Comptia 1101 Practice exam
A PC tech plugs a x4 PCIe adapter card into a x8 socket. What speed would the card be capable of running? (Select all that apply.) A.x1 B.x4 C.x16 D.x8
A. x1 B. x4 A x4 PCIe adapter card plugged into a x8 socket will run at its maximum capability of x4 speed, as the card is only designed to operate at x4 bandwidth. However, it could also potentially run at x1 speed if the system or card is configured for a lower bandwidth, but it cannot exceed the card's design, which is x4. C. x16 and D. x8 are not possible because the card itself is a x4 card, meaning it cannot utilize the higher speeds offered by x8 or x16 sockets. Thus, the card will run at x4 speed (its maximum) or potentially at x1 if configured that way.
A hard disk drive in a system experiences extended read and write times. What is likely the cause? (Select all that apply.) A.Disk thrashing B.Bad sectors C.Bad blocks D.Data corruption
B. Bad sectors C. Bad blocks Bad sectors may be found on a traditional hard disk. While bad sectors can be marked as unusable, having them present is usually a sign of a failing disk. Bad blocks may be found on a hard disk. A block is a grouping of sectors. A single sector or multiple sectors in a block may have gone bad. Constant LED activity, often referred to as disk thrashing, can be a sign that there is not enough system RAM so that the disk is being used continually for paging (virtual memory). Data corruption is caused by a failing disk and will not cause extended read and write times.
A universal asynchronous receiver transmitter (UART) port was traditionally a physical serial port in a legacy system. In a modern mobile device, how can a UART be utilized? (Select all that apply.) A.Wi-Fi B.Bluetooth C.USB D.Ethernet
B. Bluetooth C. USB In modern mobile devices, a UART (Universal Asynchronous Receiver Transmitter) can be used for communication protocols such as: Bluetooth: UARTs are commonly used to interface with Bluetooth modules, enabling wireless communication in mobile devices. USB: UART can also be used for serial communication over USB in devices that don't have traditional serial ports. Wi-Fi and Ethernet are not typically directly associated with UART communication, as they use different networking protocols and hardware interfaces.
A technician looks to wire an office for a medium-sized local area network (LAN). When considering the available standards and speeds, the technician decides to implement Gigabit Ethernet. What specific standard does the technician use? A.1000BASE-T B.100BASE-T C.10GBASE-T D.IEEE 802.3
A. 1000BASE-T 1000BASE-T is the specific standard for Gigabit Ethernet (1 Gbps) over twisted-pair copper cabling, typically using Cat5e or higher cables. It is the most common standard used for Gigabit Ethernet in modern LANs. 100BASE-T is for Fast Ethernet (100 Mbps). 10GBASE-T is for 10 Gigabit Ethernet (10 Gbps). IEEE 802.3 is the broader standard for Ethernet but does not specifically refer to Gigabit Ethernet.
A user complains about a faulty network connection on a laptop. A technician traces the Ethernet cable in the office to a direct connection in a 16-port smart switch. While investigating the switch's activity, it becomes apparent that port flapping is occurring. What does the tech troubleshoot as a possible cause? (Select all that apply.) A.Bad cabling B.Latency C.Faulty port D.Interference
A. Bad cabling C. Faulty port D. Interference Bad cabling can cause port flapping. If a cable has been pinched, twisted, or suffered any other type of physical damage, it may be faulty. A port on a network interface card or the switch itself may be faulty. This could be caused by a number of issues, including a manufacturer's defect, damage from power, or it may simply be failing. External interference is possible. While the path of the cabling is not known in the scenario, fluorescent lighting and other electronic devices might be causing interference. Latency would not cause port flapping. Latency would be noted as a bandwidth and speed/performance issue.
A technician needs to troubleshoot problems. When problem-solving, what are the three items that define a problem? (Select all that apply.) A.Cause B.Fault C.Symptom D.Consequence
A. Cause C. Symptom D. Consequence When troubleshooting problems, it's essential to define the following: Cause: The underlying reason or root of the problem. Symptom: The observable effects or signs of the problem. Consequence: The outcome or impact of the problem, such as data loss or system downtime. B. Fault is related but not a defining item in this context. The fault is often the failure point, but cause, symptom, and consequence are more essential in the problem-solving process.
A technician troubleshoots a motherboard issue. What the tech discovers is chip creep with a serial ATA (SATA) connector. What is the cause? (Select all that apply.) A.Changing temperature B.Dust and dirt C.Electrostatic discharge D.Capacitor swelling
A. Changing temperature B. Dust and dirt A. Changing temperature: Temperature fluctuations can cause chip creep, where the expansion and contraction of materials cause connectors, like SATA, to gradually loosen over time. B. Dust and dirt: Accumulation of dust and dirt can contribute to poor connections or slight movements of components, which can also result in chip creep. C. Electrostatic discharge and D. Capacitor swelling are not directly related to chip creep. Electrostatic discharge can damage components, and capacitor swelling is usually a sign of capacitor failure, not connector loosening.
The projector in the conference room is experiencing intermittent shutdowns. The technician begins troubleshooting by checking all the connector cables. What are the next troubleshooting steps for the technician? (Select the best two choices.) A.Check that the vents are free from dust. B.Check that the bulb is not burned out. C.Check that the LED array is situated properly. D.Check that the fan is working.
A. Check that the vents are free from dust. D. Check that the fan is working. Projectors often shut down intermittently due to overheating, which can be caused by blocked vents or a malfunctioning fan. Ensuring proper airflow by cleaning the vents and checking the fan operation are crucial steps in addressing the issue. A burned-out bulb or LED array issues would more likely cause the projector to fail to turn on at all, rather than intermittent shutdowns.
A small call center office asks their IT service provider to implement a voice-over-IP (VoIP) system for them. After discussing the office's needs, the technician learns that their ability to make and receive phone calls is critical. Considering this information, which of the following should the technician recommend? A.Configure QoS on the router. B.Implement DFS. C.Enable UPnP. D.Set up port flapping.
A. Configure QoS on the router. Quality of Service (QoS) is crucial for a VoIP system, as it prioritizes voice traffic over other types of data on the network. This ensures that voice calls are given higher priority, reducing latency, jitter, and packet loss, which are critical for maintaining call quality in a VoIP system. B. Implement DFS (Dynamic Frequency Selection) is used for managing wireless channels to avoid interference, but it's not directly related to prioritizing VoIP traffic. C. Enable UPnP (Universal Plug and Play) facilitates device communication on a network, but it does not prioritize network traffic, which is necessary for VoIP. D. Set up port flapping is undesirable and refers to a network issue where a port rapidly switches between up and down states, which could actually disrupt VoIP service. So, Configuring QoS is the most appropriate recommendation for a VoIP implementation in a call center.
An engineer is evaluating a new unified threat management (UTM) appliance as a potential replacement for an outdated firewall. Which feature related to website browsing is the engineer most likely to find in the UTM? A.Content filtering B.Data loss prevention C.Workflow automation D.Load balancing
A. Content filtering Content filtering is a common feature in Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliances. It controls or restricts access to certain websites or content types, making it especially relevant for managing and securing website browsing. B. Data loss prevention (DLP) is more focused on preventing sensitive information from leaving the network, not specifically related to website browsing. C. Workflow automation refers to automating business processes and is not typically a feature of UTM appliances. D. Load balancing is used to distribute network traffic across multiple servers but is not directly related to website browsing security. Thus, content filtering is the feature most likely to be found in a UTM appliance related to website browsing.
