CPT 7

Which type of support is the most common provided by a fitness professional? Select one: a. Informational support b. Emotional support c. Companionship support d. Instrumental support

a. Informational support

What is plyometric training also known as? Select one: a. Reactive training b. Stability training c. Strength training d. Resistance training

a. Reactive training

Which component of blood is primarily responsible for transporting oxygenated blood throughout the body? Select one: a. Red blood cells b. White blood cells c. Platelets d. Plasma

a. Red blood cells

What is the optimal amount of protein per meal for muscle protein synthesis? a) 30-50 g b) 15-20 g c) 20-40 g d) 60-70 g

c) 20-40 g

How can fitness professionals earn CEUs? a) Accumulating hours training clients either independently or in a health club b) Reading scholarly research journals c) Attending fitness industry conferences d) Reading exercise-science books

c) Attending fitness industry conferences

Which of the approaches is best in terms of safety and performance when using the box jump-up exercise with clients? a) Letting the client choose the box size b) Choosing only small step boxes c) Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities d) Choosing the highest box available

c) Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities

Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires that client records are disposed of in a secure manner? a) Professionalism b) Legal and ethical c) Confidentiality d) Business practice

c) Confidentiality

Which chronic disease is the leading cause of death in the world today? a) Dementia b) Diabetes c) Coronary artery disease d) Cancer

c) Coronary artery disease

What is the correct position of the hands during the standing hammer curl exercise? a) Palms facing down b) Palms facing outward away from each other c) Palms facing inward toward each other d) Palms facing up

c) Palms facing inward toward each other

Your client has shown great improvements in the mobility and flexibility. Following the OPT model, what phase would you recommend next? a) Phase 4 b) Phase 3 c) Phase 2 d) Phase 5

c) Phase 2

What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising but for less than 6 months? Select one: a. Contemplation b. Maintenance c. Action d. Precontemplation

c. Action

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat? Select one: a. Upper trapezius b. Gluteus maximus and medius c. Adductor complex d. Hip flexors

c. Adductor complex

Inadequate hydration and mild dehydration can have several negative effects on athletic performance, including which of the following? Select one: a. Increased cardiac output b. Lower rate of perceived exertion (RPE) c. Decreased blood flow d. Lower body temperature

c. Decreased blood flow

To increase the metabolic demand of SAQ exercises among weight-loss clients, which of the following adjustments to a workout session could be implemented? Select one: a. Decreased intensity b. Fewer exercises c. Decreased rest periods d. Increased complexity of exercises

c. Decreased rest periods

What does EMG stand for? Select one: a. Electromagnetic spectrum b. Elektrokardiogramm c. Electromyography d. Electrocardiogram

c. Electromyography

Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located? Select one: a. Right atrium b. Right ventricle c. Left ventricle d. Left atrium

a. Right atrium

Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core? Select one: a. Rotatores b. Iliopsoas c. Latissimus dorsi d. Rectus abdominis

a. Rotatores

Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in Australia? Select one: a. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA) b. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) c. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) d. Health Canada

a. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)

Which type of muscle fiber is predominantly used during movements that require high levels of force and power, such as a sprint? Select one: a. Type II b. Type III c. Type Ia d. Type I

a. Type II

Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure? Select one: a. Validity b. Relevance c. Appropriateness d. Reliability

a. Validity

Extreme dietary restrictions may increase risk for what? Select one: a. Vitamin and mineral deficiencies b. Rapid weight gain c. Increased bone growth d. Mineral toxicity

a. Vitamin and mineral deficiencies

Which of the following is considered a component of NEAT? Select one: a. Walking b. Sleeping c. Eating d. Structured exercise

a. Walking

Which of the following is a question that may provoke resistance? Select one: a. What makes you think you are not at risk? b. What might you want to change? c. What might work for you? d. If you decided to make a change, what might you do?

a. What makes you think you are not at risk?

Which of the following is a question that may promote change? Select one: a. What might you want to change? b. What makes you think that you're not at risk? c. Why can't you make this change to your schedule? d. Why don't you just do this?

a. What might you want to change?

What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients? Select one: a. 120 to 180 seconds b. 0 to 60 seconds c. 60 to 90 seconds d. 90 to 120 seconds

b. 0 to 60 seconds

What is the minimum weekly goal of energy expenditure from combined physical activity and exercise for obese clients? Select one: a. 5,000 kcal b. 1,200 kcal c. 12,000 kcal d. 500 kcal

b. 1,200 kcal

What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children? Select one: a. 2 minutes b. 10 minutes c. 35 minutes d. 5 minutes

b. 10 minutes

What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients? Select one: a. 1 week b. 48 to 72 hours c. 24 hours d. 12 hours

b. 48 to 72 hours

Self-esteem and body image are said to have which type of relationship? Select one: a. Autonomous b. Unequal c. Reciprocal d. Independent

c. Reciprocal

Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action? Select one: a. Synergistic dominance b. Length-tension relationships c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Lengthening reaction

c. Reciprocal inhibition

What must be sufficient in order to prevent overtraining and injury during a plyometric training regimen? Select one: a. Volume b. Frequency c. Recovery d. Intensity

c. Recovery

Which of the following foods is the most likely to be a good source of omega-3 fatty acids? Select one: a. Grilled chicken b. Beef c. Salmon d. Milk

c. Salmon

In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1? Select one: a. Stage 3 training b. Stage 1 training c. Stage 2 training d. Stage 4 training

c. Stage 2 training

A client is asked to record what exercises they perform, how much they eat, and how much they sleep. Which of these strategies is the client using? Select one: a. Goal setting b. Self-monitoring c. Imagery d. Contemplation

b. Self-monitoring

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core? Select one: a. Floor crunch b. Side plank c. Medicine ball soccer throw d. Cable rotation

b. Side plank

What statement best describes the category of simple sugars? Select one: a. Sugars that are dissolved into liquid for consumption b. Single- or double-molecule sugars that are easily absorbed by the body c. Sugars that have been added to packaged foods d. Sugar syrups that are easily absorbed by the body

b. Single- or double-molecule sugars that are easily absorbed by the body

What is the best type of plyometric exercise for a beginner client? Select one: a. Fast, powerful movements b. Small jumps c. Dynamic motion d. Explosive jumps

b. Small jumps

Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise? Select one: a. Pushing b. Squatting c. Hip hinge d. Pulling

b. Squatting

What are the three levels of the OPT model? Select one: a. Diet, exercise, and recovery b. Stabilization, strength, and power c. Flexibility, cardiorespiratory, and resistance d. Health, fitness, and wellness

b. Stabilization, strength, and power

What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core? Select one: a. Generate large amounts of force during trunk movement b. Stabilize vertebral segments c. Move the trunk d. Transfer load between the upper and lower extremities

b. Stabilize vertebral segments

Which movement assessment utilizes weighted pullies to assess a pushing movement? Select one: a. Standing overhead press b. Standing push assessment c. Davies test d. Standing pull assessment

b. Standing push assessment

What is something that allows a fitness professional to stand out from others in featuring their services? Select one: a. PERT estimate b. Unique selling proposition (USP) c. Statement of work (SOW) d. SWOT analysis

b. Unique selling proposition (USP)

The B vitamins have a primary role in what? Select one: a. Hydration b. Muscle contraction c. Cancer prevention d. Macronutrient metabolism

d. Macronutrient metabolism

Which phase of training would a person who just completed a Muscular Development Training program want to go back to for some corrective assistance? Select one: a. Power Training b. Maximal Strength Training c. Strength Endurance Training d. Stabilization Endurance Training

d. Stabilization Endurance Training

What are the three categories within the lipid family? Select one: a. Saturated, unsaturated, and hydrogenated fats b. Cholesterol, omega-3s, and omega-6s c. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols d. Saturated fat, unsaturated fat, and cholesterol

c. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols

What type of diabetes occurs when specialized cells in the pancreas (called beta cells) stop producing insulin? Select one: a. Gestational b. Type 2 c. Type 1 d. Prediabetes

c. Type 1

What BMI score is considered within normal limits? Select one: a. 30 to 34.9 b. 35 to 39.9 c. 25 to 29.9 d. 18.5 to 24.9

d. 18.5 to 24.9

What blood pressure is reflective of stage 1 hypertension? a) A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic of 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic b) A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg c) A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher d) A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic

a) A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic

For effective weight loss, how may calories should obese clients expend per exercise session? a) 200-300 kcal b) 200-250 kcal c) 25-75 kcal d) 600-700 kcal

a) 200-300 kcal

Where is it most common to take an individual's circumference measurement to assess health risk? a) Waist b) Arm c) Thigh d) Hips

a) Waist

Which food would be classified as a high biological value protein source? a) Whole eggs b) Peas c) Lentils d) Beans

a) Whole eggs

According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese? Select one: a. 0.72 b. 0.92 c. 0.62 d. 0.22

a. 0.72

Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times? Select one: a. 10% b. 5% c. 30% d. 20%

a. 10%

Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress? Select one: a. Davis's law b. Wolff's law c. Archimedes' principle d. Overload principle

a. Davis's law

Which of the following benefits may occur as a result of exercises that comprise only eccentric muscle actions that are appropriately loaded? Select one: a. Decreased catabolic hormone stimulation b. Increased anabolic hormone stimulation c. Decreased anabolic hormone stimulation d. Increased catabolic hormone stimulation

b. Increased anabolic hormone stimulation

What change would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise? Select one: a. Increased end-systolic volume b. Increased heart rate c. Decreased stroke volume d. Decreased heart rate

b. Increased heart rate

What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints? Select one: a. Sight, smell, taste, touch, hearing b. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head c. Tibia, fibula, femur, ilium, coccyx d. Metacarpals, ulna, radius, humerus, clavicle

b. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head

When discussing fitness trackers and heart rate monitors, which of the following statements is the most accurate? Select one: a. Heart rate monitors provide the user with positive motivation and 100% accuracy. b. Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort. c. Wrist-worn heart rate monitors are as accurate as chest strap monitors. d. Taking longer for heart rate to return to normal after vigorous exercise is a good indicator of a healthy heart.

b. Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort.

What type of exercise would be suggested to address overactive, shortened hamstrings? Select one: a. Balance exercises b. Flexibility exercises c. Plyometric exercises d. Strengthening exercises

b. Flexibility exercises

What is a characteristic of type I muscle fibers? Select one: a. Type I fibers have a lower concentration of capillaries than type II fibers. b. Type I fibers are "slow twitch." c. Type I fibers have a lower concentration of mitochondria than type II fibers. d. Type I fibers are "fast twitch."

b. Type I fibers are "slow twitch."

Training power for 2 days before moving on to 2 days of strength training would be an example of what kind of periodization? Select one: a. Linear periodization b. Undulating periodization c. Localized periodization d. Direct periodization

b. Undulating periodization

Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space? Select one: a. Vestibular system b. Visual system c. Hearing system d. Somatosensory system

b. Visual system

Which three senses are involved in the balance system? Select one: a. Visual, vestibular, and auditory systems b. Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems c. Visual, vestibular, and hearing systems d. Vestibular, somatosensory, and auditory systems

b. Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems

Which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity? Select one: a. Vitamin B12 b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin B6

b. Vitamin A

How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout? Select one: a. Inability to speak at all b. Normal conversation is maintained. c. Continuous talking becomes challenging d. Only a few words can be produced between breaths

c. Continuous talking becomes challenging

Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as which of the following? Select one: a. Pulmonary hypoplasia b. Hypoxia c. Dyspnea d. Pneumonia

c. Dyspnea

Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body? Select one: a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Left ventricle d. Right ventricle

c. Left ventricle

Improving frontside running mechanics is associated with which of the following? Select one: a. Less speed b. Less forward drive c. Less braking force d. Less stability

c. Less braking force

What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising consistently for 6 months or longer? Select one: a. Precontemplation b. Contemplation c. Maintenance d. Action

c. Maintenance

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Teres major b. Latissimus dorsi c. Middle and lower trapezius d. Pectoralis major

c. Middle and lower trapezius

Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Iliopsoas c. Multifidus d. Pectoralis major

c. Multifidus

Which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is looking to improve their physique in a way similar to that of a bodybuilder? Select one: a. Power Training b. Stabilization Endurance Training c. Muscular Development Training d. Maximal Strength Training

c. Muscular Development Training

Why is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) important? Select one: a. NEAT can decrease the resting metabolic rate. b. NEAT can increase muscle mass. c. NEAT can be protective against obesity. d. NEAT can increase cardiorespiratory fitness.

c. NEAT can be protective against obesity.

Which structures of the body does osteoporosis commonly affect? Select one: a. Scapula and humerus b. Cranium and facial bones c. Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae d. Sternum and clavicle

c. Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae

The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to provide the body with what gas? Select one: a. Carbon dioxide b. Water c. Oxygen d. Platelets

c. Oxygen

Omega-3 fatty acids do not include which of the following fatty acids? Select one: a. Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) b. Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) c. Palmitic acid d. Alpha-linolenic acid (ALA)

c. Palmitic acid

Which of the following options is not a benefit to all people who use balance training in their programming? Select one: a. Decreased agility-based outcomes in athletes b. Reduced risk of ankle sprains c. Improved proprioception or body awareness d. Reduced risk of falls

a. Decreased agility-based outcomes in athletes

What is the blood pressure measurement that occurs when the heart is at rest or between beats? Select one: a. Diastolic blood pressure b. Hypertension c. Pulse d. Systolic blood pressure

a. Diastolic blood pressure

Which of the following is a banned substance in the United States? Select one: a. Dimethylamylamine (DMAA) b. Hordenine c. Creatine d. Caffeine

a. Dimethylamylamine (DMAA)

What three joint actions comprise triple flexion? Select one: a. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion b. Spinal flexion, knee flexion, and elbow flexion c. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension d. Dorsiflexion, plantar flexion, and shoulder flexion

a. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion

Which of the following is the most effective type of exercise to increase proprioceptive demands in training? Select one: a. Exercises with free weights b. Standing exercises on a gym floor c. Exercises using selectorized machines d. Seated exercises

a. Exercises with free weights

Which of the following movements trains a client in all three planes of motion? Select one: a. Multiplanar lunge b. BOSU squat c. Dumbbell renegade row d. Barbell squat

a. Multiplanar lunge

Humans can learn new things at any stage of life, due to which process that causes the brain to reform neural pathways? Select one: a. Neuroplasticity b. Neurocircuitry c. Neuromotor skills d. Remodeling

a. Neuroplasticity

Which type of nerve receptor senses pain? Select one: a. Nociceptor b. Neurotransmitter c. Action potential d. Mechanoreceptor

a. Nociceptor

Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients? Select one: a. Peripheral heart action system b. Drop set c. Complex training d. Pyramid system

a. Peripheral heart action system

Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips? Select one: a. Pes planus distortion syndrome b. Upper crossed syndrome c. Lower crossed syndrome d. Knee valgus

a. Pes planus distortion syndrome

The TRX Rip Trainer should be most beneficial to which of the following phases of the OPT model? Select one: a. Phases 1, 2, and 5 b. Phases 2, 3, and 4 c. Phases 1 and 3 d. Phases 3, 4, and 5

a. Phases 1, 2, and 5

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production? Select one: a. Strength Endurance Training b. Muscular Development Training c. Power Training d. Stabilization Endurance Training

c. Power Training

What is defined as the awareness of the positioning and movement of body segments? Select one: a. Kinesiology b. Kinesthetic awareness c. Proprioception d. Biomechanics

c. Proprioception

The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what? Select one: a. Vestibular senses b. Somatosensation c. Strength d. Vision

c. Strength

What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength? Select one: a. Maximal Strength b. Stabilization Endurance c. Strength Endurance d. Power

c. Strength Endurance

Which muscle or muscles would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Lower trapezius c. Upper trapezius and levator scapula d. Infraspinatus

c. Upper trapezius and levator scapula

Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality? Select one: a. Dumbbells b. Suspended bodyweight training c. ViPR d. Strength machines

c. ViPR

A Certified Personal Trainer is speaking with a client who is not currently doing any consistent aerobic training. They ask how ready the client is to do aerobic training once a week for 30 minutes, using a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 representing "not at all ready" and 10 representing "completely ready." If the client is at a 9, what stage of change are they in? Select one: a. Action b. Precontemplation c. Maintenance d. Preparation

d. Preparation

What stage of change is a person in if they are planning to begin exercising soon and have taken steps toward it? Select one: a. Precontemplation b. Maintenance c. Action d. Preparation

d. Preparation

According to current research, what is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize muscle protein synthesis? Select one: a. 0.8 to 1.0 g/kg of body weight b. 2.4 to 3.5 g/kg of body weight c. 3.5 to 5.0 g/kg of body weight d. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight

d. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight

What weekly progression rate in exercise volume is the maximum recommended for cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. 20% per week b. 25% per week c. <15% per week d. 10% per week

d. 10% per week

What is a common cause of chronic hypertension? Select one: a. A low-fat diet b. 1,500 mg of sodium per day c. Vigorous exercise d. Excess weight

d. Excess weight

Which of the following is an example of a client's intrinsic motivation for exercise? Select one: a. Exercising because they value the health benefits b. Exercising because they feel guilty c. Exercising because a doctor tells them to d. Exercising because it is fun

d. Exercising because it is fun

What must older adults complete prior to initiating an exercise program with a Certified Personal Trainer? Select one: a. Overhead squat assessment b. Dietary assessment c. An annual physical d. PAR-Q+

d. PAR-Q+

Resistance band exercises are best utilized in which phases of the OPT model? Select one: a. Phases 3 and 4 b. Phase 2 and 3 c. Phase 1 and Phase 4 d. Phase 2 and 5

d. Phase 2 and 5

Which of the following is not an appropriate expectation for a CPT? Select one: a. Teaching healthy portion sizes b. Referring out to a dietitian c. Offering general advice on supplementation d. Prescribing a supplement

d. Prescribing a supplement

What is the name for projections protruding from the bone to which tendons and ligaments attach? Select one: a. Depressions b. Bone spurs c. Sulcus d. Processes

d. Processes

What is the best choice of attire to an interview at a health club? Select one: a. Jeans and a polo shirt b. Brand-new workout clothes c. Business casual d. Professional business attire

d. Professional business attire

What type of input may provide a runner with a cue to contract the evertor muscles to avoid an inversion injury? Select one: a. External feedback b. Force velocity c. Stretch-shortening cycle d. Proprioception

d. Proprioception

Which of the macronutrients has the highest thermic effect of food (TEF)? Select one: a. Carbohydrates b. Glucose c. Lipids d. Protein

d. Protein

Improved performance during a plyometric jump is dependent upon which of the following? Select one: a. Prolonged amortization phase b. Absent stretch reflex c. Release of stored energy during concentric phase d. Rapid amortization phase

d. Rapid amortization phase

If the client cannot reach their foot during a single-leg squat touchdown, which is the first modification that can be employed? Select one: a. Reach to their shin b. Reach to their toes c. Reach to their waist d. Reach to their knee

d. Reach to their knee

What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results? Select one: a. Appropriateness b. Validity c. Relevance d. Reliability

d. Reliability

Which of the following examples of training exercises is not a form of cardiorespiratory fitness? Select one: a. Jogging/running b. Rowing c. Sports competition d. Resistance training

d. Resistance training

Which of the following is a component of total daily energy expenditure (TDEE)? Select one: a. Thermic effect of fasting (TEF) b. Elapsed activity thermogenesis (EAT) c. Nonexercise anabolic thermogenesis (NEAT) d. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)

d. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)

Increasing which of the following is the best way to improve a client's adherence to an exercise plan? Select one: a. Strength b. Length-tension relationship c. Cool-down d. Self-efficacy

d. Self-efficacy

What is a characteristic of a type II muscle fiber? Select one: a. Slow to fatigue b. Increased oxygen delivery c. Smaller in size d. Short-term contractions

d. Short-term contractions

What are the three types of muscles in the body? Select one: a. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar b. Actin, myosin, and sarcomere c. Somatic, autonomic, and peripheral d. Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth

d. Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth

Which barrier to exercise is most likely to be associated with body image issues? Select one: a. Lack of social support b. Ambivalence c. Unrealistic goals d. Social physique anxiety

d. Social physique anxiety

Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo? Select one: a. Intensity b. Rest interval c. Training duration d. Speed

d. Speed

What does optimal reactive performance of any activity depend on? Select one: a. Muscle size b. Fat content c. Speed of force reduction d. Speed of force generation

d. Speed of force generation

Which type of assessment is typically performed first in the assessment flow? Select one: a. Bench press strength b. 40-yard dash c. Single-leg squat d. Static posture

d. Static posture

What is defined as the distance covered in one stride? Select one: a. Agility b. Power c. Stride rate d. Stride length

d. Stride length

In which BMI category would you classify Mary if she has a BMI of 17.5? Select one: a. Healthy weight b. Class II obesity c. Obese d. Underweight

d. Underweight

What type of vessel is responsible for carrying blood back to the heart? Select one: a. Arterioles b. Capillaries c. Arteries d. Veins

d. Veins

Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels? Select one: a. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test b. Rockport 1-mile walk test c. Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test d. YMCA 3-minute step test

d. YMCA 3-minute step test

Which concept should be used to describe the functioning of the serratus anterior as it assists the anterior deltoid during shoulder flexion? Select one: a. Agonist b. Synergist c. Antagonist d. Stabilizer

Synergist

What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training? a) Volume and progression b) Variables and progression c) Velocity and pattern d) Variables and pattern

a) Volume and progression

A new client has indicated that they are exercising due to advice from their physician, but they are generally amotivated. What would be the best choice for the personal trainer in their initial meeting? Select one: a. Inquire further about what their motives are for participating. b. Start establishing an emotional support system. c. Create a plan for overcoming barriers. d. Establish short- and long-term goals.

a. Inquire further about what their motives are for participating.

