(Commercial Ground) CAX - 4 - Regulations

(5076.3) During a night operation, the pilot of aircraft #1 sees only the green light of aircraft #2. If the aircraft are converging, which pilot has the right-of-way? The pilot of aircraft - #2; aircraft #2 is to the left of aircraft #1. - #2; aircraft #2 is to the right of aircraft #1. - #1; aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2.

- #1; aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2.

(5061) In the contiguous U.S., excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all airspace above - 10,000 feet MSL. - 12,500 feet MSL. - 14,500 feet MSL.

- 10,000 feet MSL.

(5008) How many days after an accident is a report required to be filed with the nearest NTSB field office? - 2. - 7. - 10.

- 10.

(5061.1) What type of ADS-B equipment is required for aircraft operating in class A airspace? - 1090-ES. - Universal Access Transceiver. - 1090-ES or Universal Access Transceiver.

- 1090-ES.

(5063) In accordance with 14 CFR Part 91, supplemental oxygen must be used by the required minimum flightcrew for that time exceeding 30 minutes while at cabin pressure altitudes of - 10,500 feet MSL up to and including 12,500 feet MSL. - 12,000 feet MSL up to and including 18,000 feet MSL. - 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL.

- 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL.

(5534) A transponder will become unserviceable when it is off by more than - 125 feet. - 50 feet. - 25 feet.

- 125 feet.

(5027) If a pilot does not meet the recency of experience requirements for night flight and official sunset is 1900 CST, the latest time passengers should be carried is - 1959 CST. - 1900 CST. - 1800 CST.

- 1959 CST.

(5077) What is the maximum indicated airspeed authorized in the airspace underlying Class B airspace? - 156 knots. - 200 knots. - 230 knots.

- 200 knots.

(5078) Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport within Class C or D airspace is - 180 knots. - 200 knots. - 230 knots.

- 200 knots.

(5031) To act as pilot in command of an aircraft under 14 CFR Part 91, a commercial pilot must have satisfactorily accomplished a flight review or completed a proficiency check within the preceding - 6 calendar months. - 12 calendar months. - 24 calendar months.

- 24 calendar months.

(5101) An ATC transponder is not to be used unless it has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within the preceding - 30 days. - 12 calendar months. - 24 calendar months.

- 24 calendar months.

(5071) No person may operate a large civil aircraft of U.S. registry which is subject to a lease, unless the lessee has mailed a copy of the lease to the FAA Aircraft Registration Branch, Technical Section, Oklahoma City, OK within how many hours of its execution? - 24. - 48. - 72.

- 24.

(5032) Pilots who change their permanent mailing address and fail to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of this change, are entitled to exercise the privileges of their pilot certificate for a period of - 30 days. - 60 days. - 90 days.

- 30 days.

(5059) If weather conditions are such that it is required to designate an alternate airport on your IFR flight plan, you should plan to carry enough fuel to arrive at the first airport of intended landing, fly from that airport to the alternate airport, and fly thereafter for - 30 minutes at slow cruising speed. - 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. - 1 hour at normal cruising speed.

- 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

(5055) Which is required to operate an aircraft towing an advertising banner? - Approval from ATC to operate in Class E airspace. - A certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator. - A safety link at each end of the towline which has a breaking strength not less than 80% of the aircraft's gross weight.

- A certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator.

(5046) When operating a U.S.-registered civil aircraft, which document is required by regulation to be available in the aircraft? - A manufacturer's Operations Manual. - A current, approved Airplane (or Rotorcraft) Flight Manual. - An Owner's Manual.

- A current, approved Airplane (or Rotorcraft) Flight Manual.

(5098) Which is correct concerning preventive maintenance, when accomplished by a pilot? - A record of preventive maintenance is not required. - A record of preventive maintenance must be entered in the maintenance records. - Records of preventive maintenance must be entered in the FAA-approved flight manual.

- A record of preventive maintenance must be entered in the maintenance records.

(5061.2) Operations in Class A airspace require the aircraft be equipped with - ADS-B and FIS-B. - ADS-B and TIS-B. - ADS-B.

- ADS-B and TIS-B.

(5967) You are acting as a commercial pilot, but are not operating under the regulations of 14 CFR Part 119. Which of these operations are you authorized to conduct? - Aerial application and aerial photography. - On-demand, passenger carrying flights of nine persons or less. - On-demand cargo flights.

