. Mismatched MTU D. Incorrect routing table

B

A network administrator is adding 24 - 802.3af class 2 VoIP phones and needs to purchase a single PoE switch to power the phones. Which of the following is the MINIMUM PoE dedicated wattage the switch supports to power all of the phones at full power? A. 96W B. 168W C. 240W D. 369.6W

B

A network administrator is deploying a new wireless network with over 50 thin WAPs and needs to ensure all WAPs use consistent firmware and settings. Which of the following methods provides this functionality? A. Use WAP auto-configuration B. Use a wireless controller C. Use PXE to load and track WAPs D. Use DHCP scope options

B

A network administrator is looking to implement a solution allowing users to utilize a common password to access most network resources for an organization. Which of the following would BEST provide this functionality? A. RADIUS B. Single sign on C. Multifactor authentication D. Two-factor authentication

B

A network administrator is reviewing logs and notices that a device with a public IP address is trying to access the web server RDP port. Which of the following tools can be used to resolve the domain of the public IP address? A. arp B. nslookup C. ipconfig D. netstat

B

A network administrator suspects that recent traffic problems could be caused by a high CPU load on company routers. Which of the following would BEST be used to monitor CPU cycles on the routers? A. TACACS+ B. SNMP C. Syslog D. DOCSIS

B

A network administrator wants to add the firewall rule to allow SSH traffic to the FTP server with the assigned IP 192.168.0.15 from the Internet. Which of the following is the correct firewall rule? A. Allow ANY to 192.168.0.15 port 21 B. Allow ANY to 192.168.0.15 port 22 C. Allow ANY to 192.168.0.15 port 80 D. Allow ANY to ANY port ANY

B

A network administrator wants to perform a test to see if any systems are passing clear text through the network. Which of the following would be used? A. Social engineering B. Packet sniffing C. Rogue access point D. Man-in-the-middle

B

A network is having problems with traffic flowing to several critical websites that are used for necessary company work. Which of the following appliances would BEST handle network traffic to increase network performance? A. Caching engine B. Traffic shaper C. Network based firewall D. Packet sniffer

B

A network technician needs to configure a port on a switch to provide connectivity and electrical support to a WAP being installed in a warehouse. Which of the following features needs to be configured on the switch? A. STP B. PoE C. VTP trunking D. Port forwarding

B

A router operates at which of the following layers of the OSI model? A. Layer 2 B. Layer 3 C. Layer 4 D. Layer 5

B

A technician has low signal strength connecting two wireless bridges. Which of the following could be the problem? A. Low PoE wattage B. Opposing antenna polarizations C. Short distance between antennas D. WPA 2 encryption

B

A technician has narrowed down the cause of a problem to two possible sources. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? A. Implement a solution for both causes to be sure all possibilities are covered. B. Choose the more likely cause and test to confirm. C. Establish a plan of action for each. D. Choose the less likely cause and test to eliminate.

B

A technician has two wireless 802.11g APs. One is set to channel 1 and the other channel 6. The APs appear to interfere with each other. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason? A. Channels below 9 overlap each other B. Channel width is set to 40MHz C. Channels are in the 5GHz range by mistake D. Channel 1 should have been set to 11 to avoid an overlap

B

A technician is installing an 802.11n network. The technician is using a laptop that can connect at a maximum speed of 11 Mbps. The technician has configured the 802.11n network correctly but thinks it could be the type of WLAN card used on the laptop. Which of the following wireless standards is the WLAN card MOST likely using? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11n

B

A technician is troubleshooting a computer that will not connect to the Internet. The PC is connected to the network. Which of the following tools should the technician use FIRST to understand the NIC configuration? A. Protocol analyzer B. ipconfig C. nslookup D. tracert

B

A technician is trying to add another switch to the network with multiple VLANs. Which of the following should the technician configure on the interface to allow multiple VLANs? A. Mirroring B. Trunking C. Authenticating D. Bonding

B

A technician is unable to easily trace physical connections within a network rack. Which of the following practices would save time in the future? A. Change management B. Cable management C. Asset management D. Setting baselines

B

A technician needs to make a web server with a private IP address reachable from the Internet. Which of the following should the technician implement on the company firewall? A. DOCSIS B. NAT C. CIDR D. VPN

B

A technician working for a company with a wireless network named WirelessA notices a second wireless network named WirelessB. WirelessB is MOST likely a: A. man-in-the-middle attack B. rogue access point C. evil twin D. packet sniffer

B

A user has network connectivity per the link lights on the NIC, but cannot access any network resources or the Internet. Which of the following commands should the technician run FIRST? A. arp B. ipconfig C. tracert D. route

B

A user has three different subnets in an office. Which of the following can be configured to allow two of the subnets to communicate directly with each other at the switch level? A. 802.1af B. 802.1q C. 802.1x D. 802.2

B

A user is unable to open up websites on the Internet from a browser. The administrator determines that the workstation can ping its local gateway, but not the remote web server. At which of the following layers of the OSI model does the problem MOST likely exist? A. Data link B. Network C. Session D. Physical

B

A user reports that several spots within the company's office have intermittent connectivity issues with the newly installed wireless network. There are several WAPs located around the office to provide a strong signal wherever the users are. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. Incompatible network card B. Channel overlap C. Latency D. WEP encryption

B

A user wants to connect seven PCs together for a game night. Which of the following should the user install to help with this task? A. Media convertor B. Switch C. Firewall D. Bridge

B

A user's workstation is experiencing multiple errors when trying to open programs. Which of the following log files should the technician review to assist in troubleshooting these errors? A. History Log B. Application Log C. System Log D. Security Log

B

A vendor releases an emergency patch that fixes an exploit on their network devices. The network administrator needs to quickly identify the scope of the impact to the network. Which of the following should have been implemented? A. Change management B. Asset management C. Network sniffer D. System logs

B

An IP address assigned from a DHCP server is said to be which of the following? A. Hybrid B. Dynamic C. Secure D. Static

B

An administrator has set up a NIPS and connected it to the same switch as the internal firewall interface and the internal router. The device, however, only detects traffic from itself to the firewall or router. Which of the following explains why additional corporate traffic cannot be detected? A. The spanning tree protocol is preventing the traffic. B. Port Mirroring is set up incorrectly. C. The switch needs to be a layer 3 switch. D. The traffic is in a classless IP range and not classful IP range.

B

An unusual amount of activity is coming into one of the switches in an IDF. A malware attack is suspected. Which of the following tools would appropriately diagnose the problem? A. Cable tester B. Protocol analyzer C. Load balancer D. OTDR

B

Ann, a new user, has a workstation that has connectivity to the printer located in her department, but cannot access the Internet. The result of an ipconfig command on Ann's workstation is as follows: IP address: 192.168.0.124 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.128 Default Gateway: 192.168.0.254 Which is MOST likely preventing the user from accessing the Internet? A. Duplicate IP address B. Incorrect gateway C. Incorrect VLAN D. Bad switch port

B

Ann, a technician, installs a new WAP and users are able to connect; however, users cannot access the Internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. The signal strength has been degraded and latency is increasing hop count. B. An incorrect subnet mask has been entered in the WAP configuration. C. The signal strength has been degraded and packets are being lost. D. Users have specified the wrong encryption type and routes are being rejected.

B

Which of the following WAN technologies uses an analog phone line to transmit data? A. LTE B. DSL C. Satellite D. Cable

B

Which of the following allows a malicious attacker to view network traffic if the attacker is on the same network segment as Joe, an administrator? A. DoS attack B. Man-in-the-middle attack C. Smurf attack D. Xmas attack

B

Ann, a technician, installs a wireless router in a network closet in a large office. She then configures all workstations in various offices on that floor to use the wireless connection. Maximum connection speed at each workstation is 54 Mbps. Some users complain that their network connection is very slow. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem? A. Workstations were configured with the wrong connection speed on the wireless adapter. B. Users with a slow connection are too far away from the wireless router. C. Users that cannot connect are configured on the wrong channel. D. Wireless network SSID is incorrect.

B

Compare the settings below to determine which of the following issues is preventing the user from connecting to a wireless network. Which of the following settings is incorrect on the client? ----- AP1: SSID- iCorpOne WEP Key: 337D1FAB10 Index- 1 Mode: Mixed Channel: 1 ---- UserPC Wireless-G: SSID: icorpone WEP Key: 337d1fab10 Index: 1 Mode: 802.11G Channel: Auto ====== A. The mode is incorrect B. SSID Mismatch C. Incorrect WEP Key D. Channel is set incorrectly

B

Given a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, How many usable IP addresses would be in that subnet? A. 250 B. 254 C. 255 D. 256

B

In a SOHO environment, placing a VoIP unit on the outside edge of a LAN router enhances which of the following network optimization methods? A. Load balancing B. Quality of service C. Fault tolerance D. Traffic shaping

B

In a small office environment, one computer is set up to provide Internet access to three other computers that are not interconnected. This is an example of which of the following topology types? A. Peer-to-peer B. Point-to-multipoint C. Hybrid D. Point-to-point

B

In contrast to earlier Wi-Fi speeds, which of the following BEST describes the antenna and channelization properties used in 802.11n? A. MIMO, DSSS B. MIMO, OFDM C. CSMA, DSSS D. CSMA, CDMA

B

In the event of a fire in an office building, which of the following cable types should be installed to prevent toxic gas from burning PVC cable coatings? A. CAT6a B. Plenum C. Crossover D. STP

B

Joe, a remote user, has called the helpdesk with an issue on his machine. The technician would like to remote into the machine for troubleshooting but does not know the IP address or host name. Which of the following commands can the technician ask Joe to execute to gain this information? A. netstat B. ipconfig C. ping D. traceroute

B

Management has decided that they want a high level of security. They do not want Internet requests coming directly from users. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation? A. Content filter B. Proxy server C. Layer 3 switch D. Firewall

B

Multiple computers are connected to a hub near a wall plate. In order to get to the computers, students step on and around the cable that connects the teacher's station, a few feet away, to the same hub. The teacher is experiencing no network connectivity. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem? A. Cross-talk B. Split cables C. Distance D. EMI

B

Network upgrades have been completed and the WINS server was shutdown. It was decided that NetBIOS network traffic will no longer be permitted. Which of the following will accomplish this objective? A. Content filtering B. Port filtering C. MAC filtering D. IP filtering

B

On which of the following OSI model layers would a MAC address be used? A. Network B. Data Link C. Transport D. Physical

B

Some visitors are unable to access the wireless network. The network's wireless infrastructure is comprised of three different buildings with the configurations listed below. Wireless network in Building A and C is used exclusively for internal employees and Building B is used for visitors and requires no additional configuration on their devices. Which of the following settings would need to be modified to provide wireless access to all visitors? Building A: Channel: 2 - Encryption: WPA2 Building B: Channel: 6 - Encryption: WPA2 Building C: Channel: 11 - Encryption: WPA2 A. Encryption set to Open in all Buildings B. Encryption set to Open in Building B C. Encryption set to WEP in Building B D. Channel set to 11 in Building B

B

Stateful packet inspection is a security technology used by which of the following devices? A. Unmanaged switch B. Hardware firewall C. Bridge D. IDS

B

The APIPA address 169.254.10.123 falls into which of the following class of addresses? A. A B. B C. C D. D

B

The BEST way to determine the next hop of a packet is to check the: A. link state. B. routing table. C. routing metrics. D. convergence.