How is heart rate collected during the YMCA 3-minute step test to evaluate the cardiorespiratory fitness level of an individual? Select one: a. It is measured over a 10-second count during the last 30 seconds of the test. b. It is measured over a 20-second count immediately following the test. c. It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test. d. It is measured over a 30-second count during the last minute of the test.

c. It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test.

Which type of training would most likely lead to increased levels of testosterone, insulin-like growth factors, and growth hormone? Select one: a. Overload training that is of a low intensity with limited rest periods b. Overload training that is of low intensity with prolonged rest periods c. Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods d. Overload training that is of a high intensity with prolonged rest periods

c. Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods

Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding proprioceptive modalities? Select one: a. Proprioceptive modalities have not been shown to help improve balance. b. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities has been shown to be safe and effective. c. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous. d. Proprioceptive modalities should be used only with the most advanced clients.

c. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous.

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining angular accelerations of the head while bending over to pick something up off the ground. Select one: a. Visual b. Sensorimotor function c. Vestibular d. Somatosensory

c. Vestibular

Which of the following is an open-ended question? Select one: a. Are you taking any medications? b. Do you have any injuries? c. What can you tell me about your past exercise experiences? d. Are you currently exercising?

c. What can you tell me about your past exercise experiences?

What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking? a) 125 minutes per week b) 75 minutes per week c) 300 minutes per week d) 150 minutes per week

d) 150 minutes per week

How many minutes of vigorous exercise in hot, humid environments should children be restricted to (including frequent rest periods)? a) 60 minutes b) 45 minutes c) 90 minutes d) 30 minutes

d) 30 minutes

What is the definition of kinesiophobia? a) Fear of heights b) Fear of standing c) Fear of stairs d) Fear of movement

d) Fear of moement

Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves? a) Cervical and thoracic b) Thoracic and lumbar c) Cervical and sacral d) Thoracic and sacral

d) Thoracic and sacral

What is it called when a ligament is overstretched or torn? Select one: a. A twist b. A strain c. A pull d. A sprain

d. A sprain

Which of these joint movements is part of backside mechanics? Select one: a. Hip flexion b. Ankle dorsiflexion c. Knee flexion d. Hip extension

d. Hip extension

When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia? Select one: a. Rectus abdominis b. Diaphragm c. Transverse abdominis d. Sternocleidomastoid

c. Transverse abdominis

Which joint has the simplest movement, moving either back and forth or side to side? Select one: a. Synovial b. Nonsynovial c. Condyloid d. Nonaxial

d. Nonaxial

Which movement assessment is a global observation of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients? Select one: a. Single-leg squat b. Pulling assessment c. Pushing assessment d. Overhead squat

d. Overhead squat

Which sense provides information about movement of the head in space? Select one: a. Hearing system b. Vestibular system c. Somatosensory system d. Visual system

b. Vestibular system

Which statement accurately describes the physical benefits of SAQ training? Select one: a. SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia. b. SAQ training decreases the risk of cancer. c. There is no evidence to support this adaptation. d. SAQ training increases LDL cholesterol.

a. SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia.

How much fluid is recommended for rehydration after an intense training session or event? Select one: a. Twice the amount of body weight lost during the activity b. 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity c. 2 to 3 liters of fluid d. 12 to 15 ounces of fluid

b. 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity

Which of the following is not considered a closed-chain exercise? Select one: a. Squats b. Lat pulldowns c. Pull-ups d. Push-ups

b. Lat pulldowns

The intensity and direction of someone's effort describes which of the following? Select one: a. Aspiration b. Motivation c. Ambition d. Initiative

b. Motivation

Which of the following is a ketone body? a) Lactic acid b) Pyruvate c) Acetoacetic acid d) Glycogen

c) Acetoacetic acid

How many B vitamins are there? Select one: a. 12 b. 21 c. 8 d. 3

c. 8

What are triglycerides? Select one: a. A substrate for high-intensity exercise b. A substrate for anaerobic exercise c. The stored form of carbohydrate d. The stored form of fat

d. The stored form of fat

Vitamin K supplements should be avoided by those taking which type of medication? Select one: a. Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin) b. Inhalers c. Insulin d. Painkillers

a. Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin)

You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAW drills? a) 1 or 2 sets b) 3 or 4 sets c) 5 or 6 sets d) 7 or 8 sets

b) 3 or 4 sets

You are working with an advanced client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best number of SAQ drills per workout? a) 10 to 15 drills b) 6 to 10 drills c) 3 to 5 drills d) 1 to 3 drills

b) 6 to 10 drills

What principle is hydrostatic underwater weighing based upon? Select one: a. Davis's principle b. Archimedes' principle c. All-or-nothing principle d. Principle of specificity

b. Archimedes' principle

What is a primary difference between a food label and a supplement label? a) Supplement labels only list active ingredients. b) A supplement label is more detailed than a food label. c) There is no difference. d) A supplement label only needs to list what is present, not specific amounts.

d) A supplement label only needs to list what is present, not specific amounts.

What is Bernadette's waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) if she is measured with a waist circumference of 28 inches and a hip circumference of 33 inches? Select one: a. 0.97 b. 1.18 c. 1.04 d. 0.85

d. 0.85

Which is very important as a prenatal vitamin? Select one: a. Niacin b. Vitamin C c. Pantothenic acid d. Folate

d. Folate

Which of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body? a) They are the primary source of energy for all physiologic processes. b) They are the primary energy source during short, high-intensity training. c) They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism. d) They provide some calories, and they are required for the regulation of muscle protein synthesis and glucose metabolism.

C) They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.

Which of the following would be the recommended stability ball size for someone under 5 feet tall? a) 45 cm b) 55 cm c) 75 cm d) 65 cm

a) 45 cm

Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location? a) A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) b) A horizontal skinfold taken 1 in lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) c) A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line d) A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line

a) A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

What is the main role of a personal trainer? a) Assess clients and make recommendations for exercise programming and other lifestyle changes b) Provide advanced strength and conditioning programs for competitive athletes c) Provide nutritional advise, therapy, and counseling to a wide range of clients d) Teach, lead, and motivate individuals through large-group exercise classes

a) Assess clients and make recommendations for exercise programming and other lifestyle changes

What is the appropriate location to take a waist circumference measurement? a) At the narrowest point of the waist, below the rib cage and just above the top of the hip bones (while standing) b) At the widest point of the waist (while seated) c) At the largest circumference immediately below the gluteal fold (while standing) d) At the widest portion of the buttocks (while standing with feet together)

a) At the narrowest point of the waist, below the rib cage and just above the top of the hip bones (while standing)

What is the correct order of fascia, starting with the most superficial? a) Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium b) Epimysium, endomysium, perimysium c) Perimysium, endomysium, epimysium d) Endomysium, perimysium, epimysium

a) Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium

When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise? a) Flexibility b) Resting heart rate c) Body composition d) Blood pressure

a) Flexibility

What are common tools used for self-myofascial techniques? a) Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls b) BOSU balls, air-filled discs, and stability balls c) Stretching straps, battle ropes, and sandbags d) Stretching straps, stability balls, and BOSU balls

a) Foam rollers, handheld roller, and massage balls

Apart from energy intake and physical activity, which of the following factors also influence weight management? a) Hormones and medications b) Body temperature c) Vitamin and mineral supplements d) Blood flow

a) Hormones and medications

Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function? a) Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency b) Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency c) Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability d) Lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability

a) Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency

Besides Power Training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their Olympic weightlifting? a) Maximal Strength Training b) Strength Endurance Training c) Stabilization Endurance Training d) Muscular Development Training

a) Maximal Strength Training

Which factor will be reduced through training/exercising with correct posture? a) Muscle imbalances b) Physical and mental well-being c) Flexibility d) Cardiorespiratory fitness

a) Muscle imbalances

Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training? a) Nerves b) Heart c) Soft tissue d) Bone

a) Nerves

What is an example of the role of the Certified Personal Trainer in working on balance training with a client? a) Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client's medical history b) Prescribing medications or supplements to improve components of the balance system (e.g., vision, vestibular, somatosensation) c) Diagnosing balance disorders d) Performing medical rehabilitation with the client for their balance deficits

a) Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client's medical history

Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion? a) Sagittal b) Frontal c) Axial d) Transverse

a) Sagittal

What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ? a) Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change b) Sense the amount of isometric tendon force and speed of shortening c) Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse d) Sense the amount of eccentric tendon force and joint range of motion

a) Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change

The social standing of a person or group that includes education, income, and occupation describes which term? a) Socioeconomic status b) Net worth c) Income status d) Social influence

a) Socioeconomic status

When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called? a) Sustain talk b) An affirmation c) Change talk d) A collecting summary

a) Sustain talk

What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do? a) The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP. b) The ETC uses proteins to create ADP. c) The ETC uses an oxygen gradient to create ATP. d) The ETC uses proteins to create hydrogen ions.

a) The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.

Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following? a) Tissue overload b) Motor unit recruitment c) Force production d) Functional movement

a) Tissue overload

Why is continued education required for NASM Certified Personal Trainers? a) To ensure that fitness professionals stay current on the latest understandings and research findings within the industry. b) To abide by federal guidelines that require continuing education units for allied health professionals. c) To elevate the fitness professional's status and reputation within the fitness community. d) To promote economic prosperity for the fitness industry and certifying organizations.

a) To ensure that fitness professionals stay current on the latest understandings and research findings within the industry.

What is the definition of energy balance? a) When daily food intake is matched to energy needs b) When daily food intake is consistent c) When protein intake is higher than protein breakdown d) When carbohydrates are consumed before a workout

a) When daily food intake is matched to energy needs

Approximately what percentage of the human body (in male and female adults) is comprised of water? Select one: a. 0.6 b. 0.4 c. 0.8 d. 0.5

a. 0.6

Hypertension is categorized by a blood pressure greater than what measurement? Select one: a. 120/80 mm Hg b. 120/60 mm Hg c. 125/75 mm Hg d. 80/120 mm Hg

a. 120/80 mm Hg

What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion? Select one: a. 140 beats per minute b. 120 beats per minute c. Unable to estimate because the Borg 6 to 20 scale applies only to vigorous exercise d. Unable to estimate because RPE does not correlate with heart rate

a. 140 beats per minute

Which answer best represents the timeframe when delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) occurs after strenuous exercise? Select one: a. 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise b. 2 to 4 hours after strenuous exercise c. 36 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise d. 4 to 12 hours after strenuous exercise

a. 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise

From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients? Select one: a. 4 to 6 drills b. 7 to 9 drills c. 9 or 10 drills d. 1 or 2 drills

a. 4 to 6 drills

What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy? Select one: a. 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills b. 6 to 10 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills c. 10 to 12 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills d. 6 to 8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia but limited unpredictability, such as 5-10-5, T-drill, box drill, and stand-up to figure 8

a. 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills

According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, for how long must a fitness professional maintain accurate financial, contract, appointment, and tax records? Select one: a. 4 years b. Indefinitely c. 6 months d. 1 year

a. 4 years

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations? Select one: a. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM b. 2 sets, 12 repetitions, 75% 1RM c. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM d. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM

a. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM

What would be the back-squat volume for a client who has completed 10 sets of 3 repetitions at 225 pounds? Select one: a. 6,750 pounds b. 675 pounds c. 2,250 pounds d. 6,750 reps

a. 6,750 pounds

What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout? Select one: a. 60 to 120 seconds b. 30 seconds c. 5 minutes d. 0 seconds

a. 60 to 120 seconds

Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements? Select one: a. A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength b. A client who has been training 2 months with some improvements in strength c. A client who has been exercising for 4 months with some strength d. An overweight client with adequate strength

a. A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength

Circuit training is best described as what? Select one: a. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements b. Exercises that are performed back-to-back with no rest between each movement c. Taking two modalities and combining them into one exercise movement, such as placing the hands on a balance tool while performing a suspended crunch d. A system of handing straps that allows the user to use their own body weight to load exercise movements

a. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements

What statement best describes a premium health club? Select one: a. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities b. A private health club offered only at luxury resorts and golf courses c. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment d. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives

a. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities

What best describes the all-or-nothing principle? Select one: a. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all. b. The switch from type IIa to type IIx muscle fibers c. All muscle fibers contract, or none at all do. d. The switch from type I to type II muscle fibers

a. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.

Which statement best describes the term deconditioned? Select one: a. A state in which a person may have a combination of muscle imbalances, poor flexibility, insufficient endurance, or limited joint stability b. A state in which a person is overweight or obese and at risk for diabetes c. A state in which a person is dealing with a chronic health condition d. A state in which the individual is out of breath when climbing a flight of stairs

a. A state in which a person may have a combination of muscle imbalances, poor flexibility, insufficient endurance, or limited joint stability

What is the peripheral heart action system? Select one: a. A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit b. A system that involves breaking up the body into parts to be trained on separate days c. A system that involves performing a series of exercises, one after the other, with minimal rest d. A system that incorporates a slight pause between repetitions within a series of sets

a. A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit

Which of the following best defines cholesterol? Select one: a. A waxy, fatlike substance found in bodily cells b. A narrowing of arteries to the heart c. A raising of blood pressure d. A substance that attaches itself to muscles and tendons

a. A waxy, fatlike substance found in bodily cells

What are the end products of the electron transport chain? Select one: a. ATP and water b. ADP and water c. ADP and hydrogen ions d. ATP and oxygen

a. ATP and water

What are the two components of a sarcomere? Select one: a. Actin and myosin b. Epimysium and endomysium c. Tropomyosin and troponin d. Muscle fiber and muscle cel

a. Actin and myosin

If a client is having trouble maintaining form during a tuck jump exercise, what type of regression should be applied? Select one: a. Adding a stabilization pause between reps b. Switch to single-leg power step-ups c. Being more explosive d. Increasing speed

a. Adding a stabilization pause between reps

Which of the following would occur during intermittent exercise? Select one: a. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity. b. Carbohydrates would not be a major energy source. c. Fat would be the main energy source. d. A steady-state intensity would be used.

a. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity.

Which of the following describes structural scoliosis? Select one: a. Altered bone shape through the spine b. Improper muscle balance in the spine c. Improper muscle balance in the lower extremity d. Altered bone shape through the lower extremity

a. Altered bone shape through the spine

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus distortion syndrome? Select one: a. Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius b. Upper trapezius c. Adductor complex (inner thighs) d. Hip flexors

a. Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius

The risk of which lower-extremity injury was decreased in female basketball athletes who participated in a 5-week balance training program that improved landing movement mechanics? Select one: a. Anterior cruciate ligament injury b. Foot injury c. Shoulder injury d. Patellar fracture

a. Anterior cruciate ligament injury

Overactive hip flexors may lead to which of the following postural compensations? Select one: a. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch b. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch c. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch d. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch

a. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch

Which of the following represents a criterion for terminating an exercise test or exercise bout that involves exertion? Select one: a. Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms b. Failure of diastolic blood pressure to rise by more than 15 mm Hg c. Labored or heavy breathing associated with exertion d. An elevation of systolic blood pressure to 220 mm Hg

a. Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms

What type of imagery occurs when a client imagines health-related outcomes? Select one: a. Appearance imagery b. Positive self-talk c. Energy imagery d. Technique imagery

a. Appearance imagery

Which of the following is a component of quickness training? Select one: a. Assessment of visual stimuli b. Speed c. Stride rate d. Acceleration

a. Assessment of visual stimuli

What causes coronary heart disease? Select one: a. Atherosclerosis b. Cirrhosis c. Osteoporosis d. Tuberculosis

a. Atherosclerosis

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the upper extremities during a pushing movement? Select one: a. Bench press strength assessment b. Pushing assessment c. Overhead press assessment d. Pulling assessment

a. Bench press strength assessment

Which of the following is true about body image? Select one: a. Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately. b. Body image is measured accurately based on an individual evaluating a picture of themselves. c. Body image is a very stable variable and, once established, rarely changes for an individual. d. Body image is more positive in individuals who regularly exercise in a group setting.

a. Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately.

What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques? Select one: a. Cancer and bleeding disorders b. Hypertension that is controlled and varicose veins c. Pregnancy and diabetes d. Young children and older adults

a. Cancer and bleeding disorders

During short, high-intensity exercise, what is the primary fuel source for the body? Select one: a. Carbohydrates b. Proteins c. Amino acids d. Lipids

a. Carbohydrates

Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to arthritis? Select one: a. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax). b. High-intensity resistance training is appropriate to improve joint integrity. c. Physical activity tends to aggravate arthritic symptoms. d. Plyometric training alleviates arthritic symptoms.

a. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).

Which statement about a Certified Personal Trainer's scope of practice is accurate? Select one: a. Certified Personal Trainers do not diagnose or treat areas of pain or disease. b. The scope of practice for Certified Personal Trainers is consistent globally. c. Certified Personal Trainers have specific governmental regulations that define their scope of practice. d. Once certified, a personal trainer is bound by law in the United States to a specific scope of practice.

a. Certified Personal Trainers do not diagnose or treat areas of pain or disease.

Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves? Select one: a. Cervical and lumbar b. Cervical and thoracic c. Thoracic and lumbar d. Cervical and sacral

a. Cervical and lumbar

Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training? Select one: a. Change of direction b. Speed c. Strength d. Power

a. Change of direction

Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge? Select one: a. Cleaning b. Raking leaves c. Moving a grocery cart d. Getting in and out of the car

a. Cleaning

Which component of an OPT workout is intended to help preserve client autonomy? Select one: a. Client's choice b. Resistance c. Activation d. Cool-down

a. Client's choice

Which type of muscle contraction/action produces force through muscle fiber shortening? Select one: a. Concentric action b. Isometric action c. Eccentric action d. Isokinetic action

a. Concentric action

Which type of assessment assesses the alignment of the body while in motion? Select one: a. Dynamic posture assessment b. Performance assessment c. Static posture assessment d. Overhead squat assessment

a. Dynamic posture assessment

Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most freedom of movement in the transverse plane? Select one: a. Elastic band woodchop b. Seated abdominal crunch machine c. Dumbbell lat row d. Suspended chest press

a. Elastic band woodchop

Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the posterior aspect of the body? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Multifidus c. Quadratus lumborum d. Diaphragm

a. Erector spinae

When NASM recommends relying on the current best information in making decisions about client care, what is it referring to? Select one: a. Evidence-based practice b. Popular theories and methods posted on online fitness forums c. Peer-observed procedure d. Traditional compliance

a. Evidence-based practice

Which statement is the most accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to pregnancy? Select one: a. Exercise has beneficial effects on the physiology and health of both the mother and the developing fetus. b. Most recreational pursuits are inappropriate for pregnant women. c. The fetus will be harmed by increased blood circulation during physical activity. d. The fetus will be harmed by decreased oxygen supply during physical activity.

a. Exercise has beneficial effects on the physiology and health of both the mother and the developing fetus.

A client asks you how she could lose fat as quickly as possible for a beach vacation next weekend. Which of the following is the best way to respond to her question? Select one: a. Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss usually results in loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not advisable. b. Suggest that she avoid eating any fat during the week to promote fat loss. c. Explain that fat loss occurs in a caloric deficit and she should cut her caloric intake drastically over the next week to drop fat fast. d. Suggest that she avoid eating carbohydrates during the week to promote fat loss.

a. Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss usually results in loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not advisable.

Which source of social support has been shown to be particularly important for older adults? Select one: a. Family b. The community c. Exercise group d. Exercise leader

a. Family

What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement? Select one: a. Feed-forward b. Synergist function c. Antagonist function d. Feedback

a. Feed-forward

What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Femur parallel to ground b. Butt to heels c. Knees to 45 degrees d. Full-depth squat

a. Femur parallel to ground

What two activities are part of a client's warm-up? Select one: a. Flexibility and cardio b. Plyometrics c. Resistance d. Core

a. Flexibility and cardio

Mobility is a combination of which two musculoskeletal components? Select one: a. Flexibility and joint ROM b. Muscle strength and power c. Neuromuscular efficiency and quickness d. Muscle strength and neuromuscular efficiency

a. Flexibility and joint ROM

Which of the following core exercises best suits stabilization training? Select one: a. Floor bridge b. Repeat step-ups c. Barbell chest press d. Deadlifts

a. Floor bridge

Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed? Select one: a. Free hydrogen ions b. Lack of pyruvate c. Depletion of phosphocreatine d. Lack of fatty acids

a. Free hydrogen ions

Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance? Select one: a. Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis b. Permanent scoliosis c. Bony scoliosis d. Structural (non-functional) scoliosis

a. Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis

What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins? Select one: a. Gentle static stretching b. Pilates c. General cardiovascular exercise d. Deep soft-tissue massage

a. Gentle static stretching

If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity? Select one: a. Glycolysis b. The electron transport chain c. The ATP-PC system d. Oxidative phosphorylation

a. Glycolysis

The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a. Hamstrings and erector spinae b. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus c. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum d. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators

a. Hamstrings and erector spinae

Which of the following effects may be experienced with overtraining? Select one: a. High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment b. Lower levels of cortisol, which lead to an anabolic environment c. Elevated levels of cortisol, which lead to an anabolic environment d. Low levels of cortisol, which lead to an environment that is catabolic

a. High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment

Which is not part of triple extension involved in backside sprint mechanics? Select one: a. Hip abduction b. Hip extension c. Knee extension d. Ankle plantar flexion

a. Hip abduction

The human body is uniquely designed to respond to stress and, if necessary, make changes to maintain optimal health and physiological functioning. What is this process called? Select one: a. Homeostasis b. Neuromuscular efficiency c. Excitation-contraction coupling d. Fight-or-flight response

a. Homeostasis

A client wants to improve their deadlift. Which of the following is an outcome goal? Select one: a. I want to deadlift 300 pounds. b. I want to deadlift after work. c. I want to lift 3 times per week. d. I want to deadlift once per week.

a. I want to deadlift 300 pounds.

What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise? Select one: a. Ice skaters b. Depth jumps c. Squat jump d. Proprioceptive plyometrics

a. Ice skaters

You are working with a new client who recently started a low-carbohydrate diet for weight loss. However, she complains of being tired and lacking energy for her training sessions. What might be the reason for her low energy? Select one: a. Inadequate carbohydrate intake b. Inadequate protein intake c. Excess fat intake d. Inadequate fat intake

a. Inadequate carbohydrate intake

Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine. Select one: a. Increased lordosis b. Decreased kyphosis c. Decreased lordosis d. Increased kyphosis

a. Increased lordosis

Which of the following is considered a benefit of performing a warm-up prior to cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature b. Decreased rate of muscle contraction and metabolic rate c. Decreased oxygen exchange capacity d. Increased parasympathetic nervous activity

a. Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature

Which of the following is not a goal of Phase 1 of the OPT model? Select one: a. Increasing strength b. Improving mobility c. Proper movement patterns d. Improving stability

a. Increasing strength

What population is the VT2 talk test appropriate for? Select one: a. Individuals with performance goals b. Elderly individuals c. Individuals recovering from an injury d. Deconditioned individuals

a. Individuals with performance goals

What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart? Select one: a. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure b. Inspiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure c. Expiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure d. Expiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

a. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

The pancreas secretes which of the following hormones? Select one: a. Insulin b. Testosterone c. Insulin-like growth factor d. Growth hormone

a. Insulin

Which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement created by their combined action? Select one: a. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation b. Upper trapezius and serratus anterior functioning to create downward rotation of the scapula c. The gastrocnemius and soleus functioning to create ankle dorsiflexion d. Deltoid and rotator cuff functioning to create shoulder adduction

a. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation

What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)? Select one: a. It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate. b. This formula focuses on age to calculate training based on heart rate. c. It does not use resting heart rate, so it is easier to estimate. d. It is performed simply on the fly, right in the gym.

a. It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.

What is the most important reason not to allow the knee to cave inward during a lunge jump exercise? Select one: a. It causes stress to the connective tissues. b. It makes the next jump too easy to execute. c. It creates too powerful a jump. d. It reduces force too much.

a. It causes stress to the connective tissues.

Which of the following is a necessity for all fitness professionals to remain successful in the industry? Select one: a. Keeping up with the latest science and changes in the industry b. Annual certification by NASM c. Having at least 15 active clients at all times d. Occasional publishing in relevant journals

a. Keeping up with the latest science and changes in the industry

Which of the following exercises provides the most challenge for the antirotational stabilizing muscles? Select one: a. Kettlebell RDL b. Sandbag rotational lunge c. Stability ball abdominal crunches d. Cable machine single-arm row

a. Kettlebell RDL

An anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear is a common injury to what part of the body? Select one: a. Knee b. Ankle c. Shoulder d. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex

a. Knee

Which leadership component refers to the leader being a great example for how to live a healthy and balanced life, which includes being optimistic, empathetic, and knowledgeable? Select one: a. Leader's qualities b. The requirements of the leader c. Leader's style d. The personality of the leader

a. Leader's qualities

Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs? Select one: a. Left atrium b. Pulmonary veins c. Right atrium d. Left ventricle

a. Left atrium

What is the fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone? Select one: a. Ligament b. Collagen c. Tendon d. Elastin

a. Ligament

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility? Select one: a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) b. 40-yard dash c. Pro shuttle d. Vertical jump

a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

Calcium is of principal importance for what? Select one: a. Maintaining strong bones b. Nutrient absorption c. Maintaining a strong immune system d. Clearing toxins

a. Maintaining strong bones

Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect? Select one: a. Measuring intensity by one's "effort" (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity. b. It can produce results in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work. c. Measuring intensity by performance (objective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity. d. Intervals are performed at higher intensities and use longer recovery periods.

a. Measuring intensity by one's "effort" (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.

The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of? Select one: a. Mechanical specificity b. Neuromuscular specificity c. Posture specificity d. Metabolic specificity

a. Mechanical specificity

Which of the following exercises may increase inaccurate readings while utilizing a wrist-worn heart rate monitor? Select one: a. Medicine ball catch and pass b. Stability ball plank c. Suspended bodyweight crunch d. Barbell squats

a. Medicine ball catch and pass

Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature? Select one: a. Medicine ball pullover throw b. Medicine ball chest pass c. Front medicine ball oblique throw d. Overhead medicine ball throw

a. Medicine ball pullover throw

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets development of the rate of force production (power) of the core? Select one: a. Medicine ball woodchop throw b. Reverse crunch c. Bird dog d. Cable chop

a. Medicine ball woodchop throw

What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target? Select one: a. Middle deltoid b. Lateral triceps brachii c. Lateral hamstrings d. Medial gastrocnemius

a. Middle deltoid

How does taking "high" doses of vitamin C impact health? Select one: a. More is not always better. In some cases, increasing the dosage does not come with many adverse effects, but it also does not increase health benefits. An increased dose of Vitamin C over 1 g reduces absorption. b. High doses can be dangerous. c. It improves the immune system. d. High doses can improve heart health.

a. More is not always better. In some cases, increasing the dosage does not come with many adverse effects, but it also does not increase health benefits. An increased dose of Vitamin C over 1 g reduces absorption.

For a fitness professional using the OPT model, the goal of the Stabilization Endurance phase is to focus on which of the following aspects? Select one: a. Movement quality b. Movement speed c. Movement intensity d. Movement quantity

a. Movement quality

What type of communication includes posture, hand gestures, proximity to others, and facial expressions? Select one: a. Nonverbal communication b. Verbal communication c. Reflective listening d. Motivational interviewing

a. Nonverbal communication

Flexibility is defined as the following: Select one: a. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion b. A muscle's capability to be elongated or stretched c. The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often measured in degrees d. Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely

a. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion

It is most important to improve balance in this population to decrease their fear of falling. Select one: a. Older individuals b. Young females c. College athletes d. Those with ankle sprains

a. Older individuals

SAQ training among seniors may help prevent which of the following conditions? Select one: a. Osteopenia b. Arthritis c. Lung cancer d. There is no evidence to show that SAQ programs for seniors may prevent this condition.

a. Osteopenia

Heavy battle rope training is an ideal training modality for which of the following phases? Select one: a. Phases 4 and 5 b. Phases 2 and 3 c. Phases 1 and 3 d. Phases 3 and 4

a. Phases 4 and 5

Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions? Select one: a. Posterior b. Superior c. Anterior d. Lateral

a. Posterior

What area of the body is most targeted during the single-leg squat to row exercise? Select one: a. Posterior chain b. Deep cervical flexors c. Intrinsic core musculature d. Anterior chain

a. Posterior chain

When using linear periodization with a client, what would you progress them to after 4 weeks of training maximal strength adaptations? Select one: a. Power b. Stabilization endurance c. Muscular development d. Strength endurance

a. Power

Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires the use of appropriate professional communication in all verbal, nonverbal, and written transactions? Select one: a. Professionalism b. Business practice c. Legal and ethical d. Confidentiality

a. Professionalism

What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change? Select one: a. Provide them with education and knowledge b. Encourage them to make plans to exercise c. Tell them to exercise with a friend d. Help them identify barriers to exercise

a. Provide them with education and knowledge

Which of the following is not considered an open-chain exercise? Select one: a. Push-up b. Machine leg extension c. Bench press d. Lat pulldown

a. Push-up

Which of the following is an appropriate assessment for a senior client who is sedentary? Select one: a. Pushing test b. Davies test c. Shark skill test d. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) test

a. Pushing test

What resistance training system involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases weight with each set? Select one: a. Pyramid system b. Complex training c. Multiple-set system d. Superset system

a. Pyramid system

When glucose is broken down via glycolysis, what molecule is created that could also be oxidized under aerobic conditions? Select one: a. Pyruvate b. Fatty acids c. Glycogen d. Amino acids

a. Pyruvate

Which of the following muscle groups work eccentrically in the sagittal plane during the lowering phase of the squat? Select one: a. Quadriceps b. Gluteus medius c. Biceps brachii d. Adductor longus

a. Quadriceps

What artery is used to measure blood pressure? Select one: a. Radial artery b. Brachial artery c. Femoral artery d. Carotid artery

a. Radial artery

Which of the following nutrition professionals is nationally recognized by the Commission on Dietetic Registration to provide clinical, community, food service, and nutrition education? Select one: a. Registered dietitian nutritionist b. Licensed dietitian c. Certified nutrition specialist d. Certified dietitian nutritionist

a. Registered dietitian nutritionist

What is the process by which bone is constantly renewed? Select one: a. Remodeling b. Osteoporosis c. Wolff's law d. Neuroplasticity

a. Remodeling

Which of the following would be a helpful and sustainable strategy for achieving a moderate calorie deficit for fat loss? Select one: a. Replacing high-calorie foods with leaner substitutes b. Replacing high-fiber foods with low-fiber options c. Avoiding a food group (e.g., fats or carbohydrates) d. Limiting meals to once a day

a. Replacing high-calorie foods with leaner substitutes

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise? Select one: a. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press b. Hip extension, knee extension, and plantar flexion c. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra d. Shoulder horizontal adduction and internal rotation

a. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press

During an interview with the hiring manager at a large health club, Sarah, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, is asked how she can contribute as a personal trainer even though she has no formal experience working in the field. What would be the most appropriate response? Select one: a. Sarah discusses her previous work experience in a busy day care, where she had to multitask multiple times a day to perform her job duties. She thinks the multitasking helped prepare her for the demands of a busy fitness floor. b. Sarah mentions her experience training for figure competitions. She thinks that experience means that she can help clients train for their competitions. c. Sarah mentions her experience as a cashier at a snack bar. She thinks this demonstrates her ability to run a cash register and complete daily cash reports. d. Sarah discusses her experience as a high school athlete. Because she was a good athlete, she thinks she will be a good personal trainer.

a. Sarah discusses her previous work experience in a busy day care, where she had to multitask multiple times a day to perform her job duties. She thinks the multitasking helped prepare her for the demands of a busy fitness floor.

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise? Select one: a. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra b. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation c. Hip adduction, flexion, and internal rotation d. Wrist flexion, elbow flexion, and shoulder flexion

a. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra

Which of the following exercises is not considered a compound exercise? Select one: a. Seated leg extension b. Bench press c. Overhead press d. Barbell squat

a. Seated leg extension

Which behavior change technique allows individuals to identify external triggers that lead them to behave in certain ways? Select one: a. Self-monitoring b. Enlisting social support c. Action planning d. Coping planning

a. Self-monitoring

What is an important step after conducting an interview with a potential employer? Select one: a. Sending a handwritten thank-you letter or an email b. Posting a note on social media saying how much fun it was to interview and how cool it would be to work for the company c. Texting the hiring manager to thank them for their time during the interview d. Having a parent call to ask about the interview results

a. Sending a handwritten thank-you letter or an email

For which movement impairment would you see the shoulders moving upward toward the ears? Select one: a. Shoulder elevation b. Arms fall forward c. Forward lean d. Scapular winging

a. Shoulder elevation

Which exercise would be most appropriate for a maximal strength movement in Phase 4 (Maximal Strength Training)? Select one: a. Shoulder/military press b. Single-leg dumbbell biceps curl to shoulder press c. Stability ball push-up d. Squat jump

a. Shoulder/military press

Which movement assessment is a good assessment of a client's balance during movement? Select one: a. Single-leg squat b. 40-yard dash c. Push-up test d. Overhead squat

a. Single-leg squat

Changing leadership style based on the size of a group would be an example of which component of leadership? Select one: a. Situational factors b. Follower's qualities c. Leader's qualities d. Leadership styles

a. Situational factors

Which of the following is an optional component of an OPT workout and is based on client goals and fitness levels? Select one: a. Skill development b. Resistance c. Warm-up d. Cool-down

a. Skill development

Where in the digestive system are most fluids absorbed? Select one: a. Small intestine b. Stomach c. Large intestine d. Esophagus

a. Small intestine

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface. Select one: a. Somatosensation b. Vision c. Sensorimotor function d. Vestibular

a. Somatosensation

Asking a client to stand on a BOSU ball would provide a major challenge to what system? Select one: a. Somatosensory b. Vision c. Digestive d. Vestibular

a. Somatosensory

Asking a client to balance on an unstable surface while barefoot would challenge which system? Select one: a. Somatosensory system b. Vestibular system c. Visual system d. Auditory system

a. Somatosensory system

Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise behavior? Select one: a. Sport and exercise psychology b. Health psychology c. Social psychology d. Developmental psychology

a. Sport and exercise psychology

Which of the following hydration options would be most appropriate for exercise lasting over 90 minutes, or shorter-duration exercise in warm temperatures with heavy perspiration? Select one: a. Sports drink or electrolyte tablets mixed with water b. Plain water c. Fruit juice d. Water mixed with fruit juice

a. Sports drink or electrolyte tablets mixed with water

What is defined as the body's ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements? Select one: a. Stabilization b. Muscular endurance c. Muscular hypertrophy d. Strength

a. Stabilization

What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-and-fitness improvements, such as reducing their risk for diabetes? Select one: a. Stage 1 b. Stage 4 c. Stage 2 d. Stage 3

a. Stage 1

What is the most appropriate gluteal strengthening exercise for a client with hypertension? Select one: a. Standing cable hip extension b. Ball bridge c. Floor bridge d. Dumbbell squat while performing the Valsalva maneuver

a. Standing cable hip extension

A client is taking prescription beta-blockers for hypertension. Which exercise is the safest for him to perform? Select one: a. Standing cobra b. Reverse crunch c. Floor bridge d. Knee-up

a. Standing cobra

Maintaining one's balance while standing still on a single foot in contact with a firm surface can best be described as what type of balance? Select one: a. Static balance b. Dynamic balance c. Motion balance d. Semi-dynamic balance

a. Static balance

An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following? Select one: a. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily. b. Avoid aerobic exercise for lower extremities. c. Avoid walking and jogging and opt for cycling. d. Substitute self-myofascial release for static stretching.

a. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.

Which organization must approve a supplement prior to it being sold? Select one: a. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale. b. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA) c. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) d. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)

a. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.

Which of the following is a recommendation when assessing skinfold measurements? Select one: a. Take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site. b. Do not give clients prior instructions about measurement protocol, as this can skew results. c. Do not open the jaw of the caliper before removing it from the site. d. Take skinfold measurements immediately after exercise.

a. Take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site.

Which test would you select as the most appropriate when attempting to measure the overall fitness level of a fit college-aged athlete who competes on the school's rugby team? Select one: a. The 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test b. Rockport 1-mile walk test c. YMCA 3-minute step test d. The talk test

a. The 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test

What is end-systolic volume? Select one: a. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction b. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction c. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute d. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction

a. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction

Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic? Select one: a. The exercise is intense. b. The exercise targets large muscle groups. c. The exercise is continuous in nature. d. The exercise is rhythmic.

a. The exercise is intense.

An important aspect of an established exercise group includes which of the following? Select one: a. The group feels distinct from other people. b. Groups function only when all members are present. c. Once the group is formed, no other participants are allowed in. d. Groups rely only on the leader for support.

a. The group feels distinct from other people.