- Aerial application and aerial photography.

(5535.1) Under what condition could an aircraft's engine logbook show no previous operating history? - If the aircraft had been imported from a foreign country. - This would indicate an error by maintenance personnel. - After the aircraft's engine has been rebuilt by the manufacturer.

- After the aircraft's engine has been rebuilt by the manufacturer.

(5076.1) Airplane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the right-of-way? - Airplane A; the pilot should alter course to the right to pass. - Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right. - Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left.

- Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.

(5025) What flight time may a pilot log as second in command? - All flight time while acting as second in command in aircraft configured for more than one pilot. - All flight time when qualified and occupying a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot. - Only that flight time during which the second in command is the sole manipulator of the controls.

- All flight time when qualified and occupying a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot.

(5992) According to 14 CFR Part 91, at what minimum altitude may an airplane be operated unless necessary for takeoff and landing? - In congested areas, you must maintain 500 feet over obstacles, and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. - In uncongested areas, 1,000 feet over any obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet. - An altitude allowing for an emergency landing without undue hazard, if a power unit fails.

- An altitude allowing for an emergency landing without undue hazard, if a power unit fails.

(5100) Which is true concerning required maintenance inspections? - A 100-hour inspection may be substituted for an annual inspection. - An annual inspection may be substituted for a 100-hour inspection. - An annual inspection is required even if a progressive inspection system has been approved.

- An annual inspection may be substituted for a 100-hour inspection.

(5066) Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights? - Flashlight with red lens if the flight is for hire. - An electric landing light if the flight is for hire. - Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure.

- An electric landing light if the flight is for hire.

(5005) During flight a fire which was extinguished burned the insulation from a transceiver wire. What action is required by regulations? - No notification or report is required. - A report must be filed with the avionics inspector at the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office within 48 hours. - An immediate notification by the operator of the aircraft to the nearest NTSB field office.

- An immediate notification by the operator of the aircraft to the nearest NTSB field office.

(5021) A Second Class Medical Certificate issued to a commercial pilot on April 10, this year, permits the pilot to exercise which of the following privileges? - Commercial pilot privileges through April 30, next year. - Commercial pilot privileges through April 10, 2 years later. - Private pilot privileges through, but not after, March 31, next year.

- Commercial pilot privileges through April 30, next year.

(5142) A pilot convicted of a motor vehicle offense involving alcohol or drugs is required to provide a written report to the - nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) within 60 days after such action. - FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction. - FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) within 60 days after such action.

- FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) within 60 days after such action.

(5003.2) Which airborne incident would require that the nearest NTSB field office be notified immediately? - Cargo compartment door malfunction or failure. - Cabin door opened in-flight. - Flight control system malfunction or failure.

- Flight control system malfunction or failure.

(5026) What flight time must be documented and recorded, by a pilot exercising the privileges of a commercial certificate? - Flight time showing training and aeronautical experience to meet requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review. - All flight time flown for compensation or hire. - Only flight time for compensation or hire with passengers aboard which is necessary to meet the recent flight experience requirements.

- Flight time showing training and aeronautical experience to meet requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review.

(5076.2) An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way? - Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right. - Airplane; the airplane pilot should alter course to the left to pass. - Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left.

- Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.

(5061.3) When may an aircraft equipped with ADS-B Out not operate in transmit mode? - Anytime the aircraft is operating in Class G airspace. - If the aircraft is being operated for law enforcement purposes and transmitting would jeopardize the safety of the mission. - If the aircraft was not originally certificated with an electrical system.

- If the aircraft is being operated for law enforcement purposes and transmitting would jeopardize the safety of the mission.

(5006) When should notification of an aircraft accident be made to the NTSB if there was substantial damage and no injuries? - Immediately. - Within 10 days. - Within 30 days.

- Immediately.

(5003.1) Which incident would require that the nearest NTSB field office be notified immediately? - In-flight fire. - Ground fire resulting in fire equipment dispatch. - Fire of the primary aircraft while in a hangar which results in damage to other property of more than $25,000.

- In-flight fire.

(5105) If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the limitation on its use? - Its use is not permitted. - It may be used when in Class G airspace. - It may be used for VFR flight only.

- Its use is not permitted.

