Comp TIA Exam Core 1 - Hardware, connector, cables

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What are the 4 types of CPU sockets?

LGA (Land Grid Array) PGA (Pin Grid Array) ZIF (Zero Insertion Force) BGA (Ball Grid Array)

A server administrator assesses various types of server hardware, specifically chipsets. The administrator plans to run a hypervisor on the hardware, which will run several hundred virtual machines. What would be the best chip type to use?

x64 The best and most powerful type to use. The x86 instruction set is extended for 64-bit operation as the x64 instruction set, developed initially by AMD as AMD64 or x86-64.

An audio-visual support technician assists a customer who normally uses a USB 3.0 display cable to connect, but the cable seems to have gone bad. What else could the technician likely use?

Thunderbolt 3

A parent, who works in information technology, started researching cameras and video recorders now that their child plays sports. The parent wants to record every game in the best standard possible, ensuring the storage can keep up with the filmed high-definition video. Which of the following offers the highest recording speeds?

FD624 UHS-III specifies two full-duplex rates; the fastest is 624 MBps (FD624). There are also four-speed variants. The original specification is up to 25 MBps, and UHS allows 108 MBps.

A client reports that their workstation is continually crashing when using certain applications on their macOS system. The system will stop working and display a spinning rainbow pinwheel on the screen. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this error?

Failure or corruption of the memory Explanation OBJ-5.2: On a Mac (OS X) system, the "Pinwheel of Death" is used to indicate an error. The pinwheel appears as an endlessly spinning rainbow mouse pointer displayed on the screen. This usually occurs due to a memory failure or memory corruption in the system. The pinwheel is like the BSOD used in Windows. The Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) is a "stop screen" that appears when the Windows operating system detects a critical error and literally stops the system so that the error doesn't cause any loss of data. All operating systems have some form of "stop screen," but the Windows version got the name BSOD since it was a screen with a full blue background and white text containing troubleshooting information and error codes.

True or False: A home theater projector will turn off randomly while operating if the HDMI cable is loose.

False A faulty power cable or overheating will shut it down. A flickering image or distorted sound

A cyber architect is reviewing log entries from a fellow architect regarding using a sandbox to evaluate a virus. What is the benefit of using a sandbox?

It can provide the architect with a place to work in a secured environment. A sandbox is an isolated environment to analyze viruses, worms, and Trojans. The malware is within the guest operating system (OS), so it cannot infect the architect's computer or network.

What's a distinguishing feature of a CPU passive heatsink cooling system?

It does not require a fan or power

What is a Static IP address?

A permanent IP address. They are used to connect printers on a LAN, and for hosting websites on the internet.

Six differents types of CPU are there:

- Single-Core CPU - Dual-Core CPU - Quad-Core CPU - Hexa-Core CPU - Octa-Core CPU - Deca-Core CPU

Which of the following DC voltages are not found within a printer when the laser printer converts AC power into DC power for use?

-24VDC Explanation OBJ-3.7: The DCPS (DC Power Supply/Source) of a laser printer is used to convert high voltage AC into lower voltage DC for the printer. The DCPS converts 115VAC or 220VAC power into +5 VDC and -5 VDC for use by the printer's logic board, and +24 VDC to power the motors that feed the paper through the printing path in the last printer.

What the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

1. Identify the problem 2. Establish a theory of probable cause 3. Test the theory to determine the cause 4. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution 5. Verify full system functionality, and, if applicable, implement preventive measures 6. Document findings, actions and outcomes

Maximum cable length for USB 3.2 Gen 2x2?

10 Gb/s 3 meters (9 feet)

Maximum cable length for USB 3.2 Gen 2x2 (USB-C only)?

20 Gb/s 3 meters (9 feet)

Which of the following form factors of storage devices are NOT used in laptops?

3.5" Explanation OBJ-1.1: A 3.5" drive is only used in desktops and some networked file servers. The larger 3.5" magnetic drives are the standard size used by desktop computers and do not fit into a laptop's smaller form factor.

Which of the following ports is used by the Service Location Protocol when organizing and locating printers, databases, and other resources in a network?

427 Explanation OBJ-2.1: The Service Location Protocol (SLP) is a protocol or method of organizing and locating the resources (such as printers, disk drives, databases, e-mail directories, and schedulers) in a network. This is an alternative protocol to LDAP in newer networks. SLP uses port 427.

Maximum cable length for USB 2.0 (High Speed)?

480 Mb/s 5 meters (16 feet)

Maximum cable length for USB 3.2 Gen 1?

5 Gb/s 2-3 meters (6-9 feet)

A computer enthusiast receives a 3-D printer and decides to build a laptop case since their current laptop keeps overheating. So the enthusiast wants to design something that has better airflow. The computer enthusiast is creating the area for the internal hard drive but needs to make sure it is tall enough. Which of the following is NOT a standard height?

5.5 mm

What is the bandwidth of a PCIe v2.0 x16 graphics adapter?

8 GBps in each direction (full-duplex). PCIe v2 supports 500 MBps per lane.

Which of the following network standards allows a networking device to provide up to 15.4W of power to a connected device?

802.3af Explanation OBJ-2.2: Power over Ethernet (POE) switches provide power over ordinary data cabling to devices such as VoIP handsets and wireless access points. PoE can support up to 15.4W and PoE+ can support up to 25W. The 802.3af (PoE) standard can support up to 15.4W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters.

Which of the following is an example of a valid IPv6 address?

::1 Explanation OBJ-2.5: IPv6 addresses are written as a series of up to 32 hexadecimal digits, but can be summarized using a :: symbol. The ::1 is the IPv6 address for the localhost.

BGA (Ball Grid Array)

A connection via a processor that is soldered to the motherboard, and the two are always purchased as a unit. Not as famous as other types of sockets, the BGA (Ball Grid Array) socket is not technically a socket because its main characteristic is that the microprocessors are permanently mounted in this socket.

LGA (Land Grid Array)

A feature of a CPU socket whereby pads, called lands, are used to make contact in uniform rows over the socket. A socket whose assembly is in packaging for integrated circuits. In these types of sockets, the needles are located in the CPU socket, and there are metallic points of contact in the lower area of the processor. The LGA can be electrically connected to a motherboard through a connector or by soldering the board directly.

An organization uses a private cloud service most of the year but only needs a higher utilization service several times a year when they have a symposium and many people worldwide attend. What is the best cloud service model for this use?

A hybrid cloud A hybrid deployment is a blend of public and private cloud services to provide some functions via a public cloud and keep sensitive or regulated infrastructure, applications, and data on-premises.

What is a Link-Local Unicast Address?

A link local unicast address is an IPv6 address whose address is confined to a single link. Thus the address is not routable off the link.

ZIF (Zero Insertion Force)

A processor socket type allowing the chip to be placed in the socket with as little risk of damaging the pins on the processor chip as possible. This is an evolution of the PGA, where the pins are carried by the microprocessor and inserted into the socket connectors. This mechanism is defined by not exerting any pressure (Zero Insertion Force) when installing or removing the processor from the socket.

PGA (Pin Grid Array)

A socket that has holes aligned in uniform rows around the socket to receive the pins on the bottom of the processor. The PGA (Pin Grid Array) is an integrated circuit packaging identified by being rectangular or square, whose pins are aligned in a regular matrix. Here, the pins may not cover the entire surface but leave gaps between them, with the standard spacing of 2.54mm.

Advanced Technology Extended (ATX)

A standard PC case, motherboard, and power supply specification. Mini-, Micro-, and Flex-ATX specify smaller board designs.

You have decided that you wanted to install a second operating system on your computer. After installing the OS and rebooting the computer, you see the "Operating System Not Found" error on your display. You verify that the boot.ini file is configured properly, but the error still appears. What is MOST likely causing this error?

An incompatible partition is marked as active Explanation OBJ-5.3: This issue may occur if one or more of the following conditions are true: (1) the basic input/output system (BIOS) does not detect the hard disk, (2) the hard disk is damaged, (3) sector 0 of the physical hard disk drive has an incorrect or malformed master boot record (MBR), (4) an incompatible partition is marked as Active, or (5) a partition that contains the MBR is no longer active. The only option provided in this list is that an incompatible partition is marked as active.

Your Windows 10 machine has just crashed. Where should you look to identify the cause of the system crash and how to fix it?

BSOD Explanation OBJ-5.2: A stop error, commonly called the blue screen of death, blue screen, or BSoD, is an error screen displayed on a Windows computer system following a fatal system error. It indicates a system crash, in which the operating system has reached a condition where it can no longer operate safely. Each BSOD displays a "stop code" that can research the cause of the error and how to solve it.

On Saturdays, your best friend goes to the local farmer's market to sell his homemade craft root beer. He wants to add the ability to take credit card payments from customers on his mobile phone. Which of the following devices should he purchase and configure?

Bluetooth card reader Explanation OBJ-1.3: A Bluetooth card reader can be used to capture the purchaser's credit card details. These Bluetooth card readers may support magnetic card reading capabilities (swiping a card), smart chip reading capabilities (chip and pin), or even NFC reading capabilities (Google Pay, Apple Pay, etc.). For example, in the United States, Square's mobile payment terminal is popular for small businesses and entrepreneurs. By capturing the credit card details electronically (instead of just typing them in), the merchant pays a lower payment processing fee and saves on credit card fees charged when a customer makes a purchase.

Multiple host servers exist on-premise and in the cloud for a manufacturing company. Users receive a warning that files are not saved during log-off when using a computer session hosted by these servers. What type of service does the manufacturing company use?

DaaS Provisioning a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) as a cloud service is often referred to as desktop as a service (DaaS). A technician can lock down virtual images in this environment to always use a fresh image.

What is the data rate, transfer rate and maximum size of DDR4?

Data rate: 1600 to 3200 MT/s (megatransfers) Transfer Rate: 12.8 to 25.6 GB/s Max size: 32GB

A computer technician tries to determine if a computer with an Intel i7 processor has virtualization enabled to run a second operating system within VirtualBox. Which of the following should be checked to determine if the system can run a virtual machine?

Enabled virtualization with the BIOS Explanation OBJ-4.2: By checking the settings in the BIOS, it can be determined if virtualization was enabled. For an Intel processor, this option is usually listed as VT (Virtualization Technology). For an AMD processor, this is usually listed as AMD-V. Virtualization allows the system to run another operating system within a virtualized environment, such as VirtualBox, VM Ware, or Hyper-V.

Users at an organization would like to have access to their work data when not connected to the internet. What type of service should IT configure for the users?

File synchronization File synchronization allows users to have a mirrored copy of their data on any number of devices. Data synchronization can occur across the cloud for files, email, contacts, and more.

A technician is reviewing policy on security requirements associated with virtualization. What could the technician consider as part of the security requirements? (Select all that apply.)

Host Security Hypervisor security A key security vulnerability in a virtual platform is that the host represents a single point of failure for multiple guest OS instances. For example, if the host loses power, three or four guest VMs and the application services they are running will suddenly go offline. Additionally, the hypervisor must also be monitored for security vulnerabilities and exploits.

Which of the following metrics should you consider to compare the performance of an SSD or HDD?

IOPS Explanation OBJ-5.3: The input/output operations per second (IOPS) is a measurement of performance used to compare a hard disk drive (HDD) and solid-state device (SSD). The IOPS is calculated based on the physical constraints of the media being used. For a hard disk drive, the IOPS is calculated by dividing 1000 milliseconds by the combined average seek time and average latency. The seek time only applies to a traditional hard drive since it calculates the time it takes to move the head to the proper storage location on the platter. For an SSD, there is no seek time used since it can instantly access any portion of the memory without physically moving a read head.

Your office printer is directly connected to your Windows 10 desktop computer. Your office is running a workgroup (not a domain). What are the TWO places where you can share the office printer with a new user?

In the Settings app choose Devices, then Printers and scanners. Select the printer to share and click the Manage button, then on the window that displays, choose Printer properties and choose the Saring tab. and In the Control panel, choose Devices and Printers. Right-click the printer to share and select Printer properties, and choose the Sharing tab.

Which of the following network configurations on a virtual machine are used to prevent the VM from accessing the internet, but still allow it to communicate with other VMs on the host and the host itself?

Internal Explanation OBJ-4.2: Virtual machines can have their network configured as internal to prevent them from communicating with the internet. When configured to internal, the VMs can communicate with each other and the host machine.

A cyber architect explores the capabilities, testing, and use of virtualization. What is a benefit associated with cross-platform virtualization?