A user traveling on business reports that a company owned device suffered damage to the screen during a trip. A technician notices cracks on the screen and determines that touch input is no longer recognized. Visual elements on the screen look fine. What components need replacing? (Select all that apply.) A.Digitizer B.Protective glass C.Display panel D.Gyroscope
A. Digitizer B. Protective glass Reasons: A. Digitizer: The digitizer is responsible for detecting touch input. Since the touch input is no longer recognized, the digitizer needs to be replaced. B. Protective glass: Cracks in the screen likely indicate damage to the protective glass, which will need to be replaced to restore the device's structural integrity. C. Display panel is not required because visual elements on the screen are still functioning fine, and the issue is limited to touch input.D. Gyroscope is unrelated to the screen or touch functionality, as it is responsible for detecting orientation and motion, not input or display.
A security team at a company discovers that malware is moving from one guest OS to another VM in attempts to interact with the hypervisor. What security issue is occurring? A.Escape B.Extension C.Intrusion D.Sprawl
A. Escape Escape occurs when malware in a virtual machine (VM) attempts to break out of the isolated environment (guest OS) and interact with the hypervisor or other VMs. This is a significant security concern in virtualized environments, as it compromises the isolation between virtual machines. B. Extension is not related to this context. C. Intrusion generally refers to unauthorized access, but not specifically to the scenario of malware interacting with the hypervisor. D. Sprawl refers to the uncontrolled proliferation of virtual machines, which can lead to management issues, but it is not relevant to malware behavior. Thus, escape is the correct term for this security issue.
A technician troubleshoots wired connectivity issues with a device. What should the technician check first to resolve a no connectivity issue? A.Ethernet cable B.Network interface card (NIC) C.Wall port D.Wi-Fi adapter
A. Ethernet cable When troubleshooting wired connectivity issues, the Ethernet cable is the first thing a technician should check. A damaged, loose, or disconnected cable can be the cause of a no-connectivity issue. Ensuring that the Ethernet cable is properly connected and functioning is a basic and critical first step in resolving the issue. B. Network interface card (NIC) is important but should be checked after confirming that the cable is functional. C. Wall port could be the issue, but checking the cable first is simpler and faster. D. Wi-Fi adapter is irrelevant to wired connectivity issues. Thus, Ethernet cable is the first component to check in wired connectivity troubleshooting.
A technician that is new to 3D printers needs to call service for a malfunctioning printer. The technician explains that the problem is with what looks to be a print-head. Which component does the tech report as a problem? A.Extruder B.Motion control C.Build plate D.Bed
A. Extruder In a 3D printer, the extruder is the component responsible for feeding the filament and pushing it through the heated nozzle (print head) to create the 3D print. If the technician is referring to a print-head issue, the extruder is likely the problem. Motion control refers to the system that moves the print head or build plate. Build plate and bed are typically the surface where the printed object is formed, but they are not part of the print head.
A company realizes that it needs to implement a management solution for mobile phones. Which solution is specific to the restriction of apps installed from a device's app store? A.MAM B.EMM C.MDM D.BYOD
A. MAM (Mobile Application Management) Mobile Application Management (MAM) specifically focuses on managing and restricting the use of applications on mobile devices. It allows administrators to control which apps can be installed or used on a device, including restrictions on apps from an app store. B. EMM (Enterprise Mobility Management) is a broader solution that includes MAM along with other services, like device management and security. C. MDM (Mobile Device Management) manages the overall device, including hardware, settings, and security, but it doesn't focus solely on app management. D. BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) is a policy where employees use their personal devices for work but isn't a management solution itself. Thus, MAM is the best solution for restricting apps installed from a device's app store.
A college campus is spread throughout an entire city. There is a plan to upgrade the connectivity to all buildings for increased speed. What type do engineers upgrade to? A.MAN B.WAN C.LAN D.PAN
A. MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) A MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) is designed to provide high-speed connectivity across a city or a large geographical area, making it suitable for a college campus that is spread throughout an entire city. It bridges multiple LANs within the city, offering faster data transfer between different buildings or locations. WAN (Wide Area Network) covers a much larger geographical area, such as multiple cities or countries. LAN (Local Area Network) is limited to a smaller geographic area like a single building or campus. PAN (Personal Area Network) is for short-range connections between personal devices, such as Bluetooth. In this case, a MAN is the most appropriate choice for upgrading connectivity across a city-wide campus.
Non-volatile storage devices hold data when the system is powered off. These devices are also referred to as mass storage. What are the three types of technologies that mass storage devices use? (Select all that apply.) A.Magnetic B.Optical C.RAM D.Solid-state
A. Magnetic B. Optical D. Solid-state These are the three types of technologies used by mass storage devices: Magnetic: Used in devices like hard disk drives (HDDs), where data is stored on magnetic platters. Optical: Used in devices like CDs, DVDs, and Blu-ray discs, where data is stored using lasers to read and write on optical media. Solid-state: Used in devices like solid-state drives (SSDs), where data is stored on flash memory chips. C. RAM is volatile memory, meaning it does not retain data when the system is powered off, so it is not considered mass storage.
A data scientist needs to run complex algorithms and machine learning programs that require a significant amount of computing power. The scientist tells the company's IT pro that their current computer is too slow and their data is backed up daily. What RAID configuration would be best for the data scientist where they don't need redundancy? A.RAID 0 B.RAID 1 C.RAID 5 D.RAID 10
A. RAID 0 RAID 0 is the best option for the data scientist because it offers increased speed and performance by striping data across multiple drives. However, it does not provide redundancy, meaning if a drive fails, the data is lost. Since the data is backed up daily and redundancy is not a concern, RAID 0 is ideal for maximizing performance for tasks like running complex algorithms and machine learning programs. The other RAID configurations (RAID 1, RAID 5, RAID 10) provide redundancy, but they are not necessary in this case since the user doesn't require it.
A computer has three disk drives. Which of the following RAID configurations will most likely be used with such a setup? (Select all that apply.) A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10
A. RAID 0 C. RAID 5 RAID 0: Requires at least two drives and can be used with three drives. It offers improved performance by striping data across all disks but provides no redundancy. RAID 5: Requires a minimum of three drives and provides redundancy by striping data and parity across the drives, offering fault tolerance in case one drive fails. RAID 1 typically requires two drives and mirrors data but does not benefit from a three-drive setup. RAID 10 requires a minimum of four drives, so it cannot be implemented with only three drives.
An engineer configures 6 disks in a workstation to be part of a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) volume where one-sixth of the space on each disk will be used for parity. Which RAID type does the engineer implement? A.5 B.0 C.1 D.10
A. RAID 5 Correct Option Explanation: RAID 5 uses striping with distributed parity. This means data and parity information are distributed across all the disks. The parity information allows for recovery in case of a single disk failure. With RAID 5, the equivalent of one disk's worth of space is used for parity across all disks in the array. In the context of the question, where one-sixth of the space on each disk is used for parity, RAID 5 is the correct type because it distributes parity across all disks, providing both redundancy and improved performance. Why the other options are incorrect: B. RAID 0: This RAID level does not use parity or redundancy; it stripes data across all disks to improve performance, but offers no fault tolerance. C. RAID 1: This RAID level mirrors data across disks for redundancy but does not use parity. Each disk contains an exact copy of the data. D. RAID 10: This RAID level combines RAID 1 (mirroring) and RAID 0 (striping). It mirrors data across pairs of disks and then stripes across those pairs. It does not use parity; instead, it uses mirroring for redundancy.
