CPT Test Review
In reviewing your client's medical history, you note that she is on lipid lowering medication and her high-density lipoprotein cholesterol is 62 mg·dL-1. Based on her profile, how many total risk factors does she have? a) 0 b) 1 c) -1 d) 2
a) 0 While the client's total cholesterol is considered a positive risk factor, this is negated as her HDL-C that is considered a negative risk factor. Thus, the sum total equals zero risk factors.
A 30-year-old potential client states she just had a physical and was informed by her physician that her total cholesterol and blood pressure looked great. You review her medical history and note she is taking vitamins and antihypertensive medication. Based on this profile, she would be considered as having how many risk factors? a) 1 b) 0 c) 3 d) 2
a) 1
A male client is 45-years-old and has high-density lipoprotein of 35 mg·dL-1. He spends 30 minutes a day walking to and from work. Based on this profile, how many total risk factors does he have? a) 2 b) -1 c) 0 d) 1
a) 2 This client's age and HDL-C are considered positive risk factors. Note that physical activity is NOT considered a negative risk factor.
A male client is 45-years-old and has high-density lipoprotein of 35 mg·dL-1. He spends 30 minutes a day walking to and from work. Based on this profile, how many total risk factors does he have? a) 2 b) 1 c) 0 d) -1
a) 2 This client's age and HDL-C are considered positive risk factors. Note that physical activity is NOT considered a negative risk factor.
Approximately what percent of cardiac output is distributed to skeletal muscles during exercise? a) 85%-90% b) 55%-60% c) 35%-40% d) 15%-20%
a) 85%-90% At rest, 15%-20% of cardiac output is distributed to the skeletal muscles; the remainder goes to the visceral organs. However, during exercise, as much as 85%-90% of cardiac ouput is selectively delivered to working muscles and shunted away from the skin and the internal organs.
An appropriate warm-up for a brisk walk would be? a) A light walk b) Lateral shuffles c) Jogging d) Skipping
a) A light walk Light walking is the best warm-up for brisk walking as it mimics the exercise coming up.
Muscular strength is defined as: a) A one-time maximal force that may be exerted and is localized to a joint or muscle group. b) The amount of motor units recruited in 8 to 12 reps. c) The number of muscle spindles recruited during a maximal contraction. d) The ability to apply a force repeatedly over time.
a) A one-time maximal force that may be exerted and is localized to a joint or muscle group. Understanding that muscle strength is the maximum force a muscle can exert is important so that you choose the right exercise variables to achieve muscular strength.
Given the following complete health and medical history, which client has one risk factor? a) A physically active 55-year-old female b) A 32-year-old male with family history of heart disease and pre-diabetes c) A 21-year-old female who has slight scoliosis with tightness on left hip abductors d) A 46-year-old male with cholesterol of 208 mg·dL-1 that desires to begin training for his first marathon.
a) A physically active 55-year-old female
What muscles are antagonists to the bicep brachii, brachialis, and brachioradialis? a) Anconeus and triceps brachii b) Pronator quadratus c) Pronator teres d) Anconeus and supinator
a) Anconeus and triceps brachii
To demonstrate outstanding customer service during your initial client contact, you should: a) Arrive early or on time. b) Dress appropriately and professionally. c) Speak respectfully to the client. d) Be prepared for the appointment.
a) Arrive early or on time.
Increased mitochondrial density is a result of: a) Chronic cardiorespiratory activity. b) Acute bouts of resistance training. c) Acute bouts of cardiorespiratory fitness. d) Chronic resistance training.
a) Chronic cardiorespiratory activity. The mitochondria is the work horse of the cell; therefore, increased mitochondrial density is a result of chronic cardiorespiratory activity.
Which of the following is utilized to obtain critical client information? a) Client Intake Form b) Personal Trainer-Client Agreement c) PAR-Q d) Medical Clearance Form
a) Client Intake Form
Which sport is performed primarily in the aerobic-oxidation system? a) Cycling b) 200- to 440-meter dash c) Gymnastics d) 100-meter swim
a) Cycling
For a client who appears to be ready to work with a personal trainer and make other necessary changes, which of the following tools can be utilized to help a client move toward the next stage of change? a) Decisional balance b) Process of change c) Self-efficacy d) Operant conditioning
a) Decisional balance For clients who appear to be ready to make necessary behavioral changes, the use of decisional balance will allow the client to assess the importance of the pros and cons and work through any challenges
The ulna bone is ________ to the humerus bone. a) Distal b) Anterior c) Proximal d) Posterior
a) Distal The term "distal" refers to a point away from the midline or further from the point of origin.
The best types of stretches to include in a warm-up for walking or cycling are: a) Dynamic b) Static c) Ballistic d) PNF
a) Dynamic A proper warm-up for long, steady state exercise includes dynamic stretching as you do not want to perform other types of stretching that does not prepare the body for more intense exercise.
Movement resulting in an increase of the joint angle, usually moving posteriorly in the sagittal plane is called __________. a) Extension b) Abduction c) Rotation d) Flexion
a) Extension
The posterior deltoid performs ________ of the shoulder joint at approximately ________. a) Extension; 40° to 60° b) Abduction; 90° c) Adduction, 0° d) Extension, 70° to 90°
a) Extension; 40° to 60°
Which of the following concepts, if applied, makes resistance training easier to perform? a) F = ma b) Newton's third law c) P = mv d) Newton's first law
a) F = ma
Which of the following is an example of an enarthrodial joint? a) Glenohumeral b) Acromioclavicular c) Radiounlar d) Carpal-metacarpal
a) Glenohumeral
In general, behaviors are so difficult to change because the client: a) Has maintained this behavior over time and has reinforced it in his or her environment. b) Lacks the knowledge on how to start an exercise program. c) Usually lacks will power to engage in exercise. d) Is not fully committed to modifying the required behaviors.
a) Has maintained this behavior over time and has reinforced it in his or her environment. While many factors play a role, it becomes more difficult to change a behavior when it has been reinforced over a long period of time.
The products that make up cardiac output are: a) Heart rate and stroke volume b) VO2max and heart rate c) Mean arterial pressure and heart rate d) Stroke volume and VO2max
a) Heart rate and stroke volume
Flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, internal rotation, and external rotation are possible joint actions found in the: a) Hip joint b) Wrist joint c) Carpal-metacarpal joint d) Saddle joint
a) Hip joint The hip joint is a multi-axial joint and has 3° of freedom. Thus, it is able to perform action in all planes. Note that circumduction is a combination of adduction, abduction, flexion, and extension.
What joint action of the shoulder is performed during a reverse cable fly or a reverse dumbbell fly? a) Horizontal abduction b) Retraction c) Horizontal adduction d) Protraction
a) Horizontal abduction A reverse cable fly and reverse dumbbell fly begins with the hands together at the shoulder level. The arms perform horizontal abduction by moving the arms back in the transverse plane.
A lumbar vertebrae is an example of a ________ bone. a) Irregular b) Flat c) Short d) Sesamoid
a) Irregular
Which exercise results in the greatest amount of torque from the muscles of the shoulder joint? a) Lateral raises in the frontal plane to 90°, humeral abduction with 30 lb dumbbells, elbows extended b) Lateral raises in the frontal plane to 90°, humeral abduction with 30 lb dumbbells, elbows flexed 90° c) Shoulder shrugs, using 50 lb dumbbells, elbows extended d) Shoulder shrugs, using 85 lb dumbbells, with elbows extended
a) Lateral raises in the frontal plane to 90°, humeral abduction with 30 lb dumbbells, elbows extended
Marti is performing unilateral standing calf raises with a dumbbell held in the ipsilateral hand. You cue her to stand up tall and lean back slightly while performing the exercise to ________ and make the exercise ________, thereby increasing efficiency. a) Lengthen the lever arm; more difficult b) Lengthen the lever arm; easier c) Shorten the lever arm; more difficult d) Shorten the lever arm; easier
a) Lengthen the lever arm; more difficult
Which of the following muscles is superior to the latissimus dorsi? a) Levator scapulae b) External oblique c) Erector spinae d) Lower trapezius
a) Levator scapulae "Superior" is a basic descriptive term used to describe position of a body part that is above another body part or refers to an upper surface of an organ or structure. In this instance, the levator scapulae is located above the latissimus dorsi.
