CSCS Exam Practice Questions
Functions of growth hormone
-decrease glucose utilization -decrease glycogen synthesis -increase amino acid transport -increase protein synthesis -increase fatty acid utilization
All of the following determines how a muscle cell will use the end product of glycolysis EXCEPT: A) How quickly ATP is needed to perform the activity B) Amount of oxygen available in the cell C) Presence of isocitrate dehydrogenase D) The rate of energy demand
?
Which of the following determines the net ATP produced from one molecule of G-6-P? A) If it is already in the muscle cell or if it has to be brought into the cell B) If there is enough PFK present to create fructose-1, 6-biphosphate C) How many G-3-P molecules are created from hexokinase reaction D) How long it takes to reduce NAD+ to NADH or reduce FAD+ to FADH+2
?
Which of the following is the best example of a Group 3 aerobic exercise mode? A) Stair climbing machine B) Step aerobics class C) Arm ergometer machine D) Tai Chi class
?
A college basketball coach would like to know which one of her players has the most muscular power. Which of the following is the MOST valid test for measuring muscular power? A) Vertical jump B) 1RM bench press C) 5RM squat D) 100m (109-yd) sprint
A
A muscle's stability to sustain maximal force production without undue fatigue is primarily dependent on which of the following factors? A) Ability to replenish adenosine triphosphate B) Amount of actomyosin binding C) Ratio of Type IIa to Type IIc muscle fibers in a motor unit D) Motor unit firing frequency
A
A strength and conditioning professional needs to perform assessments on a high school male basketball team. Which of the following are criteria to use to select tests for these athletes? I. Related to the sport II. Applicable to age and gender III. Relevant to the sports season IV. Specific to those with high training status? A) I and II only B) I and IV only C) II and III only D) III and IV only
A
A vertical jump involves knee, hip, and shoulder movement primarily in which of the following anatomical planes? A) Sagittal B) Perpendicular C) Frontal D) Transverse
A
After performing the hold-relax with agonist contraction PNF stretch for the hamstrings, which of the following explains the resulting increase in flexibility? I. Autogenic inhibition II. Stretch inhibition III. Reciprocal inhibition IV. Crossed-extensor inhibition A) I and III only B) II and IV only C) I, II and III only D) II, III and IV only
A
All of the following are causes of the increased incidence of anterior cruciate ligament injuries in female athletes EXCEPT: A) Elevated body composition values B) Weak lower body musculature C) High joint laxity D) Fluctuation in hormone levels
A
All of the following resistance training exercises develop the hip extensor of a sprinter EXCEPT: A) Dorsiflexion pull B) Step up and over C) Overhead squat D) Push press
A
An Olympic weightlifter attempting a personal record is able to ignore the audience to concentrate solely on her performance. Which of the following abilities is this athlete most likely using to perform the exercise? A) selective attention B) somatic anxiety C) guided discovery D) self-efficacy
A
Carbon dioxide is the primary by-product of which of the following energy pathways? A) Kreb cycle B) Electronic transport chain C) Slow glycolysis D) Oxidative phosphorylation
A
During a free weight exercise, muscle force varies with which of the following? I. Perpendicular distance from the weight to the body joint II. Joint angle III. Movement acceleration IV. Movement velocity squared A) I and II only B) I and IV only C) I, II, and III only D) II, III, and IV only
A
Extensive activation of which of the following energy systems is associated with lactic acid accumulation in the muscle? A) Phosphagen B) Fast glycolysis C) Slow glycolysis
A
If a strong athlete incorporates only unilateral training into his or her program, what might the strength and conditioning professional expect to happen? A) A bilateral facilitation will occur B) A bilateral deficit will be developed C) A reduction in bilateral asymmetries will occur D) Only unilateral strength will increase.