B

The ISP needs to terminate the WAN connection. The connection should be located in the network server room where the company LAN equipment resides. Which of the following identifies the location? A. Smart jack B. MDF C. VPN D. 66 block

B

The network administrator just upgraded all of the WAPs to new ones with 2.4 GHz b/g/n support. The new WAPs reuse the same location and channel as the previous one and with no new external interference detected. However, performance issues are now occurring that did not exist before. Which of the following would correct the issue? A. Configure Wi-Fi Multimedia support B. Use only 20 MHz channel bandwidth C. Enable band steering to use 802.11n D. Configure Quality of Service

B

The network support team is constantly getting calls from users in a specific area of an office building. The users are able to connect to the office wireless network, but they sometimes disconnect or experience very slow download speeds. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem? A. Incorrect service set identifier B. Low signal strength or interference C. Incorrect encryption scheme D. Incorrect IP address or subnet mask

B

The network technician is working in an office that has both VoIP telephone lines and analog lines. A user states that the fax machine is not sending or receiving faxes. The network technician determines that the fax machine uses an analog phone line. Which of the following tools would the technician use to troubleshoot the issue? A. Cable tester B. Buttset C. Toner probe D. Cable certifier

B

The network technician needs to install fiber cabling to connect two buildings less than 984 feet (300 meters) apart. Which of the following fiber types should be installed? A. Singlemode B. Multimode C. Crossover D. F-Connector

B

Which of the following wireless router security measures provides access to a network by allowing only devices on an approved physical address list? A. Port filtering B. MAC filtering C. SSID masking D. Port forwarding

B

Which of the following wireless standards can operate on the same frequency but are not compatible? A. 802.11a / 802.11b B. 802.11a / 802.11n C. 802.11b / 802.11g D. 802.11g / 802.11n

B

Which of the following wireless standards has a MAXIMUM transfer rate of 11Mbps? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11n

B

Which of the following wireless standards provide speed of 11Mbps? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11n

B

Which of the following would a network administrator use to scan a network for vulnerabilities? A. ICMP B. NMAP C. ACL D. TCPDUMP

B

Which of the following would be the BEST solution for an IDS to monitor known attacks? A. Host-based B. Signature-based C. Network-based D. Behavior-based

B

A user arrives at a new house and the Internet provider states the connection will run through the cable. If the user wants to install multiple PCs, which of the following will the user need in order to establish a connection? (Select TWO). A. VPN B. Router C. T1 card D. WEP E. Modem

BE

An administrator configuring remote access opens ports 500/UDP and 10000/UDP on the firewall. Which of the following services are MOST likely being allowed? (Select TWO). A. SSL B. IPSec C. Kerberos D. RDP E. L2TP F. PPTP

BE

Which of the following layers of the OSI model make up the Network Interface layer of the TCP/IP model? (Select TWO). A. Application B. Physical C. Presentation D. Transport E. Data Link F. Network

BE

Which of the following performance optimization techniques would be MOST beneficial for a network-wide VoIP setup? (Select TWO). A. Proxy server B. Traffic shaping C. Caching engines D. Load balancing E. Quality of service

BE

Which of the following are considered disaster recovery measures? (Choose two.) A. Backups B. UPS C. RAID 5 D. Offsite data storage

Backups Offsite data storage

110 block

Because 66 blocks are subject to too much crosstalk for higher speed LAN connections, 110 blocks can be used to terminate a cable (such as a Cat 5 cable) being used for those higher-speed LANs.

nonroutable

Because WAN connections require routers or other layer 3 devices to connect locations, their links are not capable of carrying ________ protocols.

A Chief Executive Officer (CEO) decided that only a limited number of authorized company workstations will be able to connect to the Internet. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this goal? A. Use content filtering B. Install and configure IDS C. Enable MAC address filtering D. Enable RAS on the network firewall

C

A NAS appliance has had a failed NIC replaced. Now the NAS appliance is no longer visible on the network. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. The network cable connecting the NAS to the network switch is bad. B. The network port that the appliance is connected to is assigned to the wrong VLAN. C. Port security on the Ethernet switch has disabled the port. D. Firewall needs to be updated for the new NAS device.

C

A company has a server with redundant power supplies. Which of the following is this an example of? A. Traffic shaping B. Caching engines C. Fault tolerance D. Load balancing

C

A company has one public IP address, and only one device needs to be able to connect to the Internet at a time. Which of the following is the BEST option for connectivity? A. VLSM B. CIDR C. NAT D. PAT

C

A company has recently allowed its employees to telecommute two days a week. The employees MUST have a minimum of 1Mbps non-shared connection to the Internet. Which of the following MUST the employees have at their home in order to connect to the Internet? A. ISDN B. Cable modem C. DSL D. Dial-up networking

C

A company is connected to an ISP, but owns the premise router with an internal CSU/DSU. Which of the following is considered the demarc? A. Premise router B. ISP router C. Smart jack D. CSU/DSU

C

A company is looking for the simplest solution to help prioritize VoIP traffic on its congested network. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this? A. MPLS B. Caching engines C. QoS D. Load balancing

C

A consultant has been hired to wire a simple small office of ten computers to a layer 2 Ethernet 100BaseT switch. Which of the following cabling will be needed for the installation? A. Multimode fiber B. RG-59 coaxial C. CAT6a D. CAT3

C

A consultant is installing new WAPs for an office using wall mounts. Which of the following is the BEST location for the new boxes for signal strength and coverage? A. Above the suspended ceiling with antennas positioned upward. B. Close to the floor level to allow the signal to traverse the floor laterally. C. Close to the suspended ceiling, but not above. D. Above the suspended ceiling with antennas positioned downward.

C

A corporate office recently had a security audit and the IT manager has decided to implement very strict security standards. The following requirements are now in place for each employee logging into the network: Biometric fingerprint scan Complex 12 character password 5 digit pin code authorization Randomized security question prompt upon login Which of the following security setups does this company employ? A. Single factor authentication B. Three factor authentication C. Two factor authentication D. Single sign-on

C

A customer has requested a solution using multiple WAPs for wireless access. Which of the following should be different on each WAP to prevent wireless problems? A. Firewalls B. VLANs C. Channels D. Antenna types

C

A customer is having problems connecting to a wireless network in a shared office space. The customer can detect several other wireless network signals. All of the wireless networks have different SSIDs but several are using the same encryption type. Which of the following should be configured on the customer's wireless network to improve connectivity to the wireless network? A. Change the SSID to match other wireless networks for increased throughput. B. Change the encryption type to a different mechanism to avoid interference. C. Change the channel to a different channel than the other wireless networks. D. Change the WAP to a different manufacturer than the other wireless networks.

C

A customer wants to keep cost to a minimum and has only ordered a single static IP address from the ISP. Which of the following must be configured on the router to allow for all the computers to share the same public IP address? A. VLANs B. PoE C. PAT D. VPN

C

A home user states during a basement remodel, one of the workers cut the network cable that goes from the modem to the WAP and nothing else has changed. According to the network troubleshooting methodology, which of the following is the NEXT step? A. Identify the problem B. Question the user C. Establish a plan of action D. Establish a theory of probable cause

C

A network administrator currently collects log files from several different servers. Which of the following would allow the network administrator to collect log files on a centralized host? A. The network administrator should install and configure a traffic analysis server. B. The network administrator should install and configure a DMZ server. C. The network administrator should install and configure a syslog server. D. The network administrator should install and configure a network sniffer.

C

A network administrator decides to secure their small network by allowing only specific MAC addresses to gain access to the network from specific switches. Which of the following is described by this example? A. Packet filtering B. Hardware firewalls C. Port security D. Stateful inspection

C

A network administrator has been tasked to deploy a new WAP in the lobby where there is no power outlet. Which of the following options would allow the network administrator to ensure the WAP is deployed correctly? A. QoS B. Install 802.11n WAP C. PoE D. Parabolic antenna

C

A network administrator is implementing a wireless honeypot to detect wireless breach attempts. The honeypot must implement weak encryption to lure malicious users into easily breaking into the network. Which of the following should the network administrator implement on the WAP? A. WPA B. WPA2 C. WEP D. VPN

C

A network administrator is implementing an IPS on VLAN 1 and wants the IPS to learn what to prevent on its own. Which of the following would MOST likely be installed? A. Honeynet B. Signature based IPS C. Behavior based IPS D. Host based IPS

C

A network administrator is performing a penetration test on the WPA2 wireless network. Which of the following can be used to find the key? A. DoS B. Buffer overflow C. Dictionary file D. SQL injection

C

A network administrator must ensure that both the server and the client are authenticated to the wireless system before access is granted. Which of the following should be implemented to meet this requirement? A. EAP-PEAP B. MAC ACL C. EAP-TTLS D. MS-CHAPv2

C

A network administrator notices that load balancing is not working properly on the web cluster as previously configured. In speaking with management, a change to the IP addressing scheme was made yesterday which possibly affected one member of the cluster. Due to the timing of the events, the administrator theorizes that this change caused the problem. Which of the following should the administrator do NEXT? A. Escalate to the management team B. Change the IP address back to its previous state C. Test the theory by analyzing logs D. Create a plan of action to present to management

C

A network consultant arrives at a customer's site to troubleshoot their email server. The server is running a Linux operating system, but the consultant is only familiar with Windows operating systems. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the consultant take? A. Document findings B. Identify the problem C. Escalate the problem D. Establish a plan of action

C

A network technician has just upgraded a switch. The new switch's IP range and subnet mask correctly match other network devices. The technician cannot ping any device outside of the switch's own IP subnet. The previous switch worked correctly with the same settings. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem? A. The proxy server is set incorrectly. B. The Ethernet cable is pinched. C. The network gateway is set incorrectly. D. The IP address is set incorrectly.

C

A network technician is concerned that a user is utilizing a company PC for file sharing and using a large amount of the bandwidth. Which of the following tools can be used to identify the IP and MAC address of the user's PC? A. System log B. History log C. Network sniffer D. Nslookup

C

A network technician is concerned that an attacker is attempting to penetrate the network, and wants to set a rule on the firewall to prevent the attacker from learning which IP addresses are valid on the network. Which of the following protocols needs to be denied? A. TCP B. SMTP C. ICMP D. ARP

C

A network technician is designing a SOHO environment where cost is a consideration. The requirements include access to the Internet and access to the guest house which is 100 feet away. The location of the Internet modem is located in the main house. Which of the following is the BEST option to accomplish these requirements? A. Use two combined Internet/router/wireless devices, one in each house. B. Use a Layer 3 switch in the main house and a combined Internet/router/wireless device in the guest house. C. Use a combined Internet/router/wireless device in the main house and a wireless access point in the guest house. D. Use a single combined Internet/router/wireless device at the guest house.

C

A network technician is setting up a wireless access point that would only allow a certain laptop to be able to access the WAP. By using ACL, which of the following would be filtered to ensure only the authorized laptop can access the WAP? A. NetBIOS name filtering B. IP address filtering C. MAC address filtering D. Computer name filtering

C

A network technician is troubleshooting a user's connectivity problem, and has determined a probable cause. The technician is at which step in the troubleshooting methodology? A. Verify full system functionality B. Identify the problem C. Establish a theory D. Implement the solution

C

A small business owner is setting up a SOHO office. The business owner needs one device that will allow for Internet access, trunk VLANs, translate multiple private IP addresses into public IP addresses, and filter packets. Which of the following network devices will allow for all functions? A. A VPN concentrator B. A switch C. A router D. A firewall

C

Which of the following attack types is being used if the originating IP address has been spoofed? A. Ping flood B. Trojan C. Smurf D. Worm

C

A small company has a single multi-layer switch. The company currently has all network devices on the same subnet but would like to switch the servers to another subnet for security reasons. The company cannot budget any more money to purchase additional hardware. Which of the following features should be used to achieve the new company requirements? A. PAT B. PoE C. VLAN D. QoS

C

A small office has created an annex in an adjacent office space just 20 feet (6 meters) away. A network administrator is assigned to provide connectivity between the existing office and the new office. Which of the following solutions provides the MOST security from third party tampering? A. CAT5e connection between offices via the patch panel located in building's communication closet. B. CAT5e cable run through ceiling in the public space between offices. C. VPN between routers located in each office space. D. A WEP encrypted wireless bridge with directional antennae between offices.