It tests software applications under various constraints. Cross-platform virtualization tests software applications under different OSs and resource constraints.

To clear a dirty inkjet paper pickup roller, which of the following items should be used?

Mild soap and water

What is a Dynamic IP address?

Most devices use dynamic IP addresses, which are assigned by the network when they connect and change over time.

A user accidentally entered the Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI) setup program. How can the user generally get out?

Mouse UEFI setup programs use a graphical interface and have mouse support, though advanced menus may still require keyboard navigation.

Dion Training has asked you to verify that a server rack has been properly installed and grounded. Which tool should you utilize to verify that the server rack is properly grounded?

Multimeter Explanation OBJ-2.8: A multimeter can measure the voltage, amperage, and resistance of a circuit. If you use the lowest ohms (resistance) setting, you can touch the multimeter's black lead to a grounded metal surface and touch the red lead to each circuit wire. If you get a meter reading of zero ohms (low resistance), this indicates that the circuit is properly grounded. If you get a meter reading of infinity, O.L., Open Loop, or a needle that pegs high on the meter, this indicates an open circuit with no path to ground.

Which of the following protocols operates over port 139 by default?

NetBIOS Explanation OBJ-2.1: The network basic input/output system (NetBIOS)/NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) is a session management protocol used to provide name registration and resolution services on legacy Microsoft networks and those using WINS. NetBIOS/NetBT operates on TCP/UDP ports 137 and 139.

Which cloud computing concept allows users to store files on a cloud-based server when necessary and copy that data from the cloud, and put it back on the device when space once again becomes available on the device?

On-demand Explanation OBJ-4.1: On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider. In this question, the cloud storage is provisioned and deprovisioned automatically for the user, and thereby it would be categorized as on-demand.

How many storage devices can be attached to a single SATA port?

One

Which cloud service model allows for deploying a network of virtual machines running configured web servers, scripting environments, database software, and storage networks?

PaaS Platform as a service (PaaS) provides resources somewhere between SaaS and IaaS and deploys unconfigured servers, storage network infrastructure, and multitier web/database platforms on top.

Your company has decided to upgrade its legacy phone system to use VoIP devices instead. The new phones will download the configurations from a server each time they boot up. Which of the following ports needs to be opened on the firewall to ensure the phones can communicate with the TFTP server and download their boot-up configurations?

Port 69 Explanation OBJ-2.1: Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a simple protocol that provides a basic file transfer function with no user authentication. TFTP uses port 69 to communicate. TFTP is intended for applications that do not need the sophisticated interactions that File Transfer Protocol (FTP) provides.

Cross-platform virtualization is a lab and testing environment that provides a solution to test software and applications under development with different operating systems, and what else?

Resource constraints Cross-platform virtualization is a lab and testing environment that provides a means to test software and applications under different resource constraints and operating systems.

SMART hard drive

Self-Monitoring, Analysis and Reporting Technology (S.M.A.R.T., often written as SMART) is a monitoring system included in computer hard disk drives (HDDs) and solid-state drives (SSDs).

System halt ECC can detect errors of 2, 3, or 4 bits but cannot correct them. Instead, it will generate an error message and halt the system.

A helpdesk technician checks a computer for a developer who complains that the computer is running relatively slow and needs a fast computer. Which of the following will help the technician see if the system is a multi-socket?

Task manager The CPU page in Task Manager shows whether the system is multi-socket and the number of cores and logical processors (HyperThreading), plus whether virtualization is enabled.

A cyber architect reviews the differences between resource and security requirements associated with virtualization. What should the architect consider regarding resource requirements?

The ability to create a virtual network environment. The amount of available disk space. The amount of memory required by the host/hypervisor. Each guest operating system (OS) requires sufficient system memory over and above what the host OS/hypervisor requires. Each guest OS also takes up a substantial amount of disk space. The virtual machine's (VM's) "hard disk" is stored as an image file on the host. A hypervisor will create a virtual network environment through which all the VMs can communicate and a network shared by the host and by VMs on the same host and other hosts.

When planning to deploy a client-side virtualization solution for malware analysis where no network connectivity is needed, what are some of the issues that a technician must consider? (Select all that apply.)

The resource requirements The security requirements When planning a virtualization solution, the resource requirements, such as the central processing unit (CPU), memory, and storage of the host and all guest operating systems, should be addressed to ensure no resource constraints exist. When planning a virtualization solution, the technician must evaluate security resources to ensure the security of the host computer and guest operating systems. Additionally, monitoring of the hypervisor for security vulnerabilities and exploits is needed.

When using a Type 1 hypervisor virtualized environment, which of the following hardware types is necessary to connect the VMs to the corporate network?

Virtual NIC Explanation OBJ-4.2: A virtual machine includes a virtual NIC. A virtual NIC is a type of virtual adapter that can be configured on logical partitions to provide a network interface. This virtual NIC can be paired and mapped to a physical NIC to get the VM onto the network.

What is voltage?

Voltage is the difference in potential between two points in an electric field and voltage multiplied by current (V*I) calculates power.

Which of the following types of servers should you configure to accept requests through HTTP or HTTPS and provide resources back to the requester?

Web server Explanation OBJ-2.4: A web server is a server that accepts requests through HTTP or HTTPS for a webpage and delivers the webpage and other requested resources to the user. A print server is a type of server that connects printers to client computers over a computer network.

What conditions must be met in order to successfully configure Hyper-V on a Windows-based PCs using an Intel processor?

You need to enable virtualization in the BIOS/UEFI. The CPU must have SLAT The CPU must support VM Display Mode Extension, also known as Virtualization Technology on Intel processors (Intel VT). A 64-bit CPU with second-level address translation is required (SLAT). Also requires Windows Pro or higher. The processor must be 64-bit

Which of the following is an open-source wireless communication protocol operating in the 2.4 GHz frequency band and is primarily used for home automation?

Zigbee Explanation OBJ-2.4: Zigbee is an open-source wireless communication protocol used for home automation. Zigbee is open-source, unlike Z-Wave, which is proprietary. Zigbee uses the 2.4 GHz frequency band. This higher frequency allows more data bandwidth at the expense of range than Z-Wave and the greater risk of interference from other 2.4 GHz radio communications. Zigbee supports more overall devices within a single network (65,000 compared to 232 for Z-wave), and there is no hop limit for communication between devices. Z-wave is a low-power wireless communications protocol used primarily for home automation. Z-wave uses radio frequencies in the 800 MHz and 900 MHz frequency ranges.

What command is used to test if your own network card's driver is working properly?

ping 127.0.0.1 Explanation OBJ-5.7: The IP Address 127.0.0.1 is a localhost IP for testing your network interface card (NIC). This IP address is reserved for use with a loopback test. If there is no communication of the return packet, this indicates the network card is faulty, the cable/loopback is loose, or there is bad wiring of the loopback plug.

Network Interface Card (NIC)

Adapter card that provides one or more Ethernet ports for connecting hosts to a network so that they can exchange data over a link.

A computer technician is configuring a NAS for a company to store their corporate data. The technician has installed two 1 TB hard drives operating at 7200 RPM in a RAID 1 configuration. How much usable storage space is contained in the NAS?

1 TB Explanation OBJ-3.3: A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. Since the NAS is using a RAID 1 configuration, it is a mirrored array. Both 1 TB HDDs are installed, but a full copy of the data must be contained on each drive. Therefore, there is still only 1 TB of usable storage capacity in the NAS.

A database administrator reviews servers in the company's environment and comes across an older server with which the administrator is unfamiliar. The system has set the server for redundancies and load input/output operations per second (IOPs) load balancing. Which Redundant Array of Independent Disk (RAID) configuration is the server using?

10 RAID 10 is a logical striped volume (RAID 0) configured with two mirrored arrays (RAID 1). RAID 5 uses striping (like RAID 0) but with distributed parity. Distributed parity means that error correction information spreads across all the disks in the array. RAID 1 is a mirrored drive configuration using two disks. The system duplicates each write operation on the second disk in the set. RAID 0 provides no redundancy at all. Therefore, if any physical disk in the array fails, the whole logical volume will fail, causing the computer to crash and recover data from backup.

A supervisor at a small company asks a server administrator to use high-performance hard drives, but the cheapest possible. Which of the following would be at the low end of high performance?

10,000 rpm High-performance drives are rated at 15,000 or 10,000 rpm; average performance is 7,200 or 5,400 rpm. 7,200 rpm would be the higher average performance. RPM is one factor determining access time, measured in milliseconds. Access time is the delay that occurs as the read/write head locates a particular track position, which is known as seek time. 12,000 rpm is not a standard. In addition, the drive's sector location process (rotational latency) also impacts access time. 15,000 rpm would be the peak performance of the higher end with an average performance of 7,200 rpm.

Which of the following Wi-Fi channels in the 2.4 GHz frequency band are only supported in Europe and Japan due to government regulations?

13 Explanation OBJ-2.3: The Wi-Fi frequency band for 2.4 GHz is split into 14 channels of 5 MHz each. In the United States and Canada, only channels 1 through 11 may be used. In Europe, channels 1 through 13 may be used. In Japan, channels 1 through 14 may be used. Since each Wi-Fi communication requires approximately 20 MHz to operate effectively, users should set their wireless access points to channels 1, 6, and 11 to minimize interference and avoid overlapping channels.

You have three hard disks, each of which is 1 TB in size. How much usable storage space will you have after installing them as a RAID-5 in a computer?

2 TB Each stripe in a RAID-5 array places data on n-1 disks and parity computed from the data on the remaining disk. The parity is interweaved over all of the array's drives, so that neighboring stripes have parity on different disks. To put it another way, you lose the equivalent of one hard disk's worth of storage space to retain the parity information. RAID is an acronym that stands for Redundant Array of Inexpensive (or Independent) Disks.

The power supply in a computer system using a 24 pin P1 connector is malfunctioning and need replacing. Of the following items, which would work when fitted in this system?

20-pin+ 4-pin P1 connector and An ATX12V PSU Some power supply will provide a 20-pin+4-pin connector that will connect to a 24-pin P1 motherboard connector. An ATX12V PSU is the ideal solution. The proper number of pins is a 20-pin P1 connector plus a P4 connector.

(This is a simulated Performance-Based Question. On the real exam, you may be given a chart with numerous ports and protocols and be asked to drag and drop them to match the ports with the protocols.) What ports do FTP and SFTP utilize?

21, 22 Explanation OBJ-2.1: FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses ports 20 and 21. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) uses port 22.

Which of the following ports should you block at the firewall if you want to prevent a remote login to a server from occurring?

22 Explanation OBJ-2.1: Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication.

A gamer primarily uses a desktop computer set up to handle the most resource-intensive games without experiencing any lag. However, the hard drive went bad and needed replacing. What form factor should the gamer buy for it?

3.5 inch There are two main form factors for HDDs. The mainstream type used in desktop PCs is 3.5-inch units. The 2.5-inch form factor is for laptops and as portable external drives. Devices with 2.5-inch form factors can also vary in height, with 15 mm, 9.5 mm, 7 mm, and 5 mm form factors available. The 5.0-inch was a standard with floppy disks used a long time ago but is not a standard with hard drives. The 7.0-inch was a standard with floppy disks used a long time ago but is not a standard with hard drives.

A PC operator is building out a new system to replace an engineering technician's older system. The new system is rated 2400 MT/s. The engineer wants to maximize the amount of RAM. Which amount should they put in?

32 GB DDR4 is rated at a data rate of 1600 to 3200 MT/s and can achieve a transfer rate of 12.8 to 25.6 GB/s. The max size supported is 32 GB. DDR3 is rated at a data rate of 800 to 2133 MT/s and can achieve a transfer rate of 6.4 to 17.066 GB/s. The max size supported is 8 GB. 8 GB is not the maximum size for any DDR size. Both DDR4 and DDR5 support it. DDR5 is rated at a data rate of 4800 to 6400 MT/s and can achieve a transfer rate of 38.4 to 51.2 GB/s. The max size supported is 128 GB.

A computer engineer is designing a new laptop for a major computer manufacturing company. The engineer is looking at placement for the internal hard drive and is trying to make sure it fits properly. Which of the following is NOT a standard height for laptop hard drives?