Which cloud characteristic handles changes in demand requirements in real time? A.Rapid elasticity B.Scalability C.High availability D.Metered utilization
A. Rapid elasticity Rapid elasticity is the cloud characteristic that handles changes in demand requirements in real time. It allows cloud resources to automatically expand or contract based on current needs, ensuring that the system can scale up or down as required without manual intervention. B. Scalability refers to the ability to grow or shrink resources over time but does not necessarily happen in real time. C. High availability ensures that cloud services are continuously operational with minimal downtime but doesn't specifically address handling demand changes in real time. D. Metered utilization refers to tracking and billing based on the actual usage of resources but isn't related to dynamic resource adjustment. Thus, rapid elasticity is the correct characteristic that handles real-time changes in demand.
A critical system is set to use secure boot. What properties are characteristic of the secure boot process? (Select all that apply.) A.The firmware is configured with cryptographic keys. B.The operating system boot loader is digitally signed. C.The microprocessor is hard coded with a unique key. D.It can be managed through the operating system.
A. The firmware is configured with cryptographic keys. B. The operating system boot loader is digitally signed. Secure Boot works by ensuring that only software that has been signed with a trusted key can be executed during the boot process. This involves configuring the firmware (such as UEFI) with cryptographic keys to verify the signatures of boot loaders and other critical components. C. The microprocessor is not typically hard coded with a unique key for Secure Boot. Instead, keys are managed and used by the firmware. D. Secure Boot is managed through the firmware (UEFI) settings, not directly through the operating system.
An engineer configures a workstation for development testing by using virtualization. The engineer chooses to use a type 1 hypervisor. Which statements describe the environment? (Select all that apply.) A.The hypervisor is a part of a bare-metal platform. B.The hypervisor is installed within an OS. C.The hypervisor is host-based. D.The hypervisor is managing access to the host hardware directly.
A. The hypervisor is a part of a bare-metal platform. D. The hypervisor is managing access to the host hardware directly. A Type 1 hypervisor (also known as a bare-metal hypervisor) runs directly on the physical hardware, without the need for an underlying operating system. It manages access to the hardware directly, which provides better performance and efficiency compared to a Type 2 hypervisor. B. The hypervisor is installed within an OS and C. The hypervisor is host-based describe a Type 2 hypervisor, which requires an operating system to run and is less efficient for virtualization.
A printer technician troubleshoots a laser printer and determines that the exposing stage of the print job is the issue with print jobs printing incorrectly. What does the technician suspect is happening? A.The imaging drum is not properly losing its charge. B.The OS driver is improperly encoding the page in a page description language. C.The imaging drum is not being conditioned by the primary charge roller. D.The toner is not being fed evenly onto a magnetized developer roller.
A. The imaging drum is not properly losing its charge. In the exposing stage of the laser printing process, the laser writes the image onto the imaging drum by selectively discharging areas of the drum where the toner will be applied. If the imaging drum is not properly losing its charge during this stage, it can result in incorrect or incomplete print jobs. B. The OS driver is improperly encoding the page in a page description language refers to an issue with the printer driver, which would affect how the data is processed before it reaches the printer, not during the exposing stage. C. The imaging drum is not being conditioned by the primary charge roller would be an issue with the charging stage, not the exposing stage. D. The toner is not being fed evenly onto a magnetized developer roller refers to an issue with the developing stage, not the exposing stage. Thus, the imaging drum not properly losing its charge is the issue during the exposing stage.
A hardware technician replaces the central processing unit (CPU) on an Advanced Micro Devices (AMD) motherboard. What must be applied when connecting the heat sink to the CPU? A.Thermal grease B.Locking lever C.CPU socket D.PIN grid array (PGA)
A. Thermal grease Thermal grease, also known as thermal paste or thermal compound, must be applied between the CPU and the heat sink to ensure proper heat transfer from the CPU to the heat sink. This prevents the CPU from overheating by improving thermal conductivity. B. Locking lever is used to secure the CPU in the socket, but it doesn't relate to the connection of the heat sink. C. CPU socket is where the CPU is placed, but it does not involve the heat sink connection. D. PIN grid array (PGA) refers to the physical arrangement of the pins on the underside of the CPU, which connects to the socket, but it doesn't involve the heat sink. Thus, thermal grease is required when attaching the heat sink to the CPU.
An organization conducts a weekly video conference from its home office to its field locations. Recently, employees at the field locations have been complaining of poor audio and video quality. Which protocol does an engineer monitor for performance issues? A.UDP B.TCP C.IP D.MAC
A. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) Video and audio conferencing typically use UDP because it is faster and more efficient for real-time communication, as it does not require the retransmission of lost packets like TCP. Monitoring UDP for performance issues is essential, as packet loss, latency, or jitter can affect the quality of audio and video during the video conference.
A technician plugs a USB device into a computer and notices that the speeds are slightly less than expected. The USB port and device are USB 3.x devices, and the achieved speed is roughly 9 Gbps. What USB standard is in use? A.USB 3.2 Gen 2x1 B.USB 3.2 Gen 1 C.USB 3.2 Gen 2x2 D.USB 2.0
A. USB 3.2 Gen 2x1 USB 3.2 Gen 2x1 supports speeds of up to 10 Gbps, which is close to the 9 Gbps observed in the scenario. USB 3.2 Gen 1 supports up to 5 Gbps. USB 3.2 Gen 2x2 supports up to 20 Gbps. USB 2.0 supports much lower speeds, up to 480 Mbps.
Engineers need to share data between the team's laptop devices that are located in the same office space. The speed needs to be at least 50 Mbps. Which technology do the engineers use? A.Wi-Fi B.Bluetooth C.CDMA D.NFC
A. Wi-Fi Wi-Fi provides the necessary speed (well above 50 Mbps) for sharing data between devices in the same office space. Bluetooth and NFC have much lower maximum data transfer speeds, and CDMA is a mobile communication technology not suited for local data sharing between devices in an office.
A manufacturing firm uses an older Windows NT computer to operate a unique piece of machinery. To support such a legacy system on the network, what common port settings are enabled for communications? A.3389 RDP B.137-139 NETBIOS C.161 SNMP D.389 LDAP
B. 137-139 NETBIOS NETBIOS over TCP/IP, using ports 137-139, is commonly used in older systems like Windows NT for network communication, including file and printer sharing. These ports are essential for legacy systems that rely on older network protocols. 3389 RDP is for Remote Desktop Protocol, which is not typical for older systems like Windows NT. 161 SNMP is used for network management, not general communication. 389 LDAP is used for directory services, not for the typical network communication needed for a legacy system like Windows NT. Therefore, NETBIOS (ports 137-139) is the most appropriate setting for supporting communication on a network with a legacy Windows NT system.
A laptop technician in a large corporation needs to upgrade the hard drives on employee laptops. Currently, the laptops have standard 5400 rpm 500 Gb magnetic drives. The technician needs to know what physical drive size to order. What is the normal size for a laptop magnetic drive? A.3.5 in. B.2.5 in. C.1.8 in. D.80 mm
B. 2.5 in. The standard physical size for a laptop magnetic drive is 2.5 inches. This form factor is commonly used for both traditional magnetic hard drives (HDDs) and solid-state drives (SSDs) in laptops. A. 3.5 in. is typically used for desktop hard drives. C. 1.8 in. drives were used in some ultraportable devices but are less common today. D. 80 mm refers to a different dimension, not typically used to describe hard drives. Thus, 2.5 inches is the correct size for laptop hard drives.