(5004.1) While taxiing for takeoff, a small fire burned the insulation from a transceiver wire. What action would be required to comply with NTSB Part 830? - No notification or report is required. - A report must be filed with the avionics inspector at the nearest FAA field office within 48 hours. - An immediate notification must be filed by the operator of the aircraft with the nearest NTSB field office.

- No notification or report is required.

(5004.2) While taxiing on the parking ramp, the landing gear, wheel, and tire are damaged by striking ground equipment. What action would be required to comply with NTSB Part 830? - An immediate notification must be filed by the operator of the aircraft with the nearest NTSB field office. - A report must be filed with the nearest FAA field office within 7 days. - No notification or report is required.

- No notification or report is required.

(5020) Does a commercial pilot certificate have a specific expiration date? - No, it is issued without a specific expiration date. - Yes, it expires at the end of the 24th month after the month in which it was issued. - No, but commercial privileges expire if a flight review is not satisfactorily completed each 12 months.

- No, it is issued without a specific expiration date.

(5022) When is the pilot in command required to hold a category and class rating appropriate to the aircraft being flown? - All solo flights. - On practical tests given by an examiner or FAA Inspector. - On flights when carrying another person.

- On flights when carrying another person.

(5093) Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition? - The lead mechanic responsible for that aircraft. - Pilot in command or operator. - Owner or operator of the aircraft.

- Owner or operator of the aircraft.

(5109) What person is directly responsible for the final authority as to the operation of the airplane? - Certificate holder. - Pilot in command. - Airplane owner/operator.

- Pilot in command.

(5019) Which of the following are considered aircraft class ratings? - Transport, normal, utility, and acrobatic. - Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air. - Single-engine land, multiengine land, single-engine sea, and multiengine sea.

- Single-engine land, multiengine land, single-engine sea, and multiengine sea.

(5099) An aircraft carrying passengers for hire has been on a schedule of inspection every 100 hours of time in service. Under which condition, if any, may that aircraft be operated beyond 100 hours without a new inspection? - The aircraft may be flown for any flight as long as the time in service has not exceeded 110 hours. - The aircraft may be dispatched for a flight of any duration as long as 100 hours has not been exceeded at the time it departs. - The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be done.

- The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be done.

(5076.5) An airplane is converging with a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way? - The aircraft on the left. - The aircraft on the right. - The faster of the two aircraft.

- The aircraft on the right.

(5064) What are the oxygen requirements when operating at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL? - Oxygen must be available for the flightcrew. - Oxygen is not required at any altitude in a balloon. - The flightcrew and passengers must be provided with supplemental oxygen.

- The flightcrew and passengers must be provided with supplemental oxygen.

(5074) While in flight a helicopter and an airplane are converging at a 90° angle, and the helicopter is located to the right of the airplane. Which aircraft has the right-of-way, and why? - The helicopter, because it is to the right of the airplane. - The helicopter, because helicopters have the right-of-way over airplanes. - The airplane, because airplanes have the right-of-way over helicopters.

- The helicopter, because it is to the right of the airplane.

(5076.4) A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching from the left. Which pilot should give way? - The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane is to its right. - The pilot of the single-engine airplane should give way; the other airplane is to the left. - Each pilot should alter course to the right.

- The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane is to its right.

(5044) What action must be taken when a pilot in command deviates from any rule in 14 CFR Part 91? - Upon landing, report the deviation to the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office. - Advise ATC of the pilot-in-command's intentions. - Upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.

- Upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.

(5046.1) Which of the following preflight actions is the pilot in command required to take in order to comply with the United States Code of Federal Regulations regarding day Visual Flight Rules (VFR)? - File a VFR flight plan with a Flight Service Station. - Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to passengers. - Verify approved position lights are not burned out.

- Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to passengers.

(5046.2) You are taking a 123 nautical mile VFR flight from one airport to another. Which of the following actions must the pilot in command take? - Ensure each passenger has a legible photo identification. - Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to passengers. - File a VFR flight plan with a Flight Service Station.

- Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to passengers.

(5061.4) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, which airspace requires the appropriate Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment installed? - Within Class E airspace below the upper shelf of Class C Airspace - Above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of Class D airspace up to 10,000 feet MSL. - Within Class G airspace 25 nautical miles from a Class B airport.

- Within Class G airspace 25 nautical miles from a Class B airport.