Which of the following would help a Personal Trainer develop rapport with a client during the initial interview? a) Looking away from the client frequently to prevent staring while sitting with good posture and a slight forward lean b) Direct, friendly eye contact while always maintaining a smile and enthusiasm throughout the session c) Speaking in a firm voice with confidence, using fluid hand gestures while speaking and quiet hands while listening d) Speaking in a soft, friendly voice while leaning against the chair armrest with forearms crossed calmly
a) Looking away from the client frequently to prevent staring while sitting with good posture and a slight forward lean
Higher levels of cardiovascular fitness are associated with: a) Lower mortality rates b) Lower MET capacity c) Increased HR and SBP at maximal work rates d) Increased HR and SBP at submaximal work rates
a) Lower mortality rates Higher levels of aerobic fitness are associated with lower mortality from heart disease, even after statistical adjustments for age, coronary risk factors, and family history of heart disease.
A potential client has been walking two miles, several times a week, for the past few months and would like to continue progress toward her goals. You suggest that she train with you for several sessions to teach her things she can do on her own. This would help reinforce which stage of change? a) Maintenance b) Contemplation c) Preparation d) Action
a) Maintenance The rationale for suggesting that she train with you for a few sessions is to give her more exercise "tools" to work with, as well as preserve her behavior to exercise.
The muscles that function to adduct the hip joint are collectively in which area of the hip? a) Medial b) Lateral c) Anterior d) Posterior
a) Medial
Understanding nonverbal cues is important in establishing a successful client relationship because: a) More information is communicated in this manner. b) Eye contact cannot tell much about a client's emotional status. c) Hand position is usually consistent with verbal communication. d) Posture is usually consistent with verbal communication.
a) More information is communicated in this manner. Body language and other nonverbal cues are believed to be more reliable than spoken words.
The quadruped (birddog) exercise functions to strengthen which of the following muscles? a) Multifidus and erector spinae b) Rectus abdominis and obliques c) Latissimus dorsi and teres major d) Transverse abdominis and quadratus lumborum
a) Multifidus and erector spinae
Strength gains during early phases of resistance training are largely due to changes in the: a) Nervous system b) Sarcomeres c) Respiratory system d) Myofilaments
a) Nervous system
A manifestation of coronary artery disease is: a) Pain that occurs with exertion or exercise. b) A dull ache in the low back that occurs with movement. c) Jaw discomfort that occurs first thing in the morning. d) Tightness of the muscles between both scapulae during overhead activities.
a) Pain that occurs with exertion or exercise.
Which of the following muscles is involved in a dumbbell wrist curl? a) Palmaris longus b) Extensor carpi ulnaris c) Pronator quadratus d) Extensor carpi radialis
a) Palmaris longus The palmaris longus [as well as the flexor carpi radialis, ulnaris, and flexor digitorum superficialis] are involved in wrist flexion, which is the movement for a wrist curl.
Which of the following is considered the prime mover for both shoulder flexion and shoulder horizontal adduction? a) Pectoralis major b) Latissimus dorsi c) Teres major d) Serratus anterior
a) Pectoralis major
Which muscles are prime movers for eversion of the ankle joint? a) Peroneus longus and brevis b) Tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus c) Gastrocnemius and soleus d) Tibialis posterior and plantaris
a) Peroneus longus and brevis
Which of the following provides for an ideal stress on the bone to promote positive adapations in the bone? a) Plyometric training b) Swimming c) Indoor rowing d) Indoor cycling
a) Plyometric training Impact and weight bearing activities [plyometrics, jumping, resistance training] provide for a stress on the bone to promote positive adaptations in the bone.
Impaired glucose tolerance is consistent with which of the following? a) Prediabetes b) Type 2 diabetes c) Dyslipidemia d) Type 1 diabetes
a) Prediabetes
With a New Year's resolution to become more active, a 32-year-old male wants to get your feedback before he begins the exercise program he drafted for himself. He is in which stage of change? a) Preparation b) Precontemplation c) Contemplation d) Action
a) Preparation This individual is in the preparation stage as he as developed a specific plan of action toward behavior change.
What is the rotator cuff's primary role at the shoulder joint? a) Provide dynamic stability during humeral motion b) Promote scapular stability during arm movements c) Promote shoulder impingement during motion d) Prevent scapular winging
a) Provide dynamic stability during humeral motion The rotator cuff's primary role is to stabilize the shoulder joint. When these muscles have good muscular strength and endurance, they help center the head of the humerus in the center of the glenoid fossa which aids with positional control during movement.
Which of the following is an endurance exercise training adaptation that benefits those with coronary artery disease? a) Provides relief of symptoms b) Increases maximal heart rate c) Decreases rate pressure product d) Decreases stores of ATP
a) Provides relief of symptoms Most individuals with CAD have a subnormal functional capacity and may be limited by symptoms at relatively low levels of exertion. Training improves myocardial oxygen supply, decreased oxygen demand, or both and may provide relief of angina pectoris [i.e., chest pain/discomfort].
Rhabdomyolysis is a clinical pathology that is characterized by ________. a) Rapid breakdown of muscle tissue b) Mild muscle soreness c) Reduced lactic acid production d) Delayed onset muscle soreness
a) Rapid breakdown of muscle tissue
During the initial client-contact process, you find that your potential client would rather work with a trainer of another gender. You should: a) Refer the client to another personal trainer who would be more compatible. b) Discuss your experience, training style, and educational background to make the client more comfortable with you. c) Ask the client to sign up for an initial block of training sessions first. d) Provide a complimentary session to demonstrate your professional competence.
a) Refer the client to another personal trainer who would be more compatible Trainers must assess compatibility with potential clients, and the client's preferences should be taken into account. This assessment also helps with developing rapport and exercise adherence.
Where does blood flow immediately after passing through the tricuspid valve? a) Right ventricle b) Left atrium c) Left ventricle d) Right atrium
a) Right ventricle
The thumb is classified as a ________ joint. a) Saddle b) Ellipsoidal c) Ball and socket d) Pivot
a) Saddle
The facet joints of the lumbar spine are oriented in the __________ which primarily allows ____________ motions. a) Sagittal plane; flexion/extension b) Sagittal plane; rotation c) Transverse plane; side bending d) Frontal plane; flexion/extension
a) Sagittal plane; flexion/extension The lumbar zygapophysial joints [facet joints] are angled to allow flexion and extension and restrict axial rotation.
Which of the following can help a client transition from one stage of change to the next? a) Self-efficacy b) Role models c) Self-directed goals d) Health concerns
a) Self-efficacy
Which rotator cuff muscle internally rotates the shoulder joint? a) Subscapularis b) Supraspinatus c) Teres minor d) Supraspinatus
a) Subscapularis
Joints between bones, along with bones and ligaments, collectively make up what system? a) The articular system b) The skeletal system c) The synovial system d) The amphiarthrodial system
a) The articular system
Kyphosis is defined as: a) The convexity of the spinal curve is posterior. b) The convexity of the spinal curve is medial. c) The convexity of the spinal curve is lateral. d) The convexity of the spinal curve is anterior.
a) The convexity of the spinal curve is posterior.