An engineer plans a new wired infrastructure rollout that will support wireless capabilities. For this rollout, the cable length is approximately 328 feet and includes the incorporation of access points that supplies 48V of power around 13 watts. Which specific IEEE standard does the engineer implement? A.802.3at B.802.3af C.802.3bt D.802.3
B. 802.3af
A company plans on live streaming a company-wide meeting once a month. Engineers prepare network equipment to allow the traffic. Which protocol is normally used for such a task? A.TCP B.IP C.DHCP D.UDP
D. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) UDP is preferred for live streaming because it allows for faster transmission of data with lower latency compared to TCP. While it does not guarantee delivery, it is often used in scenarios where speed is more critical than reliability, such as live video and audio streaming.
A user's computer powers on, but it does not pass the power on self-test (POST) and there is no display on the monitor. The IT specialist starts with the POST issue. Which of the following troubleshooting tests are appropriate in this situation? (Select all that apply.) A.Check power management with ACPI. B.Check for faulty devices by removing one device at a time to see if this fixes the problem. C.Check for faulty devices by removing all non-essential devices, then adding them back one at a time. D.Check for a faulty CPU.
B. Check for faulty devices by removing one device at a time to see if this fixes the problem. C. Check for faulty devices by removing all non-essential devices, then adding them back one at a time. D. Check for a faulty CPU. Reasons: B and C: These are common troubleshooting methods when a computer fails to pass the POST. By either removing devices one at a time or removing all non-essential devices and adding them back incrementally, you can isolate the faulty component causing the POST failure. D: Although a faulty CPU is less common, it can cause the system to fail to pass POST. Verifying that the CPU is functioning properly or reseating it might help. A. Check power management with ACPI is not directly related to POST issues. ACPI (Advanced Configuration and Power Interface) manages power states, but it wouldn't be the first point of investigation for a POST failure.
A user's monitor displays a distortedly large image. To fix the resolution problem, the IT specialist performs which software troubleshooting steps? (Select all that apply.) A. Use the OSD to check configuration settings on the graphics card. B. Check the configuration of the video card. C. Update the video card driver. D. Check that the monitor is powered on.
B. Check the configuration of the video card. C. Update the video card driver. Check the configuration of the video card: Ensuring the video card settings, including screen resolution and scaling, are correctly configured can resolve issues with large, distorted images. Update the video card driver: An outdated or corrupted video card driver may cause display issues. Updating it can often resolve resolution problems. Incorrect answers: A. Use the OSD (On-Screen Display) refers to adjusting the monitor's settings, but this typically doesn't address resolution issues caused by the system's software or hardware configuration. D. Check that the monitor is powered on is not relevant here since the issue is with the image size, not the monitor being off.
What service provides on-demand resources like server instances, file storage, databases, or applications over a network? A.Software-defined networking (SDN) B.Cloud computing C.Local area network (LAN) D.Software as a service (SaaS)
B. Cloud computing Cloud computing provides on-demand resources such as server instances, file storage, databases, and applications over a network (typically the internet). It allows organizations to access these resources remotely without needing to manage physical hardware. While SaaS (Software as a Service) is a part of cloud computing, it specifically refers to software applications delivered over the internet, not the broader category of on-demand resources like servers and storage.
A user contacts a printer technician to report that every print job sent to a laser printer has lines of toner in the same location on every page that is printed. The user checked the feed rollers for the technician and reported that they were clean. What does the technician thus suggest may need cleaning or replacing? A. Toner B. Drum C. Fuser D. Pins
B. Drum
What is a class of management software designed to apply security policies to the use of mobile devices and apps in the enterprise? A.Internet Mail Access Protocol (IMAP) B.Enterprise Mobility Management (EMM) C.Two-factor authentication (2FA) D.Mobile device synchronization (sync)
B. Enterprise Mobility Management (EMM) Enterprise Mobility Management (EMM) is a class of management software designed to apply security policies to the use of mobile devices and applications within an enterprise. EMM solutions help manage device security, app usage, and data protection across mobile devices. A. Internet Mail Access Protocol (IMAP) is used for accessing email but is not related to mobile device management. C. Two-factor authentication (2FA) is a security mechanism that adds an additional layer of authentication but is not a complete management solution. D. Mobile device synchronization (sync) refers to keeping data consistent across devices but is not a management or security policy tool. Thus, EMM is the appropriate answer for managing mobile devices and applying security policies.
A support firm installs and configures network access control systems for organizations. This includes implementing the security mechanisms for local and remote computers to authenticate with an internal server system. An unmanaged switch is put in place on the edge of the network to protect the server and protect against unauthorized traffic. What role does the switch play in the implementation? A. Supplicant B. Network Access Point C. AAA D. RADIUS
B. Network Access Point In this scenario, the unmanaged switch serves as a Network Access Point within the network access control (NAC) system. While unmanaged switches typically don't perform advanced network security functions themselves, in a NAC environment, they serve as the access point where devices connect to the network. Security mechanisms such as RADIUS or AAA are typically used alongside the switch for authentication and authorization. A. Supplicant refers to the device or user requesting access to the network. C. AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) is a framework used for controlling access, but the switch itself is not directly AAA. D. RADIUS is a protocol used for authentication and authorization but is not the role of the switch itself in this case.
After identifying the problem with a user's computer and collecting detailed information from the user about the problem, a technician believes they know the cause. However, when testing this theory, the technician discovers they were wrong and may not be capable of resolving the issue. What are some appropriate troubleshooting steps for the technician to try next? (Select all that apply.) A.Back up the computer. B.Escalate. C.Develop a new theory. D.Ask colleagues if any changes have been made to the network infrastructure.
B. Escalate.If the technician is unable to resolve the issue, escalating the problem to a higher level of support or a specialist may be necessary. C. Develop a new theory.The technician should form a new hypothesis based on the information gathered and the results of the testing. If the technician believes the problem is now beyond their ability to solve, they should escalate it through the proper channel. After discovering the initial probable cause theory was wrong, the technician should develop a new theory based on what is known about the problem combined with what is now known not to work. If the technician believes their initial theory was the only solution within their skill set, they should escalate the problem. Backing up the computer should have occurred before the technician tested their probable cause theory. Asking colleagues about changes to network infrastructure should have occurred while gathering information. This is before developing an initial probable cause theory.
An engineer troubleshooting a network connection identifies a port flapping problem. What should the engineer investigate as a possible cause? (Select all that apply.) A. VLAN Assignment B. Ethernet cable C. NIC port D. Switch port
B. Ethernet cable C. NIC port D. Switch port Port flapping occurs when a network device repeatedly connects and disconnects, often caused by issues like faulty hardware or cabling. The engineer should investigate the following: Ethernet cable: A damaged or poorly connected cable can cause intermittent connectivity. NIC port: A faulty network interface card (NIC) can cause the connection to drop. Switch port: A malfunctioning or misconfigured switch port can also result in port flapping. VLAN assignment (option A) is less likely to cause port flapping, as it deals with network segmentation rather than physical connection stability.
A technician installs memory into a computer that supports a multi-channel configuration. A 4GB module is placed in bank A1 and a 12GB module is placed in bank B1. A diagnostic tool reports that 16GB is useable, but not as multi-channel. What mode does the system use in making all of the memory available? A.Single-channel B.Flex C.Dual-channel D.ECC
B. Flex Flex mode is a hybrid memory configuration used when memory modules of different sizes are installed in a system that supports multi-channel memory. In this case, the system uses the matching portions of the memory (4GB from each module) in dual-channel mode, while the remaining portion (8GB from the larger module) operates in single-channel mode. This allows the system to utilize all the available memory, but not fully in multi-channel mode. A. Single-channel refers to all memory running in a single-channel configuration, which is not the case here since part of the memory can run in dual-channel. C. Dual-channel only works when memory modules of equal sizes are installed. D. ECC (Error-Correcting Code) is a type of memory that detects and corrects data corruption but is unrelated to multi-channel configurations. Therefore, the system is using flex mode to make all the memory available.