What would not be a reason to terminate an exercise test? Select one: a. The individual is tired from the test. b. The individual chooses to stop or requests to stop the test being administered. c. Visible signs of unusual or excessive fatigue, shortness of breath, or a wheezing type of breath that is not typical of intense exercise. d. Any malfunction or failure of any exercise or testing equipment.

a. The individual is tired from the test.

What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment of knee valgus? Select one: a. The knees collapsing inward b. The hip shifting toward one side or the other c. The knees bowing outward d. An upright trunk and knees in front of toes

a. The knees collapsing inward

How is osteopenia best described? Select one: a. The loss of bone density related to the aging process. b. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults. c. A bone weakness disease caused by vitamin D deficiency. d. A disease characterized by low bone density.

a. The loss of bone density related to the aging process.

What is the ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)? Select one: a. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise b. The point at which a person can no longer talk during exercise c. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise d. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise

a. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise

What is atherosclerosis? Select one: a. The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow b. The state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream. c. The state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream d. A normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable

a. The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow

If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate? Select one: a. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate. b. The pyruvate will be stored in the muscle. c. The pyruvate will be oxidized via oxidative phosphorylation. d. The pyruvate will be converted to acetyl CoA.

a. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.

What are triglycerides? Select one: a. The stored form of fat b. The stored form of carbohydrate c. A substrate for anaerobic exercise d. A substrate for high-intensity exercise

a. The stored form of fat

Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch? Select one: a. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee. b.This stretch is too advanced for the average person. c. The stretch is too complicated for the older client. d. The stretch provides excessive stress to the quadriceps muscles.

a. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.

Why is the hurdler's stretch considered to be a controversial lower-body stretch? Select one: a. The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee. b. The stretch provides excessive stress to the hamstring muscles. c. The stretch is too complicated for the new client. d. The stretch is too advanced for the average person.

a. The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee.

A hypertensive client is taking a beta-blocker medication. What is the most appropriate method to monitor exercise intensity? Select one: a. The talk test b. Haskell's 220-minus-age formula c. Metabolic Equivalent (MET) d. The Tanaka formula

a. The talk test

Which of the following is true regarding steroids and other banned substances? Select one: a. They should never be recommended to clients, as they pose undue risk and are often illegal. b. They should always be recommended to clients to help them get results quickly. c. They have overexaggerated side effects that typically do not occur. d. They should never be discussed with clients in any capacity.

a. They should never be recommended to clients, as they pose undue risk and are often illegal.

What are the steps in the cumulative injury cycle? Select one: a. Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalance b. Muscle hypertrophy, altered neuromuscular inhibition, poor flexibility, muscle ache, swelling, and tissue bruising c. Muscle spasm, neuromuscular pain, increased psychological fear, poor flexibility, muscle pain, and bruising d. Muscle atrophy, neuromuscular recruitment, increased flexibility, muscle pain, bruising, and tissue edema

a. Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalance

What is the most important reason that a Certified Personal Trainer should make sure an older adult has been cleared by the medical provider to take part in a balance training program? Select one: a. To ensure safety b. To make sure the program is difficult enough c. To enhance enjoyment of exercise d. To make sure the client isn't doing too much exercise

a. To ensure safety

What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training? Select one: a. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness b. To introduce individuals to exercise and improve general health and fitness, or to provide recovery following higher-intensity exercise sessions c. To increase the capacity of aerobic and anaerobic energy systems for clients seeking further improvements in exercise capacity d. To increase the capacity of the anaerobic energy system for high-level athletes and fitness enthusiasts seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power

a. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

Accumulating too much of a vitamin or mineral in the body may lead to what? Select one: a. Toxicity b. Better outcomes c. Deficiency d. Improved performance

a. Toxicity

What is defined as the specific outline created by a fitness professional that details the form of training, length of time, and specific exercises to be performed? Select one: a. Training plan b. Macrocycle c. Acute variables d. Periodization

a. Training plan

Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Transverse plane box jump-down b. Sagittal plane box jump-down c. Sagittal plane box jump-up d. Frontal plane box jump-up

a. Transverse plane box jump-down

What is the proper lower-body progression for balance training when starting with a new client? Select one: a. Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable b. Single-leg stable, two-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable c. Single-leg unstable, single-leg stable, two-leg stable, single-leg stable d. Two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable, single-leg stable, two-leg stable

a. Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable

Roderick, an NASM-CPT, has submitted his application to be a personal trainer through the website of a large health club company. What will provide the best opportunity to get noticed by the hiring manager? Select one: a. Wearing a suit and tie to the health club to drop off a resume with the hiring manager and complete an application in person b. Calling the health club, asking to speak to the hiring manager, and explaining he is perfect for the job c. Posting workout videos to a social media account and tagging the health club and hiring managers d. Showing up at the club in workout clothes, explaining that he is an applicant, and asking for a free workout

a. Wearing a suit and tie to the health club to drop off a resume with the hiring manager and complete an application in person

Unrealistic goals can become a barrier when which of the following happens? Select one: a. When goals are not adjusted b. When outcome goals are objective c. When process goals are too specific d. When only one goal is set

a. When goals are not adjusted

Which of the following intensities best represents VT2 during the incremental test protocol? Select one: a. When the individual responds with "no" when asked, "Can you speak competently?" b. When the individual says it is "somewhat easy" to talk during the activity c. When the individual responds with "yes" when asked, "Can you speak competently?" d. When the individual says it is "challenging" to speak during the activity

a. When the individual responds with "no" when asked, "Can you speak competently?"

In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases? Select one: a. Zone 3 b. Zone 2 c. Zone 1 d. Zone 4

a. Zone 3

How would age and overall health affect testosterone levels among men? a) Testosterone levels are not affected by age, as overall health is the primary reason for a decline. b) A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health may affect the degree of change. c) A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health does not contribute to the change. d) Age and overall health do not affect testosterone levels.

b) A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age and overall health may affect the degree of change.

Which of the following conditions would produce nutritional ketosis in the body? a) High-intensity exercise b) A very low-carbohydrate diet c) A low-protein diet d) A caloric surplus

b) A very low carbohydrate diet

Which of the following statements is considered to be most accurate? a) Greater caloric expenditure in exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels. b) An individual's cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality. c) Cardiorespiratory fitness training does not provide many health benefits, and it should not be top priority when designing a program. d) Greater muscle mass accumulated through exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels.

b) An individual's cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.

The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to remove what waste product? a) Platelets b) Carbon dioxide c) Oxygen d) Water

b) Carbon dioxide

Which of the following would be an example of nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)? a) Doing 20 minutes of resistance training b) Cleaning the house c) Running for 5 miles d) Sleeping

b) Cleaning the house

What breathing change occurs at the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)? a) Breathing settles into a more consistent rhythm. b) Expiration become more forceful. c) Inspiration is prolonged. d) Breathing becomes more shallow.

b) Expiration becomes more forceful.

Waist circumference acts as an important indicator for disease such as what? a) Alzheimer's disease b) Heart disease and diabetes c) Osteoporosis d) Cancer

b) Heart disease and diabetes

How should the back be positioned when performing a bird dog exercise? a) Excessive lordotic position b) In a neutral position c) Anterior pelvic tilt d) Kyphotic positioning

b) In a neutral position

Which lower-body stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury? a) Standing hamstring stretch b) Inverted hurdler's stretch for hamstrings c) Assisted supine hamstring stretch d) Supine hamstring stretch

b) Inverted hurdler's stretch for hamstrings

When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor? a) It may place too much stress on the cervical spine through hyperflextion. b) It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension. c) It may place too much stress on the lumbar spine through hyperflexion. d) It may place excessive stress on the thoracic spine through hyperflextion

b) It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.

In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes? a) Phase 4 b) Phase 2 c) Phase 3 d) Phase 5

b) Phase 2

Which of the following best describes the term power? a) Muscle growth b) Rate of force production c) Joint protection d) Sport-specific skills

b) Rate of force production

What are two of the most common issues at the foot and ankle complex? a) Plantar fasciitis and shin splints b) Sprains and plantar fasciitis c) Achilles tendonitis and athlete's foot d) Strains and heel spurs

b) Sprains and plantar fasciitis

What type of imagery involves focusing on exercise form? a) Cognitive fusion b) Technique imagery c) Energy imagery d) Appearance imagery

b) Technique imagery

Which of the following defines the limits of stability of the body? a) The highest elevation of the body in space b) The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support c) The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface d) The approximate midpoint of the body

b) The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support

The pathway for hormones secreted by the endocrine system may be described by which of the following? a) The hormone is secreted by the bloodstream and travels to the gland to exert a particular effect. b) The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action. c) The gland secretes the hormone, which bypasses the bloodstream and binds to a receptor on the target cell to exert a particular action. d) The target cell releases the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to the gland to exert a particular action.

b) The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action.

How can diastolic blood pressure be defined? a) The action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body b) The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded c) The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded d) The measurement of the number of times a heart beats within a specified time period (usually 1 minute)

b) The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded

Which of the following is true of protein shakes? a) They are dangerous and should be avoided. b) They are convenient options for increasing protein intake. c) They are required to build muscle. d) They are a poor choice for recovery.

b) They are convenient options for increasing protein intake.

Iodine has a major role in which bodily process? a) Liver function b) Thyroid function c) Heart function d) Kidney function

b) Thyroid function

What is defined as an individual's level of effort, compared with their maximal effort, which is usually expressed as a percentage? a) Training frequency b) Training intensity c) Training volume d) Training duration

b) Training intensity

A client with osteoporosis has been medically cleared to perform exercise. Which form of training can have the most impact on increasing the client's bone mineral density? a) Swimming b) Walking c) Cycling d) Water aerobics

b) Walking

What is the approximate percentage of those who will quit a fitness program within the first 6 months after they begin? Select one: a. 0.1 b. 0.5 c. 0.4 d. 0.25

b. 0.5

What is the RDA for protein? Select one: a. 2.0 g/kg of body weight b. 0.8 g/kg of body weight c. 1.2 g/kg of body weight d. 1.6 g/kg of body weight

b. 0.8 g/kg of body weight

What are the recommended training variables for static stretching? Select one: a. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 2 minutes b. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds c. 2 to 5 sets, hold each stretch for 5 minutes d. 5 to 10 sets, hold each stretch for 10 seconds

b. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds

Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals? Select one: a. 1.0 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight b. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight c. 1.5 to 2.5 g/kg of body weight d. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight

b. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight

If a client is exercising for 150 minutes per week (30 minutes, 5 days per week), then a 10% increase in volume would result in how many minutes total per week? Select one: a. 180 minutes per week b. 165 minutes per week c. 150 minutes per week d. 125 minutes per week

b. 165 minutes per week

Identify the correct number of continuing education units (CEUs) that an NASM Certified Personal Trainer needs to complete in a 2-year cycle to renew the certification. Select one: a. 3 b. 2 c. 1.5 d. 4.5

b. 2

What BMI score is considered overweight? Select one: a. 35 to 39.9 b. 25 to 29.9 c. 30 to 34.9 d. 18.5 to 24.9

b. 25 to 29.9

You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete? Select one: a. 9 or 10 drills per workout b. 4 to 8 drills per workout c. 2 or 3 drills per workout d. 1 or 2 drills per workout

b. 4 to 8 drills per workout

What percentage of adults experience low-back pain at least once in their lifetime? Select one: a. 50% b. 80% c. 30% d. 90%

b. 80%

What is forecasting? Select one: a. A relationship in which two people understand each other's ideas, have respect for one another, and communicate well b. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal c. A system for learning about the needs of a potential client to be able to identify and present a number of solutions for those needs d. A rapport-building technique where fitness professionals walk around the gym floor talking to members without overtly presenting a sale

b. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal

How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described? Select one: a. A contraction that occurs when a muscle is exerting force greater than the resistive force, resulting in a shortening of the muscle b. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted c. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is developed and movement occurs through a given range of motion at a speed that may vary d. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is created without a change in length and no visible movement of the joint

b. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted

What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)? Select one: a. A screening tool used to evaluate the benefits and the risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature b. A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise c. A screening where the results indicate a need for medical clearance, when one is not, in fact, needed d. A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle

b. A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise

Which of the following statements defines the chest skinfold location for men? Select one: a. A vertical fold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line) b. A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple c. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line d. A diagonal fold, 1 to 2 centimeters below the inferior angle of the scapula

b. A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple

What ideally should follow a day of high-intensity training in stage 3? Select one: a. Another stage 3 day to optimize training adaptations b. A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day. c. At least two days of training in stage 1 to recover d. Two days of no exercise to reduce the risk of overtraining

b. A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day.

What is the high-energy compound used by the body to do work? Select one: a. Glucose b. ATP c. Fat d. ADP

b. ATP

Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise? Select one: a. The inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average untrained individual b. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual c. Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the average untrained individual d. Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness in the average untrained individual

b. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual

What is defined as steady-state exercise? Select one: a. Exercise performed for a short duration of time b. Aerobic exercise performed at a constant intensity c. Exercise that goes on for a long time d. Exercise that burns a lot of calories

b. Aerobic exercise performed at a constant intensity

How is steady-state aerobic exercise best defined? Select one: a. An exercise training method where the client performs a maximal effort interval lasting 20 seconds, followed by only 10 seconds of rest for a total of 4 minutes b. Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption c. An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods d. An exercise training method that is unstructured and combines low-, moderate-, and high-intensity efforts into one workout

b. Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption

Which communication technique allows the fitness professional to show appreciation of a client's strengths? Select one: a. Transitional summaries b. Affirmations c. Reflections d. Collecting summaries

b. Affirmations

What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome? Select one: a. Acute damage, repair, and tissue growth b. Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion c. Stabilization, strength, and power d. Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and electron transport chain

b. Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion

Which term best describes when someone has mixed feelings about exercise and can see both the pros and cons of participating? Select one: a. Confusion b. Ambivalence c. Unequivocal d. Ambiguity

b. Ambivalence

What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics? Select one: a. Ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension of the rear leg b. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg c. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the rear leg d. Ankle dorsiflexion, hip flexion of the lead leg, and elbow flexion

b. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg

When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used? Select one: a. Knee flexion b. Ankle plantar flexion c. Hip abduction d. Ankle dorsiflexion

b. Ankle plantar flexion

When a person loses body weight, what is the only way that mass is lost? Select one: a. As water b. As exhaled carbon dioxide c. As exhaled oxygen d. As ATP

b. As exhaled carbon dioxide

How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise? Select one: a. Knees at 90 degrees of flexion b. As far as can be controlled without compensating c. Knees at 80 degrees of flexion d. Thighs parallel to the ground

b. As far as can be controlled without compensating

What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling? Select one: a. Synergistic dominance b. Autogenic inhibition c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Altered reciprocal inhibition

b. Autogenic inhibition

Which system supplies neural input to organs that run the involuntary processes of the body? Select one: a. Somatic nervous system b. Autonomic nervous system c. Mechanoreceptors d. The brain

b. Autonomic nervous system

Which of the following exercises would be most likely to contribute to an acute increase in testosterone levels? Select one: a. Calf raise b. Back squat c. Triceps extension d. Bench press

b. Back squat

Which of the following exercises and modalities would require the use of a spotter? Select one: a. Terra-Core push-up b. Barbell chest press c. Stability ball wall squat d. Selectorized machine lat pull down

b. Barbell chest press

Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol? Select one: a. Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac b. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac c. Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest d. Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh

b. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac

Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance? Select one: a. Stable floor environment b. Biomechanical ankle platform system c. Aqua therapy d. Weight training

b. Biomechanical ankle platform system

For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal? Select one: a. Muscle mass increase with no body fat loss b. Body fat loss c. Decreased volume and intensity d. Muscle mass atrophy

b. Body fat loss

During the course of a training session, a client remarks that he is "cutting out all carbs" from his diet and just eating protein and vegetables to lose weight. How might you best respond to this, while staying within your scope of practice as a fitness professional? Select one: a. Carbohydrates provide more calories per gram than protein and fat, so they should be limited for effective weight loss. b. Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weight-loss efforts. c. Carbohydrates contribute excess calories in our diet, and avoiding them is an effective weight-loss strategy during training. d. Carbohydrates are not required unless training for long periods of time; so, as long as sessions are kept short, this strategy should be fine.

b. Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weight-loss efforts.

Which statement about cancer is most accurate? Select one: a. There is a lack of cell growth in the body. b. Cells in the body grow abnormally. c. It is most common in adults between the ages of 30 and 55. d. Almost all cancers are preventable.

b. Cells in the body grow abnormally.

Why are children at a disadvantage when participating in short-duration (10 to 90 second) high-intensity anaerobic activities? Select one: a. Children have smaller digestive tracts and are unable to absorb large quantities of nutrients. b. Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power. c. Children have underdeveloped muscles and lack neuromuscular efficiency. d. Children have underdeveloped growth plates and inadequate joint stabilization.

b. Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power.

What are the basic two types of disease? Select one: a. Chronic and not contagious b. Chronic and acute c. Chronic and noncommunicable d. Acute and contagious

b. Chronic and acute

Which term best describes a class of chronic respiratory dysfunctions that are characterized by increased breathlessness, airflow limitation, and accelerated decline of lung function? Select one: a. Hypertension b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) c. Lung cancer d. Asthma

b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

Vitamin C has a role in which of these functions? Select one: a. Collagen synthesis only b. Collagen synthesis and immunity c. Increasing bone density d. Immunity only

b. Collagen synthesis and immunity

A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used? Select one: a. Drop set b. Complex training c. Giant set d. Pyramid system

b. Complex training

A client who has been training for 6 months has recently moved farther from the fitness facility. Which barrier should she be preparing to overcome? Select one: a. Lack of social support b. Convenience c. Lack of time d. Ambivalence

b. Convenience

Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement? Select one: a. Core endurance b. Core strength c. Core power d. Core stability

b. Core strength

What is the leading cause of death and disability for both men and women? Select one: a. Cancer b. Coronary heart disease c. COPD d. Diabetes

b. Coronary heart disease

What marketing strategy would be most effective at helping a fitness professional tell a story and create an instantly recognizable level of service? Select one: a. Advertising sales and discounts b. Creating a brand identity c. Offering free T-shirts d. Providing complimentary water bottles

b. Creating a brand identity

What are the two categories of bone markings? Select one: a. Short and long b. Depressions and processes c. Surface and deep d. Irregular and flat

b. Depressions and processes

What is a metabolic disorder in which the body does not produce enough insulin or cannot respond normally to the insulin that is made? Select one: a. Dyspnea b. Diabetes c. Hypertension d. Intermittent claudication

b. Diabetes

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability? Select one: a. Semi-dynamic balance b. Dynamic balance c. Static balance d. High-level balance

b. Dynamic balance

What is the correct order of the phases of plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Eccentric unloading, concentric loading, amortization b. Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading c. Concentric unloading, amortization, eccentric loading d. Amortization, concentric loading, eccentric unloading

b. Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading

What is the term for the higher-than-normal energy expenditure during the recovery period after exercise? Select one: a. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis b. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption c. Thermic effect of food d. Exercise activity thermogenesis

b. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption

At the beginning of an exercise session, a client has shared that they are in a bad mood and would rather skip the session. Which of the following observations should the fitness professional share with the client? Select one: a. Exercise can only affect mood when done for at least 60 minutes, so it would be best to stay longer than normal. b. Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as short as 10 minutes, so exercise is a good remedy. c. Exercise is known to exacerbate a bad mood; therefore, stopping the session is a good idea. d. Exercise cannot improve mood, so it would be best to reschedule the session for another day.

b. Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as short as 10 minutes, so exercise is a good remedy.