5.5 mm Devices with 2.5-inch form factors can vary in height, with 15 mm, 9.5 mm, 7 mm, and 5 mm form factors available. However, 5.5 mm is not a standard size. A 7 mm is standard for a 2.5-inch form factor hard drive. The 2.5-inch form factor is for laptops and as portable external drives. A 9.5 mm is also standard for a 2.5-inch form factor hard drive. Most HDDs use a serial advanced technology attachment (SATA) interface. However, users may come across legacy devices using EIDE/PATA (enhanced integrated drive electronics/parallel advanced technology attachment) or SCSI (Small Computer System Interface). A 15 mm is also standard for a 2.5-inch form factor hard drive.

Jason is building a new gaming computer for his son. Jason has calculated that the required wattage needed is 420 watts to the video card and all of the other internal devices. Which of the following power supplies should Jason purchase to meet the minimum power requirements for this computer?

525 W Explanation OBJ-3.5: When purchasing a new power supply, it is important to understand the wattage requirements. Since the new computer needs a minimum of 420 watts of power, you must find a power supply that is large enough to meet this demand. In this case, the minimum rating that would meet this requirement is the 525-watt power supply. If a power supply doesn't have a high enough wattage rating to provide the power needed, some or all of the devices will not power on or function properly. If a power supply is chosen that is too large, it will generate excessive heat that can overheat the computer and its components.

Your company received a large bill for file storage from your online cloud provider this month. Upon investigation, you noticed that one of your employees has uploaded over 1 TB of data to the service. What type of plan is your company utilizing?

A metered plan Explanation OBJ-4.1: This scenario describes a measured or metered service plan. For every file or amount of data uploaded, there is an associated fee. It is important to understand what plan your organization is using and match your company's use case to avoid an end of the month billing surprise. Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis. For example, Dion Training used the AWS Lambda serverless product in some of our automation. This service charges us $0.20 for every 1 million requests processed.

A computer repair specialist is putting a computer back together and has just plugged in the SATA drive. How does the drive communicate with the bus?

AHCI Serial advanced technology attachment (SATA) uses the advanced host controller interface (AHCI) to communicate with the bus. Consequently, modern solid-state drives (SSDs) often directly use the peripheral component interconnect express (PCIe) bus.

The white connector in this picture has the function of ______________.

ATX12V motherboard power The color is unimportant, but the number and shape of pins are. Technically, this is a Molex connector, however it is more generally known as P1. Furthermore, motherboards may include a 4-pin, 12V connector or an 8-pin power connector to provide extra power to the CPU.

Capture Card

Adapter card designed to record video from a source such as a TV tuner or games console.

A hardware technician is reinstalling a heat sink with a central processing unit (CPU). Which of the following steps should the technician take to reinstall the heat sink? (Select all that apply.) Clean it. Thermal paste. Pop up the CPU at a 45º angle. Wear an ESD wrist strap.

Clean it. Thermal paste. Wear an ESD wrist strap.

A technician is reviewing the various aspects of virtualization. What type of virtualization enables programmers to ensure that the application continuously updates with the latest code?

Application virtualization Application virtualization enables programmers and application administrators to ensure that the application used by clients is always updated with the latest code.

A customer's computer has a noisy, whining sound coming from it when in use. You opened the case and did not see any dust on the fans. What should you attempt next to eliminate the noise?

Apply a small amount of oil to the fan's bearings Explanation OBJ-5.2: The best step would be to apply a small amount of oil to each of the fan's bearings, as this will eliminate the noise.

A company has contracted a remote data center to offer exclusive access to the platform as a service resource to its internal business users. How would such a cloud solution be classed?

As a private deployment model Private is a cloud infrastructure that is completely private to and owned by the organization.

A technician is looking at SATA interface specifications and notices a particular key associated with it. A technician usually keys a SATA interface SSD as what?

B Serial advanced technology attachment (SATA) interface SSDs are usually B keyed. An M.2 socket may support both types of drive or only one on the motherboard. The technician should check the documentation. A 2-lane PCIe SSD (peripheral component interconnect express solid-state drive) is usually B/M keyed. M.2 is a physical form factor. Users can obtain M.2 SSDs that use the SATA/AHCI (advanced host controller interface) bus. A 4-lane SSD is usually M keyed. On the motherboard, an M.2 socket may support both types of drive or only one; check the documentation.

Which option would you MOST likely use to configure PXE to set up remote imaging on a computer during a deployment?

BIOS boot option Explanation OBJ-3.4: To configure a computer to utilize the PXE boot option, you need to configure it under the BIOS boot option. The Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) is an industry-standard client/server interface that allows networked computers that are not yet loaded with an operating system to be configured and booted remotely by an administrator.

A user has reported that their workstation is running slowly. You perform a reboot of their workstation and receive a S.M.A.R.T. error during the boot-up process. Which of the following actions should you perform FIRST?

Backup the hard drive Explanation OBJ-5.3: S.M.A.R.T. is an acronym for Self-Monitoring and Repair Tool. It is a feature in all modern magnetic hard drives (non-SSD drives) that monitors the hard drive to ensure it performs properly. S.M.A.R.T. can detect when the failure of a drive is imminent and can alert the user so that they can back up the drive before a complete failure occurs. If your hard drive produces a S.M.A.R.T. failure, you should immediately back up the drive.

A computer is processing software instructions on the central processing unit. How is all computer software broken down to be processed? Bus Binary RAM System clock

Binary

A technician at Dion Training is troubleshooting an issue with a workstation. The technician believes that the power supply needs to be replaced based on the symptoms they observed. Which of the following symptoms did the technician likely observe to lead them to this conclusion?

Burning Smell Explanation OBJ-5.2: A burning smell is indicative of a bad power supply. A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor. The incorrect date/time on the workstation is indicative of a dead CMOS battery. Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot, the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue.

Which of the following BEST describes how a DHCP reservation works?

By matching a MAC address to an IP address within the DHCP scope Explanation OBJ-2.6: When the client requests an IP address by sending a message on the network to the DHCP server, the DHCP server will assign an IP from its DHCP scope to the client and reserve it based on its MAC address. DHCP reservations allow the DHCP server to pre-set an IP address to a specific client based on its MAC address. This ensures that the client will always get the same IP address from the DHCP server when it connects to the network. DHCP reservations are usually used with servers or printers on your internal network and are rarely used with end-user or client devices.

You connect a VOIP device on a user's desk and need to connect it to a PoE-enabled switch located in a communications closet about 150 feet (approximately 50 meters) away. Which of the following cables should you select to connect the VOIP device to the switch?

CAT 6 Explanation OBJ-2.2: VOIP (Voice over IP) devices that rely on PoE (Power over Ethernet) should use a CAT 5e, CAT 6, or higher cable to make the connection. This allows a single cable (CAT 5e or CAT 6) to carry both the data and the device's power.

Which of the following cellular technologies was not widely used outside of the United States?

CDMA Explanation OBJ-1.4: The code division multiple access (CDMA) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a method of multiplexing a communications channel using a code to key the modulation of a particular signal. CDMA was only popular in the United States with a few providers (Verizon and Sprint).

An upcoming project will require a system administrator to deploy a client-side virtualization workstation. What resource requirements must the system administrator identify for the hypervisor and of each guest before installation?

CPU System memory Mass Storage Host workstations require central processing units (CPUs) with unique instruction sets to improve virtualization performance while also providing virtualization support. Guest and host operating systems require sufficient system memory, for example, Windows 10 requires at least 2 GB of memory on the host. Additional guest operating systems will also need a separate allocation to operate. Mass storage will require the management of hard disk space in virtualization. Each guest OS will require a substantial amount of storage space, while the host hypervisor will also require its storage to share as guest OSs grow dynamically.

An engineer is deploying a client-side virtualization workstation. What resource requirements should the engineer consider? (Select all that apply.)

CPU and virtualization extensions Networking Most virtualization software requires a central processing unit (CPU) with virtualization support enabled. Even if there is no formal requirement, the VMs will be impaired if hardware-assisted virtualization is unavailable. A hypervisor will create a virtual network environment through which all the virtual machines (VMs) can communicate and has a network shared by the host and by VMs on the same host and other hosts.

Which type of internet connection allows for high-speed bi-directional data communication over a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) connection?

Cable Explanation OBJ-2.7: A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network's high bandwidth.

Which of the following is true of a dedicated video card in a computer system?

Can be upgraded or replaced Explanation OBJ-3.4: It is more expensive to have a dedicated GPU or video card, but it does provide higher performance than an integrated GPU. A dedicated GPU also can be upgraded with a newer graphics card in the future to increase performance. An integrated video card is built as part of the main system motherboard or CPU. An integrated GPU is cheaper than a dedicated GPU, but it has limited performance and shares the use of the computer system's RAM.

A vulnerability manager is looking at the overall posture of an organization. Which of the following presents a unique challenge that can be harder to patch than traditional enterprise devices since they are often not connected?

Cellphone

An application developer has requested a virtual environment workstation that tests pre-production applications and provides malware analyses with different operating systems and resource constraints. What type of virtualization environment should the application developer expect?

Client-side virtualization Client-side virtualization runs on regular desktops and workstations. The virtual desktop platforms provide a means to test and develop applications under different operating systems and increase security testing via Sandbox support.

An organization with limited resources would like to upgrade its small network to increase its security. However, the organization requires a few legacy applications running on two older, none-supported operating systems. With only one desktop to spare, what solution would meet the organization's needs?

Client-side virtualization Client-side virtualization, typically based on a guest operating system hypervisor, is designed to run on regular desktops and workstations while supporting legacy software and operating systems.

An audiovisual support professional is setting up a conference room that contains an F-type connector. What type of cable will the support professional need to set up the equipment?

Coax

Dion Training wants to install a network cable to run a television signal between two buildings. Which of the following cable types should it utilize?

Coaxial Explanation OBJ-3.1: A coaxial cable is a cable used to transmit video, communications, and audio. A coaxial or coax cable is most commonly used as a cable to connect a TV to a cable TV service. Coaxial cables are a specialized type of copper cabling that uses a copper core to carry the electrical signal while being enclosed by plastic insulation and shielding to protect the data transmission from the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI).

Multiple companies working together on a contract for an extended time decide that resources in a single cloud platform would work best during the project's duration. What cloud type do the companies utilize?

Community cloud A community cloud is where several organizations share the costs of either a hosted private or fully private cloud.

In a virtual desktop infrastructure, what client functionality does a server handle? (Select all that apply.)

Data storage Application processing In a typical desktop virtualization solution, low-spec thin client computers replace desktop computers. The server handles even the data storage. Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) refers to using virtual machines to provision corporate desktops. The server performs all application processing in the virtual desktop environment (VDE).

The printer in the Dion Training offices routinely has issues anytime there is a power outage. The printer is a multi-function, network-enabled printer that connects directly to the network switch using a CAT 5e cable. Which of the following should you do to resolve this continuing issue?

Configure a static IP for the printer Explanation OBJ-5.7: Since the problem always occurs after a power outage, the printer is likely turning on faster than the DHCP server. This could lead to the printer not getting a new IP address properly or the clients not locating the printer on the network. Therefore, you should configure a static IP for the printer (and any servers) on the network. Servers and shared printers should use a static IP instead of a dynamic assignment to prevent issues.

Susan, a computer technician, received a complaint from a client about an issue with their laptop. Based on the symptoms observed, she believes that there is an issue with the laptop's memory. Which of the following symptoms was MOST likely observed during their troubleshooting?

Continuous Boot Explanation OBJ-5.2: A bad or faulty RAM module can cause system reboots, diminished system performance, and slow loading of websites and programs. This gradual deterioration of performance, especially with memory-intensive programs, may indicate a problem with the laptop's system memory. The system memory should be tested and replaced (if needed) to allow the laptop to begin working efficiently.

A system administrator manages a production network with various operating systems. What would allow for testing the operating system and application patches on multiple operating systems to ensure the production network does not experience adverse effects?

Cross-platform virtualization Cross-platform virtualization is a lab and testing environment that enables a means to test software and applications under different resource constraints and operating systems.

A cyber technician needs to expand organizational capabilities and explore virtualization's use and testing. What tests software applications under different OSs and resource constraints?

Cross-platform virtualization Cross-platform virtualization tests software applications under different OSs and resource constraints.

Which of the following components would require you to de-solder the old part from the laptop to install and solder in a new one?

DC jack Explanation OBJ-1.1: It is relatively common for the DC jack to fail over time. The DC jack can become loose over time, or the jack itself can become separated from the motherboard. Replacing a DC jack requires disassembling the laptop, de-soldering and removing the old jack, then soldering the new jack into place. Most laptop DC jacks are specific to the manufacturer and the laptop model.

