CompTIA Project + Pre-Assessment
A quality audit is the process of an audit team systematically inspecting product quality. During which of the following is a quality audit implemented? A Quality assurance B Quality planning C Quality checklist D Quality control
Answer option A is correct. Quality assurance is a prevention-driven process of systematically inspecting project activities to reduce error yet meet all project requirements.
Which of the following statements best defines quantitative risk analysis? A The process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives B The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact C The review of risk events of high probability and highest impact on project objectives D The planning and quantification of risk responses by probability and impact of each risk event
Answer option A is correct. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives. It's performed on risk that has been prioritized through qualitative risk analysis.
Which of these terms describes a critical path task? A Zero float B Critical task C Mandatory task D Hammock
Answer option A is correct. Tasks with zero float are critical path tasks; if delayed, they'll delay the project completion date.
You're manager of an IT project that's currently in its monitoring and controlling phase. A user approaches you with a change request that you evaluate and find necessary, even though the change will result in a large impact to scope. What's your next step? A Determine whether there's an alternative solution that would have less impact on the scope, and discuss the trade-off with the stakeholder. B Discuss the change request with your team members, and document a plan to implement the change. C Meet with the project sponsor and stakeholders, and obtain sign-off for the change. D Evaluate the change request to see whether it can be postponed to a later project phase.
Answer option A is correct. The best alternative in cases in which there would be large impacts to scope is to determine whether there's a trade-off or alternative that would meet stakeholder needs while reducing impact to project scope.
You're a project manager at uCertify, Inc. You want to reduce affective conflict at all levels, and attain and maintain a reasonable amount of substantive conflict. Which of the following processes will you use to accomplish this task? A Risk management B Quality management C Conflict management D Change management
VAnswer option C is correct. Conflict management involves implementation of strategies to reduce negative aspects of conflict and to increase its positive ones, at a level equal to or higher than its current level. Conflict management involves activities to reduce affective conflicts at all levels, attain and maintain a reasonable amount of substantive conflict, and use an appropriate conflict management strategy to do so, as well as to match the status and concerns of the two parties in conflict.
Your project is nine months into the executing process. While preparing to review your team members' performance, all of the following are appropriate except for which one? A Provide feedback about past inadequate performance behaviors for the first time at the next performance meeting. B Outline specific consequences for poor behavior that haven't been corrected since the last discussion with the team member on this topic. C Review performance expectations, and specify new expectations for the next performance. D Determine rewards for superior performance.
Answer option A is correct. Performance feedback, particularly when negative, is best given in a timely fashion. This project has been underway for nine months. Addressing a situation that occurred earlier in the project for the first time after some time has elapsed is not an effective way to help team members correct their behaviors.
Risk analysis includes all of the following except for which one? A Avoid, transfer, mitigate, and accept B Quantitative risk analysis C Qualitative risk analysis D Probability and impact
Answer option A is correct. "Avoid, transfer, mitigate, and accept" are negative risk strategies used in risk response process.
You're preparing a project scope for a new project and need to establish boundaries for what the project is capable of delivering, given an estimated time and cost. Which of the following is the best example of a project boundary? A The project team will create but not distribute the software. B The project team will create the software, but the project must not take longer than six months to complete. C The project team will create the software, but the project must adhere to the industry standards. D The project team will create the software, but the project must not exceed more than $750,000.
Answer option A is correct. A boundary defines where a project scope will end. In this example, a project team will create software but its distribution lies outside the project scope. Boundaries clarify expectations and help remove assumptions.
According to industry rules and regulations, an organization should retain all its project-related documents for a minimum of seven years. Which of the following policies should the project manager implement to best address this action? A Document retention policy B Auditing policy C Standard compliance policy D Version control policy
Answer option A is correct. A document retention policy provides systematic review, retention, and eventual destruction of documents received or created in the course of doing business. It identifies such documents and provides guidelines for how long certain documents should be kept and how they should be destroyed.
A project manager needs to know costs incurred and steps introduced by a third party to complete certain deliverables. What should the project manager do to get this information from the third party? A Issue an RFP. B Issue an IFB. C Develop a SOW. D Create a WBS.
Answer option A is correct. A project manager should issue a request for proposal (RFP). An RFP is a procurement document that asks the third party to provide solutions, ideas, price, and detailed information about the outsourced function.
Which document are you working on when you're decomposing project deliverables? A Work breakdown structure B Project schedule C Project scope statement D Activity list
Answer option A is correct. A work breakdown structure is created by decomposing deliverables to a level at which cost and time estimates can be performed.
You work as a project manager for uCertify, Inc. You have to implement cost-effective controls and allocate resources and organizations after you identify all likely controls and evaluate their feasibility and usefulness. Which of the following processes will you use to accomplish your task? A Cost-benefit analysis B Cost estimating C Cost budgeting D Cost control
Answer option A is correct. Cost-benefit analysis is a technique related to the cost effectiveness of different alternatives to assess whether a project's benefits outweigh its costs. Its aim is to gauge the efficiency of intervention in relation to maintaining a status quo. To implement cost-effective controls and allocate resources, organizations, after identifying all possible controls and evaluating their feasibility and usefulness, must conduct a cost-benefit analysis for each new or enhanced control to determine if the control recommended is appropriate. A cost-benefit analysis mainly determines the impact of implementing the new or enhanced control and then determines the impact of non-implementation.
Holly is business analyst for her organization. She encourages teamwork and open communication among her business analysis team and stakeholders. She invites stakeholders to drop by her office and freely discuss project requirements, a solution scope, and other issues regarding the solution she's working on. Although Holly prefers informal communication, what is its potential risk? A Stakeholders may miss information and requirements could become ambiguous. B There is no danger; informal communications is a preferred business analysis technique. C Stakeholders may address the business analysis team and the project team directly rather than communicate through Holly. D Stakeholders may not know who's in charge of the solution.