C

A small office is looking to deploy wireless to cover one half of the work area only. The technician is restricted to suspending the WAP in the middle of the office due to network jack limitations. Which of the following antenna types would BEST meet these requirements? A. Dipole B. Parabolic C. Directional D. Omni-directional

C

A system administrator is implementing an IDS on the database server to see who is trying to access the server. The administrator relies on the software provider for what to detect. Which of the following would MOST likely be installed? A. Behavior based IDS B. Network based IDS C. Signature based IDS D. Honeypot

C

A technician has a network with a mix of newer and older equipment. Which of the following settings would dynamically configure whether to use full or half duplex? A. Transmission speed B. Frequency C. Auto-negotiate D. Distance

C

A technician has configured a router to authenticate VPN users to an LDAP server on the network. In order to allow the authentication service, both UDP and TCP ports needed to be allowed on the router. Which of the following services was MOST likely used? A. Kerberos B. TACACS+ C. RADIUS D. 802.1x

C

A technician has received a trouble ticket from a user who has intermittent wireless access. Moving the computer farther from the WAP results in a more stable connection. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of this instability? A. Wrong encryption type B. SSID mismatch C. Signal bounce D. Incorrect channel

C

A technician has set up a wired network IP scheme with the following specifications: DHCP: 192.168.1.100-150 Gateway: 192.168.1.1 DNS: 192.168.1.1 Which of the following is represented by this addressing scheme? A. Static B. QoS C. Dynamic D. Dynamic with static reservation

C

A technician has spent most of the day replacing a server running DHCP. Some of the users have begun to call the help desk stating that Internet connection stopped working even after rebooting. Upon investigation, the users' PCs with issues all have IP addresses that start with 169.254.x.x. The technician completes the replacement and powers on the new DHCP server. Which of the following is the BEST way to provide the PCs with issues a new IP address? A. Statically assign a legitimate IP address, and then set the PCs' NICs to DHCP B. Inform each user to replace 169.254 with 192.168 C. Wait five minutes until the PC resends a DHCP request D. Run netstat on each PC and then reboot into safe mode

C

A technician installs a wireless router on an existing network by connecting it directly to the firewall. By default, the main network is a Class A network, while the wireless network is a Class C network. After the wireless router is installed, users connected to the wireless network report they are unable to connect to the Internet. Which of the following needs to be configured to BEST resolve this issue? A. Configure the main network to Class C B. Allow for duplicate IP addresses C. Allow the main network to handle DHCP D. Create a spanning tree to prevent switching loops

C

A technician needs to ensure that traffic from a specific department is separated within several switches. Which of the following needs to be configured on the switch to separate the traffic? A. Duplex settings B. SNMP string C. VLAN assignments D. Spanning tree

C

A technician notices a newly installed CAT5 cable is longer than the standard maximum length. Which of the following problems would this MOST likely cause? A. Split cable B. EMI C. DB loss D. Crosstalk

C

A technician receives a work order that a user can no longer access any external websites. The user is the only one affected, but can still access websites by IP address. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. The workstation has been removed from the domain and needs to be re-added in directory services. B. The workstation is configured to use the IPv4 protocol instead of IPv6. C. The workstation is configured with an incorrect IP address of the DNS server. D. The workstation's DHCP IP address has expired and has assigned itself an APIPA address.

C

A technician replaces a failed router in an office with the same model unit using the default settings. After the installation, the technician reboots all of the PCs and servers. Upon reboot some of the PCs are receiving IP addresses on the same subnet as the new router; other PCs are receiving addresses on the same subnet as the servers. Which of the following most likely describes the issue? A. The DHCP lease pool was not large enough B. DHCP lease times were set too low C. The router is not the only DHCP server D. DHCP was not enabled on the replacement router

C

A user at a hotel sees two SSIDs; both are called "HotelWireless". After the PC connects to one of the APs, the user notices their browser homepage has been changed. Which of the following BEST describes this AP? A. Man-in-the-middle B. DDoS C. Evil twin D. War driving

C

A user cannot access the LAN after working successfully most of the day. Which of the following should the network administrator check FIRST? A. VLAN settings B. History logs C. Patch cable D. Port security

C

A user informs the network administrator of increasingly common wireless connection problems. The administrator determines the user has recently received a new cordless phone. The phone is MOST likely causing which of the following conditions? A. Signal strength latency B. Bouncing signal C. Interference D. Crosstalk

C

Which of the following cable types is employed to protect against interference in the physical environment or when security is a concern? A. STP B. RG-6 C. Fiber D. RG-59

C

A user is having trouble with their fax machine disconnecting during transmissions. The technician believes that a DSL signal may be on the same line as the fax. Which of the following tools would MOST likely help prove this hypothesis? A. Multimeter B. Cable tester C. Lineman's handset D. Toner probe

C

A user reports intermittent network connectivity. Which of the following should a technician configure on the managed switch to help troubleshoot this issue? A. SMTP B. SNTP C. SNMP D. SNAT

C

A user reports that they are unable to connect to the network. Upon further investigation, a technician notices that the user has an IP address/subnet mask combination of 192.168.204.255/24. The default gateway for the network is 192.168.204.254. Which of the following could the user's IP address be changed to so that they could connect to the network? A. 192.168.204.0/27 B. 192.168.204.1/27 C. 192.168.204.112/24 D. 192.168.204.254/24

C

A user's computer is unable to access the Internet. Which of the following utilities can a technician use to determine if DNS is working? A. nbstat B. arp C. nslookup D. ipconfig

C

A user's laptop is unable to keep a stable network connection. Which of the following measures would MOST likely need to be configured? A. SSID name B. WAP encryption strength C. WAP radio power D. Channel overlay

C

A user's network connection is slow. After testing the cabling, the cable tester shows that only pins 1, 2, 3 and 6 are being used. After accurately terminating both ends, the tester displays the same results. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. DB loss on the cable B. Interference C. Split cable D. Distance limitations

C

After a technician has identified the problem and its impact, which of the following steps should be performed NEXT? A. Implement preventative measures. B. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem. C. Establish a theory of probable cause. D. Implement the solution or escalate as necessary.

C

An administrator has added four switches to a campus network. The switch in wiring closet A is only connected to the switch in wiring closet C. The switch in wiring closet B is connected to the switch in wiring closet C as well as wiring closet D. The switch in wiring closet D is only connected to the switch in wiring closet B. Which of the following topologies is represented in this design? A. Ring B. Star C. Bus D. Mesh

C

An administrator needs to install a WAP in a location where there is no electrical wiring. Which of the following should the administrator use to complete a successful installation? A. Coaxial B. Wireless bridge C. PoE D. Multimode fiber

C

An administrator wants to restrict traffic to FTP sites regardless of which PC the request comes from. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this? A. An IP filtering ACL B. A MAC filtering ACL C. A port filtering ACL D. A class matching ACL

C

An application server is placed on the network and the intended application is not working correctly. Which of the following could be used to make sure sessions are being opened properly? A. Antivirus scanner B. IDS C. Packet sniffer D. Toner probe

C

Ann, a technician, is installing network cables for an office building. Some of the cables are not showing active on the switch even when moved to different ports. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. Port speed mismatch B. Faulty F-connectors C. Bad wiring D. Bad switch

C

Assigning the same IP address to a network device is which of the following? A. SSID B. Scope C. Reservation D. Lease

C

At which of the following layers of the OSI model does ASCII work? A. Session B. Transport C. Presentation D. Application

C

DHCP uses which of the following ports by default? A. 21 B. 23 C. 68 D. 443

C

Discover, Offer, Request, and Acknowledge are the steps for which of the following protocols? A. DNS B. DOS C. DHCP D. DSL

C

Due to a recent change in company policy, all users managing network infrastructure devices must use SSH v2 and all administrative activity must be collected on a central store. Which of the following should the network administrator deploy to comply with the new collection requirements? A. Network intrusion detection B. Traffic analysis tool C. Syslog server D. Network sniffer

C

If a technician does not assign an IP address to a device, the DHCP server will assign the device A. static IP address. B. reservation. C. dynamic IP address. D. MAC address.

C

In order to limit the number of dynamic addresses of hosts on a network, which of the following can be implemented? A. Scope options B. Leases C. Reservations D. DNS suffixes

C

In which of the following layers of the OSI model would MAC addressing be found? A. Network B. Application C. Data Link D. Transport

C

Joe has a small office and is looking to replace his phone system with a lower cost solution that requires minimal in-house support. Which of the following is the BEST choice? A. Wide Area Network B. NAT C. Virtual PBX D. Virtual LAN

C

Joe, a technician, suspects a virus has infected the network and is using up bandwidth. He needs to quickly determine which workstation is infected with the virus. Which of the following would BEST help Joe? A. Web server B. Syslog C. Network sniffer D. SNMP

C

MIMO technology in the 802.11n standard provides for which of the following benefits? A. Channel expansion B. Gigabit wireless bandwidth C. Multipath support D. Channel bonding

C

PKI is a method of user authentication which uses which of the following? A. Various router commands B. Access control lists C. Certificate services D. A RADIUS server

C

Several users are reporting connectivity issues with their laptops. Upon further investigation, the network technician identifies that their laptops have been attacked from a specific IP address outside of the network. Which of the following would need to be configured to prevent any further attacks from that IP address? A. Port security B. IDS C. Firewall rules D. Switch VLAN assignments

C

Several users from the finance department report that they are able to access the Internet, but unable to connect to their financial applications. The network technician is unable to ping the finance server. The technician decides to check the switch and determines that Internet access is working. Which of the following is a possible cause of the access issues? A. Faulty cable B. Remote management disabled C. Improper VLAN assignment D. Mismatched duplex

C

Spanning-Tree Protocol is used with which of the following network devices? A. Router B. NIC C. Switch D. DHCP server

C

The DHCP server leases IP addresses 10.162.233.158 to WBAC11 for a period of 14 days. At which of the following times would WBAC11 send an initial request to the DHCP server to renew the IP address lease? A. Day 4 B. Day 6 C. Day 8 D. Day 10

C

The TCP/IP application layer contains which of the following OSI layers? A. Layers 1,5,6,7 B. Layers 4,7 C. Layers 5,6,7 D. Layer 7

C

The company is setting up a new website that will be requiring a lot of interaction with external users. The website needs to be accessible both externally and internally but without allowing access to internal resources. Which of the following would MOST likely be configured on the firewall? A. PAT B. DHCP C. DMZ D. NAT

C

The systems administrator has assigned an IP address and default gateway to a standard Layer 2 switch. Which of the following would be the primary purpose of doing this? A. Allow VLAN routing B. Enable packet filtering on the switch C. Allow remote administration of the switch D. Enable MAC filtering on the switch

C

Users are reporting a large decrease in network performance. After further investigation, the network administrator notices large amounts of traffic coming from a specific IP address. The network administrator needs to identify the payload of the network traffic. Which of the following could be used to collect that information? A. ipconfig B. ping C. sniffer D. route

C

Users are reporting that some Internet websites are not accessible anymore. Which of the following will allow the network administrator to quickly isolate the remote router that is causing the network communication issue, so that the problem can be reported to the appropriate responsible party? A. Ping B. Protocol analyzer C. Tracert D. Dig

C

Users have been stating that they need to logon to too many applications and web apps with different credentials that use different rule sets. Which of the following would BEST address these concerns? A. Alter the domain account login policies to reflect the most common application rule sets. B. Ensure that the user accounts are properly configured in domain services. C. Implement a software solution that facilitates single sign-on authentication. D. Increase the time between mandatory password changes by a factor of three.