A
Maintaining adequate glycogen stores A) Spares the use of protein for energy B) Improves maximum power C) Decreases endurance performance D) Helps athletes gain weight
A
The data from a wrestling team's 1RM bench press testing session shows that the scores are comparable for all the wrestlers. Which of the following measures of central tendency provides the MOST descriptive statistic for these results? A) Mean B) Median C) Mode D) Range
A
The mean arterial pressure is defined as the A) average blood pressure throughout the cardiac cycle B) average of the systolic and diastolic blood pressures C) average systolic blood pressure during exercise D) average of blood pressure and heart rate
A
To maintain hydration during competition lasting less than an hour, it is recommended that athletes consume 3-8oz of water or a sports drink about every A) 15 minutes B) 30 minutes C) 60 minutes D) 2 hours
A
What type of resistance training workout promotes the highest growth hormone increases following the exercise session? A) 30s rest, high volume, 3 sets B) 30s rest, low volume, 1 set C) 3min rest, high volume, 1 set D) 3min rest, low volume, 3 sets
A
When one is performing a box-to-box plyometric drop jump, in order to generate sufficient force in a limited amount of time (<200 ms), which muscle fibers are bypassed through the principle of selective recruitment? A) I B) IIa C) IIx D) IIc
A
Which of the following are recommendations for a post-competition meal? I. eat within 2 hours of the end of the event II. consume liquid-based foods only III. select foods that have a high GI IV. eat a meal consisting of 200 grams of CHO A) I and III only B) I and IV only C) II and III only D) II and IV only
A
Which of the following energy systems is capable of producing ATP at the GREATEST rate? A) Phosphagen B) Slow glycolysis C) Fast glycolysis D) Oxidative
A
Which of the following energy systems produce ATP at the quickest rate? A) phosphagen B) Aerobic glycolysis C) Fat oxidation D) Fat glycolysis
A
Which of the following hormones enhance(s) muscle tissue growth? I. Growth Hormone II. Cortisol III. IGF-1 IV. Progesterone A) I and III only B) II and IV only C) I, II, and III only D) II, III, and IV only
A
Which of the following is a marker for the aerobic overtraining syndrome? A) Decrease post-exercise testosterone production B) Increased body fat percentage C) Increased pre-exercise glycogen stores D) Decreased submaximal heart rate
A
Which of the following is a rationale for using variable-resistance training methods? A) to accommodate the changing mechanical advantages associated with constant-loaded exercises B) to minimize force application throughout the full range of motion C) to increase the time spent decelerating during a lifting motion D) to keep the applied resistance constant during changes in joint angle
A
Which of the following is a recommendation to give an athlete who is performing form running drills? A) "Keep your hands from crossing midline" B) "Run with a 20 degree forward lean" C) "All of the arm action should come from your elbows" D) "Try not to use too much knee drive"
A
Which of the following is the MOST optimal exercise arrangement? A) Hang clean front squat, bench press, seated row B) Bench press front squat, seated row, hang clean C) Seated row, bench press, hang clean, front squat D) Front squat, hang clean, bench press, seated row
A
Which of the following is the function of the fulcrum in a first class lever system? A) Axis B) Muscular force C) Resistance force D) Lever
A
Which of the following makes the GREATEST contribution to total energy expenditure? A) Resting metabolic rate B) Physical activity energy expenditure C) Thermic effect food D) Resting blood sugar levels
A
Which of the following movement of extremities occur in the sagittal plane? A) Flexion and extension B) Abduction and adduction C) External and internal rotation D) Horizontal abduction and adduction
A