(5987) You are PIC of a flight and determine that the aircraft you planned to fly has an overdue Airworthiness Directive (AD). Which of the following is an appropriate decision? - No maintenance is available so you wait until after the trip to comply with the AD. - You make the flight because you can overfly an AD by 10 hours. - You cancel the flight and have the aircraft scheduled for maintenance.

- You cancel the flight and have the aircraft scheduled for maintenance.

(5545) As a commercial pilot, you decide to start a small business flying non-stop tours to look at Christmas lights during the holiday season. What authorizations, if any, are required to conduct Christmas light tours? - No authorizations or approvals are required if you hold the appropriate category and class rating for the aircraft that will be flown. - You must apply for and receive a Letter of Authorization from a Flight Standards District Office. - You must apply to the FAA to receive an exemption to carry passengers at night within a 50 mile radius of your departure airport.

- You must apply for and receive a Letter of Authorization from a Flight Standards District Office.

(5033) To act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider, the tow pilot is required to have - a logbook endorsement from an authorized glider instructor certifying receipt of ground and flight training in gliders, and be proficient with techniques and procedures for safe towing of gliders. - at least a private pilot certificate with a category rating for powered aircraft, and made and logged at least three flights as pilot or observer in a glider being towed by an airplane. - a logbook record of having made at least three flights as sole manipulator of the controls of a glider being towed by an airplane.

- a logbook endorsement from an authorized glider instructor certifying receipt of ground and flight training in gliders, and be proficient with techniques and procedures for safe towing of gliders.

(5018) Commercial pilots are required to have a valid and appropriate pilot certificate in their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when - piloting for hire only. - carrying passengers only. - acting as pilot in command.

- acting as pilot in command.

(5080.2) If an aircraft is not equipped with an electrical or anticollision light system, no person may operate that aircraft - after sunset to sunrise. - after dark. - 1 hour after sunset.

- after sunset to sunrise.

(5068.4) An aircraft's operating limitations may be found in the - FAA-approved aircraft flight manual. - owner's handbook published by the aircraft manufacturer. - aircraft flight manual, approved manual material, markings and placards, or any combination thereof.

- aircraft flight manual, approved manual material, markings and placards, or any combination thereof.

(5112) If the minimum safe speed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed prescribed in 14 CFR Part 91, the - operator must have a Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) with the controlling agency. - aircraft may be operated at that speed. - operator must have a Letter of Agreement with ATC.

- aircraft may be operated at that speed.

(5023) Unless otherwise authorized, the pilot in command is required to hold a type rating when operating any - aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot. - aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds maximum certificated takeoff weight. - multiengine airplane having a gross weight of more than 12,000 pounds.

- aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds maximum certificated takeoff weight.

(5049.1) When is preflight action required, relative to alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed? - IFR flights only. - any flight not in the vicinity of an airport. - any flight conducted for compensation or hire.

- any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.

(5049.2) The required preflight action relative to weather reports and fuel requirements is applicable to - any flight conducted for compensation or hire. - any flight not in the vicinity of an airport. - IFR flights only.

- any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.

(5021.1) The holder of a commercial pilot certificate while exercising commercial pilot privileges is restricted from operating under BasicMed - at anytime. - for flights over 18,000 FT MSL. - if carrying more than 5 passengers.

- at anytime.

(5080.1) If not equipped with required position lights, an aircraft must terminate flight - at sunset. - 30 minutes after sunset. - 1 hour after sunset.

- at sunset.

(5075) Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft - at the higher altitude. - at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake the other aircraft. - that is more maneuverable, and that aircraft may, with caution, move in front of or overtake the other aircraft.

- at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake the other aircraft.

(5050) Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must - be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport. - list an alternate airport on the flight plan and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport. - be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, weather reports, fuel requirements, the alternatives available, if the flight cannot be completed.

- be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, weather reports, fuel requirements, the alternatives available, if the flight cannot be completed.

(5067) Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each aircraft if it is being flown for hire over water, - in amphibious aircraft beyond 50 NM from shore. - beyond power-off gliding distance from shore. - more than 50 statute miles from shore.

- beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.

(5985) Pilots and/or flight crew members involved in near midair collision (NMAC) occurrences are urged to report each incident immediately - by cell phone to the nearest Flight Standards District Office, as this is an emergency. - to local law enforcement. - by radio or telephone to the nearest FAA ATC facility or FSS.