C

Users have reported choppy audio in phone conversations since the implementation of SIP phones on the network. Which of the following should be implemented to alleviate the delays? A. Caching B. VoIP C. QoS D. SMTP

C

Users inform an administrator that the network is slow. The administrator notices the bulk of the traffic is SIP and RTP traffic. Which of the following could the administrator do to help BEST alleviate the traffic congestion for the users? A. Create an ACL on the switches and routers that are dropping SIP and RTP packets. B. Create a QoS policy prioritizing users over RTP and SIP traffic. C. Create another VLAN for SIP and RTP traffic. D. Create a rule to throttle SIP and RTP to 10Kbps or less.

C

Users report that they are unable to access any external websites. The local intranet is not affected. A network technician has isolated the problem to a Linux-based server. Which of the following commands will enable the technician to view DNS information on the Linux-based server? A. nbtstat B. ipconfig C. dig D. netstat

C

Users report that they are unable to access the production server with IP address 192.168.30.17. These users need to be provided access without changing any subnet to VLAN information. The VLANs configured on the network are listed below: DepartmentVLAN #Subnet used Marketing20192.168.20.0/28 Customer Service 25192.168.20.64/28 Finance30192.168.30.0/28 WHSE35192.168.30.16/28 Sales40192.168.3.16/28 The users experiencing this issue need to be added to which of the following VLANs? A. 25 B. 30 C. 35 D. 40

C

Users trying to access a website using HTTPS are being blocked by the firewall. Which of the following ports needs to be allowed? A. 80 B. 143 C. 443 D. 3389

C

Which of the following 802.3 classifications has a MAXIMUM segment distance of 984 feet (300 meters)? A. 1000Base B. 100BaseFX C. 1000BaseSX D. 1000BaseT

C

Which of the following DNS records is used to identify a domain's SMTP server? A. CNAME B. PTR C. MX D. A

C

Which of the following DNS records must be queried to resolve the IPv6 address of a website? A. CNAME B. PTR C. AAAA D. A

C

Which of the following STP states indicates an inactivated port due to a loop? A. Disabled B. Learning C. Blocking D. Forwarding

C

Which of the following TCP/IP model layers does the OSI model Presentation layer map to? A. Transport B. Internet C. Application D. Network Interface

C

Which of the following WAN technologies has the highest latency? A. POTS B. Cable C. Satellite D. DSL

C

Which of the following WAN technologies utilizes an optical SONET carrier and has a maximum bandwidth of 155.54Mbps? A. DS3 B. E3 C. OC3 D. T3

C

Which of the following WAN technology types has the GREATEST latency? A. ISDN B. Fiber C. Satellite D. Cable

C

Which of the following a network technician would use to reverse engineer malware and virus? A. IDS B. VLAN C. Virtual Machine D. Switch

C

Which of the following appliances creates and manages a large number of secure remote-access sessions, and also provides a high availability solution? A. Media converter B. Proxy server C. VPN concentrator D. Load balancer

C

Which of the following cable types is unshielded? A. STP B. Twinax C. UTP D. Coax

C

Which of the following could be installed to allow a home user with one desktop computer to economically have Internet access in every room in the house? A. Fiber optic B. CAT6 C. Broadband over powerline D. CAT5

C

Which of the following defines an IP address that is NOT routed on the Internet? A. Multicast B. Public C. Private D. Classful

C

Which of the following fiber types is MOST often used indoors? A. Plenum B. Modal conditioning C. Multimode D. Singlemode

C

Which of the following is MOST commonly implemented for remote access to UNIX systems? A. SSL B. RSH C. SSH D. RDP

C

Which of the following is a common LAN protocol used for a SOHO? A. ATM B. DSL C. Ethernet D. HDLC

C

Which of the following is a common connector used on a coaxial cable? A. RJ-45 B. DB-25 C. BNC D. LC

C

Which of the following is a fiber connector that is slightly smaller than a standard copper network cable connector? A. BNC B. GBIC C. MT-RJ D. SC

C

Which of the following is a link state routing protocol? A. RIPv2 B. BGP C. IS-IS D. RIP

C

Which of the following is a terminal emulator used to manage a network device? A. VPN B. IDS C. PuTTY D. IPS

C

Which of the following is always true when a router selects a destination? A. The default gateway is selected over any other static or dynamic route. B. The shortest route is always selected. C. The most specific route is selected over the default gateway. D. A dynamic route is selected over a directly attached network.

C

Which of the following is the OSI layer that handles file compression such as LZMA or DEFLATE? A. Layer 3 B. Layer 5 C. Layer 6 D. Layer 7

C

Which of the following is the common port used for IMAP? A. 25 B. 53 C. 143 D. 443

C

Which of the following is the difference between 802.11b and 802.11g? A. Distance B. Frequency C. Speed D. Transmission power

C

Which of the following is true of a client/server topology? A. Virtual servers are used to stream data to other remote servers B. Servers are used to connect to centralized clients C. Remote clients connect to a centralized server D. Remote clients connect to each other via a virtual server

C

Which of the following is used to embed the MAC address of an Ethernet interface in a corresponding IPv6 address? A. Subnet B. IANA prefix C. EUI-64 D. Site-local

C

Which of the following is used to explain guidelines for users while using network resources? A. Network cut sheet B. Baselines C. Acceptable use policy D. Regulations

C

Which of the following network access security methods ensures communication occurs over a secured, encrypted channel, even if the data uses the Internet? A. MAC filtering B. RAS C. SSL VPN D. L2TP

C

Which of the following technologies can change channel widths? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11n D. Bluetooth

C

Which of the following technologies is used to connect public networks using POTS lines? A. OC3 B. OC12 C. PSTN D. Cable

C

Which of the following tools would a technician use to terminate CAT6 wires to the inside of the wall jack? A. Toner probe B. Cable tester C. Punch down D. Crimper

C

Which of the following uses SSL encryption? A. SMTP B. FTP C. HTTPS D. SNMP

C

Which of the following will allow a technician to monitor all network traffic when connected to a mirror port? A. VLAN tags B. SNMP C. Packet sniffer D. Syslog

C

Which of the following wireless security measures, although widely implemented, does not provide strong security? A. IPSec B. WPA2 C. MAC address filtering D. 802.1x

C

Which of the following would be used to check whether a DoS attack is taking place from a specific remote subnet? A. Syslog files B. Honeypot C. Network sniffer D. tracert

C

Which of the following would be used to place extranet servers in a separate subnet for security purposes? A. VPN B. NAT C. DMZ D. IDS

C

Which two layers of the OSI model make up the TCP/IP model Network Interface layer? A. Application and Transport B. Transport and Session C. Physical and Data Link D. Session and Presentation

C

Which of the following WAN technologies has the HIGHEST latency? A. ADSL B. LTE C. Satellite D. WiMAX

C

A customer wants to increase firewall security. Which of the following are common reasons for implementing port security on the firewall? (Select TWO). A. Preventing dictionary attacks on user passwords B. Reducing spam from outside email sources C. Shielding servers from attacks on internal services D. Blocking external probes for vulnerabilities E. Directing DNS queries to the primary server

CD

After a new user moves furniture into a cubicle, the computer does not connect to the network any longer. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason? (Select TWO). A. Bad Ethernet switch port B. TX/RX reversed C. Bad connectors D. Bad patch cable E. Mismatched MTU

CD

Which of the following protocols are used to view and send mail from a local host off of a remote server? (Select TWO). A. TFTP B. SNMP C. POP3 D. IMAP4 E. SFTP

CD

A customer with a SOHO requires fast, secure, cost-effective access to the Internet. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate solution? (Select TWO). A. OC3 line with built-in firewall B. DS3 line with a separate firewall C. Cable modem with a separate firewall D. Dial-up modem with separate firewall E. DSL router with firewall capabilities

CE

A proxy server would MOST likely be installed to provide which of the following functions? (Select TWO). A. Combined DNS and DHCP hosting B. Encryption C. Content filtering D. Fault tolerance E. Website caching

CE

A strong network firewall would likely support which of the following security features for controlling access? (Select TWO). A. War driving B. War chalking C. MAC filtering D. FTP bouncing E. Port filtering

CE

A technician needs multiple networks, high speeds, and redundancy on a system. Which of the following configurations should be considered for these requirements? (Select TWO). A. Routing table B. Next hop C. Port mirroring D. Port monitoring E. VLANs

CE

Which of the following IP address/subnet mask combinations represent a broadcast address? (Select TWO). A. 200.200.100.0/28 B. 200.200.100.32/27 C. 200.200.100.63/27 D. 200.200.100.79/27 E. 200.200.100.95/27 F. 200.200.100.254/30

CE

Which of the following are standard fiber cable connector types? (Select TWO). A. RJ-11 B. F-connector C. MTRJ D. DB-9 E. ST

CE

Which of the following is a fiber connector type? A. F-connector B. RJ-11 C. RS-232 D. MTRJ

D

Which of the following is a requirement for bridging with 802.11a? A. WPA encryption B. Governmental licenses C. High gain yagi antennas D. Clear line of sight

D

35 A technician tests a cable going to the patch panel and notices the following output from the cable tester: 1------------------1 2------------------2 3------------------3 4------------------4 5------------------5 6------------------6 7------------------7 8------------------8 On a T568A standard CAT5e cable, which of the following wire strands is the cause of this connectivity issue? A. White Orange B. Solid Brown C. Solid Orange D. White Green

D

A CAT5e network cable run needs to be installed over fluorescent lighting arrays in an office building. Which of the following cable types would be BEST suited for such an installation? A. UTP B. Plenum C. Coaxial D. STP

D

A Linux-based workstation is unable to connect to an IP printer on the same network segment. The printer IP address settings have been verified. How would a network technician verify IP address settings on the Linux- based workstation? A. Run the dig command on the workstation. B. Run the nslookup command on the workstation. C. Run the ipconfig command on the workstation. D. Run the ifconfig command on the workstation.

D

A company has multiple WAPs within close proximity to each other to allow users to move about seamlessly through the building with their laptops, without losing any connection. However, this has had the opposite effect, causing any user that is close to two of the access points to constantly reconnect to the wireless network. Which of the following should be changed on all the WAPs to allow this to work as the customer intended? A. Change the SSID to be unique for each WAP. B. Change the antenna direction to be unique for each WAP. C. Change the encryption method to be unique for each WAP. D. Change the channel to be unique for each WAP.

D

A company recently added an addition to their office building. A technician runs new plenum network cables from the switch on one side of the company's gymnasium 80 meters (262 ft.) to the new offices on the other side, draping the wires across the light fixtures. Users working out of the new offices in the addition complain of intermittent network connectivity. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the connectivity issue? A. dB loss B. Distance C. Incorrect connector type D. EMI E. Crosstalk

D

A company wants to ensure that a wireless signal from their WAP only sends down one specific corridor. Which of the following can be done to achieve this? A. Disable the SSID. B. Change the broadcast channel. C. Lower the signal strength. D. Change the antennas.