Answer option A is correct. Informal communication is fine in some cases, but it can result in stakeholders missing information or requirements becoming ambiguous.
All of the following describe types of project endings except for which one? A Attrition B Extinction C Addition D Starvation E Integration
Answer option A is correct. Integration occurs when resources are distributed to other areas of an organization, and addition occurs when projects evolve into ongoing operations. Starvation is a project ending caused by project resources being cut off. Extinction occurs when project work is completed and accepted by its stakeholders.
This element of the executing process group encompasses standards compliance, internal process compliance, decision oversight, and phase-gate approval. A Organizational governance B Organizational oversight C Project governance D Project oversight
Answer option A is correct. Organizational governance includes standards compliance, internal process compliance, decision oversight, and phase-gate approval.
You're a project manager at uCertify, Inc. You and your team are working on your project's executing process group. There are several actions that occur during executing processes, including managing project quality, managing risks, preparing performance reports and information, and more. Which of the following actions does not start in earnest during this phase? A Approving corrective actions B Managing costs within the budget C Following the communications plan D Scheduling meetings
Answer option A is correct. The various actions that start in earnest during the executing process group are as follows: Scheduling meetings Managing costs within the budget Following a communications plan Managing scope Corrective actions are approved during the monitoring and controlling phase but are implemented in the executing process phase. This exemplifies the iterative nature of project management, because actions might be approved in one process group but actually implemented in another.
Your project is running late, and management has asked that you remove elements from the project scope that aren't core requirements. This removal of project deliverables will allow your project to reach its predetermined deadline. What document should you update to reflect this decision? A Scope baseline B Schedule baseline C Schedule variance report D Quality management plan
Answer option A is correct. Whenever project scope changes, the scope baseline should be updated to reflect the change. Recall that the scope baseline includes the project scope statement, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary.
Roberta is manager of the KJL project for her company. She's creating a chart that will help categorize problems discovered during the quality control inspection process. She wants to categorize the number of instances of problems and rank by frequency of occurrence. Which chart should Roberta create? A Pareto chart B Scatter diagram C Control chart D Fishbone diagram
Answer option A is correct. A Pareto chart is a histogram used to ranks problems, defects, or issues by their frequency of occurrence. It helps show where the majority of project effort should be applied, as well as identify smaller problems that can be addressed later. A Pareto chart is both bar chart and line graph: it uses bars to plot values in descending order and a line to graph cumulative totals for each category from left to right. The chart is named after Vilfredo Pareto; its use in quality assurance was popularized by Joseph M. Juran and Kaoru Ishikawa.
What component of a project's documentation do team members typically want to keep out of project archives? A Lessons learned B Post-project review C Customer satisfaction survey D Post-mortem analysis
Answer option A is correct. Lessons learned are something that project team members don't typically want to include in project archives for fear of being perceived as not having performed adequately. It's important to document lessons learned without placing blame. It can be very helpful to review project archives and pick up some pointers on what not to do.
You're manager of the GHG project, which has a budget at completion of $456,000 and is expected to last one year. You're currently at month six of the project, though you've only completed 40 percent of the work. The actual project cost to date is $175,000. What's the project's cost variance? A $7,400 B -$45,600 C 1.04 D There is no cost variance.
Answer option A is correct. The cost variance is a positive value in this scenario, as the project has spent less than what it's worth. The cost variance is found by subtracting the actual costs from the earned value; in this instance, it's $182,400 minus $175,000. Cost variance (CV) Cost variance (CV) is a measure of project cost performance. A variance is used to determine if costs are higher or lower than budgeted. Cost variance is calculated by the following formula: CV = Earned value (EV) - Actual cost (AC) A positive value means that spending is less than budgeted, whereas a negative value indicates that project costs are higher than originally planned.
Management wants Beth to create a project scope baseline as part of her project management plan. Beth reports that there's already a project scope baseline and it's comprised of three documents in the project plan. All of the following are part of the project scope baseline except for which one? A Project scope statement B Project statement of work C Project work breakdown structure D Project work breakdown structure dictionary
Answer option B is correct. A project statement of work is often used during project initiation, especially when the project is part of a contractual relationship. The project statement of work is not, however, one of the three documents that create the scope baseline.
You and your project team are about to create a WBS for your project. You'll need three components as inputs to WBS creation. Which one of the following is not an input you'll need for the creation of your project's WBS? A Organizational process assets B Requirements traceability matrix C Project scope statement D Requirements documentation
Answer option B is correct. A requirements traceability matrix is a table that maps requirements to project stakeholders and actual creation of project deliverables.
What's the purpose of a project manager issuing an RFP? A To determine all project work B To request proposals from prospective sellers of products or services C To indicate project requirements and outline the type of work to be completed D To organize project planning
Answer option B is correct. An RFP (request for proposal) is a type of procurement document used to request proposals from prospective sellers of products or services. It invites vendors to create a proposal, which can include project ideas, suggestions, and more. In some application areas, it can have a narrower or more specific meaning.
This process defines what people or groups need project information, when and how often it should be distributed, and its format. A Information distribution B Communications planning C Organizational planning D Procurement planning
Answer option B is correct. Communications planning defines the type of project information, as well as the frequency, format, and method of its distribution to project stakeholders throughout its duration.
Which of the following is not true of cost estimating? A Cost estimates are provided by team members. B Cost estimates make up the project budget. C Cost estimates have a quality factor built into them. D You should average all cost estimates.
Answer option B is correct. Cost estimates don't make up a project budget; they act as an input to the budget. They're provided by team members who will perform the cost-estimated task.
You're manager of the NGHQ project for your organization. Your project team has 21 members dispersed throughout the US. You've created some ground rules regarding work performance, communications, and working hours for the project team to follow. Who's responsible for enforcing the ground rules once they're established? A The team leader for each locale B The project team C The project sponsor D The functional management
Answer option B is correct. Once ground rules are established, it's up to a project manager and project team to enforce them.