Which of the following physiological adaptations occur in response to a resistance training program? 1-Increased motor unit recruitment 2-Enhanced mitochondrial density 3-Increased number of Type II muscles 4-Enhanced motor unit synchronization A) 1 and 4 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1, 2 and 4 only D) 1, 3 and 4 only
A
Which of the following reactions is the primary cause of metabolic acidosis (the decrease in intramuscular pH during high-intensity, fatiguing exercise)? A) ATP—>ADP + P + H B) pyruvate + NADH —> lactate + NAD C) ADP + creatine phosphate —> ATP + creatine D) fructose-6-phosphate —> fructose-1,6-biphosphate
A
Which of the following substances acts at the neuromuscular junction to excite the muscle fibers of a motor unit? A) Acetylecholine B) ATP C) Creatine phosphate D) Serotonin
A
Which of the following types of muscle fibers generate the GREATEST amount of force? A) Fast-twitch glycolytic B) Slow-twitch oxidative C) Fast-twitch glycolytic oxidative D) Transitional or undifferentiated
A
flexibility of which of these muscle groups or body areas is assessed during the sit-and-reach test? I. Hamstrings II. Erector spinae III. Lumbar spine IV. Hip flexors A) I and III only B) II and IV only C) I, II, and III only D) II, III, and IV only
A
A 22 year-old male with a resting heart rate of 66 beats per minute is prescribed an exercise intensity of 70%. Using the Karvonen method, what is the person's target heart rate? A) 132 beats per minute B) 139 beats per minute C) 158 beats per minute D) 198 beats per minute
A (220 - age = HR max, HR max - resting HR)
A weight belt is recommended for which of the following combinations of exercises and loads? A) performing the shoulder press exercise B) lifting a 6RM load for 3 repetitions C) performing the bench press exercise D) lifting a 3RM load for 3 repetitions
B
All of the following are phases of the stretch shortening cycle EXCEPT: A) Concentric B) Stabilization C) Eccentric D) Amortization
B
All of the following procedures should be followed when testing an athlete's cardiovascular fitness in the heat EXCEPT A) Performing the test in an indoor facility B) Using salt tablets to retain water C) Scheduling the test in the morning D) Drinking fluids during the test
B
All of the following should include practice trials for the athlete before performing actual test EXCEPT: A) Seated shot-put test B) Shoulder flexibility test C) Hexagon agility test D) No arm swing vertical jump test
B
An athlete loses 4 pounds (1.8kg) during a training session. At least how much fluid should this athlete drink to replace the fluid lost as sweat? A) 2 pints (0.9L) B) 4 pints (1.9L) C) 4 quarts (3.8L) D) 2 gallons (7.6L)
B
During which of the following exercises should a spotter's hands be placed on the athlete's forearms near the wrists? A) Bench press B) Incline dumbbell bench press C) Upright row D) Lying barbell triceps extension
B
Following prolonged periods of detraining in elite strength/power athletes, which of the following physical characteristics will likely show the largest reduction as a consequence of the removal of an anaerobic training stimulus? A) Total fat mass B) Fast-twitch fiber cross-sectional area C) Slow-twitch fiber cross-sectional area D) Total Type 1 muscle fiber content
B
For a high school American football team, if any player squats two times his body weight, his name is placed on the wall. This is an example of A) negative reinforcement B) positive reinforcement C) negative punishment D) positive punishment
B
From which of the following is the heart's electrical impulse normally initiated? A) AV node B) SA node C) The brain D) The sympathetic nervous system
B
How does an athlete's optimal level of arousal change with limited skill and ability to perform the activity? A) It increases. B) It decreases C) It has no effect D) It is not related to the activity.
B
If during the tire flip the athlete's hips rise faster than the shoulders during the initial pushing motion, what is an effective correction to give the athlete? A) Start with a higher hip position B) Keep the hips slightly below the shoulders in this position C) Lift the tire upward instead of driving it forward D) Push with the arms first.