D

A company wants to secure its WAPs from unauthorized access. Which of the following is the MOST secure wireless encryption method? A. SSID disable B. SNMPv3 C. WEP D. WPA2

D

A large corporate office is looking to place smaller network closets around campus to handle switching for remote workstations. To which of the following is this referring? A. MDF B. VPN C. RDP D. IDF

D

A network administrator is responding to a statement of direction made by senior management to implement network protection that will inspect packets as they enter the network. Which of the following technologies would be used? A. Packet sniffer B. Stateless firewall C. Packet filter D. Stateful firewall

D

A network administrator suspects a broadcast storm is causing performance issues on the network. Which of the following would be used to verify this situation? A. Environmental monitor B. Multimeter C. Toner probe D. Protocol analyzer

D

A network technician has been asked to look into a report from the IDS to determine why traffic is being sent from an internal FTP server to an external website. Which of the following tools can be used to inspect this traffic? A. Router firewall B. Ping and traceroute C. Throughput tester D. Protocol analyzer

D

A network technician is doing a wireless audit and finds an SSID that does not match the company's SSID. The company uses the SSID of ABC123, and the SSID the technician found is Default. Which of the following threats did the network technician find? A. AP isolation B. DDoS C. Evil twin D. Rogue AP

D

Which of the following is a specialized piece of hardware designed to encrypt and decrypt user traffic? A. Proxy server B. TDR C. Smart jack D. VPN concentrator

D

A network technician is trying to run a protocol analyzer and is instructed to record the chimney offload state of TCP. Which of the following utilities did the technician use to check this parameter with the output listed below? Querying active state... TCP Global Parameters ---------------------------------------------- Receive-Side Scaling State : enabled Chimney Offload State : disabled Receive Window Auto-Tuning Level : normal Add-On Congestion Control Provider : ctcp ECN Capability : disabled RFC 1323 Timestamps : disabled ------ A. net B. netstat C. nbtstat D. netsh

D

A network technician recently replaced a managed switch in an enterprise network with a new managed switch. Users on the switch can communicate with each other but now cannot access other network segments. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason that the users are unable to access any network segments? A. The newly installed switch is defective and must be returned. B. The newly installed switch is using a different MAC address than the previous switch. C. The technician forgot to change the VTP mode on the new switch to server. D. The technician did not use the correct cable when trunking the new switch.

D

A network technician visits a site that needs voice connectivity to the corporate office and installs four IP phones. The phone exchange resides at the telephone company. Which of the following technologies is being used? A. Virtual switch B. Virtual server C. Virtual desktop D. Virtual PBX

D

A network where all traffic feeds through a centralized gateway uses which of the following topologies? A. Peer-to-peer B. Ring C. Bus D. Star

D

A new WAP is configured to only use 802.11g with SSID broadcasts enabled. The encryption is set to WPA and the key is given to the user. A user near the WAP is using a laptop equipped with a 5GHz wireless card and is not able to see the SSID. Which of the following is the problem? A. Latency B. Incorrect encryption type C. EUI-64 D. Incompatible hardware

D

A number of remote users have reported being unable to securely log on to the company's network. Upon speaking with some of the employees experiencing the issue, no changes were made to their configurations, usernames, or passwords. The technician establishes a theory that one of the VPN concentrators may be down. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? A. Plan to reboot the concentrator as the potential solution B. Escalate the problem to management C. Continue to speak to users, questioning if changes have been made D. Test access to the concentrator to confirm the status

D

A recent flood in the office caused a lot of equipment to be damaged and the manager of the IT department would like a way to prevent such an incident in the future. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate such an equipment failure? A. Reduce the power input on the replacement servers. B. Cover the servers with plastic tarps. C. Purchase twice as many servers to create high availability clusters. D. Transfer the replacement servers offsite to a data center.

D

A small office client is requesting a network redesign. Both wired and wireless devices must connect to the network. All of the wireless devices can communicate using the latest standards. The building has a long courtyard in the middle with reinforced walls, which extends up through all the floors. The distance from the switch to the furthest drop is 88 meters. Which of the following is the correct network redesign choice? A. Fiber optic cabling is necessary due to distance limitations. B. The wireless network should be 802.11b due to equipment limitations. C. One WAP will be sufficient to provide wireless coverage to the floor. D. The wired network should be run with at least CAT6 cabling.

D

A technician enters a username and password once and can access multiple databases without being prompted to reenter their password. This is an example of which of the following? A. Two-factor authentication B. Network access control C. Multifactor authentication D. Single sign-on

D

A technician has been dispatched to investigate connectivity problems of a recently renovated office. The technician has found that the cubicles were wired so that the network cables were run inside the conduit with the electrical cabling. Which of the following would MOST likely resolve the connectivity issue? A. Power-cycle the computers and switches to re-establish the network connection. B. Re-run the network cabling through the ceiling alongside the lights to prevent interference. C. Test the wiring in the network jacks for faults using a cable verifier. D. Re-run the network cabling so that they are 12 inches or more away from the electrical lines.

D

A technician is developing a shortcut sheet for the network to be able to assist in future troubleshooting scenarios. Which of the following should the network devices have to ease manageability efforts? A. MAC spoofing B. Dynamic IPs C. MAC filtering D. Static IPs

D

A technician is troubleshooting a network issue and needs to view network traffic on a switch in real-time. Which of the following would allow the technician to view network traffic on a switch? A. ISAKMP B. Port forwarding C. Port security D. Port mirroring

D

A technician needs to enter a username and password and have their fingerprint scanned to access a server. Which of following types of authentication is this an example of? A. Single sign-on B. Network access control C. PKI authentication D. Two-factor authentication

D

A technician needs to install a new wireless encryption system. They are evaluating the feasibility of implementing WPA. WPA increases protection over WEP by implementing which of the following? A. Strong RC4 encryption B. Shared secret keys C. AES encryption D. Key rotation

D

A technician sees suspicious traffic coming from a computer connected to a WAP. Which of the following can be used to stop this traffic while troubleshooting the problem? A. tracert B. QoS C. ipconfig D. MAC filtering

D

A technician suspects invalid information in the local DNS cache of a workstation. Which of the following commands can be used to clear this? A. nslookup B. ifconfig C. dig D. ipconfig

D

A user does not have network connectivity. While testing the cable the technician receives the below reading on the cable tester: 1-----------1 2-----------2 3-----------3 4-----------4 5-----------5 6-----------6 7-----------7 8-----------8 Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? A. Cable is a crossover, continue troubleshooting B. Pin 3 is not used for data, continue troubleshooting C. Pin 3 is not used for data, replace the NIC D. Redo the cable's connectors

D

A user is unable to access any network resources. The IP configuration of the workstation is as follows: IP Address: 192.168.10.32 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.10.46 Which of the following would allow the user to connect to network resources? A. Change the default gateway to 192.168.10.1 B. Change the default gateway to 192.168.10.254 C. Change the IP address to 192.168.10.31 D. Change the IP address to 192.168.10.33

D

A user is unable to communicate with any local network resources, but is connected to the wireless network and can access the Internet. The network technician notices that the laptop has an incorrect IP address, even though it shows it is connected. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. Signal strength B. Interference C. AP placement D. Incorrect SSID

D

A user reports that some normally accessible external sites are not responding, but most other sites are responding normally. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. VLAN tag mismatch B. Wrong subnet mask C. Smurf attack D. Faulty routing rule

D

After a network technician has added a new workstation and cabling to the network, users report the network is very slow. The activity lights on all switches are blinking rapidly, showing large amounts of traffic. Which of the following is the BEST explanation for the traffic? A. The new user is downloading large files. B. The router failed, flooding the network with beacons. C. The new user's IP address is a duplicate. D. A switching loop was created.

D

After deploying a network switch, the network administrator is unable to remotely administer the device. The network administrator notices that the switch has the following configuration. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue? Management LAN: 192.168.10.0/24 Management interfacE. 192.168.10.2 255.255.255.0 Default gateway: 192.168.11.1 STP is enabled A. VLAN assignment B. Wrong subnet mask C. Switching loop D. Wrong gateway

D

All users on a specific network segment report losing access to the wired network. During troubleshooting, the network administrator observes link lights on the workstations. When physically reviewing each switch, the network administrator changes the switch view settings to Activity and sees that all port lights remain solid green. Which of the following is MOST likely causing this issue? A. STP convergence B. Power failure C. Excessive bandwidth usage D. Broadcast storm

D

An IP camera has a failed PoE NIC. This is the third time in months that a PoE NIC has failed on this device. The technician suspects a possible power issue. Which of the following should be used to test the theory? A. Toner probe B. Loopback plug C. Protocol analyzer D. Multimeter

D

An administrator is able to list the interfaces on a switch after providing the community string "public". Which of the protocols is the administrator MOST likely using? A. Telnet B. RADIUS C. SSH D. SNMP

D

An administrator would like to search for network vulnerabilities on servers, routers, and embedded appliances. Which of the following tools would MOST likely accomplish this? A. Baseline analyzer B. Ping C. Protocol analyzer D. Nessus

D

An organization finds that most of the outgoing traffic on the network is directed at several Internet sites viewed by multiple computers simultaneously. Which of the following performance optimization methods would BEST alleviate network traffic? A. Load balancing internal web servers B. Redundant network resources C. Implement fault tolerance on the WAN D. Implement caching engines

D

Ann, a client, shares half of a rectangular floor plan with another company and wishes to set up a secure wireless network. The installed antenna limits the signal to her half of the floor. Through analysis, the frequency and channels of surrounding wireless networks have been determined and configuration changes made accordingly. Which of the following would be the NEXT step in setting up this secure wireless network? A. Decrease signal strength on the antenna B. Change the wireless channel on the WAP C. Change the device placement to further obfuscate the signal D. Set up encryption on the WAP and clients

D

Ann, a network technician, has been troubleshooting a connectivity problem in the LAN room. Ann has diagnosed the problem and implemented a solution. Which of the following would be the NEXT step? A. Test the theory B. Establish a plan of action C. Establish a theory D. Document findings

D

Ann, a new user, is unable to communicate on the network from her computer. A technician has verified that the cables are functioning properly. Based on the information below, which action should the technician take to correct Ann's problem? Computer_ASwitch_A IP: 10.0.0.60Int VLAN10 SM: 255.255.255.0IP address 10.0.0.1/28 GW: 10.0.0.1 Speed 100 Duplex Full A. Change the duplex on the switch interface to half B. Change the speed on the switch interface to 10Mbps C. Change the subnet mask of the computer to 255.255.255.240 D. Change the IP address of the computer to 10.0.0.12

D

Companies trying to cut down on constant documentation of IP addresses could use which of the following? A. Longer lease times B. More reservations C. Larger scopes D. Dynamic IP addressing

D

During a disaster recovery test, several billing representatives need to be temporarily setup to take payments from customers. It has been determined that this will need to occur over a wireless network, with security being enforced where possible. Which of the following configurations should be used in this scenario? A. WPA2, SSID enabled, and 802.11n. B. WEP, SSID enabled, and 802.11b. C. WEP, SSID disabled, and 802.11g. D. WPA2, SSID disabled, and 802.11a.

D

In order to discover the currently unknown IP address of the next-hop router, a network administrator would begin by using which of the following tools? A. NMAP B. ping C. nslookup D. tracert

D

Joe, a user, has a computer that has a link light on his network interface card (NIC); however, Joe is unable to access the Internet. Which of the following is the cause othis issue? A. Faulty GBIC B. Faulty SFP C. Cable is a crossover D. VLAN mismatch

D

Multiple networked devices running on the same physical hardware that provide central access to applications and files, where each device runs as a piece of software are known as: A. Virtual desktops. B. Switches. C. PBXs. D. Virtual servers.