You're a new project manager for your company. The previous project manager left abruptly. While reviewing your predecessor's last project, you find that the project scope document is poorly formulated and missing several key requirements. What's your next step? A Ask that the project be killed. B Notify and meet with the sponsor. C Write up the additional requirements, and ask the sponsor to approve. D Add the new requirements to the scope document, and discuss it at the next project status meeting.
Answer option B is correct. The first and most important step whenever there are problems or issues (including missing documentation, additional requirements, and so on) is to notify and meet with your project sponsor. It's a good idea to take your ideas for next steps to the meeting, but you will want direction from the sponsor before doing anything further.
Which of the following is the least precise cash-flow technique? A Net present value B Payback period estimate C Discounted cash flows D Internal rate of return (IRR)
Answer option B is correct. The payback period is a cash-flow technique for identifying the length of time it takes for the organization to recover all the costs of producing the project. It compares the initial investment to the expected cash inflows over the life of the project and determines how many time periods elapse before the project pays for itself. Payback period is the least precise of all cash-flow techniques.
Who is responsible for assembling a project's team members? A Project customer B Project manager C Project sponsor D Project stakeholders
Answer option B is correct. The project manager assembles team members for the project. The sponsor, stakeholders, or customers may suggest team members, but the final decision rests with the project manager.
Jeff is manager of a project to install 8,000 editions of a software package onto computers in his company. He's estimated that with the cost of the software license, the time to install and verify the software, and the software training for each user, the total cost of the software license per recipient is $450. He estimates the total cost of the project will be $3,600,000. What type of cost estimation is Jeff using in this example? A Top-down estimate B Parametric estimate C Definitive estimate D Bottom-up estimate
Answer option B is correct. This is an example of a parametric estimate, as the parameter is $450 per recipient of software. A parametric estimate uses a parameter to predict project costs, such as cost per network drop or cost per software license. Parametric estimation utilizes the statistical relationship between a series of historical data and a particular delineated list of other variables.
You're manager of a complex IT project that's well underway. A current team member was once a star performer but has now begun to slack off. As a result, the tasks she's been working on are behind schedule; thus, you're now concerned. How will you deal with this issue? A Tell the team member that her behavior is unacceptable, and write up an action plan for her to get back on track. B Ask the team member why her work is falling behind schedule. Ask her whether you can help her return to her former level of productivity, or whether there are other unresolved issues of which you should be aware. C Meet with the team member, and tell her that she needs to get back to her earlier level of productivity. D Tell the team member that other team members are asking about her and wanting to know why her performance level has dropped off.
Answer option B is correct. This team member has already demonstrated that she's able to handle the level of work you've given her and can produce quality output. The problem could be that she's working too much overtime or lost her enthusiasm for the project. Do your best to figure out what's bothering her and resolve any issues within your purview and authority to help improve the situation.
You're the manager of the HJH project for your company. You've created the probability-impact risk matrix as shown in the figure below: Risk A 0.55 -10,000 B 0.4 -65,000 C 0.3 -90,000 D 0.6 -25,000 E 0.45 -30,000 F 0.7 -245,000 If Risk D happens in this project, how much will be left in the contingency reserve? A $258,500 B $233,500 C $243,500 D $440,000
Answer option B is correct. To answer this question, you need to calculate the contingency reserve to be used at the project manager's discretion to deal with anticipated, but uncertain, events. These events are "known unknowns" and are part of the project scope and cost baselines. The contingency reserve is calculated by multiplying the probability and the impact for the risk event value for each risk event. The sum of risk events equals the project's contingency reserve. In this case, Risk contingency fund = (0.55*10,000)+(0.4*65,000)+(0.3*90,000)+(0.6*25,000)+(0.45*30,000)+(0.7*245,000) = 258,500 Therefore, when Risk D happens, it will cost the project $25,000. This $25,000 is subtracted from the contingency reserve of $258,500, leaving a balance of $233,500 for all other risks.
Project XYZ promises to be worth $587,000 in three years. Assuming that the rate of return is currently six percent, what is the maximum amount of funds that Project XYZ can cost and still be initiated if the organization wants to earn at least $75,000 on the project? A Answer depends on the cost of project resources. B $492,856 C $512,000 D $417,856
Answer option B is correct. To answer this question, you'll need to determine the present project value and then subtract $75,000 from that value. The formula for present value is provided below: PV = FV/(1+ i)^n
Which of the following documents will you prepare at last during scope definition? A Scope document B Work breakdown structure (WBS) C Scope management plan D Project plan
Answer option B is correct. WBS is a deliverables-oriented hierarchy that defines all project work and is completed after a scope management plan and scope statements are completed.
In what organizational structure is a project manager often referred to as project coordinator or expeditor? A Balanced matrix B Weak matrix C Strong matrix D Project-based
Answer option B is correct. Weak matrix structures are similar to functional structures; project managers are often called project coordinators or expeditors.
To maintain product quality, there are several tools and techniques that address quality defects. Which of the following tools is a sequential visual representation of process activities and decision points? A Pareto diagram B Flowchart C Control chart D Ishikawa diagram
Answer option B is correct. A flowchart is a sequential visual representation of process activities and decision points that's used during quality control. It also shows how individual system elements interrelate.
Mike's manager of the WAM project, which has a budget at completion of $295,000. The project is currently 40 percent complete; however, it should have been 50 percent complete by now. Mike's spent $125,000 on the project, and management has asked him about its schedule performance. Which of these values best represents its schedule performance? A -$7,000 B .80 C .94 D -$17,500
Answer option B is correct. In this scenario, the schedule performance index (SPI) is .80. Find the SPI by dividing earned value by planned value (in this case, $118,000 divided by $147,500). Schedule performance index (SPI) is the measure of project schedule efficiency. It s used in trend analysis to predict future performance. SPI is the ratio of earned value to planned value and is calculated using the formula: SPI = Earned value (EV) / Planned value (PV) If the SPI is greater than 1, performance is better than expected; if less than 1, it's poorer than expected. An SPI of 1 indicates the project is right on target.