- by radio or telephone to the nearest FAA ATC facility or FSS.

(5011) Regulations which refer to operate relate to that person who - acts as pilot in command of the aircraft. - is the sole manipulator of the aircraft controls. - causes the aircraft to be used or authorizes its use.

- causes the aircraft to be used or authorizes its use.

(5104) A new maintenance record being used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer must include previous - operating hours of the engine. - annual inspections performed on the engine. - changes as required by Airworthiness Directives.

- changes as required by Airworthiness Directives.

(5060.1) Your transponder is inoperative. In order to enter Class B airspace, you must submit a request for a deviation from the - ATC facility no less than 24 hours before the proposed operation. - nearest FSDO 24 hours before the proposed operation. - controlling ATC facility at any time prior to entering the controlled airspace.

- controlling ATC facility at any time prior to entering the controlled airspace.

(5144) A pilot convicted of operating an aircraft as a crewmember under the influence of alcohol, or using drugs that affect the person's faculties, is grounds for a - written report to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 day after the conviction. - written notification to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction. - denial of an application for an FAA certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.

- denial of an application for an FAA certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.

(5547) You are conducting your preflight of an aircraft and notice that the last inspection of the emergency locator transmitter was 11 calendar months ago. You may - depart if you get a special flight permit. - depart because the ELT is within the inspection requirements. - not depart until a new inspection is conducted.

- depart because the ELT is within the inspection requirements.

(5051.2) Each required flight crewmember is required to keep his or her shoulder harness fastened - during takeoff and landing only when passengers are aboard the aircraft. - while the crewmembers are at their stations, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties. - during takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.

- during takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.

(5052) With U.S.-registered civil airplanes, the use of safety belts is required during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings for - safe operating practice, but not required by regulations. - each person over 2 years of age on board. - commercial passenger operations only.

- each person over 2 years of age on board.

(5012) Regulations which refer to the operational control of a flight are in relation to - the specific duties of any required crewmember. - acting as the sole manipulator of the aircraft controls. - exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.

- exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.

(5051.4) You are planning a trip and one of your passengers states that he prefers not to use his shoulder harness because it is uncomfortable. You should - explain that it is a mandatory requirement and that he use the shoulder harness during takeoff, landing, and movement on the surface. - allow him to use his seat belt for the entire trip without the shoulder harness. - allow him to use his seat belt for takeoff and landing and the shoulder harness while en route.

- explain that it is a mandatory requirement and that he use the shoulder harness during takeoff, landing, and movement on the surface.

(5010) Regulations which refer to "commercial operators" relate to that person who - is the owner of a small scheduled airline. - for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, as an air carrier. - for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier.

- for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier.

(5047) A pilot in command (PIC) of a civil aircraft may not allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight - if it creates a hazard to persons and property. - unless the PIC has permission to drop any object over private property. - unless reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury to property.

- if it creates a hazard to persons and property.

(5056.1) Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on a U.S.-registered civil aircraft being flown - along Federal airways. - within the U.S. - in air carrier operations.

- in air carrier operations.

(5126) A person with a commercial pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire, if that person - holds appropriate category, class ratings, and meets the recent flight experience requirements of 14 CFR part 61. - is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and with the applicable parts that apply to the operation. - is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and has passed a pilot competency check given by an authorized check pilot.

- is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and with the applicable parts that apply to the operation.

(5102) Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of the - applicable airworthiness certificate. - life-limited parts of only the engine and airframe. - life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.

- life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.

(5004.3) On a post flight inspection of your aircraft after an aborted takeoff due to an elevator malfunction, you find that the elevator control cable has broken. According to NTSB 830, you - must immediately notify the nearest NTSB office. - should notify the NTSB within 10 days. - must file a NASA report immediately.

- must immediately notify the nearest NTSB office.

(5051.3) During preflight, you discover one of the passenger seats has a defective shoulder harness. All of the seats will be occupied. This flight is - allowed. - not allowed. - allowed so long as the passenger is notified of the defective shoulder harness.

- not allowed.

(5069) The carriage of passengers for hire by a commercial pilot is - not authorized in a 'utility' category aircraft. - not authorized in a 'limited' category aircraft. - authorized in 'restricted' category aircraft.