B
Resistance training-induced adaptions within which of the following structures of the body are responsible for the initial (e.g., the first 3 weeks) increase in muscle strength? A) Axial skeleton B) Motor unit C) Connective tissue D) Muscle cell nucleus
B
The following is the most likely contributor to fatigue and poor performance: A) Low protein intake B) Iron deficiency C) Low calcium intake D) Omega-3 fatty acid deficiency
B
The low bar position in the back squat exercise applies more torque on which of the following joints as compared to the high bar position? A) Knee B) Hip C) Vertebral (Cervical) D) Vertebral (Lumbar)
B
The primary macronutrient that is addressed in the pre competition meal is A) Fat B) Carbohydrate C) Protein D) Vitamin
B
The primary movement during the second pull phase of the power clean exercise is A) Hip flexion B) Hip extension C) Knee flexion D) Dorsiflexion
B
When designing a program for a collegiate basketball player, which of the following is the FIRST thing a strength and conditioning professional should do? A) Choose the exercises to be performed in the program B) Conduct a movement analysis of the sport C) Determine the athlete's current training status D) Prescribe the training loads and reps
B
When progressing through the sequential levels of upper body plyometric drills using variations of the medicine ball pushup, which of the following is the FIRST exercise that is truly plyometric? A) Offset pushup B) Power drop (lying MB drop) C) Tricep-pushup D) Walkabout
B
When throwing a baseball, an athlete's arm is rapidly stretched just before throwing the ball. Which of the following structures detects and responds to that stretch by reflexively increasing muscle activity? A) Golgi Tendon Organ B) Muscle spindle C) Extrafusal muscle D) Pacinian corpuscle
B
Which of the following BEST describes a motor unit? A) All the muscle fibers within the body of a cell B) A motor neuron and the innervated muscle fibers C) The muscles that work together to create movement D) Location within the muscle fiber that creates energy for movement
B
Which of the following BEST explains the need for increased protein intake by athletes? A) Decreased protein oxidation during aerobic exercise B) Increased need for tissue repair C) Restriction of calories to lose weight D) The quality of protein consumed
B
Which of the following are the two PRIMARY differences between the power clean exercise and the snatch exercise? I. Grip width II. Initial stance III. Final bar position IV. Number of movement phases A) I and II only B) I and III only C) II and IV only D) III and IV only
B
Which of the following best describes the shift in muscle fiber type due to exercise training? A) Type I to Type IIa B) Type IIb to Type IIa C) Type IIa to Type I D) Type IIa to Type IIb
B
Which of the following body parts (of the athlete) should a spotter position his or her hands near to during the seated dumbbell shoulder press exercise? A) Elbows B) Wrists C) Upper arms D) Upper back
B
Which of the following changes to the design of a resistance training program will have the GREATEST impact of decreasing training frequency? A) Lighter training loads B) Many lower body exercises C) Numerous single-joint exercises D) Absence of other exercise modes
B
Which of the following describes all motor units? A) Contains the same type of muscle fibers B) Contains the same size of motor neurons C) Contains about the same number of muscle fibers D) Can adjust their force production based on the size of the action potential
B
Which of the following describes the rate of force development as part of the force-time relationship? A) The greater the muscle is stretched, the more force that can be produced B) The ability to generate maximal force at the beginning of a movement C) The faster a force is applied to the resistance, the more force that can be applied D) The potential to create the highest level of an isometric contraction
B
Which of the following elements of the muscolotendinous unit stores elastic energy during an eccentric muscle action? A) Concentric Contraction B) Series Elastic Component C) Parallel Elastic Component D) CSA
B
Which of the following energy pathways does the body primarily use when performing sprint intervals of 30-45 seconds with a work:rest ratio of 1:3? A) Phosphagen B) Fast glycolysis C) Slow glycolysis D) Oxidative
B
Which of the following hormones has the greatest influences on neural changes? A) Growth hormone B) Testosterone C) Cortisol D) IGF
B
Which of the following is NOT a function of growth hormone? A) Increase lipolysis B) Decrease collagen synthesis C) Increase amino acid transport D) Decrease glucose utilization
B