You're manager of the TRT project, now in its execution phase. Rick, a team member, has complained that other team members are isolating him, and that this isolation is bothering him. Which of the following is not a recommended step to resolve the issue? A Solicit feedback on Rick from other team members. B Shift Rick to another project. C Solicit more feedback from Rick. D Apply team building measures to improve team effectiveness.
Answer option B is correct. Shifting Rick to another project is not the way to resolve this issue. Rick is a part of the team, and you owe it to all team members to solicit more information from all of those involved before making any decision. Furthermore, one of your professional abilities is to improve overall team effectiveness.
You have $400,000 for the budget at completion (BAC). The estimate at completion (EAC) is $200,000. What is the variance at completion (VAC)? A $250,000 B $200,000 C $35,000 D $500,000
Answer option B is correct. You calculate the variance at completion using the formula VAC = BAC - EAC. Therefore, the BAC is $400,000, the EAC is $200,000, and the VAC is $200,000 ($400,000 - $200,000).
A table of risks, their probability of occurrence, their impact, and a number representing an overall risk score is called a ____. A Qualitative matrix B Quantitative matrix C Risk matrix D Risk table
Answer option C is correct. A risk matrix is a tool used in the risk assessment process. It allows the severity of a risk event to be determined.
Who is responsible for signing off on project closure documents? A Project manager B End user C Sponsor D Project team members
Answer option C is correct. A sponsor is responsible for signing off on project closure documents. Project closure is a project's final process phase and includes its formal acceptance and ending. Administrative activities include file archiving and documenting lessons learned.
Tom works as a project manager for BlueWell, Inc. He's determining which risks can affect his project. Which of the following inputs of the "identify risks" process is useful in doing so and provides a quantitative assessment of likely cost to complete scheduled activities? A Cost management plan B Activity duration estimates C Activity cost estimates D Risk management plan
Answer option C is correct. An activity-cost-estimates review is valuable in identifying risks, as it provides a quantitative assessment of expected cost to complete scheduled activities and is expressed as a range, with range width indicating degrees of risk.
By basing your cost estimates for the project on previous projects similar in size and scope to this one, which type of estimating are you using? A Three-point B Bottom-up C Analogous D Parametric
Answer option C is correct. Analogous estimation involves looking at previous projects to obtain a high-level picture of potential project cost.
Which of the following processes involves monitoring project progress to identify any variances in a project plan? A Closing B Planning C Controlling D Executing
Answer option C is correct. Controlling processes involve monitoring project progress to identify any variances in a project plan.
Your company's IT staff has started a project that was requested by a customer, but they have now found that the project's scope is larger than they'd originally anticipated and requires the assistance of a project manager. No formal project documents have been created. You've been asked to take up the role of project manager. What is the first step you'll take in assuming responsibility for this project? A Determine what the scope of the project is. B Determine whether a project concept document has been written. C Determine the user requirements. D Understand what the deliverables are.
Answer option C is correct. First, you need to determine what the customer actually requested that precipitated the project in the first place. You can't put any documentation or personnel into place until you're sure that the efforts the IT team is making are in line with those requirements.
In which of the following type of contracts does the seller bear the most risk? A Time-and-materials B Cost-reimbursable C Fixed-price D Cost-reimbursable plus incentive
Answer option C is correct. Fixed-price contracts are riskiest to the seller. Every contract has two most important driving factors: the price and the scope of work. Also, the price "hits" the buyer, whereas the scope of work hits the seller. Since the price is fixed in the fixed-price contract, the "uncertainty" is not with regard to price, so the buyer has no such uncertainty about it. If the scope of work has not been studied in greater detail earlier in the process, and at any point more effort is required to complete the contracted work, this would affect the seller, who would bear the uncertainty. Hence, fixed price contracts are more risky for the seller.
Which of the following project documents created during its closing process describes what went well and what went poorly on the project? A Project close report B Post-mortem C Lessons learned D Post-project review
Answer option C is correct. Lessons learned describe what went well and what went poorly on a project. They're included in a project close report, post-mortem report, and post-project review.
Gary is project manager for his company. He's working with project stakeholders on its requirements, and examining how risks might affect their project. One of the stakeholders is confused about what constitutes project risk. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of project risk? A It's an uncertain event or condition within the project execution. B It's an uncertain event that can affect project costs. C It's an uncertain event that can affect at least one project objective. D It's an unknown event that can affect the project scope.
Answer option C is correct. Risk is an uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has an effect on at least one project objective. Project risk is concerned with expected value of one or more results of one or more future project events. It's an uncertain condition that, if it occurs, has an effect on at least one project objective. Objectives can be scope, schedule, cost, or quality. Project risk is always projected into the future.
One of the most common and necessary activities performed during the closing process is project closure. What's the advantage of formal project closure? A Recognize business opportunity B Approval of the responsibility assignment matrix C Collection of the historical information D Recognize individual performance
Answer option C is correct. The advantage of formally closing a project is the collection of historical information that describes what went well and what went poorly on the project. This information is used to analyze project management's strengths and weaknesses. Thus, it provides a reference used to improve future project performance.
What's the best way to prevent "scope creep"? A Alert the sponsor that you will not be taking any change requests after the project starts. B Put a statement in the charter that no additions to the project will be allowed once it's underway. C Make sure project requirements are thoroughly defined and documented. D Inform stakeholders when they sign the project scope statement that no changes will be accepted after the scope statement is published.
Answer option C is correct. The best way to avoid scope creep is to make sure that project requirements have been thoroughly defined and documented.