An employee at an organization requests a laptop upgrade. The request is for a laptop that is extremely lightweight. There is also a requirement for the fastest speeds possible in order to demo the company's software to potential clients. With these requirements in mind, which drive type should the laptop have? A.mSATA B.M.2 C.2.5" HDD D.1.8" HDD
B. M.2 M.2 drives are extremely lightweight, compact, and offer the fastest speeds compared to other storage options, making them ideal for a laptop that needs to be both lightweight and fast. M.2 SSDs take advantage of the PCIe bus, providing significantly higher performance than traditional hard drives or older SSD interfaces. A. mSATA is an older, slower SSD interface compared to M.2. C. 2.5" HDD and D. 1.8" HDD are traditional hard drives, which are heavier and much slower than SSDs, particularly M.2 SSDs. Therefore, M.2 is the best choice to meet the employee's requirements for both speed and lightweight design.
A company places restrictions on the specific components and ports of mobile devices. This includes USB ports and cameras. Which specific enterprise management solution does the company deploy for this purpose? A.MAM B.MDM C.EMM D.SYNC
B. MDM (Mobile Device Management) Mobile Device Management (MDM) is an enterprise solution that allows a company to manage, control, and restrict specific components and features of mobile devices, such as USB ports, cameras, and other device functionalities. MDM provides administrators with tools to enforce security policies, manage device settings, and control access to certain features. MAM (Mobile Application Management) focuses on managing and securing applications on mobile devices. EMM (Enterprise Mobility Management) is a broader solution that includes MDM along with other services like application management and content management. SYNC refers to data synchronization, not device management.
Which type of virtualization refers to any solution designed to run on ordinary desktops or workstations? A. Server-side virtualization B. Application virtualization C. Container virtualization D. Client-side virtualization
D. Client-side virtualization Client-side virtualization refers to virtualization solutions that run on ordinary desktops or workstations. It allows users to run multiple operating systems or virtual environments on their local machines, which is ideal for testing, development, or running isolated environments without needing a dedicated server. Server-side virtualization, application virtualization, and container virtualization serve different purposes and are typically used in more complex or enterprise environments.
A college would like to implement a secured print solution so that print jobs do not arrive at a printer until the printer is physically interacted with. This will help prevent students from potentially picking up faculty print jobs. Which two physical security solutions does the IT department consider to accomplish this? (Select all that apply.) A.Driver B.PIN code C.Badging D.Permissions
B. PIN code C. Badging B. PIN code: This solution requires the user to enter a PIN at the printer before the print job is released, ensuring that only the person who initiated the print job can retrieve it. C. Badging: A badge or access card can be used to authenticate the user at the printer before releasing the print job, providing a secure way to prevent unauthorized access to printed materials. A. Driver and D. Permissions are not physical security solutions. While permissions may control access at the software level, PIN codes and badging provide the physical interaction required for the secure print solution.
A systems administrator looks to control HTTP requests from client computers based on the time of day. What type of service does the administrator deploy when configuring clients in a non-transparent manner? A.Load balancer B.Proxy server C.Unified threat management D.Embedded system
B. Proxy server A proxy server can be configured to control HTTP requests from client computers based on various factors, including the time of day. In a non-transparent proxy setup, clients are explicitly aware of the proxy's presence and must be configured to use it. The proxy server can enforce policies such as restricting web access during specific hours. A. Load balancer distributes network traffic across multiple servers but does not control HTTP requests based on time. C. Unified threat management (UTM) provides security services like firewalls and intrusion prevention, but it is not specifically for managing HTTP requests based on time. D. Embedded system refers to a specialized computing system within a device, which is not relevant for controlling HTTP traffic. Thus, a proxy server is the correct choice for controlling HTTP requests based on the time of day.
A large technical firm deploys a cloud service. The service offers cloud storage along with web development capabilities. What deployment model does the firm utilize when a multi-tiered subscription option is available to the general consumers? A.Private B.Public C.Hybrid D.Community
B. Public A public cloud deployment model offers cloud services (such as storage and web development capabilities) to the general public, often with multi-tiered subscription options based on different levels of service. These services are available to anyone who wants to use them, making this the most appropriate model for general consumer access. A. Private cloud is used exclusively by one organization and is not available to the public. C. Hybrid cloud combines both private and public cloud models but doesn't fit the description of a service available to general consumers. D. Community cloud is shared by several organizations with common interests or requirements, not by the general public. Thus, the public cloud deployment model is the correct choice for a service available to general consumers with multi-tiered subscription options.
An engineer plans a fiber cable implementation between two campus buildings about 30 kilometers apart. Due to the distance between the locations, the engineer selects single-mode fiber. What specifications does the engineer need to consider with this decision? A. Large core, long distances, short wavelength B. Small core, long distances, long wavelength C. Large core, short distances, long wavelength D. Small core, short distances, short wavelength
B. Small core, long distances, long wavelength Single-mode fiber uses a small core and is designed for long-distance communication (up to several kilometers or more). It typically operates with longer wavelengths of light (such as 1310 nm or 1550 nm), which helps reduce signal loss over long distances. This makes it ideal for the 30-kilometer span between the two buildings in this scenario. Multimode fiber, on the other hand, uses a larger core and is suitable for shorter distances.
A new computer experiences a malfunction with a touch input device. A support engineer disassembles the computer to diagnose the problem. While troubleshooting, which component would the technician find has a 9-pin header on the motherboard? A.Power button B. USB port C. Drive activity light D. PSU main motherboard power
B. USB port A 9-pin header on the motherboard is typically used for internal USB connections, such as front-panel USB ports. Other components like the power button or drive activity light typically use smaller pin headers, while the PSU (Power Supply Unit) uses larger power connectors, not 9-pin headers.
A developer asks the IT department if virtualization would be possible to test software in a sandboxed environment. The developer's workstation runs Windows 10, the central processing unit (CPU) has virtualization technology enabled, and has plenty of resources for virtual machines. Which Type 2 hypervisor does the IT staff install? A. Parallels Workstation B. VMWare Workstation C. VMWare ESXi D. Microsoft Hyper-V
B. VMWare Workstation VMWare Workstation is a Type 2 hypervisor, which runs on top of a host operating system like Windows 10. It allows developers to create and run virtual machines in a sandboxed environment, making it ideal for testing software. Parallels Workstation is primarily used for macOS. VMWare ESXi is a Type 1 hypervisor, which runs directly on hardware without a host OS. Microsoft Hyper-V can function as both Type 1 and Type 2, but it is more commonly used as a Type 1 hypervisor in enterprise environments, though it can be used on Windows 10. However, VMWare Workstation is a more common choice for individual developers on Windows.
If there is not enough system Random Access Memory (RAM), the memory space can be extended by using disk storage as a page file or swap space. What is this combination of addressable memory called? A.ECC RAM B.Virtual RAM C.Address space D.Dual-channel memory controller
B. Virtual RAM When the system's physical Random Access Memory (RAM) is insufficient, the operating system can use a portion of disk storage as virtual RAM (also known as swap space or a page file). This allows the system to extend its addressable memory by using disk storage, although it's slower than physical RAM. A. ECC RAM refers to Error-Correcting Code RAM, which is used to detect and correct data corruption. C. Address space refers to the range of memory addresses that the system can use but does not specifically involve using disk storage as extended memory. D. Dual-channel memory controller refers to a memory configuration that improves performance by accessing two memory modules simultaneously but is unrelated to virtual memory. Thus, the combination of RAM and disk storage for extended memory is called virtual RAM.