- not authorized in a 'limited' category aircraft.

(5073.1) Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are - authorized when carrying passengers for hire with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation. - not authorized when visibilities are less than 3 SM. - not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.

- not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.

(5073.2) Which is true with respect to operating near other aircraft in flight? They are - not authorized, when operated so close to another aircraft they can create a collision hazard. - not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found competent in formation. - authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.

- not authorized, when operated so close to another aircraft they can create a collision hazard.

(5007) The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB - within 7 days. - within 10 days. - only if requested to do so.

- only if requested to do so.

(5111) No person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight conditions unless the - other control seat is occupied by at least an appropriately rated commercial pilot. - pilot has filed an IFR flight plan and received an IFR clearance. - other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot, who holds at least a private pilot certificate and is appropriately rated.

- other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot, who holds at least a private pilot certificate and is appropriately rated.

(5094) Assuring compliance with an Airworthiness Directive is the responsibility of the - pilot in command and the FAA certificated mechanic assigned to that aircraft. - pilot in command of that aircraft. - owner or operator of that aircraft.

- owner or operator of that aircraft.

(5128) To act as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane, without prior experience, a pilot must - log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor. - pass a competency check and receive an endorsement from an authorized instructor. - receive and log flight training from an authorized instructor as well as receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who finds the person proficient in a tailwheel airplane.

- receive and log flight training from an authorized instructor as well as receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who finds the person proficient in a tailwheel airplane.

(5024) To act as pilot in command of an airplane that is equipped with retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable-pitch propeller, a person is required to - make at least six takeoffs and landings in such an airplane within the preceding 6 months. - receive and log ground and flight training in such an airplane, and obtain a logbook endorsement certifying proficiency. - hold a multiengine airplane class rating.

- receive and log ground and flight training in such an airplane, and obtain a logbook endorsement certifying proficiency.

(5535) For the purpose of airworthiness, a dealer registration certificate is the same as the owner's certificate when - the aircraft is old and moved. - traveling more than 150 NM. - required for flight testing.

- required for flight testing.

(5096) A standard airworthiness certificate remains in effect as long as the aircraft receives - required maintenance and inspections. - an annual inspection. - an annual inspection and a 100-hour inspection prior to their expiration dates.

- required maintenance and inspections.

(5030) No pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the past 6 months, performed and logged under actual or simulated instrument conditions, at least - six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses, or passed an instrument proficiency check in an aircraft that is appropriate to the aircraft category. - three instrument approaches and logged 3 hours of instruments. - six instrument flights and six approaches.

- six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses, or passed an instrument proficiency check in an aircraft that is appropriate to the aircraft category.

(5143) A pilot convicted for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the process, manufacture, transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs is grounds for - a written report to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction. - notification of this conviction to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction. - suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR Part 61.

- suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR Part 61.

(5028) Prior to carrying passengers at night, the pilot in command must have accomplished the required takeoffs and landings in - any category aircraft. - the same category and class of aircraft to be used. - the same category, class, and type of aircraft (if a type rating is required).

- the same category, class, and type of aircraft (if a type rating is required).

(5034) To act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider, a pilot must have accomplished, within the preceding 24 months, at least - three actual glider tows under the supervision of a qualified tow pilot. - three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified tow pilot. - ten flights as pilot in command of an aircraft while towing a glider.

- three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified tow pilot.

(5072.2) What transponder equipment is required for airplane operations within Class B airspace? A transponder - with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability. - with 4096 code capability is required except when operating at or below 1,000 feet AGL under the terms of a letter of agreement. - is required for airplane operations when visibility is less than 3 miles.

- with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability.

(5097) If an aircraft's operation in flight was substantially affected by an alteration or repair, the aircraft documents must show that it was test flown and approved for return to service by an appropriately-rated pilot prior to being operated - under VFR or IFR rules. - with passengers aboard. - for compensation or hire.

- with passengers aboard.

(5141) A pilot convicted of operating a motor vehicle while either intoxicated by, impaired by, or under the influence of alcohol or a drug is required to provide a - written report to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the motor vehicle action. - written report to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction. - notification of the conviction to an FAA Aviation Medical Examiner (AME) not later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

- written report to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.