A client who is training with you to improve his body composition states that he only sleeps 4 or 5 hours a night because he thinks that any more is a waste of time. How might you respond to him in view of his body composition goals? Select one: a. Explain that 4 or 5 hours may not be enough for his requirements and that he should aim for 6 to 7 hours per day. b. Explain that adequate sleep is important in regulating hunger and satiety hormones, and that chronic sleep deprivation is detrimental for weight management. c. Explain that as long as he spends the extra hours engaged in physical activity, he should be able to meet his body composition goals. d. Express understanding that he has a busy schedule and that sleep may not be a priority, and explain that this should not affect his body composition goals, as sleep and weight are unrelated.

b. Explain that adequate sleep is important in regulating hunger and satiety hormones, and that chronic sleep deprivation is detrimental for weight management.

A long-term client has recently indicated that she wants to start training for a fitness competition and, due to her competitive nature, she indicates that she wants to win. Which type of motivation is driving her? Select one: a. Intrinsic motivation b. Extrinsic motivation c. Autonomy motivation d. Affiliation motivation

b. Extrinsic motivation

How is Fartlek training best described? Select one: a. Fartlek training is aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption. b. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout. c. In Fartlek training, the total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max. d. Fartlek training is an exercise method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity broken up by relatively short rest periods.

b. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.

Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the United States? Select one: a. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA) b. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) c. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA) d. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)

b. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through? Select one: a. Oxidation b. Gluconeogenesis c. Oxidative phosphorylation d. Glycolysis

b. Gluconeogenesis

Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above VT2? Select one: a. Protein b. Glucose c. Ketone bodies d. Fat

b. Glucose

Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat? Select one: a. Adductor complex b. Gluteus maximus and medius c. Tensor fascia latae d. Lower trapezius

b. Gluteus maximus and medius

What is the name of the stored form of glucose? Select one: a. Pyruvate b. Glycogen c. Triglycerides d. Glycolysis

b. Glycogen

The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone's decision to exercise describes which of the following terms? Select one: a. Societal influence b. Group influence c. Peer pressure d. Health influence

b. Group influence

What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training? Select one: a. Strength and volume b. Growth and volume c. Strength and stabilization d. Growth and stabilization

b. Growth and volume

When it comes to exercise, older adults find which of the following to be the most motivating? Select one: a. Being a part of a social group b. Health and well-being c. Improved physical appearance d. Competition with others

b. Health and well-being

Which muscles are typically overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Adductor complex b. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors c. Upper trapezius d. Abdominals

b. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors

What is defined as a consistently elevated blood pressure? Select one: a. Hypoglycemia b. Hypertension c. Hypotension d. Hyperglycemia

b. Hypertension

What is a physical benefit of resistance training? Select one: a. Increased resting heart rate b. Increased muscular hypertrophy c. Decreased muscular hypertrophy d. Decreased bone remodeling

b. Increased muscular hypertrophy

Improving this using balance training would most likely decrease the risk of injury. Select one: a. Rehabilitation b. Injury resistance c. Performance d. Posture

b. Injury resistance

Which type of training can be used to improve activation of core muscles compared to traditional core training? Select one: a. Prone dead bugs on floor b. Instability training using a stability ball c. Marching on a stable surface d. Planking on a stable surface

b. Instability training using a stability ball

Which of the following is unique to type 2 diabetes? Select one: a. The pancreas does not make insulin. b. Insulin resistance c. The body has low levels of insulin. d. It can develop regardless of a healthy diet.

b. Insulin resistance

During balance training, gluteal muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable? Select one: a. Relaxed b. Isometrically contracted c. Eccentrically contracted d. Concentrically contracted

b. Isometrically contracted

Carbohydrate intake prior to intense or long-duration exercise serves which of the following functions? Select one: a. It is the primary energy source for low-intensity and long-duration exercise. b. It replenishes glycogen stores and provides adequate fuel for performance. c. It provides adequate energy for muscle protein synthesis during training. d. It replenishes depleted amino acid stores prior to high-intensity training.

b. It replenishes glycogen stores and provides adequate fuel for performance.

Which individual is suffering from an acute disease? Select one: a. Tricia, who has type 1 diabetes b. Jorge, who is sick with the flu c. Perry, who suffers from a congenital heart condition d. Roger, who has type 2 diabetes

b. Jorge, who is sick with the flu

Why is a jump-down exercise considered more advanced than a jump-up exercise? Select one: a. Jumping down lessens force deceleration. b. Jumping down challenges landing mechanics. c. Jumping down limits eccentric contractions. d. Jumping down requires more concentric force control.

b. Jumping down challenges landing mechanics.

Which of the following compensations is most likely considered a predictive factor for developing a knee injury? Select one: a. Low-back arching b. Knee valgus c. Anterior pelvic tilt d. Posterior pelvic tilt

b. Knee valgus

For which movement impairment would you see the knees bow outward? Select one: a. Knee dominance b. Knee varus c. Excessive anterior pelvic tilt d. Knee valgus

b. Knee varus

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Middle and lower trapezius b. Latissimus dorsi c. Rhomboids d. Posterior deltoid

b. Latissimus dorsi

What is the bone type of the clavicle, radius, and ulna? Select one: a. Irregular b. Long c. Flat d. Short

b. Long

Which postural distortion is characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis (extension) of the lumbar spine? Select one: a. Excessive pronation b. Lower crossed syndrome c. Upper crossed syndrome d. Pes planus distortion syndrome

b. Lower crossed syndrome

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment? Select one: a. Cervical extensors b. Lower trapezius c. Serratus anterior d. Upper trapezius

b. Lower trapezius

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment? Select one: a. Serratus anterior b. Lower trapezius c. Upper trapezius d. Cervical extensors

b. Lower trapezius

The core is defined by the muscles in which region of the body? Select one: a. Scapular region b. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region c. Back region d. Leg region

b. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region

Which of the following is magnesium classified as? Select one: a. Vitamin b. Macromineral c. Macronutrient d. Trace mineral

b. Macromineral

Maria is interviewing for her first job as a fitness professional at a boutique fitness studio. Which previous experience would she want to make sure to discuss during the interview to demonstrate qualities of a Certified Personal Trainer? Select one: a. Maria was a co-captain on a state champion volleyball team in high school. b. Maria was repeatedly recognized as a top salesperson at the clothing store where she has been working. c. Maria worked as a camp counselor at a youth sports camp while in college. d. Maria placed second in her first bikini competition.

b. Maria was repeatedly recognized as a top salesperson at the clothing store where she has been working.

What can Phase 1 of the OPT model best be described as? Select one: a. Utilizing supersets during training b. Mastering basic movement patterns c. Improving the rate of force production d. Focusing on improving muscular growth

b. Mastering basic movement patterns

What phase of the OPT model aims to maximize prime-mover strength through the lifting of heavy loads? Select one: a. Muscular Development Training b. Maximal Strength Training c. Strength Endurance Training d. Stabilization Endurance Training

b. Maximal Strength Training

The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of? Select one: a. Posture specificity b. Mechanical specificity c. Metabolic specificity d. Neuromuscular specificity

b. Mechanical specificity

Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration? Select one: a. Kettlebell b. Medicine ball c. Resistance band d. Suspended bodyweight training

b. Medicine ball

Which of the following does plyometric training help increase? Select one: a. Overall base strength b. Motor unit recruitment c. Core stability d. Balance

b. Motor unit recruitment

What is defined as the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time? Select one: a. Muscular hypertrophy b. Muscular endurance c. Rate of force production d. Stabilization

b. Muscular endurance

Movement represents the integrated functioning of which three main body systems? Select one: a. Muscular, ligamentous, and skeletal b. Muscular, nervous, and skeletal c. Nervous, ligamentous, and vascular d. Nervous, skeletal, and vascular

b. Muscular, nervous, and skeletal

What is the best definition of essential when discussing human nutrition? Select one: a. Another word for macronutrients b. Must be obtained in the diet, as the body is incapable of producing the nutrient on its own c. Contained within healthy food items d. Needed to build muscle

b. Must be obtained in the diet, as the body is incapable of producing the nutrient on its own

According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics? Select one: a. Power b. Neuromuscular stabilization c. Speed d. Strength

b. Neuromuscular stabilization

Which of the following statements is the most accurate when discussing strength-training machines? Select one: a. Machines always work well for those who are obese or are smaller or taller than average. b. Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise. c. Machines work in multiple planes and allow for greater gains in strength development. d. Machines are superior to free weights for improving core stability because they increase core stability demands.

b. Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise.

What is credible nutrition information? Select one: a. Nutrition information that is believable b. Nutrition information that is rooted in and supported by science c. Nutrition information that is reported to be true d. Nutrition information that is supported by news and media

b. Nutrition information that is rooted in and supported by science

At his first visit to his new fitness trainer, Robert's BMI was 37. According to this information, how would Robert be classified? Select one: a. Overweight b. Obese c. Healthy weight d. Underweight

b. Obese

How many pages are most appropriate for a resume? Select one: a. Three to four pages b. One to two pages c. One page only d. Two to three pages

b. One to two pages

What is the difference between open-ended and closed-ended questions? Select one: a. Closed-ended allows for elaboration, while open-ended allows for one-word answers. b. Open-ended allows for elaboration, while closed-ended allows for one-word answers. c. Closed-ended is asked in private; open-ended is not. d. Open-ended is asked by the trainer; closed-ended is asked by the client.

b. Open-ended allows for elaboration, while closed-ended allows for one-word answers.

What do the letters OPT within the OPT model stand for? Select one: a. Optimum Peak Teaching b. Optimum Performance Training c. Optional Practical Training d. Optional Performance Testing

b. Optimum Performance Training

Which of the following can cause undue fatigue, increase the risk of injury, and potentially lead to burnout? Select one: a. Stabilization b. Overtraining c. Adherence d. Hypertrophy

b. Overtraining

At her first visit to her new fitness trainer, Alisha's BMI was 26. According to this information, how would Alisha be classified? Select one: a. Obese b. Overweight c. Healthy weight d. Underweight

b. Overweight

Extrinsic motivation is characterized by which of the following? Select one: a. A drive to be good at something b. Participating in an activity or behavior for some type of reward or recognition from others c. Being motivated by the process of changing behaviors d. Being motivated by a fear of failure

b. Participating in an activity or behavior for some type of reward or recognition from others

Which of the following would not be an example of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis? Select one: a. Gluteal complex b. Pectoral group c. Quadratus lumborum d. Obliques

b. Pectoral group

Which type of assessment measures overall strength, stability, muscular endurance, and agility? Select one: a. Overhead squat assessment b. Performance assessment c. Dynamic posture assessment d. Static posture assessment

b. Performance assessment

One of the two interdependent divisions of the nervous system is the central nervous system. What is the second division? Select one: a. Autonomic nervous system b. Peripheral nervous system c. Somatic nervous system d. Sympathetic nervous system

b. Peripheral nervous system

If you have a client who wants to increase speed, what phase of the OPT model would they fall into? Select one: a. Phase 4 b. Phase 5 c. Phase 1 d. Phase 3

b. Phase 5

Which statement about lowering blood pressure is true? Select one: a. There is no direct evidence that exercise will result in lower blood pressure. b. Planned exercise alone is typically insufficient for acutely lowering and controlling hypertension. c. Exercise can help control body weight, but it cannot improve blood flow. d. Reducing excessive alcohol use will not have an impact on high blood pressure.

b. Planned exercise alone is typically insufficient for acutely lowering and controlling hypertension.

What three joint actions comprise triple extension? Select one: a. Spinal extension, hip extension, and plantar flexion b. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension c. Knee extension, shoulder extension, and elbow extension d. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion

b. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension

Which component of blood is primarily responsible for clotting mechanisms? Select one: a. Plasma b. Platelets c. Red blood cells d. White blood cells

b. Platelets

Which upper-body yoga stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury? Select one: a. Bound angle pose b. Plow pose c. Downward dog pose d. Cat pose

b. Plow pose

Which of these is one of the major curvatures of the spine? Select one: a. Anterior lumbar curve b. Posterior lumbar curve c. Anterior cervical curve d. Posterior thoracic curve

b. Posterior lumbar curve

What is the correct order of the Stages of Change? Select one: a. Preparation, precontemplation, contemplation, action, maintenance b. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance c. Precontemplation, action, preparation, contemplation, maintenance d. Contemplation, precontemplation, preparation, action, maintenance

b. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance

Individuals in this stage of change may sporadically engage in physical activity but without any form, structure, or consistency. Select one: a. Precontemplation b. Preparation c. Maintenance d. Contemplation

b. Preparation

Ambivalent people may be reluctant to start an exercise program. What should the fitness professional focus on when helping a potential client overcome this barrier? Select one: a. Let them know that you will not take no for an answer because exercise is good for everyone. b. Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate. c. Let them know you understand it is a difficult decision to participate and you will give them time to think about it. d. Provide information about the benefits of participating and hope they decide to participate.

b. Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate.

The goal of the Certified Personal Trainer in utilizing machines in Phase 1 of the OPT model should be to do what? Select one: a. Regress their clients to less-challenging movements and utilize more dumbbells b. Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises c. Increase muscle size before moving their clients to Phase 2 d. Prepare their clients to perform 1RM before moving on to dumbbells or other advanced modalities

b. Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises

The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more resilient through which exercise programming approach? Select one: a. Systematic approach b. Progressive overload c. All-or-nothing principle d. SAID principle

b. Progressive overload

This term describes an unstable-but-controlled environment used to improve someone's static, semi-dynamic, and dynamic balance. Select one: a. Seated weight-training exercises b. Proprioceptively enriched c. Flat floor d. Static balance

b. Proprioceptively enriched

Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training? Select one: a. Coordination b. Quickness c. Balance d. Agility

b. Quickness

What location on the body does NASM recommend for measuring the resting heart rate? Select one: a. Femoral pulse b. Radial pulse c. Carotid pulse d. Pedal pulse

b. Radial pulse

Which of the following markers of exercise intensity is considered to be the most subjective? Select one: a. Percentage of maximal heart rate b. Ratings of perceived exertion c. Percentage of VO2max d. Metabolic equivalents

b. Ratings of perceived exertion

What differentiates change of direction from agility? Select one: a. Acceleration b. Reaction to a signal c. Changing directions d. Deceleration

b. Reaction to a signal

Which component of a monthly training plan should always be performed before moving to the next month's mesocycle? Select one: a. SAQ b. Reassessment c. Cardio d. Resistance

b. Reassessment

What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system's role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists? Select one: a. Length-tension relationship b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Stretch-shortening cycle d. Muscle imbalance

b. Reciprocal inhibition

When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this phenomenon called? Select one: a. Autogenic inhibition b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Stretch reflex d. Isometric contraction

b. Reciprocal inhibition

What type of listening involves making a best guess as to what the speaker means, then stating it back to the speaker? Select one: a. Affirming b. Reflective listening c. Motivational interviewing d. Active listening

b. Reflective listening

Balance exercises used for introducing balance training should initially involve little joint motion and improve what type of contractions? Select one: a. Voluntary contractions b. Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions c. Preplanned voluntary contractions d. No muscle contractions are involved in balance training.

b. Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions

Which of the following contributes the most to the total calories burned in a day? Select one: a. Thermic effect of food b. Resting metabolic rate c. Exercise d. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis

b. Resting metabolic rate

Which postural deviation is most likely to negatively impact ventilation? Select one: a. Posterior pelvic tilt with small low-back arch b. Rounded shoulders and a forward head posture c. Anterior pelvic tilt and pronated feet d. Adducted and internally rotated knees

b. Rounded shoulders and a forward head posture

Which of the following modalities will provide the most benefits to Phases 1, 4 and 5 of the OPT model? Select one: a. Strength machines b. Sandbags c. TRX Rip Trainer d. Battle ropes

b. Sandbags

A client has been journaling their behavior. They find that if they get home and sit on the couch to watch television, they do not end up exercising. But if they bring their gym clothes to work with them and change before leaving the office, they are more likely to exercise. Which behavior change technique are they using? Select one: a. Action planning b. Self-monitoring c. Coping planning d. Goal setting

b. Self-monitoring

Which sense provides information about changes in pressure on the skin, muscle length, and joint angles? Select one: a. Hearing system b. Somatosensory system c. Vestibular system d. Visual system

b. Somatosensory system

You hear a client remark that she does not want to include any fat in her diet because she wants to avoid gaining weight. How might you respond, while staying within your scope of practice? Select one: a. Fats are not an essential part of our diet and can be limited to avoid unnecessary calories. b. Some fats are essential and required in the diet for important physiological processes. Avoiding all fats might lead to deficiencies. c. Fats can be a source of extra calories in the diet, but they should be eaten to supply adequate energy for our brain. d. Fats provide more calories per gram than protein and carbohydrate, so avoiding them is a good strategy for weight management.

b. Some fats are essential and required in the diet for important physiological processes. Avoiding all fats might lead to deficiencies.

The lengthening reaction is often seen with what type of flexibility technique? Select one: a. Active stretching b. Static stretching c. Ballistic stretching d. Dynamic stretching

b. Static stretching

Which of the following effects may occur if the amortization phase of a plyometric exercise is prolonged? Select one: a. Stored energy will dissipate, and the unloading phase will be more powerful. b. Stored energy will dissipate, and the unloading phase will be less powerful. c. The neurological stretch reflex will be optimally activated, and the unloading phase will be less powerful. d. The neurological stretch reflex will be optimally activated, and the unloading phase will be more powerful.

b. Stored energy will dissipate, and the unloading phase will be less powerful.

Which of the following is not one of the primary levels of the OPT model? Select one: a. Power b. Strength Endurance c. Stabilization d. Strength

b. Strength Endurance

What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as? Select one: a. Loading phase b. Stretch-shortening cycle c. Unloading phase d. Amortization phase

b. Stretch-shortening cycle

What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion? Select one: a. Stretching phase b. Stretch-shortening cycle c. Muscular-power phase d. Explosive-shortening phase

b. Stretch-shortening cycle

What scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded eccentric contraction prepares the muscles for a rapid concentric contraction? Select one: a. Series elastic component b. Stretch-shortening cycle c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Altered reciprocal inhibition

b. Stretch-shortening cycle

What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle? Select one: a. Shortening of the agonist muscle b. Stretching of the agonist muscle c. Transitioning of forces d. Stretching of the antagonist muscle

b. Stretching of the agonist muscle

When a client's heart rate is raised during cardio activities, this is being caused by which system? Select one: a. Parasympathetic nervous system b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Central nervous system d. Somatic nervous system

b. Sympathetic nervous system

What is the most accurate description of motor control? Select one: a. The cumulative changes in motor behavior over time, throughout the life span b. The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements c. The motor response to internal and external environmental stimuli d. The integration of motor control processes through practice

b. The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements

What is end-diastolic volume? Select one: a. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction b. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction c. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction d. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute

b. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction

The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following? Select one: a. The assembled environment b. The built environment c. The manufactured environment d. The constructed environment

b. The built environment

Which statement best describes the neurophysiological effect that occurs from myofascial rolling? Select one: a. The direct roller compression increases eccentric contraction to enhance muscle hypertrophy after the session. b. The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors. c. The direct roller compression leads to endocrine release of growth hormones, which leads to enhanced physical performance. d. The direct roller compression leads to delayed onset of muscle soreness 72 to 96 hours after rolling.

b. The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors.

What is an example of an external factor that may influence the risk of falling in older adults? Select one: a. Muscle strength b. The environment c. Ligament integrity d. Joint stability

b. The environment

A client is performing a barbell squat exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client? Select one: a. The fitness professional should avoid spotting this exercise. b. The fitness professional should spot underneath the client's armpits. c. The fitness professional should spot their client at the elbows. d. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists.

b. The fitness professional should spot underneath the client's armpits.