You're a project manager at uCertify, Inc. You have to describe ownership of project deliverables and authorize someone for their maintenance and upkeep. Which of the following plans will you use to accomplish the above task? A Communication management plan B Security management plan C Transition plan D Risk management plan
Answer option C is correct. The objectives of a transition plan are: Transition dates: There needs to be a definite date for deliverables to be transferred to the organization, and an account of conditions for deliverables to be moved from project management to operations management. Ownership: When you've completed a project and created a set of deliverables, someone must now be responsible for management of deliverables. The transition plan describes ownership of project deliverables and designates someone responsible for maintenance and upkeep of deliverables. Training: The project team needs to train recipients of deliverables and define their use and maintenance through training manuals, train-the-trainer sessions, hands-on exercises, or a combination of knowledge transfer events. Extended support: It's important to provide some extended support, depending on the type of project and the deliverables. Extended support requires the project team and operations team to work together as the new technology is applied, so that the operations team can learn about the deliverables and their implementation. Warranties: There must be some warranty information about project deliverables if the project was completed by a vendor for a client. The warranty must be detailed in the project contract and discussed during the operations transfer.
What's the most important reason why you should immediately deal with a disgruntled employee when in the executing process of a project? A Because the employee may deliberately slack off B Because the employee's bad attitude will be noticed by stakeholders C Because you run the risk of that person bringing the entire team's morale down D Because the employee may sabotage the project
Answer option C is correct. The other answers are certainly applicable, but the main reason you should deal with disgruntled employees as soon as possible is simply because their attitude can poison the morale of other team members. Once that happens, task work begins to slow, deliverables slip, and the project could be in trouble.
When should the project kickoff meeting ideally occur? A Once a scope management plan is approved B Before you begin creating a WBS (work breakdown structure) C After a project charter is signed D After a project scope statement is completed
Answer option C is correct. The project kickoff meeting should be held after the project charter is signed and ideally before the project scope statement is written
All of the following statements represent the final approved version of a project schedule except for which one? A It's used to monitor project progress throughout the remainder of the project. B It's approved by stakeholders, sponsor, and functional managers. C It will prevent future schedule risk. D This describes a schedule baseline.
Answer option C is correct. The schedule baseline is the final, approved version of the schedule and is signed by stakeholders, sponsor, and functional managers. Having a schedule baseline will not prevent future schedule risk.
You're manager of a small project in its closing phase. You've prepared closure documents and taken them to the project sponsor for sign-off. The project sponsor has said that these documents aren't necessary because the project is so small. What should you tell the sponsor? A You offer to sign off on the documents yourself. B You're sorry to have bothered them and will close the project without sign-off. C The sponsor is the one to sign off on the documents to indicate the project's officially closed. D You offer to have a stakeholder sign off in the sponsor's place.
Answer option C is correct. The sponsor must sign off on the project's completion, whether it's been successful or unsuccessful. Just as the sponsor is authorized to expend resources to produce the project's deliverables, the sponsor must also close the project and sign off on it.
You are working on a large software development project for your organization. Due to some problems, the project was cancelled before completion. You now need to finalize a meeting on what went wrong in the project. What is this meeting typically called? A Project manager 360-degree assessment B Project team assessment C Project post-mortem D Project closure
Answer option C is correct. This is a project post-mortem to review the project's successes and failures. The findings of the meeting are documented as part of the project's historical information and lessons learned.
You've created a network diagram for the ABC project. You're exploring total float and free float for it. Martin, a project team member, wants to know the difference between total float and free float. What will you tell him? A Total float is the amount of time a noncritical activity can be delayed without delaying project successors, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project completion date. B Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project completion date, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying project predecessors. C Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project completion date, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying project successors. D Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying project successors, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project completion date.
Answer option C is correct. Total float is the time you can delay an activity without delaying the project end date, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without affecting start dates of successor activities. Float, or slack, is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without affecting subsequent activities. There are two types of floats: Free Float: The amount of time a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately following schedule activities. Total Float: The total amount of time a schedule activity can be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date or violating schedule constraint. You calculate float using the critical path method technique.
You're a new project manager entrusted with a project to develop a machine that produces auto components. The machine has been developed, but is consistently producing defective parts. You suspect a small set of reasons for the majority of defects. Which of the following would you use to analyze and validate your suspicion? A Prioritization matrix B Scatter diagram C Pareto chart D Control charts
Answer option C is correct. A Pareto chart is a type of histogram ordered by the frequency of occurrence. It's related to the Pareto law, which holds that a relatively small number of causes will typically produce a majority of problems or defects. It's also called the 80/20 principle.
Which of the following terms refers to a project team comprised of people from different cultures? A Attributed B Homogeneous C Heterogeneous D Ethnocentric
Answer option C is correct. A heterogeneous project team is comprised of team members from different cultures.
You're project manager for your organization and currently working on a project to create a Web-based order form for clients. Clients will place their orders through your company website, any time of day or night. Larry, your company's CIO, isn't the project sponsor, but he is a key stakeholder, and he's demanded that you add extra website features. How will you handle Larry's request for implementation of the additional features? A Determine the cost and schedule impact of the change request. B Implement the features as Larry has requested. C Complete and submit a change request form. D Send Larry to the project sponsor for approval on the requested features.
Answer option C is correct. All change requests must be documented. Even though Larry's the CIO, his change request should first be documented to follow established change control procedures, which always determine the total impact of change on the project. Ideally, Larry would complete the change request form to provide a complete audit of the request.
All of the following describe the purpose for the information distribution process except for which one? A Information may take the form of status reports, project meetings, and so on. B This is where the communications management plan is put into action. C Barriers such as cultural differences, geographical locations, and technology should be taken into account during this process. D Lessons learned and feedbacks are gathered from stakeholders.
Answer option C is correct. Barriers such as cultural differences, geographical locations, and technology, along with time-zone differences and hierarchical barriers are taken into account when managing project teams.