A data analyst is looking at a system with four 32-bit channels. The data analyst is most likely looking at what type of memory? (Select all that apply.) Quadruple channel DDR4 DDR5 Dual channel

DDR5 Dual channel Double data rate 5 (DDR5) introduces a different type of data bus. Each memory module has two channels of 32 bits. When installed in a dual-channel memory controller configuration, this becomes four 32-bit channels. The DDR5 memory would have to be in a dual-channel memory for four 32-bit channels. There are effectively two pathways through the bus to the CPU with a dual-channel memory controller. DDR4 would not be correct. Also, one cannot install DDR5 modules in DDR4 slots since DDR5 introduces a different data bus. The quadruple channel is possible, although DDR5 memory in a dual-channel slot is the most likely scenario.

Which of the following provides a cryptographic authentication mechanism to positively identify an organization as the authorized sender of email for a particular domain name?

DKIM Explanation OBJ-2.6: DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) provides a cryptographic authentication mechanism. This can replace or supplement SPF. To configure DKIM, the organization uploads a public key as a TXT record in the DNS server.

Which type of internet connection is terminated at a local switching center and requires a different media type between the switching center and the end customer?

DSL Explanation OBJ-2.7: DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user's home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection).

Jason's iPad only had 12% battery remaining at the end of the day, so he connected his iPad to the lightning cable and wall adapter last night before going to bed. In the morning, Jason tried to turn on the iPad, but it appeared to be completely powered down, and the battery was drained. Jason connected the lightning cable to his iPhone, and the iPhone began charging. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason that the iPad didn't charge overnight?

Defective charging port on the iPad Explanation OBJ-5.5: Since the iPad didn't charge overnight, but the iPhone could charge with the same wall adapter and lightning cable, so we must suspect that the charging port or the battery on the iPad is defective.

Whenever you reboot your domain controller, you notice it takes a very long time to boot up. As the server is booting, you hear noises that sound like a steady series of clicks coming from the hard drive. Which of the following is the BEST action to help speed up the boot time of the server?

Defragment the hard drive Explanation OBJ-5.3: Defragging is a simple process when file fragments are put together to speed up file access. File fragments are put together, and quality defragmentation utilities also assemble the free space into a single block to prevent future fragmentation. By defragmenting the hard drive, the server doesn't have to spend as much time accessing the information, and it can boot up faster. Based on the clicking noises, it sounds like the system has to access many parts of the drive to load the files.

Complete the following sentence: "In the laser printer imaging process, after the exposing step comes the ____________ step."

Developing The steps of laser printer imaging process: - Processing - Charging - Exposing - Developing - Transferring - Fusing - Cleaning

High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI)

Digital audio/video interface developed for use on both consumer electronics and computer equipment.

A network associate is selecting cable that will need protection from the weather as much as possible. Which type should the associate use?

Direct burial

output voltages (3.3 VDC, 5 VDC, and 12 VDC)

Direct current (DC) 3.3 VDC, 5 VDC, and 12 VDC power supplied over PSU cables to computer components.

You just installed an SSD into a laptop to increase the storage speed of the device. Which of the following should you configure to increase the lifespan of the newly installed SSD?

Disable regularly scheduled defragmentation of the SSD Explanation OBJ-3.3: An SSD (Solid-State Drive) is limited in the total number of write functions that can occur over its lifespan.Due to the immediate ability of an SSD to locate data on the drive (since there is no spinning platter that must be moved to reach the right area to retrieve the data like a regular magnetic hard drive), there is no need to defragment an SSD. When you defrag a hard drive, especially an SSD, it will cause tons of small write accesses, reducing the hard drive's lifespan. And since data is not being read sequentially, it doesn't matter if the file is stored in a hundred different places; the performance will remain the same. Therefore, you should disable any regularly scheduled defragmentation tasks when using an SSD to extend its lifespan.

A hardware technician is working on a new desktop that can send 128 bits of data per transfer rather than 64 bits. What is this referred to as? Single channel Dual channel Triple channel Quadruple channel

Dual Channel This is a dual channel memory controller as there are effectively two 64-bit pathways through the bus to the central processing unit (CPU) meaning that each transfer can send 128 bits of data.

A data analyst is looking at a system with four 32-bit channels. The data analyst is most likely looking at what type of memory? (Select all that apply.) Quadruple channel DDR4 Dual channel DDR5

Dual channel DDR5 Double data rate 5 (DDR5) introduces a different type of data bus. Each memory module has two channels of 32 bits. When installed in a dual-channel memory controller configuration, this becomes four 32-bit channels. The DDR5 memory would have to be in a dual-channel memory for four 32-bit channels. There are effectively two pathways through the bus to the CPU with a dual-channel memory controller. DDR4 would not be correct. Also, one cannot install DDR5 modules in DDR4 slots since DDR5 introduces a different data bus. The quadruple channel is possible, although DDR5 memory in a dual-channel slot is the most likely scenario.

What type of motherboard socket is used to install system memory?

Dual inline memory module (DIMM)

What component in a laser printer causes vertical black lines to run down the page?

EP drum This issue occurs due to faulty alignment of the drum inside your printer or in the worst situation the drum is damaged. You should refer to your manufacturer's website on how to safely clean and align the drum.

A technician is evaluating the security requirements associated with virtualization. What tenets apply to security requirement considerations?

Each guest OS must be patched and protected against malware like any other OS. The host must be protected from natural (loss of power) and technological (virus) influences. The hypervisor must also be monitored for security vulnerabilities and exploits. Each guest operating system (OS) must be patched and protected against malware like any other OS. Patching each virtual machine (VM) individually has performance implications, so in most environments, a new template image would be patched and tested then deployed to the production environment. Another key security vulnerability in a virtual platform is that the host represents a single point of failure for multiple guest OS instances. Influences can be natural or technological. Apart from ensuring the security of each guest OS and the host machine itself, they must also monitor the hypervisor for security vulnerabilities and exploits.

What is the fifth step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement a solution Explanation OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

You want to boot from a removable USB device to troubleshoot your Windows 10 laptop. During your rebooting of the machine, which key should you press to enter the boot order menu?

F12 Explanation OBJ-3.4: F12 is the most commonly used key used to enter the BIOS / UEFI boot order menu. The boot order is a menu that allows you to select which device you wish to boot from, such as the hard drive, DVD, or a removable USB device.

Cloud service providers should ensure that they meet the criteria for reliable and responsive cloud delivery characteristics, such as metered utilization, rapid elasticity, and high availability. What other criteria should cloud service providers meet?

File synchronization One of the advantages of cloud storage is automated file synchronization between different devices, such as a PC and smartphone.

Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?

Front Connectors Explanation OBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the front connector on the motherboard. This area connectors the various wires to the front panel to include the LED activity lights for the hard disk drive and the power/reset buttons. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

A PC technician is helping out a nonprofit organization who has older laptops. They want to implement data at rest encryption, but the laptops are older and do not support a trusted platform module (TPM). What should the technician use?

HSM A secure USB key or thumb drive used to store cryptographic material can be a hardware security module (HSM), which is useful if the computer does not support TPM.

The large multi-function network printer has recently begun to print pages that appear to have a dust-like coating when handled by the users. Which of the following components should be replaced based on this description?

Fuser Explanation OBJ-5.6: The printer passes the paper through the fuser, a pair of heated rollers. As the paper passes through these rollers, the loose toner powder melts, fusing with the paper's fibers. The fuser rolls the paper to the output tray, and you have your finished page. The fuser also heats the paper itself, of course, which is why pages are always hot when they come out of a laser printer or photocopier. If the paper feels dusty or the toner doesn't adhere to the printer, this usually indicates a failing fuser that needs to be replaced.

A curious IT professional is exploring how AMD and Intel graphics cards operate. They are conducting a basic test for the frame rate it can produce for a particular game or application. Which part of the graphics card is the IT professional testing?

GPU The graphics processing unit (GPU) is a microprocessor designed and optimized for processing instructions that render 2-D and 3-D images and effects on-screen.

Which of the following describes the IP address of a router to which packets destined for a remote network should be sent by default?

Gateway Explanation OBJ-2.5: The default gateway parameter is the IP address of a router to which packets destined for a remote network should be sent by default. This setting is not required, but if you do not have one included, your network traffic can never leave the local area network.

Which component of a laser printer converts alternating current (AC) into usable energy for the charging and transfer corona?

HVPS (high-voltage power supply) During the laser printer imaging process, the high-voltage power supply (HVPS) provides the high voltages required by both the charging and transfer corona. The printer will almost certainly have a second power supply that powers the circuit boards. Working inside any laser printer requires extreme caution due to the dangers inherent in the two power supply.

Rapid elasticity refers to the cloud computing system's ability to do what?

Handle changes to demand in real time.

Rapid elasticity refers to the cloud computing system's ability to do what?

Handle changes to demand in real time. Rapid elasticity refers to the system's ability to handle changes to demand in real-time. A system with high elasticity will not experience loss of service or performance if demand suddenly doubles or more.

With cloud computing, organizations can expand resources as needed. Services expand rapidly with virtualization through metered utilization using a paid cloud service provider, allowing access to increased resources. What are some of the other benefits the cloud provides?

High availability Elasticity Scalability High availability (HA) is a requirement for short periods of downtime, typically due to planned maintenance and unscheduled outages. Rapid elasticity is the cloud service provider's ability to handle changes to demand in real-time. Systems with high elasticity will be less affected in changes to service or performance when scaling up services. Scalability is the cost of supplying the cloud services based on the number of users receiving the service. The benefit for an organization is it can scale up or down services based on the need.

Jason's new iPhone has locked up, and the touchscreen is unresponsive. He tries to tap the screen, press the buttons, and still, nothing happens. What should he do next?

Hold down power and volume down buttons simultaneously for 10 seconds, the slide to power off. Explanation OBJ-5.5: Smartphones can become frozen, hung up, or locked up to the point they are unresponsive to touch or some button presses. The best solution is to hold down the power and volume down buttons simultaneously on an iPhone and then slide to power off.

A company deploys a new cloud service for its customers and its salespeople. Depending on the login access, users of the service will either shift to a resource center internal to the organization or to a forum where customers can freely collaborate. What cloud model does the company deploy?

Hybrid cloud A hybrid cloud type is a cloud computing solution that implements some sort of hybrid public/private/community.

A server technician sets up a small server at home to keep up with emerging technology and to learn in a test environment at home. However, the technician wants a low power consumption to use a small form factor. Also, since the technician is building it from scratch, what type of motherboard should the technician get?

ITX Small form factor (SFF) PCs are popular as home machines and mini servers. SFF PCs often use Via's Mini-ITX (Information Technology Extended) form factor.

What type of cloud service provides instant access to servers and switches, quickly provisioned, and available for management over the internet?

IaaS Explanation OBJ-4.1: Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is an instant computing infrastructure, provisioned, and managed over the internet. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. IaaS quickly scales up and down with demand, letting you pay only for what you use. It helps you avoid the expense and complexity of buying and managing your physical servers and other data center infrastructure. Each resource is offered as a separate service component, and you only need to rent a particular one for as long as you need it. A cloud computing service provider manages the infrastructure while you purchase, install, configure, and manage your software.

An engineer at an organization quickly deploys a small network in a cloud space. The network includes a subnet and router hidden behind a firewall for software testing. What type of service includes the ability to roll out such a cloud-based network?

IaaS Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is a means of provisioning IT resources, such as servers, load balancers, and storage area network (SAN) components, quickly.

One type of cloud service allows the members of an organization to interact with the organization's resources. What type of cloud service model is this?

IaaS Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is a means of provisioning IT resources, such as servers, load balancers, and storage area network (SAN) components, quickly.

What type of cloud-based services should be used when extra processing power and file storage are required?

IaaS When there are needs for extra network capacity, including processing power, storage, and networking services (such as firewalls), while the hardware expansion option is not available, using IaaS is always a highly recommended option.

A technician is installing new RAM in a company's workstations. The IT supervisor wants all computers to have ECC RAM to ensure high levels of reliability. Which features are not associated with ECC RAM? (Select all that apply) The motherboard and the CPU must support ECC operation for it to be enabled. Most motherboards support either UDIMMs or RDIMMs, but not both. If a motherboard supports UDIMM, you can use both types synchronously. Mixing non-ECC UDIMMs and ECC UDIMMs will work with each other.