As it relates to behavior modification, which of the following does NOT require a client to be committed to behavior change? a) Transtheoretical model of change b) Health belief model c) Self cognitive theory d) Theory of planned behavior
a) Transtheoretical model of change
Which of the following common characteristics are reported by those experiencing symptoms consistent with coronary artery disease? a) "Beating" b) "Heaviness" c) "Light-headed" d) "Pounding"
b) "Heaviness"
A sedentary lifestyle is defined as NOT participating in at least: a) 75 minutes of moderate intensity activity, at least 3 days per week, for at least 3 months. b) 30 minutes of moderate intensity activity, at least 5 days per week, for at least 3 months. c) 30 minutes of moderate intensity activity, at least 3 days per week, for at least 3 months. d) 75 minutes of moderate intensity activity, at least 5 days per week, for at least 3 months.
b) 30 minutes of moderate intensity activity, at least 5 days per week, for at least 3 months.
Which joint movement occurs in the frontal plane? a) Circumduction b) Adduction c) Extension d) Flexion
b) Adduction
Which of the following does NOT require an exercise test or a medical supervised test? a) An individual with two risk factors wishing to participate in vigorous-intensity exercise b) An individual with two risk factors wishing to participate in moderate-intensity exercise c) An individual with metabolic disease wishing to participate in moderate-intensity exercise d) An individual with renal disease wishing to participate in moderate-intensity exercise
b) An individual with two risk factors wishing to participate in moderate-intensity exercise
Which of the following cardiac variables will increase as a result of regular aerobic training at a submaximal effort? a) Exercise heart rate b) Arteriovenous oxygen difference c) Blood lactate d) Systolic blood pressure
b) Arteriovenous oxygen difference
Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding the socioecological model? a) Gradual changes in behavior are linked to social support. b) Behavior change is linked to relationships, environment, and community. c) Support is mainly provided through knowledge and skills. d) Ecological mapping often discourages physical activity.
b) Behavior change is linked to relationships, environment, and community. The socioecological model states that there are multiple factors involved in shaping a client's decision to engage exercise or modify a particular behavior.
A joint is the most stable when it is in which of the following positions? a) Flexed b) Closed pack c) Open pack d) Extended
b) Closed pack A joint is in a "closed pack" position when there is both maximal congruency of the joint surfaces and maximal tautness of the joint capsule and ligaments. This offers the most stable position for joint.
An overweight individual expresses motivation to lose weight after the birth of his son. He is in which stage of change? a) Precontemplation b) Contemplation c) Preparation d) Action
b) Contemplation An individual is in the contemplation stage when he or she considers the consequences of a behavior and begins to consider making changes.
Which sport is performed primarily in the aerobic-oxidation system? a) 100-meter swim b) Cycling c) 200- to 440-meter dash d) Gymnastics
b) Cycling Exercises that require oxygen and are done over a long period of time, longer than 3 minutes, work primarily in the aerobic-oxidative system
A 53-year-old female has family history of a heart attack (father at age 72). If she wishes to participate in moderate-intensity exercise, you should: a) Refer her to her primary care health provider. b) Design an exercise program that progresses gradually in intensity and duration. c) Have her undergo fitness testing under medical supervision. d) Perform a submaximal fitness testing to determine her functional capacity.
b) Design an exercise program that progresses gradually in intensity and duration.
Which of the following strategies is LEAST effective in promoting client ownership of the exercise program? a) Empower the client through education in determining the program outcomes. b) Educate the client about the risks of being inactive and the associated increase in morbidity and mortality. c) Reinforce the client's behavior by teaching how to self-regulate. d) Have the client document their thoughts, experiences, and emotions in a journal.
b) Educate the client about the risks of being inactive and the associated increase in morbidity and mortality. The Personal Trainer should help each client come to the conclusion that taking ownership of his or her behavior change is worthwhile.
In which environmental condition is it MOST important to replace body fluids?? a) Exercising in the cold b) Exercising in heat c) Exercising in humidity d) Exercising in both heat and cold
b) Exercising in heat While fluid loss may occur during cold weather, dehydration must be prevented in hot environmental conditions.
Active listening allows a Personal Trainer to do which of the following effectively? a) Formulate responses and counterpoints to the client's beliefs and concerns b) Gain a better understanding of the client in order to facilitate rapport and program design c) Plan out the client's initial exercise program while expressing genuineness d) Record detailed notes about the client's exercise history and preferences
b) Gain a better understanding of the client in order to facilitate rapport and program design Active listening is a necessary skill that demonstrates unconditional acceptance and unbiased reflection of the client's experiences and emotions.
Which of the following joints favors mobility over stability? a) Knee b) Glenohumeral c) Ankle d) Thoracic spine
b) Glenohumeral
Which sport is performed primarily in the ATP (anaerobic) pathway? a) Tennis b) Golf c) 400-meter dash d) Swimming
b) Golf
Clients will have an understanding of their risk factors based on what theory of behavior change? a) Transtheoretical model of change b) Health belief model c) Theory of planned behavior d) Social cognitive theory
b) Health belief model Individuals who have greater understanding of their health status and risk factors will take action to improve their health.
Your potential client has a history of swollen ankles and reports shortness of breath when walking up the stairs. You would classify this as: a) High risk and start the client on a low-intensity exercise that progresses gradually. b) High risk and require that the client obtain a physician's clearance. c) Moderate risk and require that the client undergo exercise testing under a physician's supervision. d) Moderate risk and start the client on a low-intensity exercise that progresses gradually.
b) High risk and require that the client obtain a physician's clearance. Both swollen ankles [ankle edema] and shortness of breath are major signs of a disease state. Thus, the individual should be classified as high risk and would require medical clearance and testing prior to exercise
Which of the following is an acute response to cardiorespiratory exercise? a) Decrease in blood pressure b) Increase in stroke volume c) Decrease in cardiac output d) Increase in resting heart rate
b) Increase in stroke volume
Improvements in muscular endurance are a result of: a) Increase in myofibrils b) Increased capillary density c) Increased ATP from the KREB cycle d) Increased fatty oxidation
b) Increased capillary density Increased capillary density increases blood supply to active muscles thereby increasing muscular endurance.
A muscle maintains constant force without any change in joint angle. This is known as which type of action? a) Isokinetic b) Isometric c) Eccentric d) Concentric
b) Isometric
The _________ is responsible for collecting blood from the lungs and pumping it to the body. a) Right atrium and left ventricle b) Left atrium and left ventricle c) Right atrium and right ventricle d) Left atrium and right ventricle
b) Left atrium and left ventricle
If a client must see a physician prior to starting a moderate-intensity exercise program, which of the following should be completed both by the client and physician? a) Health History Evaluation b) Medical Clearance Form c) PAR-Q d) Medical History Evaluation
b) Medical Clearance Form
Which of the following is considered a normal response to resistance training for the chest? a) Pain in the anterior deltoid b) Mild soreness in the pec major c) Stiff shoulders d) Elbow inflammation
b) Mild soreness in the pec major Some swelling, pain, and soreness are common and classical signs of muscle tissue adaptation following a workout.
Which of the following statements is the MOST accurate regarding strengh training in the lumbo-pelvic region? a) Full ROM spinal movements with an external load are best performed shortly after rising from bed. b) Pelvic stabilization forces the lumbar muscles to be the primary trunk extensors, thereby providing the overload stimulus for strengthening. c) Supine double leg raises should be avoided, but prone double leg raises are beneficial for clients who have low-back pain. d) Low-back exercises have the most beneficial effect when in the transverse plane.
b) Pelvic stabilization forces the lumbar muscles to be the primary trunk extensors, thereby providing the overload stimulus for strengthening. The lumbar muscles play a small role in trunk extension and torque movements during ADLs. Stabilization exercises provide a more effective strength training effect.
The gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris are located in which lower leg area? a) Deep posterior compartment b) Posterior tibial compartment c) Superficial posterior compartment d) Anterior tibial compartment
b) Posterior tibial compartment These muscles that are responsible for ankle joint plantarflexion are located on the posterior tibial area.
Patrick has shoulder impingement syndrome. He has been referred to you by a physical therapist for strengthening of his shoulder complex and to begin first with a closed chain exercise. Which progression is MOST appropriate? a) High-rep bench press -> shoulder IR/ER -> abdominal crunch b) Push-up plus off a wall -> shoulder IR/ER -> seated DB press c) Shoulder IR/ER -> push-up plus -> seated DB press d) Shoulder IR/ER -> seated DB press -> push-up plus
b) Push-up plus off a wall -> shoulder IR/ER -> seated DB press
Which of the following is considered a long bone? a) Sphenoid b) Radius c) Sesamoid d) Scaphoid
b) Radius
Which of the following is an acute response to exercise? a) Reduced body fat b) Reduced blood flow to the gut c) Reduced resting blood pressure d) Reduced resting heart rate
b) Reduced blood flow to the gut
You client forgets to bring the service introduction packet but is dressed appropriately for exercise. You should: a) At a minimum, have the client sign the Informed Consent and fill out their Health/Medical History Evaluation. b) Reschedule the appointment, and underscore the importance of having all forms completed and signed. c) Give the client another packet to complete, and obtain medical clearance by the next session. d) Have the client sign an Informed Consent so that you can still begin training.
b) Reschedule the appointment, and underscore the importance of having all forms completed and signed.
Your client needs to strengthen her scapular retractors to enhance her scapulothoracic stability. Given this need, you should strengthen which of the following muscles? a) Posterior deltoid and triceps brachii b) Rhomboids and mid-trapezius c) Pectoralis minor and trapezius d) Latissimus dorsi and subscapularis
b) Rhomboids and mid-trapezius The muscles that function to retract the scapula are the rhomboids and mid trapezius.
Your client is performing a dumbbell lunge with the weight in her right hand and right leg forward. You notice that during the concentric phase, she drops her pelvis on the contralateral side. Which muscle is MOST likely weak? a) Right erector spinae b) Right gluteus medius c) Left gluteus medius d) Left biceps femoris
b) Right gluteus medius
For men, a 3-site skinfold assessment is taken on the ________ side of the body at the ________. a) Left; triceps, suprailium, and thigh b) Right; chest, abdomen, and thigh c) Left; chest, abdomen, and thigh d) Right; triceps, suprailium, and thigh
b) Right; chest, abdomen, and thigh
Linda is performing a set of supine abdominal crunches. To increase recruitment of the left external oblique and right internal oblique, how should you have her perform the crunches? a) Have her lay on her left side, and flex her trunk to the right, maintaining pure frontal plane motion. b) Rotate her trunk towards the right during concentric motion. c) Maintain pure flexion motion in the sagittal plane throughout the motion. d) Rotate her trunk towards the left during concentric motion.
b) Rotate her trunk towards the right during concentric motion.
The elbow can performs movements in which plane? a) Horizontal b) Sagittal c) Transitional d) Frontal
b) Sagittal
Len is a 75-year-old client referred to you by a occupational therapist for strengthening of the lower leg muscle responsible for endurance in standing and walking. You would have Len perform ________ calf raises to emphasize his ________ muscle. a) Standing; soleus b) Seated; soleus c) Seated; gastrocnemius d) Standing; gastrocnemius
b) Seated; soleus
Which of the following muscles is BEST suited to prevent scapular winging? a) Mid-trapezius b) Serratus anterior c) Latissimus dorsi d) Teres major
b) Serratus anterior Winging of the scapula results from weakness or dysfunction of the serratus anterior.
Which of the following muscles are involved in protraction of the scapulothoracic joint? a) Trapezius and pectoralis minor b) Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor c) Rhomboids and serratus anterior d) Trapezius and rhomboids
b) Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor
In a sit-to-stand movement, where is the center of gravity? a) Slightly anterior to the axis of the hip joint b) Shifted over the base of support c) Posterior to the axis of the knee joint d) Over the second sacrum
b) Shifted over the base of support
Which of the following is a symptom suggestive of pulmonary disease? a) General feeling of fatigue after walking the dog b) Shortness of breath after quickly crossing the street in a residential area c) Tightness in the ankles that occur after walking several blocks d) An increase in heart rate with an increase in walking intensity
b) Shortness of breath after quickly crossing the street in a residential area Shortness of breath that is abnormal may be indicative of pulmonary disease.
A client is exercising once a week and slowly increases to twice a week over the course of a month. This is consistent with which theory of behavior change? a) Socioecological model b) Small changes model c) Health belief model d) Social cognitive theory
b) Small changes model The small changes model allows a client to make small changes, which better promotes positive behavior changes and maintenance
____________ is the pressure exerted on the arterial wall during the ventricular contraction phase. a) Cardiac output b) Systolic blood pressure c) Stroke volume d) Diastolic blood pressure
b) Systolic blood pressure Systole is the force that is produced by the left ventricle as it pumps oxygenated blood to the rest of the body.
Pronation of the wrist joint occurs in: a) The frontal plane. b) The transverse plane. c) Multiple planes. d) The sagittal plane.
b) The transverse plane.
Which of the following theories of behavior change has been shown to increase an individual's intention to exercise? a) Health belief model b) Theory of planned behavior c) Social cognitive theory d) Transtheoretical model
b) Theory of planned behavior The theory of planned behavior suggests that intention to exercise will most likely result in that specific behavior.
The upper trapezius causes ________ rotation of the scapula and the lower trapezius causes ________ rotation of the scapula. a) Downward; retraction b) Upward; upward c) Upward; protraction d) Downward; upward
b) Upward; upward Fibers of both the upper and lower trapezius function to upwardly rotate the scapula.
To build a successful client relationship, you should: a) Demonstrate your knowledge and professionalism frequently. b) Use a client-centered approach. c) Offer excellent customer service and hospitality. d) Provide unsolicited advice for motivation.
b) Use a client-centered approach.
Which of the following is a positive risk factor? a) Fasting plasma glucose 80 mg·dL-1 b) Walking to and from work 3 days a week, for 20 minutes, for the past 2 months c) Sudden death of mother at 70 years of age d) Low-density lipoprotein 120 mg·dL-1
b) Walking to and from work 3 days a week, for 20 minutes, for the past 2 months A risk factor for a sedentary lifestyle is defined as not participating in at least 30 minutes of moderate intensity activity, for a least 3 days a week, for at least 3 months.
To fully stretch the quadriceps, the hip joint must be ________ and the knee joint ________. a) flexed; flexed b) extended; flexed c) flexed; extended d) extended; extended
b) extended; flexed The principles of flexibility require that the muscle be placed in a lengthened position [opposite of the muscle action]. Since the quadriceps functions flex the hip joint and extend the knee joint, it is stretched when the hip joint is extended and the knee joint is flexed.
What is the waist-to-hip ratio threshold at which a female client's health is considered at risk? a) 0.82 b) 0.79 c) 0.88 d) 0.85
c) 0.88 Health risk with respect to waist-to-hip ratio is considered high when more than 0.86.
Which of the following fasting blood glucose levels are indicative of prediabetes? a) 82 mg·dL-1 b) 96 mg·dL-1 c) 124 mg·dL-1 d) 145 mg·dL-1
c) 124 mg·dL-1 Prediabetes is defined as fasting blood glucose that is between 100 and 126 mg·dL-1
You discover the following information about Rosalyn, your new 54-year-old female client: BMI = 24.3 (68", 160 lbs) Total cholesterol: 190 mg·dL-1 HDL cholesterol: 62 mg·dL-1 Blood pressure: 128/84 mm Hg with antihypertensive medication Former smoker: quit 2 months ago Family history: Father diagnosed with coronary heart disease at age 54 Walks to work 8 minutes each way Based on this information above, you determine that Rosalyn has: a) 1 positive and 0 negative risk factors. b) 3 positive and 2 negative risk factors. c) 3 positive and 1 negative risk factors. d) 2 positive and 1 negative risk factors.
c) 3 positive and 1 negative risk factors. Positive risk factors include hypertension, smoking, and family history. The only negative risk factor is HDL-C levels.