Which of the following steps should a project manager take to ensure that product quality matches stakeholder expectations? A The project manager should include details in the WBS dictionary. B The project manager should extend the project completion date. C The project manager should monitor work performance. D The project manager should ask for more project resources.
Answer option C is correct. Managing stakeholder expectations means satisfying their needs by managing communications with them, resolving issues, improving project performance through implementation of requested changes and management of concerns in anticipation of potential problems. It's the project manager's responsibility to manage stakeholder expectations, and thus mitigate the risk of project failure and increase the chances of meeting project goals. Thus, to ensure that product quality matches stakeholder expectations, the project manager must monitor team members' work performance.
Your project's concluded, and you're now conducting a lessons-learned session with your team. Which of these techniques will you use to get the information you need? A Get the team together informally. Conduct a whiteboard session in which people write down the positive and negative elements of the project. B Send an email to all project team members asking them for the input. Produce a report from their observations. C Conduct a formal session with the team, and ask team members to identify successes and failures for each phase. Ask for recommendations regarding how to correct weak areas they've denoted. D A meeting isn't really needed to formulate a good-quality lessons-learned document. You can meet individually with each team member to gather input.
Answer option C is correct. You're trying to figure out what went well and what did not on the project, so it's important to meet formally with all team members and keep them focused during the lessons-learned session. It's not practical to simply solicit email input without putting together a formal meeting; likewise, a report that you write alone might miss some of the high points. Meeting with all team members creates the potential for one comment to lead to another, and so on, and thereby benefit future projects.
Who makes "go/no-go" decisions during phase-gate review? A Board of project managers B Stakeholders C Program manager D Program governance board
Answer option D is correct. "Go/no-go" decisions are commonly made by a program governance board and included in a performance report. They're made during phase-gate reviews and are the signal to move to the next phase.
Which of the following tools lists all project tasks on the vertical axis with units of time on the horizontal axis? A WBS (work breakdown structure) B PERT (program evaluation and review technique) chart C CPM (critical path method) D Gantt chart
Answer option D is correct. A Gantt chart is a very useful tool for visualizing project tasks over time, as all project tasks are listed on the vertical axis with units of time on the horizontal axis. Markers are used to note estimated and actual start and end times. Gantt chart is a bar chart that represents duration of activities on a calendar, in which bar length represents activity length; bar order represents activity order. Its format aids in planning, coordinating, and tracking specific project tasks. Its horizontal axis represents the project's total time span broken down into increments (e.g., days, weeks, months), and its vertical axis representing project tasks.
What type of chart is represented in the figure below? Task Juliette Mike Kelley Programming R A C Test I R C Technical writer C I R A Assignment matrix B Responsibility assignment matrix C RAC chart D RACI chart
Answer option D is correct. A RACI chart is a responsibility assignment matrix that details tasks and resources and indicates whether they are responsible, accountable, consulted, or informed about a task.
When analyzing an effect of a scope change, what other project element will require changes? A Resources B Risk C Equipment D Schedule E Cost
Answer option D is correct. A change in scope requires corresponding schedule changes. It's possible—though not inevitable—for new risks to develop and additional costs to be incurred as a result of the scope change. Regardless, scope changes always bring about schedule changes.
While creating a new project, which of the following contains final project acceptance criteria? A Project charter B Quality metric C Transition plan D Project scope document
Answer option D is correct. A project scope document should be of most interest to a new project manager. The scope statement describes the product, key deliverables, success and acceptance criteria, key performance indicators, exclusions, assumptions, and constraints, and thus contains final project acceptance criteria.
A feasibility test was performed to determine whether a critical project could be successfully completed. The test indicated that there are insufficient human resources to complete the project. What should the project manager suggest in this case? A Decrease the project scope. B Extend the project completion date. C Suspend the project until more resources become available. D Raise the budget to hire contactors.
Answer option D is correct. Because the project's human resources are insufficient to complete it, the project manager should suggest raising the budget to hire contractors, who will be responsible for testing and validating project quality, and its budget will track actual expenses incurred against estimates.
Risk identification is an ongoing project activity for identifying and documenting project risks. Which of the following is involved in risk identification? A Resource loading B Vendor solicitation C Project kickoff meeting D Team brainstorming
Answer option D is correct. Brainstorming is a technique for gathering general data. It can also be used to identify risks, ideas, or solutions to issues from team members or subject matter experts.
Which of the following processes describes both tangible and intangible benefits to an organization for undertaking a project, as well as reasons for bringing it about? A Alignment to the strategic plan B Identification and analysis of the stakeholders C Feasibility study D Justification for a project
Answer option D is correct. Justification for a project defines the advantages to an organization for undertaking a project. It includes tangible and intangible benefits, and reasons for bringing about the project.
Which of the following can convey the completion of an interim key deliverable? A Completion criteria B Project sign-off document C Gantt chart D Milestone
Answer option D is correct. Milestones signal the completion of key project deliverables.
You've been assigned as manager for a major IT project. Brett is the functional manager who will provide human resources for your development team; however, he's also supplying resources to other concurrent projects. You have a "dream-team" list of people you want on your team, but you're worried that other project managers may want these same people. What's the best way to approach Brett regarding the assignment of people to your project? A Send Brett an email listing the resources you need and the start date for each resource. B Try to catch Brett just before a meeting he's headed to so that he will not have time to think up reasons to turn down part of your request. C Meet with Brett's boss to advise her that your project is critical. Provide her with the list of resources you need from Brett. D Schedule a meeting with Brett to discuss resources. Explain your project deliverables and the skill sets you need.
Answer option D is correct. Obtaining the right resources for your project will require good planning and skillful negotiating skills. The best approach is to set up a meeting with each functional manager and negotiate the resources you need and their availability.