If a motherboard supports UDIMM, you can use both types synchronously. Mixing non-ECC UDIMMs and ECC UDIMMs will work with each other. If a motherboard is configured to support unbuffered DIMM, it must have UDIMM RAM installed. It will not be able to support RDIMM RAM. Similar to mixing RDIMM and UDIMM, computers are configured to use ECC or non-ECC UDIMM, but never both.

A motherboard that supports dual RAM channel technology will work ___________.

If only one RAM module is installed but not in dual-channel mode. In dual-channel mode if two identical RAM modules are installed.

An auto mechanic needs to purchase a new printer for their shop. The printer will be used to create estimates and invoices for their customers. The printer must support the ability to create duplicate invoices using multiple sheets of paper separated by carbon paper using tractor-fed paper. Which of the following types of printers should be used?

Impact Explanation OBJ-3.7: An impact or dot-matrix printer is an older type of printer that works by pressing a ribbon of ink onto the top sheet of paper using a series of dots. This is called an impact printer because it pushes the ribbon against the paper to create the image or text using a series of dots to create the image or text. These printers are most commonly used when multiple copies of a document must be created at once (like a 3-part form or contract to be signed). As these older printers are being retired and it is harder to find impact printers to purchase, most organizations are now switching to laser or inkjet printers and requiring customers to sign multiple copies of the same invoice after they are printed using a laser printer.

Dion Training has recently installed a new VoIP telephone service in their offices. The employees are now complaining that their phone calls are being dropped during the middle of their conversations. The company has a single 48-port gigabit ethernet layer 3 switch that supports their desktops, laptops, and VoIP devices. Which of the following should the company do to prevent VoIP calls from dropping?

Implement QoS Explanation OBJ-5.7: To prevent the calls from being dropped, quality of service should be implemented on the switch. Quality of Service (QoS) means using a network protocol to prioritize certain traffic types over others. Enterprise networks can use QoS protocols to make sure traffic such as Voice over IP calling or video conferencing is given higher priority than traffic where packets' timing is less important, such as ordinary file downloads.

Network control and security management of cloud assets in the distinction between which of the following cloud models?

Internal vs. external Internal resources would be managed and secured locally. This means those resources are controlled under local network, perhaps provided to different units within the same organization, whereas external assets are almost certainly secured and regulated by an external cloud provider.

You are working as a technician for a college. One of the professors has submitted a trouble ticket stating that the projector connected to the workstation in his classroom is too dim. You look at the image being projected on the wall and notice it is dim, but the image appears to be displayed clearly and correctly. What is the FIRST thing you should do to make the image brighter?

Increase the contrast on the projector Explanation OBJ-5.4: If the image being displayed is dim, this could be an issue with your project's contrast. By increasing the contrast, you can increase the amount of light reflected from an all white image and an all black image. The higher the contrast ratio, the brighter the whites will appear in the image. For example, if you have a projector with a 3000:1 contrast ratio, this means that the white image is 3000 times brighter than the black image. The higher the contrast ratio, the more detail you can see on the projected image, regardless of whether it is numbers, pictures, graphs, text, or video. Contrast is what makes it possible for us to see the subtle shades of colors. If the project supports the contrast or contrast ratio adjustment, you should increase the contrast to brighten the screen's image.

Your company uses a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) environment for employees to access their desktop applications. To allow employees access to the VDI environment, the company is installing thin clients in each employee's office. Which THREE of the following tasks must you first complete to install a thin client for a new employee?

Install the latest security updates Install the necessary applications Connect the thin client to the network Explanation OBJ-4.2: A thin client is a stateless, fanless desktop terminal that has no hard drive. All features typically found on the desktop PC, including applications, sensitive data, memory, etc., are stored back in the data center when using a thin client, most typically in a VDI or other environment. To set up a thin client, you will first connect it to the network, update its security software, and then install/configure any applications needed to access the VDI environment.

A server administrator researches various chipsets for the organization's physical servers, which use x64 chipsets. Who are the main companies that make these chipsets? (Select all that apply.) Intel Qualcomm AMD Samsung

Intel AMD The x86 instruction set is extended for 64-bit operation as the x64 instruction set, developed initially by Advanced Micro Devices (AMD) as AMD64 or x86-64. Intel is another big chip manufacturer and refers to it as EM64T or Intel 64. x86 PC processors. Intel and AMD designed and manufactured these 64-bit platforms. Qualcomm is one of the main vendors for ARM. Most Android smartphones and tablets in the current generation of Apple hardware use these ARM designs. Samsung is also the main vendor for ARM. A typical ARM design implements a system-on-chip (SoC).

Network control and security management of cloud assets is the distinction between which of the following cloud models?

Internal vs. external Internal shared resources would be managed and secured locally. This means those resources are controlled under local network, perhaps provided to different units within the same organization, whereas external assets are almost certainly secured and regulated by an external cloud provider.

What is IDS (Intrusion Detection System)?

Is a device or software application that monitors a network or systems for malicious activity or policy violations. Any intrusion activity or violation is typically reported either to an administrator or collected centrally using a security information and event management system.

What is a IPS (Intrusion Prevention System)?

Is a network security tool (which can be a hardware device or software) that continuously monitors a network for malicious activity and takes action to prevent it, including reporting, blocking, or dropping it, when it does occur.

A computer operator has an x8 PCIe but plugs it into an x16 connector. The operator notices that performance seems to be a bit sluggish. What is the most likely cause?

It is only working at x1. An x8 card will fit in an x8 or x16 socket. Therefore, the card should work at x8, but in some circumstances, it may only work at x1.

A software technician identifies potential risks with installing a new operating system across the enterprise. What should the technician consider regarding legacy software applications?

It may not work well with the new OS. If the host computers are upgraded versions, legacy software applications may not work well with the new operating system (OS). As a result, the working environment could be degraded or cease to operate until it could acquire a suitable application

In a laser printer, _________ and ____________'s function are to convert AC current into usable energy for the logic circuitry and motors.

LVPS and DCPS The DC power supply (DCPS), also known as the low voltage power supply (LVPS), powers the logic boards and motors, meanwhile the high voltage power supply (HVPS) powers the toner transfer process.

Molex connector

Legacy power connector for internal devices such as hard drives and optical drives.

Video Graphics Array (VGA)

Legacy video interface supporting analog-only signaling over a 15-pin D-shell connector.

Digital Visual Interface (DVI)

Legacy video interface that supports digital only or digital and analog signaling.

A PC technician is diagnosing a faulty laptop and finds that the memory has likely gone bad, so the technician opens the case to try and replace it. However, the technician gets sidetracked when noticing that the SSD is provisioned in an adapter card form factor. What format is this most likely in?

M.2 A technician can provision a solid-state drive (SSD) in an adapter card form factor. These often use an M.2 interface. As well, an M.2 port orients horizontally.

A helpdesk engineer is packaging an NVMe SSD for installation. Which of the following should the engineer use to supply power over the bus instead of an extra cable?

M.2 M.2 supplies power over the bus, so there is no need for a separate power cable. M.2 adapters can be of different widths and lengths, so the engineer should check that any given adapter will fit on the motherboard. The engineer can package a non-volatile memory express (NVMe) solid-state drive (SSD) for installation to a peripheral component interconnect express (PCIe) slot as an expansion card or an M.2 slot.

What type of cloud service bills consumers based on the actual usage of the service and may charge different prices based on the time of day it was utilized?

Metered services Explanation OBJ-4.1: Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis. For example, Dion Training used the AWS Lambda serverless product in some of our automation. This service charges us $0.20 for every 1 million requests processed.

A cloud service provides a billing dashboard that reports a virtual machine's uptime, disk usage, and network bandwidth consumption. What characteristic does this demonstrate?

Metered utilization The per-use billing for resources consumed by the cloud is known as metered utilization. The metering measurement is from resources such as storage, processing, bandwidth, or active users.

Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?

Mini PCIe Explanation OBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the Mini PCIe slot. Mini PCIe (mPCIe) are smaller form factor versions of standard PCI Express expansions cards used with laptops and other small form factor computing devices. Mini PCIe expansion cards provide the ability to add wireless networking or cellular data cards to a laptop. These slots can also be used to connect motherboard mounted solid-state storage devices. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Which CPU technology enables the use of two logical cores for every physical core?

Multithreading Is a CPU feature that separates physical processor cores into logical cores and software processes into many threads that can execute on those logical cores conconcurrently. As a result, the operating system can schedule two assignments on each physical core at the same time. Hyperthreading is Intel's implementation of multithreading.

A computer specialist is helping a medium-sized business with several forward offices which control construction sites in various cities. Each forward office has VPN connectivity established back to the main office. The business wants to set up a central storage location for file services, but the specialist does not know how to set up a file server. Which of the following would be the best option for their needs?

NAS Some enclosures can connect directly to a network rather than to a PC and are known as network-attached storage (NAS).

A server engineer replaces the company's gold standard image quarterly, which they use to provision virtual machines. The engineer often has to wait for hours for the gold images to download since the company has several operating systems to maintain. The engineer checks with the networking department and confirms that internet speed, routing, and switching are not the holdup. What component can the engineer replace on their endpoint to help?

NIC A dedicated network interface card (NIC) may also provide multiple ports. The engineer can bond these into a single higher bandwidth link.

Which of the following describes a strategic advantage of moving to a private cloud? (Select all that apply.)

Organizations can exercise greater control over the privacy and security of their services. A cloud architecture is maintained and managed within an enterprise data center. A private cloud is an entirely private cloud infrastructure owned by the organization that requires strict access control in its operations. Private cloud service allows the organization to exercise greater control over their services' privacy and security, keeping sensitive or regulated infrastructure, applications, and data on-premises.

What RAM module would suit motherboard specifications that call for 5,200 MHz DDR RAM?

PC5 41600 To calculate the bits per second that can be transmitted in out of the RAM module, multiply the 5200 bus speed by 8. The PC5 indicates DDR5, and the 41,600 indicates that it may (theoretically) transmit 41,600 Mbps (megabits per second).

The connector shown in this picture is ____________.

PCIe This is an eight-pin PCIe power connector. They also come in 6-pin configurations.

Which type of cloud model provides a scaffold for a business to develop, deploy, and run applications without having to run and maintain the underlying foundation?

PaaS Platform as a service (PaaS) provides resources somewhere between SaaS and IaaS and deploys unconfigured servers, storage network infrastructure, and multitier web/database platforms on top.

A Windows administrator sets up a SQL server that is very resource-intensive on memory and never deallocates room in memory. They want to set up an area in case all the system RAM is eaten up. What should they set up?

Pagefile In a Windows system, the extended memory space on a disk is a pagefile. The memory controller moves static memory pages to the swap space to free up physical RAM and retrieves pages from the swap space to physical RAM when process execution requires it.

What cloud service type does a company subscribe to when there is a need for a backend database server for an online application?

Platform as a service (PaaS) Platform as a service (PaaS) provides resources between SaaS and IaaS. A typical PaaS solution deploys servers and storage network infrastructure (as per IaaS) and provides a multi-tier web application/database platform.

After establishing a free account online, users can use a cloud-based mapping software for free. What type of cloud service is the mapping software an example of?

Public cloud A public (or multitenant) cloud is a service offered over the internet by cloud service providers (CSPs) to cloud consumers, often referred to as tenants.

A systems administrator sets up dual-channel memory in a system to increase performance. Which of the following does NOT require support? Memory controller Motherboard RAM devices CPU

RAM devices

You are working as a network technician and need to create several Cat 5e network cables to run between different computers and the network jacks on the wall. The connections between the switch, the patch panel, and the wall jacks have already been installed and tested. Which of the following tools would NOT be necessary to complete this task?

Punchdown tool Explanation OBJ-2.8: A punchdown tool is used to connect a network cable (such as Cat 5e) to a patch panel, 110-block, or the inside portion of a wall jack, therefore it is not needed for this task. A wire stripper is used to remove the outer plastic shielding from the Cat 5e cable so that you can reach the inner wiring pairs.

Your office has a legacy wide-format printer that must be connected to your network. The connection on the printer is an older DB-9 serial connection. What is the BEST option for connecting this legacy device to your corporate network?

Purchase an RJ-232 to RJ-45 adapter so that you can connect it to the network Explanation OBJ-3.6: The most convenient and least expensive way to connect the printer would be to buy an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter, which will allow you to connect the legacy printer to the network directly. Then, the printer will be accessed by all users directly from their computers while printing to it using the appropriate print drivers.