How many binary digits are found within a media access control (MAC) address? A.32 B.12 C.48 D.16
C. 48
A user states that a smartphone with a Li-ion battery does not hold a charge for as long as it did in the past and seems to charge slowly after replacing a lost adapter. The change was noticed over the last few months. What could be the cause? (Select all that apply.) A. Swelling B. Battery type C. Aging battery D. Aftermarket AC Adapter
C. Aging battery D. Aftermarket AC Adapter Aging battery: Lithium-ion batteries degrade over time, and their ability to hold a charge diminishes as they age. This could explain why the smartphone doesn't hold a charge for as long as it used to. Aftermarket AC Adapter: Using a non-original or low-quality aftermarket AC adapter could cause slower charging, as it may not provide the correct voltage or amperage needed for optimal charging. Swelling would indicate a physical defect or damage to the battery, but it's not necessarily linked to the symptoms of slow charging or reduced charge capacity unless there are visible signs of damage. Battery type is not relevant here because the battery type (Li-ion) is already identified, and the issue is related to aging or incorrect charging equipment.
A company implements a new wireless Infrastructure. During the installation, an engineer adjusts the signal of all antennas for optimal performance. Which setting does the engineer use to measure dBi? A.Transmit power B.Effective isotropic radiated power C.Antenna gain D.Frequency band
C. Antenna gain dBi (decibel isotropic) is a unit of measurement used to express the gain of an antenna relative to an isotropic radiator (a theoretical point source that radiates equally in all directions). Antenna gain refers to how well the antenna focuses energy in a particular direction. A. Transmit power refers to the strength of the signal being sent from the antenna, but it's not measured in dBi. B. Effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) is a calculation that includes both the transmit power and the antenna gain, but dBi specifically measures antenna gain. D. Frequency band refers to the range of frequencies the wireless system operates on and is not measured in dBi. Thus, antenna gain is the setting associated with dBi.
Systems administrators deploy a virtualization solution that separates host resources for each instance that is running at the operating system level. Which solution is running? A.Type 1 hypervisor B.Type 2 hypervisor C.Container D.VM
C. Container Containers are a virtualization solution that runs at the operating system level, isolating applications and their dependencies into individual instances while sharing the host OS kernel. Containers are lightweight compared to virtual machines and are ideal for running multiple isolated applications on the same OS. A. Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on hardware (bare-metal) and manages virtual machines. B. Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of a host OS and manages virtual machines. D. VM (Virtual Machine) refers to a full virtualized instance managed by a hypervisor, typically requiring its own guest OS. Therefore, containers best match the description of isolating resources at the OS level.
An organization looks to harden email services. The systems administrator uses every possible option to help prevent SPAM and other anomalies. During the final stages of configuration, the systems administrator creates a policy within the Domain Name System (DNS) to handle authentication failures. What is being configured? A.MX B.SPF C.DMARC D.DKIM
C. DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance) DMARC is a policy and reporting protocol that works alongside SPF (Sender Policy Framework) and DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail) to provide email authentication. It enables domain owners to define a policy on how to handle emails that fail SPF or DKIM checks, helping to prevent SPAM, phishing, and other email-based attacks. DMARC also provides reporting features to help domain owners monitor and adjust their email authentication policies. MX is related to mail server records, and SPF and DKIM are authentication mechanisms, but DMARC specifically handles the policy for dealing with authentication failures.
A user tries to connect a second monitor to a computer. The computer has an available digital visual interface (DVI) connector and the monitor has a video graphics array (VGA) connector. After some consideration, a technician decides upon a solution that supports both analog and digital outputs. Which type of cable does the technician recommmend? A.DVI-D B.DVI-A C.DVI-I D.USB-C
C. DVI-I (Digital Visual Interface - Integrated) DVI-I supports both analog and digital signals, making it the ideal solution when connecting a DVI port on the computer to a VGA monitor, which requires an analog signal. A. DVI-D supports only digital signals. B. DVI-A supports only analog signals. D. USB-C is a completely different connector type and not relevant for this DVI-to-VGA setup. Thus, DVI-I is the best choice as it supports both analog (VGA) and digital outputs.
When upgrading the RAM on multiple standardized laptops, what is the most important factor to consider to ensure compatibility with the existing hardware? A.Size of pins B.HDD size C.AC adapter power rating D.DDR version
D. DDR version The DDR (Double Data Rate) version of the RAM (e.g., DDR3, DDR4, DDR5) must match the version supported by the laptop's motherboard. Using a RAM module with a different DDR version can lead to incompatibility issues. The other options (size of pins, HDD size, and AC adapter power rating) are not directly related to RAM compatibility.
Which of the following solutions can mitigate debris reaching components and address occasional overheating in a system that's positioned safely away from other objects by facilitating airflow to cool down the internal components? (Select all that apply.) A. Add more RAM B. Check the motherboard C. Install a new system fan D. Use blanking plates
C. Install a new system fan D. Use blanking plates Install a new system fan: Adding additional fans or replacing existing ones can help improve airflow and cool down internal components, mitigating overheating. Use blanking plates: Blanking plates cover unused slots on the case, which can help improve airflow by directing it more efficiently across components and preventing debris from entering. Add more RAM and Check the motherboard do not directly address airflow or overheating issues. Adding more RAM could improve system performance, but it doesn't mitigate overheating caused by poor airflow. Checking the motherboard might be useful for diagnosing other hardware issues but doesn't directly impact cooling.
A systems administrator is wanting to use a process in which the TCP/IP protocol is used to query and update an X.500 directory. What can be used to accomplish this task? A.POP3 B.IMAP C.LDAP D.SMTP
C. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) LDAP is used to query and update directory services that are based on the X.500 standard over a TCP/IP network. It allows access to distributed directory information, such as user data and network resource information. POP3, IMAP, and SMTP are protocols used for email communication, not for interacting with directory services.
A network administrator adds several network printers to a business network. Users can install the printers easily by browsing resources that are available for use. Which protocol enables the ability for the printer to have an automatically populated address book? A.NAS B.AAA C.LDAP D.SSO
C. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) LDAP is used for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services, such as an automatically populated address book for network printers. It allows the printer to retrieve user information, such as email addresses, from a directory service like Active Directory, making it easier for users to access shared network resources like printers. NAS, AAA, and SSO serve different purposes, such as storage access and authentication, but are not related to directory services for address book population.
A remote facility cannot utilize a wired internet connection for a short period. When relying on a wireless solution, the company uses a technology that must be provisioned with a motor so it can periodically realign with the array. Which internet access technology is in use? A.Geostationary orbital satellite internet access B.Wireless internet service provider C.Low Earth orbital satellite internet access D.Global System for Mobile Communication
C. Low Earth Orbital (LEO) satellite internet access Low Earth Orbital satellite internet access requires antennas to periodically realign with the satellite array because the satellites are in lower orbits and move relative to the Earth's surface. This necessitates motorized tracking systems to maintain a consistent connection. A. Geostationary orbital satellite internet access does not require realignment, as geostationary satellites remain in a fixed position relative to the Earth's surface. B. Wireless internet service provider (WISP) typically relies on fixed antennas and does not require motors for realignment. D. Global System for Mobile Communication (GSM) refers to cellular technology and does not involve satellite tracking or realignment.