Which part of a food label would help a client review the ingredients in a food product? Select one: a. The percent daily values b. The ingredients list c. The nutrition facts panel d. The nutrition label

b. The ingredients list

What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2? Select one: a. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources b. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes c. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for only few seconds d. The ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels

b. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes

What is an example of an individual in the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome? Select one: a. The person is experiencing improvement in muscular strength. b. The person has suffered an ACL sprain. c. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness. d. The person is experiencing an increase in muscular power.

b. The person has suffered an ACL sprain.

Why is the shoulder stand yoga pose considered to be a controversial upper-body stretch? Select one: a. This stretch provides excessive stress to the hamstring muscles. b. This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine. c. This stretch is too complicated for the older client. d. This stretch is too advanced for the average person.

b. This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine.

What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise? Select one: a. Palms facing down b. Thumbs pointing up c. Thumbs pointing down d. Palms facing each other

b. Thumbs pointing up

Ergogenic aids are typically consumed for what purpose? Select one: a. To correct nutrient imbalances b. To improve athletic performance and/or body composition c. To mitigate the side effects of medication d. For general well-being

b. To improve athletic performance and/or body composition

In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur? Select one: a. Frontal b. Transverse c. Sagittal d. Dorsal

b. Transverse

Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement? Select one: a. Medicine ball chest pass b. Two-arm push press c. Soccer throw d. Front medicine ball oblique throw

b. Two-arm push press

The water-soluble vitamins include which vitamins? Select one: a. Vitamin C, D, and K b. Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins c. Vitamin C, B complex, and K d. Vitamin C, B complex, and D

b. Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins

What are the three micronutrients? Select one: a. Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids b. Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients c. Protein, carbohydrates, and fluids d. Vitamins, minerals, and lipids

b. Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients

What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session? Select one: a. Intensity b. Volume c. Recovery d. Frequency

b. Volume

Social physique anxiety is best defined by which statement? Select one: a. When someone has anxiety about social situations b. When someone feels insecure about how they think others are viewing their body c. When someone has anxiety about how their physique looks in the mirror d. When someone has general anxiety about physical activity

b. When someone feels insecure about how they think others are viewing their body

What involves reacting to a stimulus and then changing the body's sprinting direction in response to that stimulus? a) Quickness b) Power c) Agility d) Speed

c) Agility

Which statement best describes the concept of relative flexibility? a) Inability to stretch multiple muscles for long periods b) Ability to stretch in small increments c) Altered movement patterns d) Ability to stretch only one muscle

c) Altered movement patterns

Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them? a) Resisting social pressure b) Self-monitoring c) Coping responses d) Implementation intentions

c) Coping responses

Maintaining one's balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance? a) Static balance b) Semi-dynamic balance c) Dynamic balance d) Stationary balance

c) Dynamic balance

What surrounds the skeletal muscles and connects them to other surrounding muscles? a) Muscle spindles b) Connective tissues c) Fascia d) Tendons

c) Fascia

Mac, an NASM-CPT, has been working as a personal trainer at a health club for almost 3 years. He has consistently received positive job evaluations, making him eligible for a promotion. What opportunity would be the most appropriate to pursue, given his experience? a) Group fitness manager b) Area fitness manager c) Fitness manager d) General manager

c) Fitness manager

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment? a) Hip flexor complex b) Lumbar extensors c) Gluteus maximus d) Latissimus dorsi

c) Gluteus maximus

Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat? a) Lower trapezius b) Tensor fascia latae c) Gluteus maximus and medius d) Adductor complex

c) Gluteus maximus and medius

Long-term exercise adherence is associated with which type of motivation? a) Extrinsic motivation b) Amotivation c) Intrinsic motivation d) Incentive motivation

c) Intrinsic motivation

What term is used to describe muscle tension that is created without a change in muscle length and no visible movement of the joint? a) Eccentric b) Concentric c) Isometric d) Isokinetic

c) Isometric

Performing 4 weeks of stabilization training before moving on to strength endurance training for another 4 weeks would be an example of what kind of periodization? a) Nonlinear periodization b) Localized periodization c) Linear periodization d) Undulating periodization

c) Linear periodization

What is the most important thing for a client to focus on when they are new to plyometric training? a) Jump height b) Amortization speed c) Proper technique d) Explosive power

c) Proper technique

Research has demonstrated that moderate-intensity exercise is best for which of the following? a) Developing intrinsic motivation b) Winning a triathlon c) Providing psychological benefits d) Reducing burnout

c) Providing psychological benefits

If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client improve their technique by using guided practice to enhance confidence, what determinant of behavior are they targeting? a) Outcome expectations b) Self-regulation c) Self-efficacy d) Intention

c) Self-efficacy

To enable weight-loss clients to perform SAQ exercises at a high intensity in a variety of movements, what can fitness professionals create? a) Heart rate cardio b) Steady-state treadmill workouts c) Small circuits d) Long continuous runs

c) Small circuits

Which joints are most associated with human movement? a) Nonaxial b) Saddle c) Synovial d) Nonsynovial

c) Synovial

Which of the following would be a credible source of nutrition information? a) The Washington Post b) Social media c) The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics d) A newspaper review article

c) The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics

What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps? Select one: a. 180 to 240 seconds b. 120 to 180 seconds c. 0 to 90 seconds d. 90 to 120 seconds

c. 0 to 90 seconds

Approximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese? Select one: a. 0.8 b. 0.6 c. 0.4 d. 0.2

c. 0.4

Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults? Select one: a. 6 to 8 sets b. 5 or 6 sets c. 1 or 2 sets d. 3 or 4 sets

c. 1 or 2 sets

hat are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching? Select one: a. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions b. 4 to 6 sets, 10 to 15 repetitions, 1 or 2 exercises c. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises d. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions

c. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises

What are the recommended training variables for self-myofascial rolling? Select one: a. 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 2 minutes b. 2 to 5 sets, hold each tender area for 5 minutes c. 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds d. 5 to 10 sets, hold each tender area for 5 seconds

c. 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds

At what BMI threshold does a person's chance for obesity-related health problems increase? Select one: a. 22.5 b. 20 c. 30 d. 18.5

c. 30

A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed? Select one: a. 2 seconds b. 1 second c. 4 seconds d. 3 seconds

c. 4 seconds

What is a sufficient amount of time for a cardiorespiratory cool-down? Select one: a. 1 to 2 minutes b. 3 to 4 minutes c. 5 to 10 minutes d. 4 minutes

c. 5 to 10 minutes

What statement best describes the main benefit for establishing a brand identity? Select one: a. A brand identity provides more opportunities for being featured in magazines. b. A brand identity allows a fitness professional to design a colorful logo that attracts attention. c. A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence. d. A brand identity could make it easier to create a social media profile.

c. A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence.

What is the principle of specificity? Select one: a. The phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle b. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium c. A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it d. The body's ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts

c. A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it

How many calories are in 1 pound of body fat? Select one: a. About 1,000 b. About 5,500 c. About 3,500 d. About 500

c. About 3,500

What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training? Select one: a. Advanced clients with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and speed b. Fitness enthusiasts with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and speed c. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power d. Fitness enthusiasts with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and power

c. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power

What is sarcopenia? Select one: a. Chronic inflammation of the joints b. Lower than normal bone mineral density c. Age-related loss of muscle tissue d. Age-related loss in bone mineral density

c. Age-related loss of muscle tissue

Your client Ethan presents with an overactive/shortened quadriceps group, which is causing the hamstrings to be underactive/lengthened. What is this phenomenon called? Select one: a. Eccentric overload b. Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) c. Altered reciprocal inhibition d. Overtraining syndrome

c. Altered reciprocal inhibition

What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay? Select one: a. Concentric b. Isometric c. Amortization d. Eccentric

c. Amortization

Which of the following answers indicates a primary difference between working as an independent contractor and working as an employee? Select one: a. An employee can earn more per hour than an independent contractor. b. An independent contractor can expect client referrals from a facility, while an employee will have to find clients on the gym floor. c. An independent contractor is responsible for paying their own taxes, while an employee has taxes withheld by the employer. d. An employee can establish their own hours, while an independent contractor must adhere to a specific work schedule.

c. An independent contractor is responsible for paying their own taxes, while an employee has taxes withheld by the employer.

What is a prospect? Select one: a. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal b. A method of creating a service identified by specific characteristics c. An individual who has been identified as a potential client d. A potential career advancement opportunity

c. An individual who has been identified as a potential client

The PAR-Q+ and preparticipation process reflects what three health indicators? Select one: a. An individual's current level of physical activity, age, and weight b. An individual's desired exercise intensity, body composition, and gender c. An individual's current level of physical activity, the presence of signs and symptoms of disease, and the individual's desired exercise intensity d. An individual's habits related to exercise, diet, and sleep

c. An individual's current level of physical activity, the presence of signs and symptoms of disease, and the individual's desired exercise intensity

Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%? Select one: a. Medial collateral ligament injuries b. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries c. Ankle sprains d. Concussions

c. Ankle sprains

How is lower crossed syndrome characterized? Select one: a. Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips b. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive kyphosis of the lumbar spine c. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine d. Posterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine

c. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine

Which surface would be the most challenging for a new client starting a balance training program? Select one: a. Firm surface b. Foam pad c. BOSU ball d. Balance beam

c. BOSU ball

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core? Select one: a. Dead bug b. Medicine ball overhead throw c. Back extension d. Plank

c. Back extension

For what is vitamin D most important? Select one: a. Hair growth b. Eyesight c. Bone health d. Skin pigmentation

c. Bone health

Which exercise primarily strengthens the gastrocnemius and soleus? Select one: a. Ball cobra b. Standing dumbbell lateral raise c. Calf raise d. Single-leg dumbbell scaption

c. Calf raise

In order to balance, someone must maintain what point within their base of support? (Choose the best answer.) Select one: a. Sensorimotor b. Somatosensation c. Center of gravity d. Vestibular

c. Center of gravity

Where is the heart located in the thoracic cavity? Select one: a. Central to the right and posterior to the spine b. Central to the right and anterior to the spine c. Central to the left and anterior to the spine d. Central to the left and posterior to the spine

c. Central to the left and anterior to the spine

A client has thoughts that they cannot exercise on their own, that they look silly doing it, and that other people are watching them. They believe these thoughts to be true. What is occurring? Select one: a. Stopping b. Reverse listing c. Cognitive fusion d. Acceptance

c. Cognitive fusion

Bridget, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, is looking for ways to satisfy her CEU requirement. Which of the following would be an accepted means to fulfill this requirement? Select one: a. Attending an 8-hour fitness seminar b. Completing an approved CEU course for 0.9 CEUs, along with the CPR/AED for 0.1 CEUs c. Completing an NASM specialization worth 1.9 CEUs, along with a CPR/AED course for 0.1 CEUs d. Reading a textbook on a related fitness topic

c. Completing an NASM specialization worth 1.9 CEUs, along with a CPR/AED course for 0.1 CEUs

When a person is ambivalent about changing, what stage of change are they likely in? Select one: a. Action b. Precontemplation c. Contemplation d. Maintenance

c. Contemplation

Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source? Select one: a. Legumes b. Beans c. Dairy foods d. Grains

c. Dairy foods

What does the eccentric phase of a plyometric movement accomplish? Select one: a. Acceleration b. Amortization c. Deceleration d. Stabilization

c. Deceleration

What is defined as shortness of breath or labored breathing? Select one: a. Atherosclerosis b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Dyspnea d. Chronic obstructive lung disease

c. Dyspnea

What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises? Select one: a. Ankle stability b. Concentric contractions c. Eccentric loading d. Increased amortization

c. Eccentric loading

Providing encouragement and being empathetic is an example of which type of social support? Select one: a. Instrumental support b. Informational support c. Emotional support d. Companionship support

c. Emotional support

What answer best describes the building blocks of proteins? Select one: a. Peptide bonds b. Essential amino acids only c. Essential and nonessential amino acids d. Carbon molecules

c. Essential and nonessential amino acids

What type of client is ideally suited for stage 2 training around VT1? Select one: a. More serious exercisers seeking to expand the capacity for both aerobic and anaerobic work b. New exercisers seeking to improve health markers like reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease and diabetes c. Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss d. Athletes or competitors who desire to improve speed or power during short but very-high-intensity bouts of work

c. Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss

What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers? Select one: a. Venous pooling b. Valsalva maneuver c. Frank Starling Law of the Heart d. Peripheral resistance

c. Frank Starling Law of the Heart

Which of the following nutrition topics are within the scope of practice for a Certified Personal Trainer? Select one: a. Specific nutrition recommendations for an individual's caloric, macronutrient, or micronutrient intake b. Medical nutrition therapy as related to an individual's medical diagnoses c. General guidance on the importance of nutrition for health and performance d. Meal planning with caloric or nutrient-specific guidelines for weight loss/gain or sports performance

c. General guidance on the importance of nutrition for health and performance

Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat? Select one: a. Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle b. Having more glycogen stored in their muscle c. Having more mitochondria in their muscle d. Having more fat stored on their body

c. Having more mitochondria in their muscle

Vitamin and mineral supplements are which kind of supplements? Select one: a. Stimulants b. Performance supplements c. Health supplements d. Anabolic steroids

c. Health supplements

During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane? Select one: a. Hip flexors b. Hip extensors c. Hip abductors d. Hip internal rotators

c. Hip abductors

Which of the following most closely resembles a SMART goal? Select one: a. I want to lose 20 pounds. b. I want to lose 20 pounds in the next month. c. I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months. d. I want to lose weight.

c. I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months.

Which statement best describes the first stage of the sales process? Select one: a. Discussing pricing options b. Promoting the benefits of personal training for improving health and longevity c. Identifying a customer's needs d. Asking for referrals

c. Identifying a customer's needs

Which of the following global muscles' primary action is hip flexion? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Latissimus dorsi c. Iliopsoas d. Rectus abdominis

c. Iliopsoas

Which benefit will positively affect the body through integrated training? Select one: a. Decreased hormonal function b. Decreased fat loss c. Improved sleep d. Increased rate of power decline

c. Improved sleep

Which core exercise is most appropriate for an obese client to maximize comfort and to avoid potential hypotensive or hypertensive reactions to the exercise? Select one: a. Supine reverse crunches b. Stability ball Russian twist c. Incline plank d. Supine floor crunches

c. Incline plank

Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions? Select one: a. Increased stroke volume and decreased heart rate b. Increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume c. Increased lipolysis d. Increased lipogenesis

c. Increased lipolysis

Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for: Select one: a. Greater range of motion, allowing for increased spinal flexion b. Greater support and safety for elderly clients c. Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball d. Less range of motion as compared to traditional floor crunches

c. Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball

How could the personal trainer make the "single-leg throw and catch" balance exercise more difficult for the client? Select one: a. Decreasing the velocity of each throw b. Throwing the ball at the same height each time c. Increasing the velocity of each throw d. Decreasing the distance between the client and the personal trainer

c. Increasing the velocity of each throw

The center of gravity moves in which direction when the knees and hips are equally flexed bilaterally? Select one: a. Laterally b. Medially c. Inferiorly d. Superiorly

c. Inferiorly

Implementing exercise concepts like core, balance, and agility training with resistance training methods indicates what style of training? Select one: a. Hypertrophy training b. Isolated training c. Integrated training d. Circuit training

c. Integrated training

What two factors define any form or type of exercise? Select one: a. Intensity and speed b. Speed and complexity c. Intensity and duration d. Duration and time

c. Intensity and duration

Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant? Select one: a. Isometric b. Eccentric c. Isokinetic d. Concentric

c. Isokinetic

Why does a shorter amortization phase lead to more effective plyometric movement? Select one: a. It requires the use of less elastic energy. b. It requires less eccentric deceleration. c. It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently. d. It decreases vertical jump height.

c. It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently.

Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver? Select one: a. It can raise an individual's heart rate and blood pressure. b. It involves expiring against a closed glottis. c. It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension. d. It increases intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability.

c. It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.

What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Stabilize b. Land c. Jump d. Gait

c. Jump

What is a key technique consideration during the squat jump with stabilization? Select one: a. Performing reps as quickly as possible b. Letting the knees cave inward c. Keeping the knees in line with the toes d. Letting feet turn out for support

c. Keeping the knees in line with the toes

Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. Which of the following muscles is involved? Select one: a. Anterior deltoid b. Gluteus maximus c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectoralis major

c. Latissimus dorsi

Which is involved in frontside mechanics? Select one: a. Rear leg b. Knee extension c. Lead leg d. Ankle plantar flexion

c. Lead leg

Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise? Select one: a. Proprioceptive training b. Loaded movement training c. Low-impact activity d. High-impact activity

c. Low-impact activity

What is adaptive thermogenesis? Select one: a. Increased heat production due to changes in energy expenditure b. Changes in energy intake due to changes in energy expenditure c. Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake d. Adaptations to exercise due to changes in energy intake

c. Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake

Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises? Select one: a. Tuck jump b. Butt kick c. Multiplanar jump with stabilization d. Power step-up

c. Multiplanar jump with stabilization

What phase of the OPT model does the adaptation "muscular strength and hypertrophy" fall into? Select one: a. Strength Endurance b. Stabilization c. Muscular Development d. Power

c. Muscular Development

What causes initial improvements in strength when youths engage in a resistance training program? Select one: a. Muscle atrophy b. Muscle hypertrophy c. Neural adaptations d. Sarcopenia

c. Neural adaptations

Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity? Select one: a. Sensory function b. Vestibular function c. Neuromuscular function d. Afferent nerve function

c. Neuromuscular function

What is the term for the chemical messengers that cross the synapse between the neuron and muscle and assist with nerve transmission? Select one: a. Synapses b. Adenosine triphosphate c. Neurotransmitters d. Sarcomeres

c. Neurotransmitters

Which type of joint includes the sutures of the skull? Select one: a. Condyloid b. Pivot c. Nonsynovial d. Ball-and-socket

c. Nonsynovial

Which common cause of death is the most preventable? Select one: a. Dementia b. Cancer c. Obesity d. Stroke

c. Obesity

If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity? Select one: a. Beta-oxidation b. The ATP-PC system c. Oxidative phosphorylation d. Glycolysis

c. Oxidative phosphorylation

What tests should be performed last in the overall assessment flow? Select one: a. Body composition b. Movement assessments c. Performance assessments d. Biometric data

c. Performance assessments

What is the term for a postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult? Select one: a. Somatosensation b. Sensorimotor function c. Perturbation d. Neuromuscular control

c. Perturbation

A Certified Personal Trainer may seek further proprioceptive development in which of the following phases? Select one: a. Phase 4 b. Phase 2 c. Phase 1 d. Phase 3

c. Phase 1

Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity? Select one: a. Phase 3 b. Phase 5 c. Phase 4 d. Phase 2

c. Phase 4

What types of foods contain carbohydrates? Select one: a. All foods b. Proteins c. Plant foods and dairy d. Animal and plant foods

c. Plant foods and dairy

In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength? Select one: a. Muscular Development Training b. Stabilization Endurance Training c. Power Training d. Strength Endurance Training

c. Power Training

What are the three macronutrients? Select one: a. Carbohydrates, protein, and vitamins b. Protein, carbohydrates, and fluids c. Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids d. Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients

c. Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids

Denise has just earned her NASM Certified Personal Trainer credential and has been hired at a health club. She hopes to attract and retain clientele to grow her business. What qualities would most help Denise be successful in her new career? Select one: a. Creating a social media page to post client results and a hashtag that her clients can use to help grow her following b. Providing a custom exercise prescription with an added meal plan for each client c. Providing accountability, support, feedback and guidance, and results d. Offering her services as an in-home trainer to people in her immediate area

c. Providing accountability, support, feedback and guidance, and results

Prior to ever working with a client, what is the most important priority when starting an independent personal training business? Select one: a. Having consistent names on all social media accounts b. Designing a website to advertise personal training services c. Purchasing liability insurance and appropriate business licenses d. Purchasing fitness equipment

c. Purchasing liability insurance and appropriate business licenses

Roberta is an NASM Certified Personal Trainer who is going to be working as an independent contractor at a popular health club. What is the most important step to take before starting her job? Select one: a. Designing cute T-shirts with her logo to give away to potential clients b. Purchasing social media followers to enhance her profile c. Purchasing liability insurance to protect her personal assets d. Buying new outfits so that other members will notice her while she's working out

c. Purchasing liability insurance to protect her personal assets

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement? Select one: a. Overhead press b. Pushing assessment c. Push-up test d. Bench press strength assessment

c. Push-up test

Which muscle group/complex is a prime mover for squatting motions? Select one: a. Adductor complex b. Hamstrings c. Quadriceps d. Sartorius

c. Quadriceps

This is a conversational technique that helps the listener express the supposed meaning of what was just heard. Select one: a. Active listening b. Closed-ended questions c. Reflections d. Open-ended questions

c. Reflections

Weight-bearing exercise helps strengthen bones through what process? Select one: a. Osteoporosis b. Lengthening c. Remodeling d. Neuroplasticity

c. Remodeling

What activity is especially beneficial for combating the loss of muscle mass, power, and strength for aging adults? Select one: a. Aerobics b. Walking c. Resistance training d. Cardio

c. Resistance training

Which component contributes the most to total energy expenditure? Select one: a. Thermic effect of activity b. Thermic effect of food c. Resting metabolism d. Exercise

c. Resting metabolism

What is a joint disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue, causing an inflammatory response? Select one: a. Osteopenia b. Osteoarthritis c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Osteoporosis

c. Rheumatoid arthritis

What movement term is used to describe the concept of adducting the shoulder blades so that they become closer together? Select one: a. Scapular protraction b. Scapular elevation c. Scapular retraction d. Scapular depression

c. Scapular retraction

Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to cancer? Select one: a. Balance training poses serious risks to the hips and pelvis. b. Core training poses serious risks to the vertebral column. c. Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments. d. Resistance training is contraindicated for clients with diagnosed cancer.

c. Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments.