What is the most commonly used form of network diagramming? A Activity on arrow (AOA) B Program evaluation and review technique (PERT) C Critical path method (CPM) D Precedence diagramming method (PDM)
Answer option D is correct. Precedence diagramming is the most-used diagramming method. PDM uses boxes to represent project activities and arrows to connect the boxes and show dependencies.
During the monitoring and controlling process, a quality manager indicates that certain project requirements can't be fulfilled during quality testing. Thus, to keep the project on schedule, some requirements will have to be modified. Which type of action will this be? A Risk assumption B Risk transfer C Risk control D Risk avoidance
Answer option D is correct. Risk avoidance is an action taken to mitigate threat. This is done by altering a project management plan to either eliminate risk completely or protect project objectives from its impact. You can remove the risk event entirely by either adding steps to do so or reducing project scope requirements.
Which of the following two options describe the role of project sponsor? A Approving and signing the project charter B Appointing team members C Writing the project charter D Developing the project budget and schedule E The final decision maker on the project
Answer options A and E are correct. A project sponsor approves and signs a project charter and serves as a project's final decision maker. Generally, a project manager is responsible for all other tasks listed in this question.
You're project manager for your organization. A vendor has told you that the cost of resources you'll use in your project will increase by 40 percent, but they can deliver the product within 10 days. Another vendor has a substantially lower price, but they can only deliver the product in 21 days. How should you document the increase in price? A Reject the vendor's price increase and choose the vendor with the lower price. B Enter the price increase into the cost change control system. C Document the scenario for examination by the project team. D Document the scenario consideration in both the schedule change control system and the cost change control system.
Answer option D is correct. The best solution is to consider which is more important in your context—cost or schedule. Cost change and schedule change control systems can help you determine the driving factor for your project.
Which of the following project management process groups utilizes the most project time? A Planning B Closing C Initiation D Executing
Answer option D is correct. The executing process group is a stage or phase of a project. It starts after the planning phase of a project is completed, and consists of the processes used to complete the work defined in the project management plan and thereby accomplish the project's requirements. The execution process involves coordinating people and resources, as well as integrating and performing project activities in accordance with the project management plan. The deliverables are produced as outputs from the processes performed, as defined in the project management plan. The executing process group utilizes the most project time and resources.
Who among the following stakeholders is responsible for designing and implementing potential solutions and providing specialist expertise? A Project manager B Domain subject matter expert C Operational support D Implementation SME
Answer option D is correct. The implementation SME is responsible for designing and implementing potential solutions and providing specialist expertise. Subsets of the implementation SME role include developers, software engineers, organizational change management professionals, system architects, trainers, and usability professionals.
You are coaching Mark, a junior project manager, on project management processes. Which of the following statements best defines the process of creating a work breakdown structure (WBS)? A The hierarchical tabulation of physical assemblies, subassemblies, and components needed to fabricate a manufactured product B The hierarchically organized depiction of project organization, arranged so that work packages can be related to performing organizational units C The logical listing of project activities required to complete project scope requirements for project stakeholders D The subdivision of project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components, until work and deliverables are defined at the "work package" level
Answer option D is correct. The work breakdown structure breaks down project deliverables into "work packages," the smallest elements of the WBS.
Which of the following indicates whether costs are higher or lower than budgeted? A Actual cost (AC) B Cost performance index (CPI) C Estimate at completion (EAC) D Cost variance (CV)
Answer option D is correct. Cost variance (CV) is a measure of project cost performance. A variance is used to determine if costs are higher or lower than budgeted. Cost variance is calculated by the following formula: CV = Earned value (EV) - Actual cost (AC) A positive value means that spending is less than budgeted, whereas a negative value indicates that project costs are higher than originally planned.
Which of the following represents the value of the work completed to date as compared to the budget? A BAC B AC C PV D EV
Answer option D is correct. EV (earned value) is the value of the work completed to date as compared to the budget (AC is actual cost, PV is planned value, and BAC is budget at completion).
Given the following values: PV = 85, AC = 89, EV = 85, BAC = 90, ETC = 2, what's the TCPI? A 92 B 87 C 91 D 5
Answer option D is correct. The formula for TCPI is (BAC - EV) / (BAC - AC), so the formula looks like this: (90 - 85) / (90 - 89) = 5.
A project manager is currently working on an important project. Most of her team members work remotely and each of them must regularly submit a weekly status report at a designated time. However, one team member never submits his status reports on time. To assess this situation, what should the project manager consider first? A Past performance reviews of the team member B The format of the status report C The necessity of weekly status reports D The time zones of team members' work locations
Answer option D is correct. The project manager should first consider the time zones of team members' work locations to properly monitor the status reports of each team member working remotely. As her team members are working in different time zones, it's important for her to keep that in mind, to ensure that her team members are submitting reports on time. The question states that a team member never submits his weekly status report at the designated time, and that most of the team members work remotely. It's possible that the person in question is located at a different time zone than the others. Hence, it's important for the project manager to consider the time-zone differences of team members' work locations.
You work as a project manager for uCertify, Inc. You're working with your team to validate a project. A new team member wants to know the steps involved in validating a project. How will you reply? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Validate the business case. B Identify and analyze the stakeholders. C Identify the project. D Analyze the feasibility.
Answer options A and B are correct. The steps involved in validating a project are as follows: Validate the business case, which includes feasibility analysis, justification for the project, and alignment to the strategic plan. Identify and analyze the stakeholders.
As we know, there are several techniques of detecting and resolving conflict. One such technique is withdrawal, which occurs when a party refuses to discuss the conflict. Which of the following statements is true about withdrawal? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Withdrawal is considered an avoidance technique. B Withdrawal is a way of confronting a problem to find the best solution. C Withdrawal is considered a lose-lose situation. D Withdrawal is considered a win-lose situation.