D

Which of the following is an example of a CSMA/CD medium? A. WEP B. SONET C. Token ring D. Ethernet

D

Multiple servers' IP addresses fall within the DHCP scope assigned by the administrator. Which of the following should be implemented to ensure these static IP addresses are not assigned to workstations? A. The administrator should create exclusions for the workstations IP addresses. B. The administrator should change the servers to utilize DHCP to obtain IP addresses. C. The administrator should change the workstations to utilize static IP addresses. D. The administrator should create exclusions for the servers IP addresses.

D

Some employees are unable to maintain a wireless network connection. The network's wireless infrastructure is comprised of three different buildings with the configurations listed below. Wireless network in Building A and C is used exclusively for internal employees and Building B is used for visitors and requires no additional configuration on their devices. Which of the following settings would need to be modified to provide the BEST wireless experience for all employees as they move between buildings? Building A: Channel 1 - Encryption: WPA 2 SSID- Corp Building B: Channel: 6 - Encryption: Open SSID: Guest Building C: Channel: 11 - Encryption: WPA2 SSID: Sales A. Change Channel in Building B to 7 B. Change Encryption in Building B to match A and C C. Change Channel in Building C to 1 D. Change SSID in Building C to match Building A

D

The address 6FFE:FFFF:0000:2F3B:04AC:00FF:FEBE:5C4A is an example of which of the following? A. APIPA B. MAC C. IPv4 D. IPv6

D

The application layer in the TCP/IP model is comparable to which of the following layers in the OSI model? A. Layer 2 B. Layer 5 C. Layer 6 D. Layer 7

D

The unit responsible for the successful shaping and transmission of a digital signal is called: A. demarc. B. T1 hub. C. smart jack. D. CSU/DSU.

D

Users are reporting wired connectivity drops in a new office with brand new CAT6 infrastructure. Which of the following tools should a technician use to BEST troubleshoot this issue? A. OTDR B. Protocol analyzer C. Toner probe D. Cable certifier

D

Users at a remote site are unable to establish a VPN to the main office. At which of the following layers of the OSI model does the problem MOST likely reside? A. Presentation B. Application C. Physical D. Session

D

Users have contacted the helpdesk stating that they have been having difficulties staying connected to the wireless network. They report that their laptops connect to one access point, drop the connection and then connect to a different access point in a never-ending cycle. Which of the following would BEST remediate this? A. Reconfigure the access points from 802.11b to 802.11g. B. Establish procedures which limit user connections during peak hours. C. Configure the access points so that they all use different SSIDs. D. Move one or more access points, minimizing signal overlap.

D

Users notice a problem with their network connectivity when additional lights are turned on. Which of the following would be the cause for this problem? A. DDOS B. Cross talk C. Open short D. EMI

D

Users report that an internal file server is inaccessible. Of the following commands, which would be the MOST useful in determining network-layer connectivity? A. dig B. nbtstat C. netstat D. ping

D

Using source port numbers as a way to keep track of connections is a characteristic of which of the following protocols? A. TCP B. UDP C. NAT D. PAT

D

Which of the following 802.11 standards transmits the signals the GREATEST distance? A. a B. b C. g D. n

D

Which of the following LAN technologies is used to provide a MAXIMUM bandwidth of 1Gbps through singlemode fiber? A. 10GBaseLR B. 100BaseFX C. 100BaseTX D. 1000BaseX

D

Which of the following OSI layers allows users to access network services such as file sharing? A. Layer 1 B. Layer 3 C. Layer 4 D. Layer 7

D

Which of the following addresses is a class B private address? A. 132.216.14.184 B. 152.119.25.213 C. 162.17.43.22 D. 172.23.226.34

D

Which of the following allows an administrator to reference performance and configuration information if there is a problem on the network? A. Wire schemes B. Change management C. Network diagrams D. System baselines

D

Which of the following attacks would allow an intruder to do port mapping on a company's internal server from a separate company server on the Internet? A. SYN flood B. Teardrop C. Smurf D. FTP bounce

D

Which of the following cable types is required to run through an air duct? A. UTP B. Fiber C. PVC D. Plenum

D

Which of the following can MOST likely cause intermittent connection problems with a CAT5 network cable? A. Cable has been looped too many times. B. Cable has a twist tie attached too close to the connector. C. Cable is too warm. D. Cable is run too close to a fluorescent light.

D

Which of the following can be used to decrypt SSL packets which encapsulate internal network addresses in the payload? A. Proxy server B. Content filter C. Load balancer D. VPN concentrator

D

Which of the following can operate on BOTH the 2.4GHz and 5.8GHz frequencies? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11n

D

Which of the following connectors are MOST commonly used on a POTS line? A. RJ-45 B. MTRJ C. DB-9 D. RJ-11

D

Which of the following copper cable types should be chosen to run gigabit speeds through a dropped ceiling that returns airflow? A. Non-Plenum CAT5 B. Non-Plenum CAT5e C. Plenum CAT5 D. Plenum CAT5e

D

Which of the following defines a rack located in an office building between the main rack and other office equipment? A. DSU B. MDF C. CSU D. IDF

D

Which of the following does Kerberos provide? A. Non-repudiation B. Accounting C. Exchange D. Authentication

D

Which of the following has the LEAST amount of collisions in a domain? A. Bridge B. Hub C. Repeater D. Switch

D

Which of the following is MOST likely used with RG-6 media? A. MTRJ B. RJ-11 C. RJ-45 D. F-connector

D

A company needs to implement a secure wireless system that would require employees to authenticate to the wireless network with their domain username and password. Which of the following would a network administrator deploy to implement these requirements? (Select TWO). A. 802.1q B. MAC address filtering C. WPA2 Personal D. WPA Enterprise E. 802.1x

DE

A newly hired technician is sent to an alternate site to complete the build out of large scale LAN. Which of the following tools should the technician have on hand to install the bulk CAT6 cable? (Select TWO). A. Loopback plug B. Multimeter C. OTDR D. Crimper E. Cable tester F. TDR

DE

The Network Interface Layer of the TCP/IP model corresponds to which of the following layers of the OSI model? (Select TWO). A. Network B. Session C. Transport D. Physical E. Data link

DE

Which of the following reside at a minimum of Layer 3 of the OSI model? (Select TWO). A. Hub B. Switch C. MAC address D. IP address E. Router

DE

802.11n can operate at which of the following frequencies? (Select TWO). A. 2.4Mhz B. 2.5Mhz C. 5Mhz D. 2.4Ghz E. 2.5Ghz F. 5Ghz

DF

Your colleague decides to close all unused ports on the corporate firewall to further secure the network from intruders. The open ports are 25, 80, 110, and 53. Your colleague knows that ports 25 and 110 are required for email an d that port 80 is used for nonsecure web browsing, so he decides to close port 53 because he doesn't think it is necessary. Which network service is now unavailable? A. Secure HTTP B. FTP C. Telnet D. DNS

DNS

At which layer of the OSI model does a NIC operate? A. Physical B. Network C. Data link D. Transport

Data Link layer

Sneakernet

Data sharing method where it is required to physically transport the storage device from one computer to another.

Traffic

Data transmission activity from one device to another across a network.

guest

Each VM(virtual machine) is known as a _____.

You are tasked with specifying a way to connect two buildings across a parking lot. The distance between the two buildings is 78 meters. An underground wiring duct exists between the two buildings; although, there are concerns about using it because it also houses high-voltage electrical cables. The budget for the project is tight, but your manager still wants you to specify the most suitable solution. Which of the following cable types would you recommend? A. Fiber-optic B. UTP C. Thin coax D. STP

Fiber-optic

user agent client

In SIP terminology, end-user devices such as workstations, PDAs, cell phones, or IP telephones. A user agent client initiates a SIP connection.

non-designated port

In STP terms, non-designated ports block traffic to create a loop-free topology.

fixed

In ____ wireless systems, the transmitting antenna focuses its energy directly toward the receiving antenna which results in a point-to-point link.

DNS spoofing

In ____, a hacker forges name server records to falsify his host's identity.

mutual authentication

In ____, both computers verify the credentials of the other.

packet switching

In ____, each datagram can follow one of many paths to reach its destination.

designated port

In a STP topology, every network segment has a single designated port, which is the port on that segment that is closest to the root bridge, in terms of cost. Therefore, all ports on a root bridge are designated ports.

Peer-to-peer Network

In a peer-to-peer network, every computer can communicate directly with every other computer.

False

In a star topology a single connection failure will halt all traffic between all sites. True OR False

EF (Expedited Forwarding)

In the DiffServ QoS technique, a forwarding specification that assigns each data stream a minimum departure rate from a given node. This technique circimvents delays that slow normal data from reaching its destination on time and in sequence. EF information is inserted in the DiffServ field of an IPv4 datagram.

host machine

In the NAT networking mode, a vNIC relies on the ______ _______ to act as a NAT device.(NAT=Network Address Translation)

serial connection

In the case of dial-up networking, the term ____ ________ refers to a modem.

set top box

In the context of IPTV, a device that decodes digital video signals and issues them to the television. Set top boxes also communicate with content servers to manage video delivery.

Hot Spare

In the context of RAID, a disk or partition that is part of the array, but used only in case one of the RAID disks fails.

trunk

In the context of an Ethernet network, a trunk is a single physical or logical connection that simultaneously carries traffic for multiple VLANs. However, a trunk also refers to an interconnection between telephone switches, in the context of telephony.

client-server network

In this type of network a dedicated server (ie: file server or a print server) provides shared access to a resources (ie: files or a printer). Clients (ie: a PCs) on the network with appropriate privilege levels can gain access to those shared resources.

Ring Topology

In which topology is each node connected to the next nearest node to form a circle?

You have been called in to troubleshoot a small network. The network uses TCP/IP and statically assigned IPv4 information. You add a new workstation to the network. It can connect to the local network but not to a server on a remote network. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the problem? A. Incorrect IP address. B. Incorrect default gateway. C. The DHCP server is unavailable. D. Duplicate IP addresses are being used.

Incorrect default gateway.

proxy server

Intercepts requests being sent from a client and forwards those request on to their intended destination. The proxy server then sends any return traffic to the client which initiated the session. This provides address hiding for the client. Also, some proxy servers conserve WAN bandwidth by offering a content caching function. Additionally, some proxy servers offer URL filtering to, for example, block users from accessing social networking sites during working hours.

ITU

International Telecommunication Union - A United Nations agency that regulates international telecommunications and provides developing countries with technical expertise and equipment to advance their technological bases.

IAB

Internet Architecture Board

IANA

Internet Assigned Numbers Authority

ICANN

Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers

IETF

Internet Engineering Task Force.

IP

Internet Protocol A core protocol in the TCP/IP suite that operates in the Network layer of the OSI model and provides information about how and where data should be delivered. IP is the subprotocol that enables TCP/IP to internetwork.

ISP

Internet service provider A business that provides organizations and individuals with Internet access and often, other services, such as e-mail and Web hosting.

Internet services

Internet services include file transfer capabilities, Internet addressing schemes, security filters, and a means for directly logging on to other computers on the Internet.

What is the basic purpose of a firewall system? A. It provides a single point of access to the internet. B. It caches commonly used web pages, thereby reducing the band-width demands on an Internet connection. C. It allows hostnames to be resolved to IP addresses. D. It protects one network from another by acting as an intermediary system.

It protects one network from another by acting as an intermediary system.

Which of the following best describes the function of asymmetric key encryption? A. It uses both a private and public key to encrypt and decrypt messages. B. It uses two private keys to encrypt and decrypt messages. C. It uses a single key for both encryption and decryption. D. It uses three separate keys for both encryption and decryption.