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support? Select one: a. Static balance b. Dynamic balance c. Semi-dynamic balance d. Moderate-level balance

c. Semi-dynamic balance

When a Certified Personal Trainer wants to enhance a client's self-efficacy by breaking down exercises or goals into easier-to-achieve tasks, what behavior change technique are they using? Select one: a. Experience mastery b. Provide instructions c. Set specific tasks d. Verbal persuasion

c. Set specific tasks

What advice would enable a client to breathe properly? Select one: a. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your mouth while allowing your chest to expand. b. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand. c. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand. d. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while minimizing abdominal movement.

c. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.

If a client is using social media to find inspiration, information, or support for their fitness endeavors, it would be an example of which social construct? Select one: a. Social connections b. Social pressure c. Social influence d. Social ambivalence

c. Social influence

What phase of the OPT model aims to improve movement patterns and enhances stabilization of the system? Select one: a. Maximal Strength Training b. Power Training c. Stabilization Endurance Training d. Muscular Development Training

c. Stabilization Endurance Training

Through an integrated and systematic approach, which order of phases of training is correct? Select one: a. Strength Endurance, Stabilization Endurance, Maximal Strength, Muscular Development, and Power b. Muscular Development, Power, Strength Endurance, Stabilization Endurance, and Maximal Strength c. Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power d. Stabilization Endurance, Muscular Development, Power, Maximal Strength, and Strength Endurance

c. Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power

What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly? Select one: a. Barbell clean b. Depth jump c. Step-ups d. Single-leg squat

c. Step-ups

If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine? Select one: a. Diaphragm b. Upper trapezius c. Sternocleidomastoid d. Rhomboids

c. Sternocleidomastoid

The standard Jackson and Pollock 3-Site protocol for women requires skinfold measurements at which of the following sites? Select one: a. Chest, suprailiac, and abdomen b. Abdomen, thigh, and suprailiac c. Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps d. Triceps, abdomen, and thigh

c. Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps

What are the three pathways through which the body can produce ATP? Select one: a. Phosphorylation, glycolysis, and the electron transport chain b. Ketosis, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation c. The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation d. The ATP-PC system, digestion, and oxidative phosphorylation

c. The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation

What is stroke volume? Select one: a. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction b. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction c. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction d. The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute

c. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction

hat is a kilocalorie (kcal)? Select one: a. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 pound of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie. b. Unlike 1 food calorie, this is the amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. c. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie. d. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is equal to 1,000 food calories.

c. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

How can basal metabolic rate (BMR) best be defined? Select one: a. An anabolic hormone produced by the liver, which is responsible for growth and development b. The amount of energy required to maintain the body when active c. The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest d. A method to help determine an individual's heart rate

c. The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest

What are the two components of the central nervous system? Select one: a. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems b. The somatic and autonomic nervous systems c. The brain and spinal cord d. The nerves and sensory receptors

c. The brain and spinal cord

How should an eccentric muscle action be described? Select one: a. The development of muscle tension without shortening or lengthening of the contractile tissue b. The development of muscle tension at a fixed speed during both shortening and lengthening of the contractile tissue c. The development of muscle tension during lengthening of the contractile tissue d. The development of muscle tension during shortening of the contractile tissue

c. The development of muscle tension during lengthening of the contractile tissue

What is the general adaptation syndrome? Select one: a. The general adaptation syndrome describes how an individual emotionally adapts to positive reinforcement. b. The general adaptation syndrome describes how traits are handed down from parents to offspring. c. The general adaptation syndrome describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress. d. The general adaptation syndrome describes how humans evolve over time.

c. The general adaptation syndrome describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress.

The field of psychology focuses on which of the following domains? Select one: a. Neuromuscular adaptations b. Physiological systems c. The mind and behavior d. Pathology of disease

c. The mind and behavior

What is the ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)? Select one: a. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise b. The point at which it is still possible to talk during exercise c. The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel d. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise

c. The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel

How can systolic blood pressure be defined? Select one: a. The action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body b. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded c. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded d. The measurement of the number of times a heart beats within a specified time period (usually 1 minute)

c. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded

Which of the following is not a negative side effect of stress? Select one: a. Restricted blood flow b. Hypertension c. The release of endorphins d. Atherosclerosis

c. The release of endorphins

What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment shoulder elevation? Select one: a. The arms falling forward b. The trunk leaning forward c. The shoulders moving upward toward the ears d. The scapula protruding excessively from the back

c. The shoulders moving upward toward the ears

What measurement is dependent upon the length of the lever arm and the angle between the force application and the lever arm? Select one: a. Force velocity b. Arthrokinematics c. Torque d. Force

c. Torque

During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase? Select one: a. Sagittal b. Axial c. Transverse d. Frontal

c. Transverse

Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Biceps brachii c. Triceps brachii d. Quadriceps

c. Triceps brachii

Which disease is caused by specific medical conditions or medications, including alcohol abuse, smoking, specific diseases, or particular medications, that disrupt normal bone reformation? Select one: a. Type 2 diabetes b. Type 1 diabetes c. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis d. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis

c. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis

Antirotational exercises are often this sort of movement by nature. Select one: a. Loaded b. Proprioceptive c. Unilateral d. Bilateral

c. Unilateral

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Infraspinatus c. Upper trapezius d. Lower trapezius

c. Upper trapezius

Which muscles are typically overactive in association with upper crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Hip flexors b. Adductor complex c. Upper trapezius d. Lower trapezius

c. Upper trapezius

Which of the following is an open-ended question? Select one: a. Did you exercise this week? b. Have you experienced barriers to reaching your goals? c. What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the past? d. What do you currently weigh?

c. What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the past?

What does BMI (body mass index) assess for? Select one: a. Overall level of physical fitness b. An accurate measure of obesity status for all individuals c. Whether a person's weight is appropriate for their height d. Body fat and lean mass composition

c. Whether a person's weight is appropriate for their height

What is unique about a kettlebell when compared to a dumbbell? Select one: a. A kettlebell is heavier. b. Kettlebells and dumbbells are the same. c. With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle. d. A dumbbell is safer.

c. With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle.

A client reports that he is following a limited diet of chicken and rice every day to avoid eating extra calories from other foods in order to lose weight. What would be an appropriate response within your scope of practice as a fitness professional? a) The diet seems simple enough to maintain for a period of time and facilitate some weight loss. b) The limited diet sounds like a good plan to limit extra calories from other foods. c) The chicken and rice combination seems adequate to provide caloric, macronutrient, and micronutrient needs. d) A varied diet of whole foods provides important micronutrients, and this limited diet may be lacking adequate amounts of them.

d) A varied diet of whole foods provides important micronutrients, and this limited diet may be lacking adequate amounts of them.

Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)? a) An intensity where continuous talking is comfortable b) An intensity where continuous talking becomes almost impossible c) An intensity where continuous talking becomes difficult d) An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging

d) An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging

Which of the following would be an appropriate Phase 2 superset? a) Single-leg hops and ball push-ups b) Deadlifts and squats c) Power step-ups and ice skaters d) Bench press and stability ball push-ups

d) Bench press and stability ball push-ups

What should be the first step in a client's program after the assessment? a) Designing the speed, agility, and quickness portion of the program b) Having the client do their cardiovascular exercise for weight loss c) Telling the client to eat some type of complex carbohydrate d) Designing the flexibility portion of the program

d) Designing the flexibility portion of the program

What is defined as the state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream? a) Hypertension b) Hypoglycemia c) Hypotension d) Hyperglycemia

d) Hyperglycemia

Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion? a) Most injuries occur in the sagittal plane. b) Athletic performance in a universal goal. c) Multiplanar training eliminates the risk for injury. d) Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.

d) Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.

What anatomical term is used to describe something that is relatively closer to the midline of the body? a) Lateral b) Posterior c) Anterior d) Medial

d) Medial

What principle describes the nervous system's ability to recruit the correct muscles to perform movement? a) Concentric control b) Eccentric control c) All-or-nothing principle d) Neuromuscular efficiency

d) Neuromuscular efficiency

How heavy should the medicine ball be when performing the soccer throw exercise? a) At least 21% of body weight b) 11 to 15% of body weight c) 16-20% of body weight d) No more than 10% of body weight

d) No more than 10% of body weight

Which type of lipids are considered to be heart-healthy and associated with reduced inflammation? a) Monounsaturated fats b) Polyunsaturated fats c) Omega-6 fatty acids d) Omega-3 fatty acids

d) Omega-3 fatty acids

A client is asked, "Why do you want to lose weight?" This is an example of what kind of questions? a) Contemplation b) Directive c) Closed-ended d) Open-ended

d) Open-ended

Which type of professionals are qualified to counsel individuals who are diagnosed with depression, using exercise as a supplemental treatment? a) Registered dietitian or nutritionist b) Corrective exercise specialist or certified exercise physiologist c) Certified Personal Trainer or certified fitness professional d) Psychologist or psychiatrist

d) Psychologist of psychiatrist

Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs? a) Left ventricle b) Left atrium c) Right atrium d) Right ventricle

d) Right ventricle

Programming exercises that are too advanced of physically demanding can have a lasting effect on which of the client's emotional considerations? a) Self-image b) Self-esteem c) Resilience d) Self-efficacy

d) Self-efficacy

What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) internal rotation exercise primarily target? a) Infraspinatus b) Scalenes c) Anterior tibialis d) Subscapularis

d) Subscapularis

When working in a health club, what piece of equipment would it be essential to know the location of? a) Rags and cleaning supplies b) The vacuum cleaner, in case a personal trainer has to clean during the shift c) The remote control for the TVs or sound system d) The AED, in case the personal trainer will need to perform CPR on a health club member

d) The AED, in case the personal trainer will need to perform CPR on a health club member

Core stability is best describes as: a) The ability to generate power and rotation in the lumbar spine b) The ability to transfer power from the upper body to the lower body for sports performance c) The ability to decrease ROM in the thoracic spine, while increasing engagement of the rectus abdominus for spinal extension d) The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving

d) The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving

The posterior oblique system includes which of the following muscle groups? a) Hamstrings and erector spinae b) Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum c) Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators d) Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus

d) Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus

What type of diabetes occurs when cells are resistant to insulin, meaning that the insulin present cannot transfer adequate amounts of blood sugar into the cell? a) Prediabetes b) Type 1 c) Gestational d) Type 2

d) Type 2

Which of the following waist-to-hip ratios (WHRs) places Amy (a female) in the high-risk category for cardiovascular disease? a) WHR of 0.72 b) WHR of 0.83 c) WHR of 0.78 d) WHR of 0.88

d) WHR of 0.88

How many CEUs does the mandatory CPR/AED certification provide for renewal of the NASM-CPT credential? Select one: a. 0.2 b. 1 c. 0.5 d. 0.1

d. 0.1

Which of the following blood pressure readings would classify an individual as having stage 1 hypertension? Select one: a. 124/80 mm Hg b. 143/92 mm Hg c. 118/78 mm Hg d. 135/80 mm Hg

d. 135/80 mm Hg

What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients? Select one: a. 0 to 15 seconds b. 60 to 90 seconds c. 90 to 120 seconds d. 15 to 60 seconds

d. 15 to 60 seconds

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations? Select one: a. 3 sets, 10 repetitions, 77% 1RM b. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM c. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM d. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM

d. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM

What is an appropriate tempo for Phase 1 of the OPT model? Select one: a. X-X-X-X b. 1-2-3-4 c. 2-0-2-0 d. 4-2-1-1

d. 4-2-1-1

You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session? Select one: a. 2 to 4 drills b. 9 or 10 drills c. 4 to 5 drills d. 6 to 8 drills

d. 6 to 8 drills

What are the current physical activity recommendations for youth? Select one: a. 50 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day b. 30 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day c. 40 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day d. 60 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day

d. 60 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day

What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)? Select one: a. 60 minutes per week b. 120 minutes per week c. 90 minutes per week d. 75 minutes per week

d. 75 minutes per week

What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Stabilization of the LPHC b. Slow and controlled movements c. Use of heavy weights d. A faster tempo, similar to daily life

d. A faster tempo, similar to daily life

What statement best describes a low-cost health club? Select one: a. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities like towels and complimentary personal hygiene products, cafes, pools, sports courts, and childcare services b. A health club that provides amenities like locker rooms, snack and supplement sales, and group fitness workouts included in the price of membership c. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives d. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment

d. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment

What is homeostasis? Select one: a. A situation in which the human body is rapidly changing all the time b. Any abnormal condition that negatively affects the structure or function of a part of the body c. A combination of influences that include education, income, and occupation d. A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium

d. A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium

What is the Valsalva maneuver? Select one: a. The process of increasing the intensity or volume of exercise programs using a systematic and gradual approach b. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium c. The body's ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts d. A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability

d. A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability

What are the components of ATP? Select one: a. Adenine, ribose, and two phosphate groups b. Adenine, glucose, and one phosphate group c. Adenine, amino acids, and three phosphate groups d. Adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups

d. Adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups

What is defined as the level of commitment to a behavior or plan of action? Select one: a. Goals b. Hypertrophy c. Overtraining d. Adherence

d. Adherence

What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Altered length-tension relationship c. Synergistic dominance d. Altered reciprocal inhibition

d. Altered reciprocal inhibition

What best describes an essential amino acid? Select one: a. An amino acid that is in all types of foods b. An amino acid that is available in all protein foods c. An amino acid that is required after a workout d. An amino acid that must be obtained via diet, as it is not produced by the body

d. An amino acid that must be obtained via diet, as it is not produced by the body

Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle? Select one: a. Axial b. Lateral c. Peripheral d. Appendicular

d. Appendicular

What is a normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable? Select one: a. Hyperglycemia b. Hypoglycemia c. Atherosclerosis d. Arteriosclerosis

d. Arteriosclerosis

Movements that take place within a joint and are not visible to the human eye may be classified in what way? Select one: a. Osteokinematic b. Posterior c. Anterior d. Arthrokinematic

d. Arthrokinematic

Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during an eccentric muscle action? Select one: a. As the contraction velocity decreases, the ability to develop force increases. b. As the contraction velocity decreases, the force remains constant. c. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force decreases. d. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.

d. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.

Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction? Select one: a. As velocity decreases, the force remains constant. b. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability to produce force increases. c. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action decreases, its ability to produce force decreases. d. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.

d. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.

SAQ programs for youth have been found to decrease what? Select one: a. Sports participation b. Power c. Strength d. Athletic injuries

d. Athletic injuries

What is the process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles? Select one: a. Stretch reflex b. Isometric contraction c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Autogenic inhibition

d. Autogenic inhibition

When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called? Select one: a. Isometric contraction b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Stretch reflex d. Autogenic inhibition

d. Autogenic inhibition

What are the two divisions of the skeletal system? Select one: a. Anterior and posterior b. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts c. Upper and lower d. Axial and appendicular

d. Axial and appendicular

Which of the following vitamins or groups of vitamins plays a key role in energy metabolism? Select one: a. Fat-soluble vitamins b. Vitamin C c. Water-soluble vitamins d. B vitamins

d. B vitamins

Which exercise is categorized as a total-body movement? Select one: a. Romanian deadlift b. Standing cable chest press c. Push-up d. Ball squat, curl to press

d. Ball squat, curl to press

Which option is a common strength-focused resistance training exercise? Select one: a. Box jumps b. Medicine ball soccer throw c. Single-leg cable row d. Barbell bench press

d. Barbell bench press

What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle? Select one: a. Acidosis b. Glycolysis c. Ketosis d. Beta-oxidation

d. Beta-oxidation

Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins? Select one: a. Biologically active forms lead to toxicity. b. Biologically active forms are less efficient. c. Biologically active forms lead to deficiency. d. Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.

d. Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.

Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up? Select one: a. Triceps brachii b. Brachialis c. Biceps brachii d. Brachioradialis

d. Brachioradialis

Which of the following modalities has the potential to be used effectively in every phase of the OPT model? Select one: a. Terra-Core b. TRX Rip Trainer c. Suspended bodyweight training d. Cable machines

d. Cable machines

Which of the following is not a tracked component on an athlete's macrocycle annual training plan? Select one: a. Off-season training b. In-season training c. Preseason training d. Cardio training

d. Cardio training

What is the correct order of segments for the spine, starting at the top? Select one: a. Lumbar, cervical, and thoracic b. Thoracic, cervical, and lumbar c. Cervical, lumbar, and thoracic d. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar

d. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar

What type of health concern is the leading cause of death in the world today? Select one: a. Alcohol b. Injuries c. Acute diseases d. Chronic diseases and conditions

d. Chronic diseases and conditions

What disease is a condition of altered airflow through the lungs, generally caused by airway obstruction due to mucus production? Select one: a. Type 2 diabetes b. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis c. Type 1 diabetes d. Chronic obstructive lung disease

d. Chronic obstructive lung disease

Most bodyweight training exercises are considered which type of movements? Select one: a. Suspended bodyweight movements b. Loaded movements c. Open-chain movements d. Closed-chain movements

d. Closed-chain movements

Which statement best describes the second stage of the sales process? Select one: a. Discussing discounts on various personal training packages b. Communicating the negative side effects of a sedentary lifestyle c. Discussing the customer's budget d. Communicating solutions for the customer's needs

d. Communicating solutions for the customer's needs

The ability of an individual to maintain proper spinal and hip posture while the extremities are moving most accurately describes which term? Select one: a. Core strength b. Core power c. Core endurance d. Core stability

d. Core stability

A community could influence physical activity for its inhabitants by doing which of the following? Select one: a. Reducing the number of fast-food restaurants b. Limiting the number of sports leagues that are using a community center c. Allowing more permits for fitness facilities to open d. Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails

d. Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails

Which of the following is a component of agility training? Select one: a. Reaction b. Stride rate c. Assessment of visual stimuli d. Deceleration

d. Deceleration

Which of the following factors is not present when a client is making a transition to the Power Phase of the OPT model? Select one: a. Power exercise familiarity b. Adequate joint stability c. Adequate core stability d. Deconditioning

d. Deconditioning

From the list of items provided, which of the following are not considered benefits of cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. Reduced blood pressure and cholesterol levels b. Improved respiratory efficiency and metabolism c. Increased cardiac output and oxygen transport d. Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness

d. Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness

For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises, what is the appropriate position of the shoulders? Select one: a. Elevated and slightly protracted b. Depressed and slightly protracted c. Elevated and slightly retracted d. Depressed and slightly retracted

d. Depressed and slightly retracted

Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Ice skaters b. Single-leg hops c. Box jumps d. Depth jumps

d. Depth jumps

Into which category would a resting blood pressure score of 128/86 mm Hg fall? Select one: a. Stage 2 hypertension b. Stage 1 hypertension c. Normal d. Elevated

d. Elevated

What group of hormones are released by the brain during exercise help reduce pain? Select one: a. Androgens b. Adrenaline c. Melatonin d. Endorphins

d. Endorphins

What does the first law of thermodynamics state? Select one: a. Food increases metabolic rate. b. Metabolic rate is constant. c. All energy is converted to heat. d. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.

d. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.

How is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) best defined? Select one: a. Energy expenditure through structured exercise alone, such as strength training and cardiorespiratory exercise b. The rate at which the body expends energy (calories) when fasted and at complete rest, such as asleep or lying quietly c. The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest d. Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs

d. Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs

What are two ways to best improve the timely passage of food through the intestinal tracts and prevent constipation? Select one: a. Perform a daily program of aerobic activity, and ensure increased protein consumption b. Ensure adequate water consumption, and avoid higher levels of physical activity c. Ensure adequate water and protein intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of resistance training d. Ensure adequate water intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of both aerobic and resistance training

d. Ensure adequate water intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of both aerobic and resistance training

How often does an NASM Certified Personal Trainer need to renew their certification? Select one: a. Every 5 years b. Every 3 years c. Every year d. Every 2 years

d. Every 2 years

A client reports that he was recently told by his doctor that he has high blood sugar and that he should try to reduce it through dietary changes before considering medication. He asks you for advice. What would be the most appropriate course of action? Select one: a. Agree to review his diet and provide him with specific dietary guidelines on what foods to eat and what to avoid. b. Say that you cannot help him because this is a medical issue, and tell him he needs to follow up with his doctor again. c. Give him a diabetic meal plan that you find on the internet. d. Explain that medical nutrition therapy is outside your scope of practice, then refer him to a registered dietitian for nutrition counseling.

d. Explain that medical nutrition therapy is outside your scope of practice, then refer him to a registered dietitian for nutrition counseling.

What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints? Select one: a. Feet, ankles, knees, torso, and neck b. Feet and ankles, LPHC, shoulders, head, and neck c. Feet, ankles, knees, abdomen, and chest d. Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck

d. Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck

What type of lever could be described as having a fulcrum in the middle like a seesaw? Select one: a. Second class b. Fourth class c. Third class d. First class

d. First class

What are ground reaction forces? Select one: a. The force of gravity b. Deceleration forces in the muscles c. Forces used by the muscles during a jump d. Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping

d. Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping

When a client makes a plan, such as, "When I am done with work, I will run for 30 minutes," what are they doing? Select one: a. Stating an outcome expectation b. Creating a coping plan c. Self-monitoring d. Forming an implementation intention

d. Forming an implementation intention

Strength-training machines provide training primarily in which planes of motion? Select one: a. All planes of motion b. Sagittal and transverse c. Transverse and frontal d. Frontal and sagittal

d. Frontal and sagittal

Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important? Select one: a. Frontside mechanics are associated with a stronger push phase, including hip-knee extension, gluteal contraction, and backside arm drive. b. Frontside mechanics align the rear leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward. c. Triple extension involved in frontside mechanics is essential to keep the pelvis in a neutral position and facilitate force production. d. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.

d. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.

Which muscles are typically overactive when the feet turn out? Select one: a. Adductor complex b. Upper trapezius c. Hip flexors d. Gastrocnemius and soleus

d. Gastrocnemius and soleus

Which mechanoreceptor is sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of that tension change, causing the muscle to relax, which prevents the muscle from excessive stress and possible injury? Select one: a. Joint receptors b. Interneurons c. Muscle spindles d. Golgi tendon organs

d. Golgi tendon organs

Which pressing exercise would be appropriate for someone who has high levels of upper-body strength but has no equipment because they are traveling? Select one: a. Chin-ups b. Leg press c. Sit-ups d. Handstand push-up

d. Handstand push-up

What is the number one cause of death in the United States? Select one: a. Cancer b. Smoking c. Obesity d. Heart disease

d. Heart disease

The most well-known and well-researched effect of omega-3 fats relates to which of the following? Select one: a. Bone health b. Athletic performance c. Endocrine health d. Heart health

d. Heart health

A new client is having trouble managing her busy schedule and has cancelled her last 3 personal training sessions. What is the best option for the fitness professional? Select one: a. Refund the remaining sessions and actively search for a new client. b. Politely let the client know that you are transferring them to another trainer. c. Let the client know that cancelling sessions costs them money without providing any benefits. d. Help the client determine her barriers, and talk through strategies to overcome them.

d. Help the client determine her barriers, and talk through strategies to overcome them.

At her annual physical, Claire found out her blood pressure was 110/70 mm Hg. According to this information, which statement is true? Select one: a. She needs to modify her diet to bring down her blood pressure. b. She has hypertension. c. Her systolic pressure is 70. d. Her diastolic pressure is 70.

d. Her diastolic pressure is 70.

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus b. Gluteus medius c. Hamstrings complex d. Hip flexors

d. Hip flexors

What behavior change technique is a specific plan that drives behavior by identifying cues toward action? Select one: a. Self-monitoring b. Guided practice c. Coping plan d. Implementation intention

d. Implementation intention

Which of the following is a characteristic of linear periodization? Select one: a. Changes acute variables on a weekly basis b. Involves training multiple styles each week c. Helps prevent workouts from becoming boring d. Increases intensity while decreasing volume

d. Increases intensity while decreasing volume

Loaning some exercise bands to a client who is scheduled to go on vacation is an example of which type of social support? Select one: a. Emotional support b. Informational support c. Companionship support d. Instrumental support

d. Instrumental support

Which type of support describes the actions that a person takes to help another person engage in exercise? Select one: a. Companionship support b. Informational support c. Emotional support d. Instrumental support

d. Instrumental support

You read an article in a popular magazine explaining the weight-loss benefits of including a certain nutrient in your diet. What should you consider in deciding if this is credible nutrition information? Select one: a. Is the magazine article in a recent publication or is it outdated? b. Is the nutrient available as a supplement, given the purported weight-loss benefits? c. Has the information been reported on the news and in other media? d. Is the information supported by research, and has it been reviewed by other qualified individuals?

d. Is the information supported by research, and has it been reviewed by other qualified individuals?

What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training? Select one: a. Eccentric b. Concentric c. Isokinetic d. Isometric

d. Isometric

Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)? Select one: a. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time, but with a smaller volume of work. b. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time, but with a larger volume of work. c. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time with a similar volume of work d. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.

d. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.

Which statement about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is accurate? Select one: a. It is typically a stress-induced condition. b. Brisk walking is not recommended, as it can bring on symptoms. c. It is an acute disease. d. It is not a curable disease.

d. It is not a curable disease.

What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques? Select one: a. Cancer and bleeding disorders b. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis c. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension d. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis

d. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis

What is the ideal landing position when performing the squat jump exercise? Select one: a. Knees inside the first toe b. Knee varus c. Knee valgus d. Knees over second and third toes

d. Knees over second and third toes

Not having someone to exercise with would be an example of which type of barrier? Select one: a. Lack of convenience b. Lack of motivation c. Lack of willpower d. Lack of social support

d. Lack of social support

Adjusting daily priorities is a strategy to overcome which of the following barriers? Select one: a. Unrealistic goals b. Ambivalence c. Convenience d. Lack of time

d. Lack of time

Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core? Select one: a. Back muscles only b. Global muscles c. Local and global muscles d. Local muscles

d. Local muscles

In order to optimally load muscle during the eccentric phase, the fitness professional should recommend which of the following? Select one: a. Lower the weight faster to reduce time under tension b. Reduce the resistance so it is less than it was in the concentric phase, and lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension c. Reduce the resistance so it is less than it was in the concentric phase, and lower the weight faster to reduce time under tension d. Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension

d. Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension

Which statement best describes the final stage of the sales process? Select one: a. Communicating solutions for the customer's needs b. Asking for referrals c. Identifying a customer's needs d. Making the sale by asking for a financial commitment to solving the customer's needs

d. Making the sale by asking for a financial commitment to solving the customer's needs

Before studying to become an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, Kim worked as a copywriter for a large ad agency. Now that she is working as a personal trainer at a fitness studio, she is looking for additional income opportunities. Which of the following would provide her with the best option for increasing her earning potential? Select one: a. Becoming an NASM Master Instructor b. College football conditioning coach c. College instructor d. Marketing her services as a writer to create blogs and social media posts for her studio as well as other fitness professionals in her area

d. Marketing her services as a writer to create blogs and social media posts for her studio as well as other fitness professionals in her area

What area of the chest contains the heart? Select one: a. Atrium b. Myofibril c. Ventricle d. Mediastinum

d. Mediastinum

Without a perceived discrepancy between a client's current state and making a change, what is lacking? Select one: a. Positive outcome expectation b. Autonomy c. Self-efficacy d. Motivation

d. Motivation

A person walks differently when they move from a sidewalk onto the sand. This is regulated by what function? Select one: a. Muscle function b. Neuroplasticity c. Wolff's law d. Motor function

d. Motor function

Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training? Select one: a. Body composition assessments b. PAR-Q+ c. Strength assessments d. Movement assessments

d. Movement assessments

Which muscle functions in a feed-forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements? Select one: a. Rectus abdominis b. Gluteus maximus c. Erector spinae d. Multifidus

d. Multifidus

Which of the following variations of a hop exercise would be the most difficult from a deceleration and balance standpoint? Select one: a. Single-leg hop forward b. Multiplanar hop with stabilization c. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization d. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization

d. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization

Which is a primary adaptation of the Strength Endurance training phase? Select one: a. Mobility and flexibility b. Postural alignment c. Maximal muscular strength d. Muscular endurance

d. Muscular endurance

Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints? Select one: a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Osteoporosis c. Osteopenia d. Osteoarthritis

d. Osteoarthritis

Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs? Select one: a. Arthrokinematics b. Biomechanics c. Kinesiology d. Osteokinematics

d. Osteokinematics

Which term describes the movement of bones, such as flexion and extension? Select one: a. Osteoporosis b. Arthrokinematics c. Arthropathy d. Osteokinematics

d. Osteokinematics

Which system puts the body into a relaxed state, termed rest and digest? Select one: a. Somatic nervous system b. Central nervous system c. Sympathetic nervous system d. Parasympathetic nervous system

d. Parasympathetic nervous system

What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body? Select one: a. Blood pressure b. Thermoregulation c. Heart rate d. Peripheral vasodilation

d. Peripheral vasodilation

What are three postural distortion patterns to look for in static postural assessments? Select one: a. Pes planus distortion syndrome, knees cave inward, and arms fall forward b. Low-back arches, shoulders elevate, and head juts forward c. Knee dominance, upper crossed syndrome, and lower crossed syndrome d. Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome

d. Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome

What phase of the OPT model would hypertrophy fall under? Select one: a. Phase 1 b. Phase 2 c. Phase 5 d. Phase 3

d. Phase 3

In which of the following phases of the OPT model is suspended bodyweight training considered ideal? Select one: a. Phases 4 and 5 b. Phases 1 and 3 c. Phases 3 and 4 d. Phases 1 and 2

d. Phases 1 and 2

Which of the following injuries is characterized by a sharp pain in the bottom of the heel that makes it difficult to walk? Select one: a. Patellar tendonitis b. A sprain c. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear d. Plantar fasciitis

d. Plantar fasciitis

Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane? Select one: a. Anterior pelvic tilt b. Medial pelvic tilt c. Lateral pelvic tilt d. Posterior pelvic tilt

d. Posterior pelvic tilt

Which is a primary adaptation of the Stabilization Endurance phase? Select one: a. Core strength b. Maximal muscular strength c. Rate of force production d. Postural alignment

d. Postural alignment

What is an example of a mechanism that can lead to muscle imbalance? Select one: a. Inability to exercise 3 times per week b. Poor SMART goals c. Too much cardiovascular exercise d. Postural distortions

d. Postural distortions

A Certified Personal Trainer asks a client who is not currently doing any aerobic training how ready they are to do aerobic training one time per week for 30 minutes using a scale of 1 through 10, with 1 representing not at all ready and 10 representing completely ready. They say they are at a 1; what stage of change are they in? Select one: a. Preparation b. Action c. Maintenance d. Precontemplation

d. Precontemplation

Which system is comprised of the airways and lungs? Select one: a. Endocrine b. Digestive c. Cardiovascular d. Respiratory

d. Respiratory

What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise? Select one: a. Protraction b. Upward rotation c. Elevation d. Retraction

d. Retraction

What is the practice of identifying a negative inner narrative and replacing it with positive statements? Select one: a. Stopping b. Cognitive fusion c. Imagery d. Reverse listing

d. Reverse listing

Which of the following would be considered a process goal? Select one: a. Squat 100 pounds b. Run a 10k race c. Run one mile d. Run three times a week

d. Run three times a week

What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle? Select one: a. Sense the amount of eccentric force and the joint range of motion b. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse c. Sense the amount of eccentric force and the speed of shortening d. Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change

d. Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change

The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula? Select one: a. Rhomboids b. Rotator cuff muscles c. Deltoid d. Serratus anterior

d. Serratus anterior

Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body? Select one: a. Knees b. Ankles c. Shoulders d. Spine

d. Spine

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the lower extremities? Select one: a. Single-leg squat b. Overhead squat c. Lunge d. Squat

d. Squat

What are the three levels of the OPT model? Select one: a. Stabilization, Muscular Development, and Power b. Stabilization, Strength, and Maximal Strength c. Strength Endurance, Maximal Strength, and Power d. Stabilization, Strength, and Power

d. Stabilization, Strength, and Power

What is the primary action of the multifidus? Select one: a. Increase intra-abdominal pressure b. Regulate inspiration c. Support the contents of the pelvis d. Stabilize and extend the spine

d. Stabilize and extend the spine

A client looking to add muscle and bulk over the next few months asks for advice on how to consume extra calories. Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice, while remaining within scope of practice? Select one: a. Suggest she increase consumption of high-calorie foods such as ice cream, pizza, and cake. b. Recommend she increase only her protein intake at every meal. c. Recommend she eat high-calorie "cheat meals" more often. d. Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals.

d. Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals.

What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle takes over for a weak or inhibited muscle? Select one: a. Altered length-tension relationship b. Altered reciprocal inhibition c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Synergistic dominance

d. Synergistic dominance

What is the most appropriate response from a Certified Personal Trainer if a client insists on using a steroid or other harmful substance? Select one: a. Tell them no. b. Provide them with a plan and all the information they may need for use. c. Tell them it could help with their training. d. Tell them no, and refer them to a licensed medical professional for further advice.

d. Tell them no, and refer them to a licensed medical professional for further advice.

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat? Select one: a. Hip flexors b. Gluteus maximus and medius c. Upper trapezius d. Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex

d. Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex

In most individuals, to what pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure? Select one: a. The cuff is inflated to a value 45 to 55 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. b. The cuff is inflated to a value 70 to 80 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. c. The cuff is inflated to a value 5 to 10 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. d. The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

d. The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)? Select one: a. The sight, hearing, and taste systems b. These are not the physiological systems that comprise the HMS. c. The vision, vestibular, and somatosensory systems d. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems

d. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems

What is an example of an individual in the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome? Select one: a. The person has suffered a metatarsal stress fracture. b. The person is experiencing improvement in aerobic capacity. c. The person is experiencing an increase in muscular hypertrophy. d. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.

d. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.

What is the function of the neuromuscular junction? Select one: a. Exposing actin-binding sites b. The site of muscular contractions c. The sliding filament theory d. The site where the nervous system and muscle fibers communicate

d. The site where the nervous system and muscle fibers communicate

What is glycogen? Select one: a. The storage form of carbohydrate in plants b. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate breakdown in humans c. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate storage in humans and animals d. The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans

d. The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans

Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate? Select one: a. The work-to-recovery intervals are 1:2 (20 sec work + 40 sec recovery) for a total of 10 intervals. b. The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near maximal effort. c. The work-to-recovery intervals are 3:1 (30 sec work + 10 sec recovery) for a total of 12 intervals. d. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.

d. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.

How should the amortization phase of the stretch-shortening cycle be described? Select one: a. The transition between the concentric and isometric phases b. The transition from concentric loading to eccentric unloading c. The transition between the isometric and eccentric phases d. The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading

d. The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading

What is cardiac output? Select one: a. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction b. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per beat or contraction c. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction d. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute

d. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute

What is the purpose of the intervertebral discs? Select one: a. They minimize movement of the spine. b. They provide support for the head. c. They support most of the body's weight and are attached to many back muscles. d. They act as shock absorbers.

d. They act as shock absorbers.

Performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which type of lever? Select one: a. Fourth class b. Second class c. First class d. Third class

d. Third class

Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where? Select one: a. Lumbar spine b. Sagittal plane c. Frontal plane d. Thoracic spine

d. Thoracic spine

What is an appropriate cue that can be given to a client to properly perform the drawing-in maneuver? Select one: a. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, tighten all muscles of the global core. b. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, bear down with the muscles of the global core. c. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, hold your breath and tighten your gluteals. d. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.

d. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.

What is the purpose of the Current Good Manufacturing Practices? Select one: a. To set prices for supplements b. To ban illegal substances c. To set regulations on what ingredients can and cannot be used d. To provide guidelines to help ensure quality and purity of products

d. To provide guidelines to help ensure quality and purity of products

The drawing-in maneuver increases activation of what muscle? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Diaphragm c. External obliques d. Transverse abdominis

d. Transverse abdominis

Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers? Select one: a. Type IIb b. Type IIc c. Type IIa d. Type I

d. Type I

What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness? Select one: a. Rockport walk test b. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test c. YMCA 3-minute step test d. V̇O2max

d. V̇O2max

Which of the following would be the recommended source of hydration after 40 to 45 minutes of exercise with minimal perspiration? Select one: a. An isotonic sports drink b. Fruit juice c. A hypertonic sports drink d. Water

d. Water

Which of the following best demonstrates an example of exercise? Select one: a. Shoveling snow b. Walking a dog c. Yardwork d. Weightlifting

d. Weightlifting

In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging? Select one: a. Zone 4 b. Zone 3 c. Zone 1 d. Zone 2

d. Zone 2