Answer options A and C are correct. Withdrawal—when one party refuses to discuss the conflict—is an avoidance technique; thus, it never results in resolution. It's probably the worst of all conflict resolution techniques because nothing gets resolved, resulting in a "lose-lose" solution.
According to CompTIA, what are the three constraints common to all projects? A Cost B Management decisions C Time D Goals E Quality F Procurement G Scope
Answer options A, C, and E are correct. According to CompTIA, the triple constraints are cost, time, and quality. Other publications and project management professionals believe they are scope, time, and cost; however, for the CompTIA exam, you should know the constraints as described by CompTIA.
Based on a project management plan, a closure meeting involves gathering and centralizing a project document, performing a post-project review, and writing a final project close report. During which of these events would a project manager conduct a closure meeting? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Stage completion B Task completion C Project cancellation D Project completion
Answer options A, D, and C are correct. A closure meeting involves gathering and centralizing a project document, performing a post-project review, and writing a final project close report. Its primary purpose is to gather lessons learned and distribute a notice of acceptance. A project manager conducts a closure meeting under the following circumstances: Project completion Stage completion Project cancellation Component completion
You're working on a project to launch a new product line for your client. Incorporating market research, you're required to increase your project's scope. Which of the following factors are most likely affected if your project's completion date can't be changed? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Project cost B Project quality C Project milestones D Deployment plan
Answer options B and A are correct. As you know, the project completion date is its deadline. Thus, to increase its scope without changing its completion date, its cost and quality will likely be affected. This is because increasing project scope without changing its target date involves additional resources, thus requiring additional funding. Likewise, adding requirements in the allotted time will adversely affect work quality.
The work breakdown structure (WBS) is a deliverables-oriented hierarchy that defines a project's total work. Which of the following directly utilizes WBS? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Resource assignment B Activity estimation C Variance analysis D Communication plan
Answer options B and A are correct. The final element of scope planning is a WBS. The WBS is a deliverables-oriented hierarchy that defines all project work. Each WBS level is a further breakdown of the levels above it. Once work is broken down to its lowest level, one can establish time estimates, resource assignments, and cost estimates that directly utilize the WBS.
During the executing process, a project manager has been asked to create an issue log. Which of the following components are included in an issue log? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A The date the issue was submitted B The description of the issue C The risk register D The resource breakdown structure
Answer options B and A are correct. The following components are included in an issue log: The description of the issue The date the issue was submitted The name of the person who raised the issue A priority rating assigned to each issue
In which of the following conditions should avoidance be used in conflict resolution? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Stakes are high B Stakes are low C Stakes are high, but you're not prepared D To maintain neutrality
Answer options B, C, and D are correct. Use the avoidance conflict resolution method under these conditions: Stakes are low Stakes are high, but you're not prepared To maintain neutrality To gain time
When preparing a project charter, which three elements listed below should you always include? A Team member roster B Key project deliverables C Relation to the organization's strategic plan D Benefit measurement methods E Project justification F General project approach G List of stakeholders
Answer options B, G, and F are correct. A project charter should include three elements: the key project deliverables, a list of stakeholders, and a description of your general project approach. Options E and C are elements of a business case, D is a project selection method, and A is part of the planning process group.
As a project manager for uCertify, Inc., you are currently working on some high-level project milestones and timelines. One of your team members wants to know the purpose of high-level milestones and timelines. How will you reply? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Providing support for staff resource planning and budget preparation B Ensuring validation and allowing the project to move on to the next step if the milestone is met, or taking corrective actions if the milestone is not met C Providing measurement, showing that tangible progress has been made on the project D Ensuring validation, allowing the project to move back to the previous step if the milestone is met, or taking preventive action if the milestone is not met
Answer options C, B, and A are correct. The purpose of high-level milestones and timelines is to: Provide measurement, showing that tangible progress has been made on the project Ensure validation and allow the project to move on to the next step if the milestone is met, or take corrective actions if it is not met Provide support for staff resource planning and budget preparation
Which of the following items are included in a staffing management plan? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Recognition and rewards B Training needs C Risk prediction D Staff acquisition
Answer options D, A, and B are correct. A staffing management plan is not a project resource; it's a subsidiary of an overall project management plan and defines when project team members will be brought onto and released from the project. It describes when and how human resource requirements will be met. Depending on project needs, it can be formal or informal, highly detailed, or broadly framed. The staffing management plan can include staff acquisition, resource calendars, a staff release plan, training needs, recognition and rewards, compliance, and safety.
During the planning process, a project scope document provides a description of the work necessary to complete a project. Which of the following components would be included in the project scope document? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Gantt charts B Key performance indicators (KPIs) C Detailed project objectives D Project constraints
Answer options D, B, and C are correct. The project scope documents product description, key deliverables, success and acceptance criteria, key performance indicators, exclusions, assumptions, and constraints. The scope statement is used as a baseline for future project decisions.
Which of the following are tasks performed by a work breakdown structure (WBS)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A It defines assignable resources, such as personnel, from a functional point of view. B It provides a mechanism for performance measurement and control. C It provides a mechanism for collecting and organizing actual costs. D It distributes major project deliverables into smaller components to improve accuracy of cost estimates.
Answer options D, C, and B are correct. WBS tasks are as follows Distribute major project deliverables into smaller components to improve accuracy of cost estimates. Provide a mechanism for collecting and organizing actual costs. Provide a mechanism for performance measurement and control. The WBS structure describes work activities, not staff or other work resources.
What are the three types of matrix organizations? A Weak matrix B Project-based matrix C Strong matrix. D Program matrix E Functional matrix F Balanced matrix
Answer options F, C, and A are correct. The three types of matrix structures are: Balanced matrix: Shares equal emphasis between projects and functional work. The project manager and the functional manager share power. Strong matrix: Emphasizes project work over functional duties. The project manager has most of the power. Weak matrix: Emphasizes functional work over project work and operates more like a functional hierarchy. The functional mangers have most of the power.