A user complains that a computer is too slow when opening numerous applications. A technician suggests purchasing a new computer that features CMP capabilities to handle the user's workload. Which statement describes the technician's suggestion? A. A single execution unit and set of registers for processes B. A multi-socket motherboard for multiple CPUs C. Multiple processing cores combined in the same package D. Multiple parallel thread capability within a process
C. Multiple processing cores combined in the same package CMP (Chip Multiprocessing) refers to a technology where multiple processing cores are combined into a single processor package. This allows a CPU to handle multiple tasks more efficiently by distributing workloads across several cores, which improves performance, especially when running numerous applications simultaneously. A. A single execution unit and set of registers for processes refers to a single-core processor, which doesn't align with CMP capabilities. B. A multi-socket motherboard for multiple CPUs involves using multiple physical CPUs, not multiple cores within the same CPU. D. Multiple parallel thread capability within a process refers to multithreading, not specifically CMP. Therefore, multiple processing cores combined in the same package best describes the CMP suggestion.
A technician is managing configuration settings in Windows for a LaserJet printer from the printer's properties dialog box. Among the following options, which one is NOT commonly found in the properties dialog box? A.Sharing and permissions B.Printing to a different port C.Print in color or black and white D.Configuring different feed trays
C. Print in color or black and white In Windows, there are two main configuration dialogs for a local printer: printer properties and printing preferences. In contrast to the properties dialog box, the preferences dialog sets the default print job options, such as finishing options or whether to print in color or black and white. A printer's properties dialog allows you to manage configuration settings for the printer object and the underlying hardware, such as updating the driver and printing to a different port. A sharing and permissions option is commonly found on a Windows printer properties dialog box. Device settings to configure default paper types for different feed trays can be found in a printer properties dialog
A company considers moving its infrastructure to the cloud. Management emphasizes the need to handle changes in resource usage in real-time. Which feature fulfills this need? A.Shared resources B.High availability C.Rapid elasticity D.Scalability
C. Rapid elasticity Rapid elasticity is a cloud computing feature that allows resources to be scaled up or down automatically in real-time based on demand. This ensures that the system can handle fluctuations in resource usage efficiently, providing the exact amount of resources needed at any given time. A. Shared resources refers to the cloud's ability to share resources among multiple users or tenants but does not specifically address real-time resource adjustments. B. High availability ensures that services are available with minimal downtime, but it doesn't relate to real-time scaling of resources. D. Scalability refers to the ability to grow resources over time, but rapid elasticity focuses on handling changes in resource usage dynamically and in real time. Thus, rapid elasticity is the feature that meets the need for real-time resource adjustment.
The office laser printer starts printing pages that smudge easily. The IT specialist is proficient in the common printing defects of laser printers and knows what is causing the problem. What will the IT specialist do to fix the problem? A.Clean the blocked ink nozzle. B.Realign the transfer belt. C.Replace the fuser. D.Adjust the platen gap.
C. Replace the fuser. In a laser printer, the fuser is responsible for applying heat and pressure to bond the toner to the paper. If the toner smudges easily, it usually indicates that the fuser is not properly melting and fusing the toner to the paper. Replacing the fuser will resolve this issue. A. Clean the blocked ink nozzle applies to inkjet printers, not laser printers. B. Realign the transfer belt relates to color misalignment or transfer issues, not smudging. D. Adjust the platen gap is related to dot matrix or typewriters, not laser printers. Therefore, replacing the fuser will fix the smudging issue on the laser printer.
Which current USB standard supports 2 x 10 Gbps speeds and uses a USB-C connector type? A.USB 3.2 Gen1 B.USB 3.2 Gen 2x1 C.USB 3.2 Gen 2x2 D.USB 3.1
C. USB 3.2 Gen 2x2 USB 3.2 Gen 2x2 supports a maximum speed of 20 Gbps by utilizing two lanes of 10 Gbps each, and it uses the USB-C connector. Why the other options are incorrect: A. USB 3.2 Gen 1: This standard supports speeds up to 5 Gbps and uses the USB-C connector but does not support 10 Gbps speeds. B. USB 3.2 Gen 2x1: This standard supports a maximum speed of 10 Gbps using a single lane, not 20 Gbps. D. USB 3.1: This standard supports speeds up to 10 Gbps (USB 3.1 Gen 2) but does not support 20 Gbps speeds or the dual-lane configuration of USB 3.2 Gen 2x2.
What is the modern Android-based smartphone and tablet connector for wired peripherals and charging? A.Micro-B USB B.Mini-B C.USB-C D.Lightning
C. USB-C USB-C is the modern connector used in most Android-based smartphones and tablets for charging and connecting wired peripherals. It has become the standard due to its faster data transfer rates, higher power delivery, and reversible design. Micro-B USB and Mini-B are older connectors, and Lightning is used by Apple devices, not Android-based ones.
A computer technician replaces the power supply in a desktop system. To do this, the technician needs to know the output of the current power supply unit (PSU). What is the PSU output capability measured as? A.Voltage B.Power C.Wattage rating D.Efficiency
C. Wattage rating The output capability of a power supply unit (PSU) is measured in wattage, which indicates the total amount of power it can provide to the system's components. The wattage rating helps ensure the PSU can supply enough power for the entire system. Voltage refers to the electrical potential difference, not the overall power output. Power is a general term but is quantified as wattage for PSUs. Efficiency refers to how effectively the PSU converts electrical power from the wall outlet to usable power for the system but does not describe the total output capability.
While troubleshooting a user's computer that has no power, the technician eliminated these possible causes: power supply, processor, cabling, wall socket, and connection issue. Therefore, which of the following could be the problem? A. Faulty CPU B. Corrupted BIOS C. Faulty motherboard D. Corrupted boot sector
C.Faulty motherboard
What issue does the help desk technician suspect is causing a problem of a cursor moving on its own? A.Digitizer B.Swelling C.High Sensitivity D.Overheating
C.High Sensitivity On a laptop, if touchpad sensitivity is too high, typing can cause vibrations that move the cursor. Examples include the pointer drifting across the screen without any input or a "ghost cursor" jumping about when typing. Calibrating the touchpad is a recommended solution. Symptoms such as a touch screen not responding to input could indicate a problem with the digitizer. A swollen battery indicates some sort of problem with the battery's charging circuit, which is supposed to prevent overcharging. If a device is exposed to liquid, this could also have damaged the battery. The compact design of mobile devices makes them vulnerable to overheating. The bottom surface of a laptop becomes hot when improperly ventilated.
A technician builds a spare computer with an older motherboard and purchases a new modular power supply. What type of P1 motherboard connector will the power supply most likely provide? A.9-pin B.20-pin C.8-pin D.20+4-pin
D. 20+4-pin Most modern modular power supplies provide a 20+4-pin P1 connector to ensure compatibility with both older and newer motherboards. Older motherboards typically used a 20-pin connector, while newer ones require a 24-pin connector. The 20+4-pin connector can be used in both types of motherboards by either combining or separating the 4 additional pins. B. 20-pin is used for older motherboards but is not commonly provided on newer power supplies without the extra 4 pins. A. 9-pin and C. 8-pin connectors are typically for auxiliary power or other components, not for the main P1 motherboard connection.
A technician follows a best practice methodology while troubleshooting a problematic computer system. Which of the following options is a consequence of having a problematic computer when considering that problems have causes, symptoms, and consequences? A.The printer is not working properly. B.The internet connection is slow. C.The computer is running low on memory. D.Data required for a meeting is missing.