Which of the following best describes the scapular or caption plane? a) 30° lateral to the sagittal plane b) In line with the frontal plane c) 30° anterior to the frontal plane d) In line with the sagittal plane
c) 30° anterior to the frontal plane The scapula lies in the scapular plane [also known as scaption] that lies 30° anteriorly, relative to the frontal plane.
Approximately 50% of people who start an exercise program will drop out within the first: a) 3 months. b) 9 months. c) 6 months. d) 12 months.
c) 6 months.
A range of ________ to ________ of one repetition maximum (1 RM) is recommended for optimizing strength gains. a) 80%; 95% b) 60%; 75% c) 75%; 90% d) 50%; 60%
c) 75%; 90%
A Personal Trainer may begin immediately training which of the following clients? a) A 56-year-old female client who takes a calcium channel blocker b) A 49-year-old male client who has an abdominal hernia c) A 42-year-old female client who has lumbar lordosis d) A 45-year-old male client who has asthma
c) A 42-year-old female client who has lumbar lordosis This client is not at any risk threshold for age or health condition. Thus, training may begin immediately without medical clearance.
Ischemia is caused by: a) Left ventricular dysfunction. b) Decreased stroke volume. c) A lack of oxygen. d) Chest pain.
c) A lack of oxygen.
Which energy system is utilized for a 100-meter sprint? a) Anaerobic glycolysis b) ATP c) ATP and creatine phosphate d) Aerobic oxidation
c) ATP and creatine phosphate
Which of the following is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease? a) An individual whose blood glucose is 125 mg·dL-1 following an oral glucose tolerance test b) An individual whose high density lipoprotein cholesterol is 40 mg·dL-1 c) An individual who quit smoking 4 months ago d) An individual who smokes cigars twice year on special occasions
c) An individual who quit smoking 4 months ago
Which of the following best defines the precontemplation stage? a) A smoker is considering stopping given her recent health issues b) A female with prediabetes is aware of her need to control her blood glucose levels c) An overweight individual does not value the benefits of exercise d) An individual who has just been diagnosed with hypertension begins to research fitness facilities in her neighborhood
c) An overweight individual does not value the benefits of exercise
The anaerobic system uses which substrate as its primary source for creating ATP? a) Protein b) Oxygen c) Carbohydrates d) Fat
c) Carbohydrates
Which of the following BEST describes shoulder impingement? a) Increased shoulder pain when moving into shoulder horizontal abduction b) Crushing of only the supraspinatus tendon and bursa in the suprahumeral space c) Compression of the tendons in the subacromial space with shoulder joint motion d) Increased shoulder pressure on the superior aspect of the acromion process
c) Compression of the tendons in the subacromial space with shoulder joint motion
Because of recent death in his family, a client begins to consider beginning an exercise program. This is known as: a) Precontemplation. b) Preparation. c) Contemplation. d) Action.
c) Contemplation.
A physiologic adaptation to aerobic conditioning in untrained individuals will result in a/an ________ in resting heart rate and a/an ________ in exercise heart rate at a submaximal effort. a) Decrease, increase b) Increase, increase c) Decrease, decrease d) Increase, decrease
c) Decrease, decrease
Your potential 37-year-old client is on medication to control her hypertension and wishes to start a moderate-intensity exercise program. She has no other risk factors. You should: a) Take baseline blood pressure readings. b) Ensure that her primary health care provider signs the Informed Consent Form. c) Design an exercise program that starts at a lower intensity. d) Require that she obtain medical clearance prior to exercise.
c) Design an exercise program that starts at a lower intensity. Since the client only has one risk factor of being on antihypertensive medication, a moderate-intensity exercise program with gradual progression would be appropriate, provided that she is monitored for adverse signs and symptoms.
Which of the following is a sign or symptom suggestive of cardiovascular disease? a) Shortness of breath after climbing several flights of stairs b) Dull pain in the low back while touching the toes c) Discomfort in the neck and jaw after carrying a heavy suitcase for a several minutes d) Dizziness after quickly moving from a lying to standing position
c) Discomfort in the neck and jaw after carrying a heavy suitcase for a several minutes Carrying heavy loads such as suitcases may provoke ischemia and result in discomfort in various areas of the upper extremities.
A 48-year-old female client has very tight gastrocnemius muscles. To facilitate permanent changes in the length of these muscles, in what position should the foot be placed and for what duration? a) Everted position for 2 to 3 minutes b) Plantarflexed position for 30 to 40 seconds c) Dorsiflexed position for 60 seconds d) Inverted position for 30 to 40 seconds
c) Dorsiflexed position for 60 seconds The gastrocnemius is lengthened when placed in a position opposite of the muscle acton. Since the gastrocnemius plantarflexes the ankle joint, a stretch would occur when placed in a dorsiflexed position. A 30 to 60 second stretch hold time is recommended for most adults
The foot's most stable position is in __________ due to the overall shape of the __________. a) Dorsiflexion; distal fibula b) Plantarflexion; calcaneus c) Dorsiflexion; talus d) Plantarflexion; talus
c) Dorsiflexion; talus An ankle joint is in a dorsiflexed position which is considered a "closed pack" position since there is maximal congruency of the joint surfaces [talus and calcaneus] and maximal tautness of the joint capsule and ligaments.
When a muscle cannot generate sufficient force to overcome external resistance, the muscle lengthens. This is known as which type of action? a) Isokinetic b) Isometric c) Eccentric d) Concentric
c) Eccentric When the resistance is greater than force applied by the muscle and the muscle lengthens, it is known as eccentric muscle action [e.g., the lowering phase of the biceps curl].
Which of the following increases functional capacity and may relieve symptoms of coronary artery disease? a) Circuit training b) Interval training c) Endurance exercise training d) Resistance training
c) Endurance exercise training
Which of the following muscles exerts an upward pull on the posterior surfaces of the pelvis resulting in a neutral pelvic position? a) Hamstrings b) Rectus abdominis c) Erector spinae d) Hip flexors
c) Erector spinae The erector spinae is an agonist in spinal extension. When strong, these muscles will also exert an upward pull of the posterior surface to counteract anteverted pelvis, resulting in a neutral spine.
Clients will have an understanding of their risk factors based on what theory of behavior change? a) Transtheoretical model of change b) Social cognitive theory c) Health belief model d) Theory of planned behavior
c) Health belief model Individuals who have greater understanding of their health status and risk factors will take action to improve their health.
Your new client is ready to start training next week. You provide her with a service introduction packet which must include, at a minimum, which of the following forms? a) Health/Medical History Evaluation, liability waiver, and training log b) Medical Clearance Form, Personal Trainer-Client Agreement, and liability waiver c) Health/Medical History Evaluation, Medical Clearance Form, and Informed Consent d) PAR-Q, Personal Trainer-Client Agreement, and training log
c) Health/Medical History Evaluation, Medical Clearance Form, and Informed Consent
Which of the following is a negative risk factor? a) Women >45 years b) Body mass index >30 c) High-density lipoprotein 60 mg·dL-1 d) Blood pressure 135/80 mm Hg
c) High-density lipoprotein 60 mg·dL-1
Movement toward the midline in the transverse plane describes which term? a) Adduction b) Abduction c) Horizontal adduction d) Horizontal abduction
c) Horizontal adduction Movement toward the midline of the body in the transverse plane is usually used to describe horizontal humerus movement when the shoulder is flexed at 90°.