A systems administrator sets up dual-channel memory in a system to increase performance. Which of the following does NOT require support? Memory controller RAM devices Motherboard CPU

RAM devices With a dual-channel memory controller, there are effectively two 64-bit pathways through the bus to the CPU, meaning that the system can send 128 bits of data per transfer rather than 64 bits. This does not require support from RAM devices, but it does from all others mentioned.

What are the advantages of using a liquid cooling system over an air-based system for a CPU?

Quieter and More Efficient

Which RAID solution will provide the BEST speed and redundancy for a backup and disaster recovery server?

RAID 10 Explanation OBJ-3.3: RAID 10 provides the system with both speed and efficiency. With RAID 10, the system has a mirror of striped disks for full redundancy and double fault tolerance. RAID 10 configuration (also known as RAID 1+0) requires a minimum of four disks and mirrors data across a striped disk pair. This is not only the best option presented in this question but also the most expensive option.

A system engineer is configuring fault tolerance with a configuration that uses a logical striped volume with two mirrored arrays. What redundant array of independent disks is the engineer using? RAID 0 RAID 1 RAID 5 RAID 10

RAID 10 The engineer is configuring RAID 10 which is a nested RAID configuration that combines a logical striped volume (RAID 0) configured with two mirrored arrays (RAID 1).

What RAID level requires at least three hard disks to operate?

RAID 5 Explanation OBJ-3.3: RAID 5 requires at least three hard disks to operate. There is no maximum number of disks required. The parity data is spread across all drives to provide redundancy, which allows the array to operate even with one of the drives fails. RAID 5 is considered one of the most popular and widely used RAID configurations. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.

Which of the following protocols operates over port 3389 by default?

RDP Which of the following protocols operates over port 3389 by default?

Which of the following connection types is not commonly built into a network-enabled multifunction device?

RFID Bluetooth, WiFi, and Ethernet connections are standard on most current network-enabled multifunction products.

Input Voltage

Range of alternating current (AC) voltages that a PSU can accept when connected to grid power. Some PSUs are manually switched between low-line 110-120 VAC and high-line 220-240 VAC.

A manufacturer sells home repair goods through its online portal. Sales often skyrocket when demand is high due to storms and other phenomena. Due to the unpredictable nature of sales, what service does the manufacturer have in place to handle changing service levels?

Rapid elasticity Rapid elasticity refers to the system's ability to handle changes to demand in real-time. A system with high elasticity will not experience loss of service or performance if demand suddenly doubles.

Which of the following is a security concern with using a cloud service provider and could result in a data breach caused by data remnants?

Rapid elasticity Explanation OBJ-4.1: Rapid elasticity can be a security threat to your organization's data due to data remanences. Data remanence is the residual representation of digital data that remains even after attempts have been made to remove or erase it. So, when a cloud resource is deprovisioned and returned to the cloud service provider, it can be issued to another organization for use. If the data was not properly erased from the underlying storage, it could be exposed to the other organization. For this reason, all cloud-based storage drives should be encrypted by default to prevent data remanence from being read by others.

Jason, a computer technician, is troubleshooting a motherboard. He has determined that the motherboard needs to be replaced in the laptop. Which of the following next step should be performed next? (Choose TWO)

Read owner's manual for procedures and steps to avoid breaking the warranty Documentation of all screws and locations Explanation OBJ-5.2: It is essential to read the owner's manual before starting anything. The next step is to document all screws and locations because lots of these tiny screws are not equal and have different depths. If you don't document which screws go into which holes, you could insert them into the wrong place and waste a lot of time or cause damage to the laptop.

You have been assigned a trouble ticket for a workstation that is unable to boot. When you arrive at the workstation, you recognize an error message on the screen that reads, "Error loading operating system, BOOTMGR is missing, Press Ctrl+Alt+Del to restart." Which of the following actions should you take first?

Reboot the computer into the Windows 10 repair console and enter "Bootrec /fixmbr" at the command prompt Explanation OBJ-5.3: To troubleshoot the failed boot, you must reboot the computer and enter into recovery mode. In Windows 10, you will need to boot from the installation disc, select "Repair your computer", and then enter the command-line interface (CLI). From the CLI, enter the command "bootrec /fixmbr" to repair the master boot record. Once completed, reboot the computer and allow it to load into Windows.

You are troubleshooting a workstation for a customer. The workstation will not boot. When it is powered on, an error message of "OS not found" is displayed on the screen. What is the MOST likely solution to fix this error?

Repair GPT OBJ-5.3: The "OS not found" error at boot time is an indication that the MBR (Master Boot Record) or GPT (Globally Unique ID Partition Table) is corrupted or faulty. If this occurs, you should reboot into the Windows recovery mode and use the 'bootrec /fixboot' command to fix the GPT.

A technician loans a laptop to employees when they go on travel and each time an employee returns the laptop the technician reformats it and reloads the operating system and all the software. After several years of following this process, the laptop is sluggish and often freezes. What is most likely to cause this to happen?

SSD Solid-state drives (SSDs) use flash chips that are susceptible to a type of degradation over the course of many write operations which would cause the laptop to be sluggish and freeze.

Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to connect two dissimilar networks such as connecting a local area network (LAN) to the wide area network (WAN)?

Router Explanation OBJ-2.2: A router is a network device that links dissimilar networks and can support multiple alternate paths between locations based upon the parameters of speed, traffic loads, and cost. Routers are used to logically divide networks into subnets.

Dion Training just installed a file server in VLAN 101 and their user workstations in VLAN 102. The users are unable to access the new file server from their workstations. Which of the following devices needs to be installed to allow users in VLAN 102 to access the resources in VLAN 101?

Router Explanation OBJ-5.7: A router or other gateway device must be installed between two VLANs to allow connections to be routed between them. A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logically separate network that is created using switching technology. Even though hosts on two VLANs may be physically connected to the same cabling, local traffic is isolated to each VLAN so they must use a router to communicate.

A professional photographer conducts multiple engagements per day and booked solid five to six days per week. The photographer wants camera storage to hold at least 1 TB of data to avoid running out of space while on engagements. Which type of SD card should the photographer buy?

SDXC Secure digital extended capacity (SDXC) has a maximum capacity of up to 2 TB. In addition, there are several proprietary types of memory cards, each of which also has different sizes and performance ratings. Secure digital high capacity (SDHC) has a maximum capacity of 32 GB. Most memory card readers work with multiple card types.

A server administrator wants to use SSD storage for the company's server core operating system files. The company is not concerned with cost and wants the administrator to use the most reliable type. Which type should the server administrator use?

SLC The NOT AND (NAND) flash memory used in solid-state drives (SSDs) comes in different types. Single-level cell (SLC) is more reliable and more expensive. There is also a multi-level cell (MLC) which is not as reliable and less expensive. Flash chips are also susceptible to a type of degradation over the course of many write operations. The triple-level cell (TLC) type is also less reliable and less expensive. The drive firmware and operating system use wear-leveling routines that evenly distribute writing on all blocks of an SSD to optimize the life of the device. SSDs are vulnerable to electrostatic discharge (ESD).

When documents are scanned from a large multifunction device and sent to the corporate server, the _________ protocol is commonly used.

SMB (Server Message Block) Port 139 is used by SMB dialects that communicate over NetBIOS Port 445 is used by newer versions of SMB (after Windows 2000) on top of a TCP stack, allowing SMB to communicate over the Internet

Which of the following is a connection-oriented protocol that utilizes TCP?

SSH Explanation OBJ-2.1: The transmission control protocol (TCP) is a protocol in the TCP/IP suite that operates at the transport layer to provide connection-oriented, guaranteed delivery of packets. Hosts must first establish a session to exchange data and then confirm the delivery of packets using acknowledgments when using TCP. TCP is relatively slow in comparison to UDP. Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication.

An information security technician manages a secure and isolated network. Security is the primary concern on the isolated network, so it requires regular data transfers over optical compact disks due to network separation requirements. With the needed data and antivirus patch testing for malware detection, what solution would best fit this situation?

Sandbox A sandbox would provide an isolated environment to test malware or analyze data while protecting the network from the adverse effects of an infection.

Why would a corporation desire to run many apps on their own separate virtual machines rather than a single server?

Security The benefit of running programs on their own virtual machine is that if the security of one application or VM is breached, the others may still be secure.

Several users at an adjacent office building report intermittent connectivity issues after a new flag pole was installed between the two offices. The network technician has determined the adjacent office building is connected to the main office building via an 802.11ac bridge. The network technician logs into the AP and confirms the SSID, encryption, and channels are all correct. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of this issue?

Signal attenuation Explanation OBJ-5.7: The most likely reason is signal attenuation from the new flag being placed between the signal path which may be obstructing the line-of-sight between the antennas. Based on where the flag is precisely located, it is possible to only block the signal when the wind is blowing in a certain direction. This would lead to the intermittent connectivity experienced by the users caused by the signal attenuation when the flag is blocking the communication path between the antennas.

You are configuring a workstation to be used as a point of sale (POS) device. Which of the following peripherals should you install with the device?

Signature pad Explanation OBJ-1.3: A signature pad is a common peripheral used with a point of sale workstation. This allows a customer to sign a contract or sales receipt digitally.

A customer reports that despite installing a 10 Gb Ethernet card in his server and using a cable that supports 10 Gbps, his network connection is till running at 1 Gbps. What is the MOST LIKELY source of the problem?

Slower Switch The switch must be replaced with a 10 Gbps switch

Some software applications may not work with the new operating system (OS) when host computers require an upgrade. In manufacturing environments, no longer supported applications are often needed to maintain production. However, due to security requirements, upgrades are necessary. What virtualization benefit offers a workaround?

Support for legacy software and OSs. Virtualization supports legacy software and OSs. When host computers receive an upgrade, some software applications may not work with the new operating systems (OS). Virtualization offers an environment to run older software and OSs while increasing security.

You are working as an IT supporter for your company. Recently, you have been charged with creating some UTP cables from a roll of bulk cable. And your firm is using the T568B standard. What is the following order or wires in the connectors?

T568B: White/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown

A security technician reviews the posture of client machines and finds that the core operating system is not protected. What can the technician do to protect it?

TPM During the boot process, the trusted platform module (TPM) compares hashes of key system state data (system firmware, boot loader, and OS kernel) to ensure no tampering has occurred.

An IT manager reads news about remote access trojans and modifying the core operating system. What can the manager do to protect the integrity of a core operating system?

TPM During the boot process, the trusted platform module (TPM) compares hashes of key system state data (system firmware, boot loader, and OS kernel) to ensure no tampering has occurred. On many systems, allowing the connection of USB devices is a security risk. Therefore, the setup program might allow individual ports to be enabled or disabled. A boot password requires the user to authenticate before the operating system is loaded. Different system software will provide different support for authentication methods. Secure means that the user must authenticate with a password, personal identification number (PIN), or fingerprint before accessing the keys stored on the module.

Client-side virtualization, typically based on a guest operating system hypervisor, is a solution ordinally suited for desktop or workstation computers commonly used for what?

Testing and development Client-side virtualization, typically based on a guest operating system hypervisor, is designed to run on regular desktops and workstations to provide a means to test and develop applications

A cyber team is developing a client-side virtualization environment for third-party contracted employees. What action does the team complete using a VM and guest OS hypervisor to ensure the environment is functioning correctly?

Testing and development Testing and development typically use a virtual desktop platform with a guest OS hypervisor. This ensures it is working as expected.

What is CIFS (Common Internet File System)?

The CIFS protocol was the genesis for the current generation SMB protocol that is used for file sharing in Windows systems.

A support technician needs to install a legacy peripheral component interconnect (PCI) sound card. Which of the following statements about PCI is NOT true? PCI Express supersedes PCI. PCI uses parallel communications. The PCI card can fit into the PCIe slot. PCI is software compatible with PCIe.

The PCI card can fit into the PCIe slot. PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) motherboards can include PCI ports to support legacy adapter cards, but PCI cards cannot fit into PCIe slots.

A customer is trying to configure an 802.11b wireless card in an old laptop to connect to an 802.11g wireless router. When the customer scans for the wireless network's SSID (Dion-Corp), it is not displayed within Windows. What is the MOST likely reason that the SSID is not being displayed?

The broadcast is disabled on the wireless router Explanation OBJ-5.7: If the SSID (Secure Set Identifier) is disabled, then the wireless network name will not be broadcast to any available devices within range. Both Wireless B and G use the same frequency band (2.4 GHz) and would not cause this issue. Similarly, encryption that is enabled or disabled would not affect the SSID broadcast since the SSID is sent out in cleartext.