D. Data required for a meeting is missing. This is a consequence of having a problematic computer system. When a computer has issues, such as system crashes or data loss, it can lead to important data being unavailable for crucial tasks like meetings, which is a direct result of the computer problem. A. The printer is not working properly, B. The internet connection is slow, and C. The computer is running low on memory are more symptoms or causes of computer problems, rather than consequences.
Several users of a shared printer complain that the printer is printing on both sides of a sheet of paper when it should only print on one side. What setting does a technician change? A.Orientation B.Badging C.Quality D.Duplex
D. Duplex Duplex printing refers to printing on both sides of a sheet of paper. If users are experiencing unwanted double-sided printing, the technician should disable or adjust the duplex setting so that the printer only prints on one side of the paper. A. Orientation changes the layout of the print (portrait or landscape). B. Badging is not related to print settings in this context. C. Quality adjusts the print resolution or clarity but does not affect single or double-sided printing.
A support technician helps a user identify a problem with a newly installed application. The user states the application was working the day before. What does the technician do next? A.Test a theory to determine a cause. B.Establish a plan of action. C.Document the findings. D.Establish a theory of probable cause.
D. Establish a theory of probable cause. The technician needs to form a hypothesis about why the application is no longer working, considering recent changes or issues. Once a theory is established, the next steps would typically involve testing this theory (A), establishing a plan of action (B), and documenting the findings (C). However, establishing a theory is the immediate next step after learning about the problem.
A software engineer wants to share a specific set of files with external users to support an upcoming project. What protocol allows a client to upload and download files using encrypted services? A.SMB B.NETBIOS C.HTTP D.FTPS
D. FTPS (File Transfer Protocol Secure) FTPS is an extension of FTP that adds support for encrypted connections using TLS (Transport Layer Security). It allows clients to securely upload and download files. A. SMB (Server Message Block) is a protocol used for file sharing within a network, but it doesn't inherently provide encryption. B. NetBIOS is a protocol used for communication between applications on different computers in a local network but is not used for encrypted file transfer. C. HTTP is used for web browsing and is not designed for file transfers or encryption (without HTTPS).
A printer technician works in a corporate office. Their office has multiple types of printers that require regular maintenance. Which type of printer maintenance includes replacing and properly disposing of a toner print cartridge? A.3-D printer maintenance B. mpact printer Maintenance C. Inkjet printer maintenance D. Laser printer maintenance
D. Laser printer maintenance
A technician plans an upgrade for several company laptops with new internal storage devices. The requirement is that the new devices interface with a PCI Express bus. What type of device does the technician use? A.uSATA B.mSATA C.SATA D.M.2
D. M.2 M.2 storage devices can interface with the PCI Express (PCIe) bus, offering faster data transfer speeds compared to traditional SATA interfaces. M.2 drives are commonly used in modern laptops for internal storage upgrades. A. uSATA, B. mSATA, and C. SATA all use the SATA interface, not PCIe. While these are older types of storage devices, they do not connect via the PCIe bus. Thus, M.2 is the appropriate choice for PCI Express-based storage in laptops.
An organization experiences an internet outage. As fiber is being used, an engineer checks to see if the optical signal is being properly converted to an electrical signal. The router is connected using an RJ45 copper wire patch cord. What does the engineer check? A.OLT B.PoP C.PON D.ONT
D. ONT (Optical Network Terminal) The ONT is responsible for converting the optical signal from the fiber network into an electrical signal that can be used by devices connected via copper cables (such as RJ45 Ethernet cables). In this case, since the router is connected using an RJ45 patch cord, the engineer would check the ONT to ensure proper conversion from fiber to copper. A. OLT (Optical Line Terminal) is located at the service provider's central office and communicates with the ONT at the customer's premises. B. PoP (Point of Presence) refers to a location where different networks interconnect, not directly related to the fiber-to-copper signal conversion. C. PON (Passive Optical Network) is the fiber-optic technology used, but it does not specifically refer to the device that converts optical to electrical signals. Thus, the engineer checks the ONT for proper signal conversion.
A technician needs to repair a laptop. Symptoms are that some keyboard characters are not typing properly and the fingerprint reader is not recognized. What type of component is the technician inspecting? A. SODIMM slot B. M.2 slot C. PCIe card D. Ribbon cables
D. Ribbon cables Ribbon cables are often used to connect components like the keyboard and fingerprint reader to the laptop's motherboard. If some keyboard characters aren't working and the fingerprint reader isn't recognized, it's likely that a loose or damaged ribbon cable is causing the issue. Inspecting and reseating or replacing the ribbon cables would be the appropriate action.
A shared printer handles a lot of print jobs for a medium-sized company. As of late, all users are complaining about the print jobs having a speckled output. What does a printer maintenance technician find to be the problem? A.The fuser needs replacing. B.The feed rollers are dirty. C.The charge roller is dirty. D.Toner is loose in the printer.
D. Toner is loose in the printer. Speckled output on printed pages is typically caused by loose toner inside the printer. When toner leaks or spills, it can result in scattered or speckled marks on the printed output. A. The fuser needs replacing would typically cause smudged or poorly fused toner, not speckling. B. The feed rollers are dirty might cause paper feed issues, such as jams, but not speckling on the printed page. C. The charge roller is dirty can cause issues with toner adhesion but is more likely to cause streaking or uneven print rather than speckling. Therefore, loose toner is the most likely cause of speckled output.
When troubleshooting internet connectivity issues on a wired network, the first step is to make sure the patch cables are working and physically connected to the network ports. If that is not the problem, what is the next troubleshooting step? A.Update the NIC driver. B.Verify the Ethernet speed and duplex configuration are set to auto-negotiate. C.Check that Wi-Fi is turned on. D.Use a loopback tool to test for bad ports.
D. Use a loopback tool to test for bad ports. After eliminating patch cables as a probable cause, the next step in troubleshooting internet connectivity is to test for bad ports using a loopback tool. This will verify the integrity of the network interface port by checking that it can receive a signal generated by itself. Updating the network interface card (NIC) driver is a legitimate troubleshooting step, but should occur after testing for bad ports. Verifying that Ethernet speed and duplex configuration are set to auto-negotiate is a legitimate troubleshooting step, but should occur after testing for bad ports. Checking that Wi-Fi is turned on is not relevant since this is a wired network.
A printer technician receives a complaint from multiple users sharing a laser printer that the pages they are printing are faded or faint. Upon troubleshooting, the technician ruled out user and server settings. What laser printer component needs replacing to fix this error? A.Fuser B.Print head C.Drum D.Toner cartridge
D.Toner cartridge Faded or faint printouts in a laser printer are often caused by a low or depleted toner cartridge. Replacing the toner cartridge should resolve the issue. Other components like the drum or fuser typically cause different types of print quality issues, such as lines, streaks, or smudging, but not faint or faded prints.
A user complains about the quality of the display on a laptop. The user mentions that the laptop has been in use since the company started many years ago. IT determines that the display uses a very early thin film transistor (TFT) technology and will replace the laptop. Which TFT technology does the display use? A. Vertical alignment B.Organic LED C.In-plane switching D.Twisted nematic
D.Twisted nematic Twisted Nematic (TN) is one of the earliest thin film transistor (TFT) technologies used in laptop displays. While it offers fast response times, it has relatively poor color accuracy and limited viewing angles compared to newer technologies like In-plane Switching (IPS) and Vertical Alignment (VA).