Which joint movement occurs in the transverse plane? a) Flexion b) Abduction c) Internal rotation d) Adduction
c) Internal rotation
Which of the following muscle actions controls the movement and maintains a constant speed throughout the range of motion? a) Isometric b) Concentric c) Isokinetic d) Eccentric
c) Isokinetic
Which of the following should be avoided in hypertensive clients? a) Concentric muscle contractions b) Eccentric muscle contractions c) Isometric muscle contractions d) Isokinetic muscle contractions
c) Isometric muscle contractions
The study of the mechanics of human movement is called: a) Kinematics. b) Biomechanics. c) Kinesiology. d) Biology.
c) Kinesiology.
During aerobic exercise with gradually increasing intensity, the point at which the increased demands for oxygen results in a nonlinear increase in ventilation corresponds with: a) VO2max b) Pulmonary ventilation. c) Lactate threshold. d) Aerobic capacity.
c) Lactate threshold.
Scoliosis is defined as: a) Medial deviation of the spine. b) A combination of kyphosis and lordosis. c) Lateral deviation of the spine. d) Posterior deviation of the spine.
c) Lateral deviation of the spine.
Individuals reporting ________ following resistance training should significatnly reduce the overload and volume and increase the amount of rest. a) Minor soreness b) Transient hypertrophy c) Moderate soreness d) Joint tightness
c) Moderate soreness Reduce the intensity of the workout if the client reports too much muscle soreness, as this can lead to injury. If symptoms are extreme, tissue damage may be more serious, and DOMS is likely to reduce training potential and have a deleterious effect on performance.
During pregnancy, resistance and flexibility exercises in the supine position should be avoided to prevent which of the following? a) Ankle edema b) Exercise-induced hypertension c) Orthostatic hypotension d) Diaphoresis
c) Orthostatic hypotension The supine position may obstruct venous blood flow return to the heart and may result in orthostatic hypotension, which may lead to lightheadedness and fainting.
In general, elbow injuries are a result of: a) Overactive triceps. b) Lack of radio-ulnar range of motion. c) Overuse or repetitive motion. d) Overactive biceps.
c) Overuse or repetitive motion.
What is the MOST influential source of self-efficacy information related to exercise? a) Vicarious exercise experiences b) Emotional state of mind c) Past exercise performance d) Persuasive verbal feedback
c) Past exercise performance
Which of the following muscles inserts on the humerus? a) Rhomboid major b) Biceps brachii c) Pectoralis major d) Pectoralis minor
c) Pectoralis major
Your client is a 30-year-old male who has not been active in the last few months. He has completed all the forms, and you observe that he does not have any risk factors. He reports that he experienced some shortness of breath while playing a pick-up basketball game this weekend, something he hasn't done in a year. You should: a) Ask him to obtain medical clearance before you begin training. b) Require that he undergo fitness assessments with medical supervision. c) Perform the appropriate assessments and plan on an exercise program that gradually increases in intensity. d) Refer him to a respiratory therapist for testing and exercise guidelines.
c) Perform the appropriate assessments and plan on an exercise program that gradually increases in intensity.
You now are ready to proceed with scheduling a fitness assessment with your client tomorrow. To get the most accurate heart rate response, you instruct your client to: a) Get at least 8 hours of sleep the night before. b) Finish consuming any meals at least 2 hours prior to the assessment. c) Refrain from drinking any caffeinated beverages 30 minutes prior to the assessment. d) Hydrate by consuming 200 to 300 mL of fluids 30 minutes before the assessment.
c) Refrain from drinking any caffeinated beverages 30 minutes prior to the assessment. Caffeine is a cardiac stimulant and may result in an inaccurate assessment of resting heart rate and heart rate response to exercise.
What type of blood pressure response to acute exercise is seen in children when compared with adults? a) SBP increases and DBP decreases. b) SBP decreases and DBP increases. c) SBP decreases and DBP decreases. d) SBP increases and DBP increases.
c) SBP decreases and DBP decreases. The physiological response to acute exercise in children is comparable to that in their adult counterparts. An exception here is SBP decreases [usually increases with adults] and DBP decreases [usually no change or slight increase].
Which of the following is considered a gliding joint? a) Scapulothoracic b) Atlanto-axial c) Sacroiliac d) Ankle
c) Sacroiliac The sacroiliac joint connects the sacrum to the ilium on each side and is sometimes described as a gliding joint. It is capable of relatively little movement.
Which plane of movement divides the body between the left and right? a) Transverse b) Frontal c) Sagittal d) Horizontal
c) Sagittal The sagittal plane divides the body between the left and right sides. Any movement that is parallel to this plane occurs in the sagittal plane.
The shoulder girdle refers to which specific joint? a) Acromioclavicular b) Sternoclavicular c) Scapulothoracic d) Glenohumeral
c) Scapulothoracic The shoulder girdle is also known as the scapulothoracic joint. This is not a true joint, as the scapula has no true bony articulation with the thoracic spine but is instead held in place by muscle attachments.
Which of the following BEST describes the primary difference between standing and seated calf raises? a) The seated calf raise targets the soleus, while the standing calf raise targets the gastrocnemius and invertors. b) Seated calf raises emphasize the gastrocnemius muscle, while the standing calf raise emphasizes the soleus muscle. c) Seated calf raises emphasize the soleus muscle, while the standing calf raise emphasizes the gastrocnemius muscle. d) The seated calf raise targets the muscle primarily responsible for power in the lower leg, while the standing calf raise targets the muscle primarily responsible for endurance.
c) Seated calf raises emphasize the soleus muscle, while the standing calf raise emphasizes the gastrocnemius muscle. The gastrocnemius muscle is a biarticulate muscle that acts to flex the knee and plantarflex the ankle. The soleus acts to planarflex the ankle only. When standing, both muscles plantarflex the ankle. When seated, only the soleus plantarflexes the ankle as the gastrocnemius is actively insufficient because it is in a flexed position at the knee joint.
During the contraction phase of a bicep curl, the palms are ___________. a) Everted b) Pronated c) Supinated d) Inverted
c) Supinated Supination refers to position of the radiounlar joint where the wrist joint is rotated so that the thumb is positioned on the lateral side of the arm.
Which rotator cuff muscle(s) externally rotate the shoulder joint? a) Supraspinatus and infraspinatus b) Subscapularis and teres minor c) Teres minor and infraspinatus d) Subscapularis and teres minor
c) Teres minor and infraspinatus
Which of the following indicates that a client-centered approach is being used? a) The Personal Trainer is helping the client make connections between risk factors and health. b) The Personal Trainer is asking closed-end questions. c) The client is talking more than the Personal Trainer. d) The client is speaking at a normal pace.
c) The client is talking more than the Personal Trainer.
Which of the following program formats would be LEAST appropriate for a beginning exerciser? a) Home-based training b) Small-group training c) Vigorous-intensity exercise d) Moderate-intensity exercise
c) Vigorous-intensity exercise
Which of the following profiles is considered a risk factor with respect to obesity? a) Waist of 38 inches for males b) Body fat percent of 25% for females c) Waist of 36 inches for females d) Body fat percent of 25% for males
c) Waist of 36 inches for females The defining criteria for obesity risk is waist girth of 35 inches or greater for females.
Which of the following is NOT considered a true joint? a) Sternoclavicular b) Glenohumeral c) Acromioclavicular d) Scapulothoracic
d) Scapulothoracic
A female client is 52-years-old and has high-density lipoprotein of 70 mg·dL-1. Based on this profile, how many total risk factors does she have? a) 2 b) -1 c) 1 d) 0
d) 0 This client's age is not considered a positive risk factor. However, her HDL-C is considered a negative risk factor, so the sum total equals zero risk factors.