You just received a phone call from one of your customers regarding an old monitor. The monitor uses a VGA port, and the customer is worried because they only have an old VGA cable that has a few pins broken off. The customer asks you what would happen if they used that cable to connect the monitor over VGA. What would MOST likely happen?

The display will show incorrect colors on the screen Explanation OBJ-5.4: Unfortunately, a missing or broken pin or two can cause an array of issues. Each of the 15 pins is used to create a composite image on the screen. There are three rows of pins, with 5 pins per row. Due to the pinout of a VGA cable, if pins 1, 2, or 3 are missing, the display will be miscolored. If pins 13 or 14 are missing, the screen will not hold horizontal or vertical sync. The other pins are not used or are used as ground wires. Therefore, either the incorrect colors will show up on the screen, or the screen won't display at all. The other options are not possible.

Dion Training's video editor wants to install a new dedicated GPU using an expansion card. Which of the following should they verify before installing the new card?

The power supply's wattage rating Explanation OBJ-3.5: Dedicated graphics cards use the most power of any component in a computer. If someone is installing or replacing a graphics card, it is important to compare the current system's power usage to the wattage rating of the power supply to ensure it can support the new graphics card.

Which of the following statements regarding modern connectors and ports is untrue? They use edge contacts. They use internal connection points. They sometimes use keying. They can be reversible.

They use internal connection points. An input/output (I/O) port is the external connection point for a particular type of bus interface and the connector is the part of a peripheral cable that inserts into a port with the same shape. Most connectors and input/output ports now use edge contacts that connect the cable wires to the circuit boards.

An information technology analyst is a huge fan of superhero movies and is excited about the new movies coming out, so the analyst decides to splurge and buy an 8K television. However, the analyst also wishes to connect a laptop to play games on the television but is unsure which cables support 8K. Which of the following would work?

Thunderbolt, High speed HDMI, and Ultra high speed HDMI

A graphics artist wants to put together the best possible machine since the plan is to do graphics-intensive processing. Which of the following can the graphics artist use to distinguish between memory that appears to be the same?

Timing The technician can use timings to differentiate the performance of RAM modules that are an identical double data rate (DDR) type and speed. Lower timing values are an indicator of better performance.

Which of the following components of a color laser printer is used to combine the 4 colors before printing them to the paper in one pass?

Transfer belt Explanation OBJ-3.7: The transfer belt is the component in a color laser printer that combines the 4 colors before printing it to the paper in one pass.

True or False: IDE is NOT a communication interface used by SSD's to send data across a motherboard.

True IDE is an obsolete connection technique that was originally used with parallel ATA drives (PATA).

True or False: There are two major manufacturers of computer processors, Intel® and AMD®. For both manufacturers, there are three general lines of processors.

True Intel: LGA and Socket 423 models AMD: Socket, AM3, AM4, FM1, TR4 Models

An avid gamer receives a new rig that should handle games at their most intensive graphics settings. The gamer starts immediately and finds that the desktop runs quite warm, but the fans have not started kicking in yet. What is the first thing the gamer should check?

UEFI System settings can control most cooling fans, typically under a cooling, power, or advanced menu. The Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI) can control this.

Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as G?

USB 3.0 Explanation OBJ-3.1: These ports are the USB 3.0 connections. The red coloring notates this. USB 3.0 ports are always shown as a different color to differentiate them from the older and slower USB 2.0 ports.

Which of the following types of USB connections can support up to 4.5 watts of power per connected device?

USB 3.0 Explanation OBJ-3.1: USB 3.0 can support providing up to 4.5 watts of power per connected device. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at the slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.

Which of the following storage technologies will meet the following requirements? - Hot-swappable - Nonvolatile - Long-term - Conveniently portable

USB flash drive and SD

An intern digitizes old archived records. The intern is going through several old optical disks to see what information to maintain and which to delete. Unfortunately, it does not seem to work anymore when trying to eject the drive. What should the intern try first?

Use a paper clip.

When users connect to the network, they use a basic hardware terminal to access a desktop hosted on a server. What structure is the user deploying?

VDI Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) refers to the use of virtual machines (VMs) to provision corporate desktops. Low-spec thin client computers replace desktop computers in a typical desktop virtualization solution.

Which of the following is the virtualization technology supported by most modern Intel processors?

VT Explanation OBJ-3.4: To use virtualization and have virtual machines running on a single workstation, you need to have a CPU specifically designed to support virtualization. For Intel processors, they must support VT or Virtualization Technology.

external SATA (eSATA)

Variant of SATA cabling designed for external connectivity.

You are setting up a new wireless network at the local branch of your community's public library. Previously, the library only had a small wired network that relied on statically assigned IP addresses. You just finished installing all of the wireless access points. You configured a server to automatically provide an IP address to wireless clients when connecting to one of the wireless access points. To test the new wireless network, you turn on your wireless adapter on your laptop and connect to the network. Your laptop is automatically assigned an IP address of 192.168.1.12 from the DHCP server, and you can ping the default gateway of 192.168.1.1. You open a web browser and attempt to connect to diontraining.com, but you cannot connect and instead receive an error. You attempt to ping the IP address for the Google DNS server (8.8.8.8) and are successful. Which of the following should you attempt to do NEXT to resolve this issue?

Verify that the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server Explanation OBJ-5.7: Since you are already connected to the wireless network and can ping the gateway using its IP address, you already know the SSID and DHCP are properly configured (therefore, you should not select these options). It is a poor security practice to disable the firewall, so it is not recommended that you choose this option. Since we cannot access a website using its domain name (diontraining.com), we can successfully ping a remote server using its IP address (8.8.8.8). This indicates that your laptop has not been properly assigned a DNS server to use by the DHCP server. Therefore, you need to verify the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server to the clients when it assigned them their IP address configuration information.

A help desk analyst is looking at a computer that has PC-1600 RAM in it. What is the maximum data transfer rate?

1.6 GBps The peak transfer rate is 1600 MBps (200 MT/s multiplied by 8 bytes (64 bits) per transfer), giving the "PC-1600" designation. 1600 MBps is equivalent to 1.6 GBps. 2.4 GBps would be the peak transfer rate of PC-2400 RAM. A technician would label DDR memory modules using the maximum theoretical bandwidth, such as PC1600 or PC2100. 3.2 GBps would be the peak transfer rate of PC-3200 RAM. Subsequent generations of DDR technology (DDR2, DDR3, DDR4, and DDR5) increase bandwidth by multiplying the bus speed instead of the speed at which the actual memory devices work. 2.1 GBps would be the peak transfer rate of PC-2100 RAM.

A support technician is installing a new SATA hard drive on a new computer. What is the best type of cable connector the technician will plug in to supply power to the drive? 15-pin connector 7-pin connector 4-pin connector USB connector

15-pin connector

Thunderbolt

A display interface (like DisplayPort) and as a general peripheral interface (like USB 3). The latest version uses USB-C connectors.

Which of the following central processing unit (CPU) architectures implements a system-on-chip (SoC) where all the controllers, including video, sound, networking, and storage, are part of the CPU?

ARM Advanced RISC Machine (ARM) designs implement an SoC which means that all the controllers, including video, sound, networking, and storage, are part of the CPU.

A hardware technician is ordering power supply units (PSUs) for the organization's desktop computers. What type of form factor is the technician looking for the PSUs to have from the list below?

ATX The technician is looking for the PSUs that have the Advanced Technology Extended (ATX) specification as most PSUs designed for use with desktop PCs are based on the ATX form factor.

A support technician needs to connect the USB port on a portable monitor to an HDMI port on a laptop to extend the laptop's display. What kind of cable will the technician use to accomplish this? SCSI Adapter EIDE DVI

Adapter

Sound Card

Adapter card providing sound playback and recording functionality. A number of different audio ports exist on modern computer motherboards or on specialist sound cards. Commonly, audio ports may be marked as: audio out, audio in, speaker out, microphone input/mic, and headphones.

Video Card

Adapter that handles graphics processing and output to a display device over one or more video interface ports.

You are labelling spare parts for inventory. What type of motherboard is displayed here?

Both Micro-ATX and Mini-ITX are square for factors, but Mini-ITX is 6.7 inches square, while Micro-ATX is 9.6 inches x 9.6 inches.

A helpdesk engineer runs cabling at a construction site. The site needs to achieve 100 Mbps, but the manager wants them to use the oldest cabling first to get rid of it. Which cabling should the engineer use?

Cat 5 Cat 5 cable supports the older 100 Mbps Fast Ethernet standard. It is no longer commercially available. A technician will probably need to rewire the network cabled with Cat 5 to support Gigabit Ethernet.

A network technician only needs to support network speeds of 100 Mbps. What is the lowest possible cabling standard the technician can use to accomplish this?

A PC technician is researching why memory is not performing as expected. The technician tried installing quadruple channel memory, but it does not seem to be working as it should. What should the technician also check? (Select all that apply.) Check for mismatched modules. Check for flex mode. Check for bad RAM. Make sure the full complement is installed.

A PC technician is researching why memory is not performing as expected. The technician tried installing quadruple channel memory, but it does not seem to be working as it should. What should the technician also check? (Select all that apply.) Check for mismatched modules. Check for bad RAM. Check for flex mode. Make sure the full complement is installed.

Check for mismatched modules. Check for flex mode. Make sure the full complement is installed. Some CPUs and supporting chipsets have triple- or quadruple-channel memory controllers. In these architectures, if the administrator does not install the full complement of modules, the system will revert to as many channels as are populated. A configuration with mismatched modules may cause the system to operate in single-channel mode. Flex mode means that if A1 contains a 2 GB module and B1 contains a 6 GB module, it will enable the dual-channel mode for 2 GB of memory, and the remaining 4 GB from the module in B1 will work in single-channel mode. Bad RAM will typically have much worse symptoms than not running at full capacity.

Headers

Connector on the motherboard for internal cabling, such as fan power and front panel ports and buttons.

A service desk operator is looking at an older computer. The service desk operator attempts to plug in a keyboard and mouse, but there are no USB ports. What type of cable do the keyboard and mouse need?

DB9 DB9 is the old proprietary standard for keyboards and mice, but USB cables replaced them.

What is the data rate, transfer rate and maximum size of DDR5?

Data rate: 4800 to 6400 MT/s (megatransfers) Transfer Rate: 38.4 to 51.2 GB/s Max size: 128GB

What is the data rate, transfer rate and maximum size of DDR3?

Data rate: 800 to 2133 MT/s (megatransfers) Transfer Rate: 6.4 to 17.066 GB/s Max size: 8GB

DisplayPort

Digital audio/video interface developed by VESA. DisplayPort supports some cross-compatibility with DVI and HDMI devices.

A hardware technician is building a server that will process financial data in real time and wants to use error correcting code (ECC) RAM that will detect and correct errors, if possible. What other considerations will the technician need to include to support the ECC RAM? (Select all that apply.) Heat sinks Extra processor chip 72-bit data bus Two 64-bit data buses

Extra processor chip 72-bit data bus The technician will need to include an extra processor chip on the module for the ECC RAM to store the 8-bit checksum the ECC RAM calculates. The technician will need to include a 72-bit data bus rather than the regular 64 bits to support the functions of the ECC RAM in the server.

A cable runner needs to run cable in a plenum space. What consideration does a runner need to account for with plenum spaces?

Fire retardant Building regulations require the use of fire-retardant plenum cables in such spaces. Plenum space is an effective conduit for fire, as there is plenty of airflow and no fire breaks.

A support technician is installing a PCIe card that will use a combination of system memory and dedicated memory. What type of card is the tech installing? Graphics Sound NIC Wi-Fi

Graphics The support technician is installing a graphics adapter, also called a video card. Graphics adapters can have up to 12 GB of dedicated memory and may use a mix of dedicated and shared, or system, memory.

A hardware technician is scanning a computer's non-volatile storage devices for errors and infections. Which of the following will the technician include in the scanning? (Select all that apply.) Hard disk drives Solid-state drives Random access memory Mass storage devices

Hard disk drives Solid-state drives Mass storage devices

To mitigate the heat a high-end gaming system will generate, an engineer is using a liquid-based cooling system in the design. Which of the following components are NOT a part of an open-loop, liquid-based cooling system? Fans Heat sinks Water blocks Water loop

Heat sinks Heat sinks are not a part of a liquid-based cooling system. A heat sink is a block of copper or aluminum with fins which expose a larger surface area around the component to the air.