It uses both a private and public key to encrypt and decrypt messages.

Which of the following IPv6 addressing types is associated with IPv4 automatic 169.254.0.0 addressing? A. Link-locial B. Site-local C. Global address D. Unicast

Link-local

Which of the following topology types offers the greatest amount of redundancy? A. Star B. Bus C. Ring D. Mesh

Mesh.

cloud

On network diagrams, the Internet is frequently depicted as a ____.

live streaming

One drawback to ___ ______ video is that content may not be edited before it's distributed.

octet

One of the four bytes that are separated by periods and together make up an IPv4 address.

Redundant

One of the most modern WANs, a ring topology relies on _______ rings to carry data.

current state modulation

One way to electrically or optically represent a binary 1 or 0 is to use current state modulation, which represents a binary 1 with the presence of voltage (on a copper cable) or the presence of light (on a fiber-optic cable). Similarly, the absence of light or voltage represents a binary 0.

state transition modulation

One way to electrically or optically represent a binary 1 or 0 is to use the transition between a voltage level (for example, going from a state of no voltage to a state of voltage, or vice versa, on a copper cable) or the transition of having light or no light on a fiber optic cable to represent a binary 1. Similarly, a binary 0 is represented by having no transition in a voltage level or light level from one time period to the next. This approach of representing binary digits is called state transition modulation.

100 block

Part of an organization's cross-connect facilities, a type of punch-down block designed to terminate Cat 5 or better twisted pair wires.

virtual switch

Performs Layer 2 functions (for example, VLAN separation and filtering) between various server instances running on a single physical server.

802.11a

Ratified in 1999, this standard supports speeds as high as 54 Mbps. Other supported data rates (which can be used if conditions are not suitable for the 54 Mbps rate) include 6, 9, 12, 18, 24, 36, and 48 Mbps. The 802.11a standard uses the 5-GHz band and the OFDM transmission method.

802.11g

Ratified in 2003, this standard supports speeds as high as 54 Mbps. Like 802.11a, other supported data rates include 6, 9, 12, 18, 24, 36, and 48Mbps. However, like 802.11b, 802.11g operates in the 2.4-GHz band, which allows it to offer backwards compatibility to 802.11b devices. 802.11g can use either the OFDM or DSSS transmission method.

802.11n

Ratified in 2009, this standard supports a variety of speeds, depending on its implementation. Although the speed of an 802.11n network could approach 300 Mbps (through the use of channel bonding), many 802.11n devices on the market have speed ratings in the 130-150 Mbps range. Interestingly, an 802.11n WLAN can operate in the 2.4-GHz band, the 5-GHz band, or both simultaneously. 802.11n uses the OFDM transmission method.

Your manager asks you to recommend a secure way to copy files between a server on your network an a remote server in another location. Which of the following solutions are you most likely to recommend? A. TFTP B. FTP C. SFTP D. IGMP

SFTP. Secure File Transfer Protocol.

call signaling and control

SIP and H.323 regulate______ for VoIP or video-over-IP clients and servers.

True

SONET specifies framing and multiplexing techniques at the Physical Layer. True or False

fault tolerance

SONET's extraordinary ________ results from its use of a double-ring topology over Fiber-Optic cable.

You are installing a 100BaseFX network, and you need to purchase connectors. Which of the following might you purchase? (Choose two.) A. RJ-45 B. ST C. BNC D. SC

ST BNC

You are troubleshooting a client's network. From the network specifications, you learn that you will be using the 1000BaseCX standard. What type of cable will you use? A. Mutlimode fiber B. STP C. Single-mode fiber D. CoreXtended fiber

STP

Fault Tolerance

The capability for a component or system to continue funtioning despite damage or malfuntion.

Failover

The capability for one component (such as a NIC or server) to assume another component's responsibilities without manual intervention.

802.1W

The IEEE standard that describes RSTP, which evolved from STP.

802.3af

The IEEE standard that specifies a way of supplying electrical Power over Ethernet (PoE)

default gateway

The IP address of a router (or multilayer switch) to which a networked device sends traffic destined for a subnet other than the device's local subnet.

network interface layer

The Network Interface Layer of the TCP/IP stack (also known as the Network Access Layer ) encompasses the technologies addressed by Layers 1 and 2 (that is, the Physical and Data Link Layers) of the OSI model.

IP address (Internet Protocol address)

The Network layer address assigned to nodes to uniquely identify them on a TCP/IP network. IP addresses consist of 32 bits divided into four octets, or bytes.

Logical Topology

The actual traffic flow of a network determines the network's Logical topology.

port number

The address on a host where an application makes itself available to incoming data.

unified communications

The centralized management of multiple types of network-based communications, such as voice, video, fax, and messaging services.

unified messaging

The centralized management of multiple types of network-based communications, such as voice, video, fax, and messaging services.

A client on your network has had no problems accessing the wireless network in the past, but recently she moved to a new office. Since the move, she has had only intermittent network access. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the problem? A. The SSID on the client is misconfigured. B. The client system has moved too far from the AP. C. The WEP settings are incorrect. D. The AP is using an omnidirectional antenna.

The client system has moved too far from the AP.

You come into work on Monday to find that the DHCP server failed over the weekend. Before you can fix it, DHCP enabled client systems boot up and can communicate with each other. However, they cannot directly access the internet or a remote network segment. Given that the DHCP server has failed, how can the systems communicate? A. The DHCP service was recovered automatically using the Windows XP automatic restoration utility. B. The DHCP addressing information was obtained from the client cache. C. The client systems are assigned an IP address using APIPA. D. The client systems are using static IP addressing.

The client systems are assigned an IP address using APIPA.

key pair

The combination of a public key and a private key is known as a ____.

Signature Scanning

The comparison of a file's content with known virus signatures in a sinature database to determine whether the file is a virus.

OC (Optical Carrier) Level

The data rate of a particular SONET ring is indicated by its ______ ______, a rating that is internationally recognized by network professionals and standards organizations.

traffic

The data transmission and processing activity taking place on a computer network at any given time.

namespace

The database of Internet IP addresses and their associated names distributed over DNS name servers worldwide.

A user informs you that she can't access the Internet from her system. When you visit her, you run the ipconfig / all utility and see the following information. What is the most likely reason the user is having problems accessing the Internet? C:\>ipconfig /all Windows IP Configuration Host Name....................: LAPTOP Primary DNS Suffix.......: Node Type.....................:Broadcast IP Routing Enabled........:No WINS Proxy Enabled.....:No Ethernet adapter Local Area Connection: Connection-specific DNS Suffix .............: Description...............................................: Intel 8255x-based PCI Ethernet Physical Address......................:00-D0-59-09-07-51 DHCP Enabled..........................:No IP Address.................................:192.168.2.1 Subnet Mask..............................:255.255.255.0 Default Gateway.........................: DNS Servers..............................:192.168.2.10 192.168.2.20 A. The system is on a different subnet than the DNS servers. B. DHCP is not enabled. C. The subnet mask is incorrect. D. The default gateway setting is not configured.

The default gateway setting is not configured.

optical loss

The degradation of a light signal on a fiber-optic network.

latency

The delay between the transmission of a signal and its receipt.

NIC (network interface card)

The device (pronounced nick), also known as network adapters, are located inside a computer that connects a computer to the network media, thus allowing it to communicate with other computers. Some connect or are integrated via a motherboard and others connect via an external port.

Session layer

The fifth layer in the OSI model. This layer establishes and maintains communication between two nodes on the network. It can be considered the "traffic cop" for network communications.

resources

The devices, data, and data storage space provided by a computer, whether stand-alone or shared.

wavelength

The distance between corresponding points on a wave's cycle. It is inversely proportional to frequency.

Data packets

The distinct units of data that are exchanged between nodes on a network.

signaling

The exchange of information between the components of a network or system for the purposes of establishing, monitoring, or releasing connections as well as controlling system operations.

attenuation

The extent to which a signal has weakened after traveling a given distance.

Promiscuous mode

The feature of a network adapter that allows it to pick up all frames that pass over the network- not just those destined for the node served by the card.

FCS (frame check sequence)

The field in a fram responsible for ensuring that data carried by the frame arrives intact. It uses an algorithm, such as CRC, to accomplish this verification.

FCS (frame check sequence)

The field in a frame responsible for ensuring that data carried by the frame arrives intact. It uses an algorithm, such as CRC, to accomplish this verification.

Preamble

The field in an Ethernet frame that signals to the receiving node that data is incoming and indicated when the data flow is about to begin.

Session layer

The fifth layer in the OSI model. The Session layer establishes and maintains communication between two nodes on the network. It can be considered the "traffic cop" for network communications.

You are a network administrator managing a midsized network that uses a NetWare print server, a Windows application server, and a Linux firewall server. One of your servers loses network connectivity. You type ifconfig at the command line to determine whether the server has a valid IP address. Which server are you using the ifconfig command on to see if it has lost connectivity? A. The firewall server. B. The print server. C. The application server. D. ifconfig is not a valid command on any of these platforms.

The firewall server.

Bios

The firmware attached to a computer's motherboard that controls the computers communication with its devices, space among other things.

block ID

The first set of six characters that make up the MAC address and that are unique to a particular manufacturer.

Transport layer

The fourth layer of the OSI model. In the Transport layer protocols ensure that data are transferred from poin A to point B reliably and without errors. Transport layer services include flow control, acknowledgement, error correction, segmentation, reassembly, and sequencing.

cladding

The glass or plastic shield around the core of a fiber-optic cable. It reflects light back to the core in patterns that vary depending on the transmission mode. This reflection allows fiber to bend around corners without impairing the light-based signal.

TLD (top-level domain)

The highest-level catagory used to distinguish domain names--for example, .org, .com, and .net. A TLD is also known as the domain suffix.

WAN Links

The individual geographic locations connected by a WAN are known as _______ ________.

Ethernet II

The original Ethernet frame type developed by Digital, Intel, and Xerox.

ISA

The original PC bus type, developed in the early 1980s to support an 8 - bits and later a 16 - bit data path and a 4.77 - MHz clock speed.

sheath

The outer cover, or jacket, of a cable.

SYN-ACK (synchronization-acknowledgment)

The packet a node send to acknowledge to another node that it has received a SYN request for connection. The SYN-ACK packet is the second of three in the three-step process of establishing a connection.

SYN-ACK (synchronization-acknowledgment)

The packet a node sends to acknowledge to another node that it has received a SYN request for connection. This packet is the second of three in the three-step process of establishing a connection.

SYN (synchronization)

The packet one node sends to request a connection with another node on the network. The SYN packet is the first of three in the three-step process of establishing a connection.

SYN (synchronization)

The packet one node sends to request a connection with another node on the network. This packet is the first of three in the three-step process of establishing a connection.

backbone

The part of a network to which segments and significant shared devices (such as routers, switches, and servers) connect.

Backbone

The part of a network which segments and significant shared devices, such as routers, switches, and servers connect.

Convergence

The phenomenon of offering multiple types of communications services on the same network.

host

The physical computer on a virtual machine is known as a ______.

Topology

The physical layout of a computer network. Topologies vary according to the needs of the organization and available hardware and expertise.

topology

The physical layout of computers on a network.

connectors

The pieces of hardware that connect the wire to the network device, be it a file server, workstation, switch, or printer.

conduit

The pipeline used to contain and protect cabling. It is usually made from metal.

demarcation point (demarc)

The point of division between a telecommunications service carrier's network and a building's internal network.