According to the 2013 ACSM Guidelines, significant health benefits can be achieved with ________. a) Performing moderate-to-vigorous cardio respiratory exercise using large muscle groups, 10 to 20 minutes per session, 3 to 5 days a week. b) An accumulation of at least 30 minutes of moderate-intensity physical activity on most days of the week. c) Strength training and cardio respiratory exercise using small and large muscle groups, 20 to 30 minutes per session, 3 to 5 days a week. d) A combination of moderate to vigorous exercise involving major muscle groups, 30 to 60 minutes per session, 3 to 5 days per week.
d) A combination of moderate to vigorous exercise involving major muscle groups, 30 to 60 minutes per session, 3 to 5 days per week.
o stretch the latissimus dorsi, the position of the arm should be placed in maximal ________ in the frontal plane with slight trunk lateral flexion to the opposite side. a) Extension b) External rotation c) Adduction d) Abduction
d) Abduction
What muscle group is strengthened when a client performs side-lying leg lifts? a) Adductors b) External rotation c) Internal rotation d) Abductors
d) Abductors The hip abductors include the gluteus medius and gluteus medius which lie deep to the gluteus maximus. These muscles function to abduct and medially rotate the hip joint.
Which of the following muscles functions to externally rotate the hip joint? a) Semimembranosus b) Gracilis c) Semitendinosus d) Biceps femoris
d) Biceps femoris
Anatomical position of the human body is when the body is in which of the following positions? a) Body is erect, feet shoulder width apart, upper limbs positioned at the side of the body, palms of the hands facing backwards, thumbs facing the body, fingers extended b) Body is erect, feet shoulder width apart, upper limbs positioned at the side of the body, palms of the hands facing the body, thumbs facing away from the body, fingers extended c) Body is erect, feet together, upper limbs positioned at the side of the body, palms of the hands facing the body, thumbs facing forward of the body, fingers extended d) Body is erect, feet together, upper limbs positioned at the side of the body, palms of the hands facing forward, thumbs facing away from the body, fingers extended
d) Body is erect, feet together, upper limbs positioned at the side of the body, palms of the hands facing forward, thumbs facing away from the body, fingers extended
Exchange of blood gases and other nutrients within various tissues occur in the ____________. a) Veins b) Arterioles c) Arteries d) Capillaries
d) Capillaries
Ankle edema may be indicative of which of the following? a) Anterior compartment syndrome b) Claudication c) Posterior compartment syndrome d) Congestive heart failure
d) Congestive heart failure
Tom is a 65-year-old normal healthy male who has exercised consistently for the last 5 years. While having him perform a set of abdominal crunches (a new exercise for him), he reports a gradual onset of a "dull ache" and "slight burn" in his neck towards the end of the set. Upon set completion, these feelings subside. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? a) Stop the exercise, and move to another that offers cervical spine support. b) Instruct him to utilize a reverse crunch to minimize earlier symptoms. c) Stop the exercise, and recommend an physician consultation. d) Continue the exercise as part of his regimen, and provide education.
d) Continue the exercise as part of his regimen, and provide education.
Your client has been performing cardiovascular exercise for 30 to 60 minutes, 3 times per week. During your 3 month assessment you would expect her submaximal heart rate to: a) Increase by 10% b) Decrease by 50% c) Stay the same d) Decrease by 10%
d) Decrease by 10%
Before you design an abdominal exercise program for a client you should FIRST: a) Stretch the erector spinae muscles to minimize lumbar spine stress. b) Determine how many full sit-ups can be performed. c) Ask if the client wants to emphasize the upper or lower abs. d) Determine and establish neutral pelvic position.
d) Determine and establish neutral pelvic position.
Which of the following actions takes place in the sagittal plane? a) Pronation of the forearm b) Depression of the scapulae c) Opposition of the thumb d) Dorsiflexion of the ankle
d) Dorsiflexion of the ankle
Which movement occurs in the frontal plane? a) Flexion at the elbow b) Extension at the hip c) Supination at the wrist d) Elevation of the of the scapula
d) Elevation of the of the scapula
Respectively, lateral flexion and axial rotation are produced by which of the following muscles during unilateral contraction? a) Rectus abdominis; mid-trapezius b) Iliopsoas; erector spinae c) Piriformis; semispinalis d) Erector spinae; multifidus
d) Erector spinae; multifidus
Before any health and fitness assessment is administered, the MOST important first course of action is to: a) Obtain baseline heart rate and respiration. b) Have the client read about the assessment and understand the testing norms. c) Ensure that the client is properly hydrated. d) Explain and demonstrate each assessment before the client is tested.
d) Explain and demonstrate each assessment before the client is tested.
Concentric contraction of the triceps brachii muscle causes ____________ in the _____________plane. a) Flexion; sagittal b) Flexion; frontal c) Extension; frontal d) Extension; sagittal
d) Extension; sagittal
A posterior pelvic tilt produces lumbar ________ and an anterior pelvic tilt produces lumbar ________. a) Extension; flexion b) Flexion; flexion c) Extension; extension d) Flexion; extension
d) Flexion; extension A posterior pelvic tilt results in lumbar flexion, in which the pubic symphysis moves superiorly, the lumbar spine flexes, and the hips extend, resulting in a decreased lumbosacral angle. With anterior pelvic tilt, the pubic symphysis moves inferiorly, the lumbar spine extends, and the hips flex, resulting in an increased lumbosacral angle.
A lateral lunge is performed in which plane of movement? a) Sagittal b) Transverse c) Horizontal d) Frontal
d) Frontal
Which group of muscles function to extend the hip joint? a) Gluteus maxmimus and hamstrings b) Gluteus medius and hamstrings c) Piriformis and gluteus maximus d) Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius
d) Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius
Ron is training for leg muscle hypertrophy on the squat. He believes that by utilizing an explosive, rapid repetition speed he will increase the amount of work he is doing and thus "overload his quads better." He wants to know if his rationale is correct. Which of the following is the MOST accurate response? a) He is correct in his rationale and should try to increase his repetition speed. b) He should continue to train using a rapid lifting technique to attain his goal, but his rationale is incorrect as he is increasing torque, not work. c) He is incorrect in his approach and rationale, as he is using too much momentum in his training and should maximize acceleration in order to maximize work. d) He is incorrect in his approach and rationale, as he should be training using a constant repetition speed to maximize muscle work.
d) He is incorrect in his approach and rationale, as he should be training using a constant repetition speed to maximize muscle work. This individual is utilizing plyometric principles and is not using the proper method for increasing muscle hypertrophy.
Which of the following is a chronic benefit of regular cardiovascular exercise? a) Decreased capillary density in skeletal muscle b) Increased heart rate and blood pressure at a given submaximal intensity c) Decreased maximal oxygen uptake resulting from both central and peripheral adaptations d) Increased exercise threshold for the onset of disease signs and symptoms
d) Increased exercise threshold for the onset of disease signs and symptoms
Performing a squat with a board placed under the heels results in which of the following? a) Assists in establishing neutral spine b) Lengthened gastrocnemius and soleus c) Minimized patellofemoral joint forces d) Increased force requirements of the quadriceps
d) Increased force requirements of the quadriceps A board placed under the heels during a squat increases quadriceps work since a mechanical disadvantage is created.
Which muscles function to rotate the lumbar spine? a) Erector spinae and multifidus b) Quadratus lumborum and tensor fascia latae c) Rectus abdominis and transverse abdominis d) Internal and external obliques
d) Internal and external obliques
You observe a long outward curve of the thoracic spine with an exaggerated curve. This postural deviation is known as: a) Flat back. b) Lordosis. c) Sway back. d) Kyphosis.
d) Kyphosis. The thoracic spine has a natural kyphotic curve. A postural deviation here of is technically known as "hyper kyphosis."