High speed HDMI Ultra high speed HDMI Thunderbolt HDMI versions 2.0 and 2.1 specify premium high speed (up to 18 Gbps). In addition, updates to the original HDMI specification have introduced support for high resolutions, such as 4K and 8K, and gaming features, such as the ability to vary the monitor refresh rate to match the frame rate of the video source.

In what standard will client devices connect to an access point in infrastructure mode?

IEEE 802.11 In most IEEE 802.11, better known as Wi-Fi, networks configured for wireless-only connect in what is often technically referred to as "infrastructure mode."

A user is trying to buy a monitor and is told that the crystals in the screen rotate rather than twist or tilt. What kind of technology does the monitor use?

In-plane switching (IPS) uses crystals that rotate rather than twist. The main benefit is to deliver better color reproduction at a wider range of viewing angles.

A computer operator is setting up memory in a computer and is curious how speed improvements occur to DDR RAM. So the operator begins researching. What will the computer operator find? Increased speed at which device works New materials Design improvements Increased bus speed

Increased bus speed Subsequent generations of double data rate (DDR) technology (DDR2, DDR3, DDR4, and DDR5) increase bandwidth by multiplying the bus speed. The transfer rate is the speed at which the memory controller can move data.

A system administrator is troubleshooting the company's only IEEE 802.11 network. What mode are most client devices configured to connect to the network via an access point (AP)?

Infrastructure In most IEEE 802.11, better known as Wi-Fi, networks configured for wireless-only connect in what is often technically referred to as "infrastructure mode."

Peripheral Component Interconnect Express (PCIe)

Internal expansion bus that uses serial point-to-point communications between devices. Each link can comprise one or more lanes (x1, x2, x4, x8, x12, x16, or x32). Each lane supports a full-duplex transfer rate of 250 MB/s (v1.0) up to about 4 GB/s (v5.0).

A support technician opened a PC case and observed a modern small computer system interface (SCSI) connector plugged into the motherboard. What can the technician know to be true about the connector? It is likely connected to the hard disk. Each device on a wide SCSI bus must be configured with a unique ID, from 0 to 68. It transfers data 1 bit at a time. It only supports 1 device at a time.

It is likely connected to the hard disk. SCSI connectors are commonly used to connect hard disks, as well as other storage devices like tape drives, CD/DVD drives, and external storage devices. Each device on a wide SCSI bus must be configured with a unique ID, from 0 to 15.

DB-9

Legacy connector for factor used for serial (9-pin) and VGA (15-pin) interfaces.

Small Computer System Interface (SCSI)

Legacy expansion bus standard allowing for the connection of internal and external devices. Each device on a SCSI bus must be allocated a unique ID. The bus must also be terminated at both ends.

Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI)

Legacy internal expansion bus supporting 32-bit parallel transfers working at 33 MHz.

Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE)

Legacy mass storage bus, most commonly implemented as extended IDE (EIDE) and also referred to as parallel advanced technology attachment (PATA). Each IDE controller port supports two devices connected over ribbon cable with three connectors (controller, primary device, and secondary device).

Wattage Rating

Measure of how much power can be supplied by a PSU.

A software developer is creating an application that will run multiple parallel threads through the central processing unit (CPU) at the same time to reduce the amount of "idle time" the CPU spends waiting for new instructions to process. What type of process is the developer taking advantage of? Multi-socket Multithreading Multicore Processor extensions

Multithreading The developer is taking advantage of multithreading which is when software runs multiple parallel threads through the CPU at the same time to reduce "idle time."

Modular PSU

PSU design where power cables can be attached to ports on the unit as needed.

Adapter Cable

Peripheral cable converting between connector form factors or between signaling types, such as DisplayPort to HDMI.

A support technician is connecting an extended integrated drive electronics (IDE) cable to a PC's motherboard and knows that pin 1 on the cable must match up with pin 1 on the port. How can the tech know where pin 1 is on the cable? Pin 1 has a blue stripe. Pin 1 has a black stripe. Pin 1 has a red stripe. Pin 1 has a grey stripe.

Pin 1 has a red stripe. On the cable, pin 1 has a red stripe. Manufacturers also key the connectors to prevent technicians from inserting them the wrong way around.

A network administrator is setting up a server to manage their routers and switches throughout the environment and push standardized configurations. The administrator wants to use memory which performs a hash calculation on the data value. What should the network administrator use? Swap space Virtual memory UDIMM RDIMM

RDIMM Error correction code (ECC) RAM performs a hash calculation on the data value for each transfer and stores it as an 8-bit checksum. Most types of ECC supply as registered Dual Inline Memory Modules (RDIMMs). A registered DIMM uses an extra component to reduce electrical load on the memory controller. While the administrator could use unbuffered DIMM (UDIMM) since some types of ECC RAM get packaged in UDIMMs, although this is much rarer.

A new support technician is troubleshooting connectivity issues. The technician decides to troubleshoot the physical layer and traces the wire back to the networking closet. There, the support technician sees a large patch panel. Which of the following does the technician most likely see on the patch panel?

RJ11 RJ45 Punchdown block

A help desk operator is helping to figure out why a user cannot plug the computer into the wall connection. The operator finds out that the user accidentally tried to plug into the phone connection. What type of connector was the user trying to connect?

RJ11 Unlike the four-pair cable used with Ethernet, RJ11 typically terminates two-pair cable and is widely used in telephone systems.

A server technician sets up a new server in their data center and opens the case to view the insides. The technician notices several hard drives inside. What type of setup does the server most likely have?

SCSI A serial attached SCSI (Small Computer System Interface), or SAS, is a dominant interface for enterprise-class storage devices in the PC workstation and server market.

A helpdesk technician is diagnosing a laptop and determines that the RAM has gone bad. The technician should replace it with what type of memory? Swap space Pagefile DIMM SODIMM

SODIMM Small outline DIMM (SODIMM) is a small form factor that packages laptop RAM. The memory typically fits into slots that pop up at a 45º angle to allow inserting or removing the chips.

SSD Solid-state drives (SSDs) use flash chips that are susceptible to a type of degradation over the course of many write operations which would cause the laptop to be sluggish and freeze.

A hardware technician is purchasing mass storage devices and tells the salesperson that they must use flash memory technology. What type of devices will the salesperson show the technician? HDD SSD RAM CDs

SSD The salesperson will show the technician solid-state drives (SSDs) which use flash memory technology to implement persistent mass storage.

A data center administrator is setting up new fiber drops and needs a commonly used connector since they are specific only to multi-mode networks. Which connector should the administrator use?

ST Straight tip (ST) is a bayonet-style connector that uses a push-and-twist locking mechanism, mostly for multi-mode networks.

A manager directs a support technician to plug a device into the communications (COM) port. What port is the manager referring to? IDE SCSI USB Serial

Serial In Windows, the serial port, or Recommended Standard #232 (RS-232) port, is also known as a communications (COM) port.

Information Technology Extended

Series of motherboard form factors designed for small form factor (SFF) computers and appliances.

A hardware technician is upgrading a device with multiple, identical central processing unit (CPU) packages. What class of computer is the technician most likely upgrading? Workstation Mobile Desktop Server

Server The technician is upgrading a server-class computer. Server motherboards are often multi-socket, meaning that the technician can install multiple, identical CPU packages.

A Linux administrator sets up a database server that consumes much memory and never deallocates space from memory, so the administrator wants to set up a spillover area in case there is insufficient system RAM. What should the administrator configure? Virtual memory Pagefile Swap space Address space

Swap space If there is insufficient system RAM, the administrator can extend memory space by using disk storage, known as called swap space in a Linux system.

A server administrator considers installing error correction code (ECC) RAM into the critical server to help with integrity but is concerned about multiple bit errors. What can happen when the administrator installs ECC RAM? System halt Correction It cannot detect multiple bit errors. An extra processor would be able to handle these.

System halt ECC can detect errors of 2, 3, or 4 bits but cannot correct them. Instead, it will generate an error message and halt the system.

What is ECC RAM?

System memory (RAM) with built-in error correction security. It is more expensive than normal memory and requires motherboard support. It is typically only used in servers.

What is quadruple-channel architecture?

System-memory controller configuration that provides four data pathways between the memory modules and a compatible CPU.

What is Single-channel architecture?

System-memory controller configuration that provides one data pathway between the memory modules and the CPU.

What is triple-channel architecture?

System-memory controller configuration that provides three data pathways between the memory modules and a compatible CPU.

What is dual-channel architecture?

System-memory controller configuration that provides two data pathways between the memory modules and a compatible CPU.

You have another part to label for inventory. What category of adapter card is shown in exhibit?

This is a sound card. It can be identified by distinctive 3.5 mm audio jacks for connecting microphones and speakers.

A helpdesk operator is working on an urgent task that needs completing immediately when the network goes down, even for the local area network. The helpdesk operator needs to transfer files from a particular computer onto another computer. What type of connector could the operator use to transfer files directly from computer to computer?

T568A and T568B

A firm has asked a forensics expert to review the contents of an older SCSI system. However, before acquiring the system, the components were separated to obscure the information on the system. What should the forensics expert do to the first device on the SCSI bus?

Terminate The forensic expert must terminate the first and last devices on a Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) bus. Termination may be enabled internally on the device by switching or physically connecting a terminator pack to a device or the host adapter.

Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA)

The most widely used interface for hard disks on desktop and laptop computers. It uses a 7-pin data connector with one device per port. There are three SATA standards specifying bandwidths of 1.5 Gb/s, 3 Gb/s, and 6 Gb/s respectively. SATA drives also use a new 15-pin power connector, though adapters for the old-style 4-pin Molex connectors are available. External drives are also supported via the eSATA interface.

What is x86?

The x86 CPU Architecture refers to the way a computer processes information. The x86 instruction set defines a CPU as IBM PC compatible. x86 PC processors are designed and manufactured by Intel and Advanced Micro Devices (AMD).

A systems technician builds a graphics system with the best possible parts. The RAM appears to be the same, but what could the technician use to differentiate between the best ones? PC-# value Transfer rate RAM type Timing

An organization has asked a helpdesk attendant to swap out a defective monitor since part of the monitor will not display colors correctly. They are curious about how the LCD monitor varies the color, so they look at the inner workings. What is each pixel addressed by to vary the intensity of RGB values?

Transistor Each pixel is addressed by a transistor to vary the intensity of each cell, therefore creating the gamut (range of colors) that the display can generate.

A video production company uses removable media to transport multimedia files to partner and customer sites. Often, the media has to be prepared with only very short notice. In the past, the time taken to transfer files from the development workstations has resulted in delays and missed appointments. To mitigate this issue, the company has procured USB 3.2 Gen 2x2 storage devices and Windows PC workstation expansion cards. The devices and expansion cards support multiple USB hardware port types. Which of the following adapter cables will enable the devices to take full advantage of the highest transfer rate? Type A to Type A with USB 3 compatibility (denoted by a blue tab) Type B Micro to Type A with USB 3 compatibility (denoted by a blue tab) Lightning to Type A Type C to Type C

Type C to Type C Type C connectors and ports support data transfers at the USB 3.2 Gen 2x2 20 Gbps rate. The connector is also much smaller than Type A and is reversible. These improvements mean that other USB connector form factors are being phased out.

A marketing analyst is trying to connect an Apple device to a corporate PC, but the cable will not fit into the PC connections. What type of adapter should the analyst use?

USB

A server administrator for a major transportation company is facing a crisis where ransomware has taken over and destroyed the primary and backup locations. Luckily there was an unaffected offline domain controller in a remote country where the administrator needed to fly to immediately and back up the contents via a USB hard drive. The administrator uses a hard drive running USB 3.2 that supports 10 Gbps speeds but must ensure the legacy server can support connectors. Which of the following are supported connectors?

USB-C USB-A USB Micro

USB-C, USB-A, and USB Micro The administrator uses a USB 3.2 Gen 2x1 SuperSpeed USB, which runs up to 10 Gbps and supports the USB Micro connector.

You have a x8 PCIe storage adapter card --- can you fit this in a x16 slot?

Yes ---- this is referred to as up-plugging. On some motherboards, it may only function as an x1 device though.

A server technician has received a non-standard external drive. It appears older since it does not connect to USB, but it is not recognized when connected. The technician suspects it needs to be powered. Which of the following should the technician try?

eSATAp There is an external serial advanced technology attachment (eSATA) standard for the attachment of peripheral drives. eSATAp is a nonstandard powered port used by some vendors.

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