Local Loop

The portion of the PSTN that connects any residence or business to the nearest CO (central office) is known as the ________ _______.

sequencing

The process of assigning a placeholder to each piece of a data block to allow the receiving node's Transport layer to reassemble the data in the correct order.

Parity Error Checking

The process of comparing the parity of data read from a disk with the type of parity used by the system

segmentation

The process of decreasing the size of data units when moving data from a network that can handle larger data units to a network that can handle only smaller data units.

license tracking

The process of determining the number of copies of a single application that are currently in use on the network and whether the number in use exceeds the authorized number of licenses

load balancing

The process of distributing data transfer activity evenly across a network so that no single device is overwhelmed.

Negative frame sequence check

The result of the CRC (cycle redundancy check) generated by the originating node not matching the checksum calculated from the data received. It usually indicates noise or transmission problems on the LAN interface or cabling. A high number of (nonmatching) CRCs usually results from excessive collisions or a station transmitting bad data.

Addressing

The scheme for assigning a unique identifying number to every node on the network.

Data Link layer

The second layer in the OSI model. The Data Link layer bridges the networking media with the Network layer. Its primary function is to divide the data it receives from the Network layer into frames that can then be transmitted by the Physical layer.

Data Link layer

The second layer in the OSI model. This layer bridges the networking media with the Network layer. Its primary function is to divide the data it receives from the Network layer into frames that can then be transmitted by the Physical layer.

device ID

The second set of six characters that make up a network device's MAC address - contains the device's model and manufacture date.

device ID

The second set of six characters that make up a network device's MAC address. The device ID, which is added at the factory, is based on the device's model and manufacture date.

Application Layer

The seventh layer of the OSI model. Application layer protocols enable software programs to negotiate formatting, procedural, security, synchronization, and other requirements with the network.

Application layer

The seventh layer of the OSI model. This layer's protocols enable software programs to negotiate formatting, procedural, security, synchronization, and other requirements with the network.

dotted decimal notation

The shorthand convention used to represent IPv4 addresses and make them more easily readable by humans. In it, a decimal number between 0 and 255 represents each binary octet. A period, or dot, separates each decimal.

Distance - vector

The simplest type of routing protocols, these determine the best route for data based on the distance to a destination. Some distance-vector routing protocols, like RIP, only factor in the number of hops to the destination, while others take into account latency and other network traffic characteristics.

Root bridge

The single bridge on a network selected by the Spanning Tree Protocol to prove the basis for all subsequent path calculations.

Bus

The single cable connecting all devices in a bus topology

Integrity

The soundness of a network's files, systems, and connecitons.

subprotocols

The specialized protocols that work together and belong to a protocol suite.

RJ-45 (registered jack 45)

The standard connector used with shielded twisted pair and unshielded twisted pair cabling.

RJ-11 (registered jack 11)

The standard connector used with unshielded twisted pair cabling (usually Cat 3 or Level 1) to connect analog telephones.

Compactflash

The standard for all ultrasmall removable data and input/output devices capable of connecting many kinds of external peripherals to workstations, PDAs, and other computerized devices. Compactflash was designed by the CompactFlash association (CFA), as a consortium of computer manufacturers.

IRQ number

The unique number assigned to each interrupt in a computer. Interrupt request numbers range from 0 to 15, and many PC devices reserve specific numbers for their use a lone.

PKI (Public-Key infrastructure)

The use of certificate authorities to associate public keys with certain users is known as ____.

convergence

The use of data networks to carry voice (or telephone), video, and other communications services in addition to data.

Redundancy

The use of more than one identical component, device, or connection for storing, processing, or transporting data.

ipconfig

The utility used to display TCP/IP addressing and domain name information in the Windows NT, Windows 2000, Windows XP, and Windows Vista client operating systems.

Physical Topology

The way a network's components are physically interconnected determines the network's physical topology.

RIP (Routing Information Protocol)

This Distance-vector routing protocol, is the oldest routing protocol _____, and factors in only the number of hops between nodes when determining the best path from one point to another.

full duplex

This connection allows a device to simultaneously transmit and receive data.

NOS (network operating system)

To function as a server, a computer must be running an NOS. An NOS is a special type of software designed to manage data and other resources for a number of clients, ensure that only authorized users access the network, control which type of files a user can open and read, restrict when and from where users can access the network, dictate which rules computer will use to communicate, and supply applications to clients.

You have been asked to implement a server clustering strategy. Which of the following are reasons to use server clustering? (Choose two.) A. To increase data transmission security over the LAN. B. To increase data transmission security over the WAN. C. To increase server service fault tolerance. D. To reduce network downtime.

To increase server service fault tolerance. To reduce network downtime.

internetwork

To transverse more than one LAN segment and more than one type of network through a router.

twisted-pair cable

Today's most popular media type is twisted-pair cable, where individually insulated copper strands are intertwined into a twisted-pair cable. Two categories of twisted-pair cable include shielded twisted pair (STP) and unshielded twisted pair (UTP).

66 block

Traditionally used in corporate environments for cross-connecting phone-system cabling. As 10-Mbps LANs started to grow in popularity in the late 1980s and early 1990s, these termination blocks were used to cross-connect Cat 3 UTP cabling. The electrical characteristics (specifically, crosstalk) of a 66 block, however, do not support higher-speed LAN technologies, such as 100-Mbps Ethernet networks.

Ring Topology

Traffic flows in a circular fashion around a closed network loop (ring). This topology sends data in a single direction to each connected device in the ring, until the intended destination receives the data.

What is the name of the bridging method used to segregate Ethernet networks? A. Source-route B. Invisible C. Cut-through D. Transparent

Transparent

At which layer of the OSI model is flow control performed? A. Network B. Transport C. Session D. Data link

Transport

You are the administrator for a network that uses TCP/IP. You are using a single registered Class C network address. You want to continue to use it because many of your systems are accessed from outside sources, but you also want to create more networks so that you can more efficiently manage traffic and security. Which of the following strategies would help you achieve this? A. Implement a 127.x.x.x addressing system throughout the network. B. Use reverse proxy. C. Use subnetting. D. Use private addressing.

Use subnetting

Hub-and-Spoke Topology

Used when interconnecting multiple sites (ie: multiple corporate locations) via WAN links, a hub-and-spoke topology has a WAN link from each remote site (a spoke site) to the main site (the hub site).

C

Using a 20-bit key is how many times more secure than using an 18-bit key? A. Two Times B. Three Times C. Four Times D. Eight Times

toll bypass

Using a VoIP over a WAN allows an organization to avoid paying long-distance telephone charges, a benefit known as _____.

True

Using a virtualization program, you can create dozens of different VMs. True or False

endpoints

VPNs can be classified based on the kinds of _________ they connect.

Star Topology

What type of topology is required for use with a 100Base-TX network?

Internet telephony

When VoIP relies on the internet, it is often called ______ ______.

packet

When a caller uses an IP telephone, his or her voice is immediately digitized and issued from the telephone to the network in _____ form.

Authentication

When a server compares a user's credentials with those in its database, the process is known as ____.

Under what circumstance would you change the default channel on an access point? A. When channel overlap occurs between access points B. To release and renew the SSID C. To increase the security settings D. To decrease the security settings

When channel overlap occurs between access points.

ATA (analog telephone adapter)

When using an analog telephone, a VoIP adapter that performs analog-to-digital conversion is known as a(n) ____.

A

Where on a PSTN would you most likely find a DSLAM? A. In a remote switching facility B. At the demarc C. In a border router D. In a CSU/DSU

ISDN

Which network technology uses circuit switching?

Ethernet

Which network technology uses packet switching?

D

Which of the following WAN topologies comes with the highest availability and the greatest cost? A. Bus B. Tiered C. Partial mesh D. Full mesh

D

Which of the following utilities could you use to force the NIC on your Linux server to use full-duplex transmission? A. ipconfig B. ifconfig C. iftool D. ethtool

D

Which of the following utilities could you use to force the NIC on your Linux server to use full-duplex transmissions? A. ipconfig B. ifconfig C. iftool D. ethtool

Ku-

Which satellites transmit and receive signals in the 12 to 18 GHz band?

Bus Topology

Which topology is susceptible to signal bounce?

B D

Which two of the following are asymmetrical versions of DSL? A. SDSL B. ADSL C. HDSL D. VDSL E. FDSL

WAN

Wide-area network - interconnects network components that are geographically separated.

False

WiMAX is defined by the IEEE 802.11 standard. True or False

Frame aggregation

____ is an 802.11n network feature allowing the combination of multiple frames into one larger frame.

IP telephony

____ describes the use of any network to carry voice signals using the TCP/IP protocol.

Virtual

____ desktops are desktop operating environments hosted virtually, on a different physical computer from the one with which the user interacts.

iwconfig

____ is a command-line function for viewing and setting wireless interface parameters and it is common to nearly all versions of Linux and UNIX.

SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)

____ is a method of encrypting TCP/IP transmissions above the network layer.

PGP(Pretty Good Privacy)

____ is a public key encryption system that can verify the authenticity of an e-mail sender and encrypt e-mail data in transmission.

Interference

____ is a significant problem for wireless communications because the atmosphere is saturated with electromagnetic waves.

Phishing

____ is a social engineering practice in which a person attempts to glean access or authentication information by posing as someone who needs that information.

Channel bonding

____ is an 802.11n feature that allows two adjacent 20-MHz channels to be combined to make a 40-MHz channel.

While troubleshooting a network connectivity problem on a Windows Server system, you need to view a list of the IP addresses that have been resolved to MAC addresses. What command would you use to do this? A. arp -a B. nbstat -a C. arp -d D. arp -s

arp -a

While troubleshooting a DNS issue from a UNIX server, you suspect that the DNS record for one of your other servers is incorrect. Which of the following utilities are you most likely to use to troubleshoot this problem? A. ipconfig B. dig C. netstat D. nbstat

dig

Full-mesh Topology

directly connects every site to every other site in the network.

You are working on a Linux system, and you suspect that there might be a problem with the TCP/IP configuration. Which of the following commands would you use to view the system's network card configuration? A. config B. ipconfig C. winipcfg D. ifconfig

ifconfig

Which command produces the following output? Proto Local Address Foreign Address Stats TCP laptop:2848 MEDIASERVICES1:1755 ESTABLISHED TCP laptop:2858 www.doarhost.com:80 ESTABLISHED TCP laptop:8431 localhost:2862 TIME_WAIT A. arp B. netstat C. nbtstat D. tracert

netstat

Which of the following utilities would you use to view the TCP connections that have been established between two systems? A. netstat B. nbtstat C. tracert D. ipconfig

netstat

You are troubleshooting a server connectivity problem on your network. A Windows 7 system is having trouble connecting to a Windows Server. Which of the following commands would you use to display per-protocol statistics on the workstation system? A. arp -a B. arp -A C. nbtstat -s D. nbtstat -S E. netstat -s

netstat -s

omnidirectional antenna

radiates power at relatively equal power levels in all directions (somewhat similar to the theoretical isotropic antenna). Omnidirectional antennas are popular in residential WLANs and SOHO (small office/home office) locations.

You are expecting problems with the network connectivity of a Windows 7 system. You suspect that there might be a problem with an incorrect route in the routing table. Which of the following TCP/IP utilities can you use to view the routing table? (Choose two.) A. tracert B. nbstat C. route D. netstat E. ping

route netstat

authentication server

server In a network using 802.1X user authentication, an authentication server (typically, a RADIUS server) checks a supplicant's credentials. If the credentials are acceptable, the authentication server notifies the authenticator that the supplicant is allowed to communicate on a network. The authentication server also gives the authenticator a key that can be used to securely transmit data during the authenticator's session with the supplicant.


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