A proper cool-down allows the body to help remove ________. a) Carbon dioxide b) Pyruvate c) Creatine d) Lactate
d) Lactate
An example of an open chain exercise is the: a) Squat b) Push-up c) Pull-up d) Leg extension
d) Leg extension
A muscle that produces a low force and has a high contractile rate is classified as a __________ muscle. a) Bipennate b) Multipennate c) Unipennate d) Longitudinal
d) Longitudinal
Which of the following decreases efficiency during resistance training? a) Torsional maximization b) Biomechanical angle velocity c) Acceleration torque production d) Mechanical disadvantage
d) Mechanical disadvantage Any resistance exercise is more difficult to perform when there is a mechanical disadvantage.
The muscles that abduct the shoulder joint are the: a) Anterior deltoid and pectoralis major b) Levator scapula and upper trapezius c) Serratus anterior and subscapularis d) Medial deltoid and supraspinatus
d) Medial deltoid and supraspinatus The supraspinatus primarily initiates the abduction. The medial deltoid continues the abduction in concert with via a force couple.
Sean is performing barbell squats with the intent of building up his quadriceps muscles. To make the quadriceps perform MORE work and INCREASE the efficiency of the exercise, he should: a) Maintain a cervical extension posture throughout the movement. b) Utilize the proper size weightlifting belt. c) Push up, utilizing the muscles around the hip joint. d) Minimize the amount of trunk flexion at the start of the concentric phase.
d) Minimize the amount of trunk flexion at the start of the concentric phase. This question assesses an understanding of position and the effect of the lever arm on resistance. Leaning forward recruits more of the gluteus maximus and hamstrings. By minimizing forward flexion, the quadriceps will be recruited more.
A low to high diagonal chop using a medicine ball takes place in: a) The frontal plane. b) The sagittal plane. c) The transverse plane. d) Multiple planes.
d) Multiple planes.
The upper respiratory tract consists of ________. a) Pharynx, larynx, and nasal cavity b) Pharynx, larynx, and lungs c) Trachea, larynx, and lungs d) Nasal cavity, nose, and pharynx
d) Nasal cavity, nose, and pharynx
Which of the following would MOST likely lead to impingement syndrome? a) Over-developed posterior deltoid b) Over-developed mid-trapezius c) Over-developed lower trapezius d) Over-developed anterior deltoid
d) Over-developed anterior deltoid The anterior deltoid is often more developed than the posterior deltoid in most individuals and may lead to postural abnormalities [shoulder forward and internally rotated] and may be related to impingement.
________ of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems is required in order to have beneficial adaptations in cardiorespiratory endurance. a) Manipulation b) Steady state work c) Low intensity training d) Overload
d) Overload
The muscles involved in a dumbbell fly and cable fly are the: a) Latissimus dorsi and teres major b) Anterior deltoid and latissimus dorsi c) Teres major and pectoralis major d) Pectoralis major and anterior deltoid
d) Pectoralis major and anterior deltoid
The following statement is a definition of ________: As the body adapts to a given stimulus, an increase in the stimulus is required for further adaptations and improvements. a) SAID Principle b) Specificity of training c) Law of attraction d) Progressive overload
d) Progressive overload
Which muscles are prime movers for lateral flexion of the lumbar spine? a) Iliocostalis, longissimus, and interspinalis b) Iliopsoas, rectus femoris, and tensor fascia latae c) Rectus abdominis, transverse abdominis, and external obliques d) Quadratus lumborum and internal and external obliques
d) Quadratus lumborum and internal and external obliques
The intensity of work is represented by ________, amount of force is represented by ________, and displacement is represented by ________. a) RPE; resistance; exercise selected b) Torque; velocity of motion; acceleration of motion c) Torque; acceleration; exercise selected d) RPE; resistance; ROM
d) RPE; resistance; ROM There are other terms for intensity, resistance, and displacement, and the personal trainer should be familiar with other terminology as well.
Which of the following best summarizes the effect of regular exercise on dyslipidemia? a) Triglyceride levels are reduced for up to 36 hours following exercise. b) Exercise may have a favorable result in increasing the total cholesterol to HDL-C ratios c) Exercises increases LDL-C levels d) Regular exercise can increase HDL cholesterol levels.
d) Regular exercise can increase HDL cholesterol levels.
Which of the following is a positive risk factor? a) Women >50 years b) Men >40 years c) High-density lipoprotein 55 mg·dL-1 d) Regular exposure to tobacco smoke
d) Regular exposure to tobacco smoke Even though the client may not be a cigarette smoker, regular exposure to tobacco smoke is considered a positive risk factor.
Deviations in which plane are referred to as "hyperlordosis"? a) Frontal b) Transverse c) Horizontal d) Sagittal
d) Sagittal
Protraction and retraction movements are characteristic of the: a) Wrist joint b) Ankle joint c) Thoracic spine d) Scapulothoracic joint
d) Scapulothoracic joint The scapulothoracic joint includes protraction [scapular abduction] and retraction [scapular adduction].
Which of the following theories of behavior change places a great emphasis on the client's thoughts and feelings? a) Socioecological model b) Theory of planned behavior c) Transtheoretical model of change d) Self cognitive theory
d) Self cognitive theory
Which of the following BEST fosters exercise adherence and progression toward the client's goal? a) Keeping clients focused on their primary long-term goals b) Setting several progressive goals on a weekly basis c) Helping clients focus on never missing a session d) Setting a few attainable short-term goals
d) Setting a few attainable short-term goals
When looking at postural alignment from a lateral view, the vertical plumb line should be ________. a) Slightly posterior to the axis of the knee joint b) Slightly posterior to external auditory meatus c) Through the mid thoracic vertebral bodies d) Slightly anterior to the lateral malleolus
d) Slightly anterior to the lateral malleolus
Restating the main points and feelings in a client's communication is using which method of active listening? a) Redirecting b) Probing c) Encouraging d) Summarizing
d) Summarizing Active listening involves, clarifying, repeating, and summarizing what the client has just stated.
Which of the following muscles is considered a prime mover for a lat pulldown exercise? a) Pectoralis major b) Biceps brachii c) Anterior deltoid d) Teres major
d) Teres major The teres major is also known as the "little" lat and has the same actions as the latissimus dorsi in shoulder joint adduction and extension.
Lordosis is defined as: a) The convexity of the spinal curve is posterior. b) The convexity of the spinal curve is medial. c) The convexity of the spinal curve is lateral. d) The convexity of the spinal curve is anterior.
d) The convexity of the spinal curve is anterior.
Which of the following best describes the effect of length changes on the force-generating capacity of shortened muscles? a) They will have diminished force-generating capacity at their new lengths, but greater force-generating capacity at normal resting lengths. b) The lengthened muscles generally have a higher force production throughout the full range of motion, as muscles are strongest when they are longest. c) The shortened muscles will produce the same amount of force as they did at normal length, only at a faster rate of movement. d) There is a greater force-generating capacity at the new length, but diminished force-generating capacity at normal resting length.
d) There is a greater force-generating capacity at the new length, but diminished force-generating capacity at normal resting length.
Which of the following is a similar site for both a male and a female when performing a 3-site skinfold test? a) Chest b) Abdomen c) Supraliac d) Thigh
d) Thigh
While supine, your client performs range of motion on the shoulder joint. She displays tightness in the infraspinatus and teres minor. You were led to this conclusion since the client was: a) Able to internally rotate the shoulder joint to about 60°. b) Unable to abduct the arm to shoulder level. c) Able to reach overhead to the contralateral shoulder. d) Unable to externally rotate the shoulder joint past 60°.
d) Unable to externally rotate the shoulder joint past 60°.