Which of the following is a physiological adaptation to participation in a chronic aerobic exercise program? I. Onset of Blood Lactate Accumulation breakaway point occurs at a higher exercise intensity II. Lactate threshold occurs at a lower exercise intensity III. Anaerobic threshold occurs at a higher exercise intensity IV. Ventilator breakaway point occurs at a lower exercise intensity A) I and II only B) I and III only C) II and IV only D) III and IV only
B
Which of the following is a side effect of anabolic steroid use, creatine supplementation, and glutamine supplementation? A) increased muscle mass B) increased water retention C) decreased HDL level D) decreased energy depletion
B
Which of the following is the correct foot pattern in the step-up exercise? A) step up left foot, step up right foot, step down left foot, step down right foot B) step up right foot, step up left foot, step down left foot, step down right foot C) step up left foot, step down left foot, step up right foot, step down right foot D) step up right foot, step up left foot, step down right foot, step down left foot
B
Which of the following is the smallest functional unit of a muscle? A) Myofibril B) Sarcomere C) Myofilament D) Actomyosin complex
B
Which of the following loads will typically allow an athlete to perform 6 repetitions in the back squat exercise? A) 90% 1RM B) 85% 1RM C) 80% 1RM D) 75% 1RM
B
Which of the following muscles is eccentrically involved during the downward movement phase of the bench press exercise? A) Biceps brachii B) Pectoralis major C) Latissimus dorsi D) Trapezius
B
Which of the following occurs during the QRS complex of a typical ECG? I. Depolarization of the atrium II. Repolarization of the atrium III. Repolarization of the ventricle IV. Depolarization of the ventricle A) I and III only B) II and IV only C) I, II, and III only D) II, III, and IV only
B
Which of the following sequences will produce the MOST reliable results? A) 1RM power clean, T-test, 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run, 1RM bench press B) T-test, 1RM power clean, 1RM bench press, 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run C) 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run, 1RM bench press, T-test, 1RM power clean D) 1RM bench press, 1RM power clean, T-test, 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run
B
Which of the following substances can be metabolized anaerobically? A) Glycerol B) Glucose C) Amino acids D) Free fatty acids
B
Which of the following substances regulates muscle actions? A) Potassium B) Calcium C) Troponin D) Tropomyosin
B
Which of the following test sequences are most appropriate? A) Non-fatiguing tests, agility tests, aerobic capacity tests, sprint tests B) Agility tests, maximum power tests, local muscular endurance tests C) Local muscular endurance tests, sprint tests, aerobic capacity tests D) Non-fatiguing tests, sprint tests, aerobic capacity tests
B
Which of the following tests is most valid for assessing aerobic capacity? A) AAHPERD shuttle run B) Step test C) 300-yard shuttle run D) 1-minute sit up test
B
Which of the following types of muscle fiber pennation is the deltoid muscle? A) Radiate B) Multipennate C) Bipennate D) Fusiform
B
Which of the following types of training elicits the greatest increase in the size and the number of mitochrondria in a skeletal muscle fiber? A) Olympic lifting B) Fartlek running C) Plyometric training D) Plyometric resistance training
B
Which of the physiological adaptations occur in response to an aerobic endurance training program? 1-enhanced ventricular hypertrophy 2-increased size of Type II muscle fibers 3-enhance carbohydrate oxidation 4-increased ATPase concentration A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 4 only D) 3 and 4 only
B
With regard to core training, when is instability exercise best applied? A) with untrained athletes who are relatively weak B) In trained athletes who are rehabilitating from an injury C) with trained athletes who are trying to optimize strength and power D) with untrained athletes who are new to the exercise
B
anaerobic capacity is qualified as the maximal power output achieved during activity lasting A) less than 10 seconds B) 30-90 seconds C) 2-3 minutes D) Longer than 5 min
B
when compiling results from the volleyball teams, vertical jump testing, the strength and conditioning professional notices that most scores are similar, but there are three scores that are much higher than the rest. Which of the following measures of central tendency is most appropriate for this group? A) Mean B) Median C) Mode D) Variance
B
A 67 year-old female marathon runner has a resting heart rate of 77 beats per minute and an estimated VO2 max of 38 ml/kg/min. If her prescribed exercise intensity is 75% of her age-predicted maximal heart rate, what is her target heart rate? A) 106 beats per minute B) 115 beats per minute C) 134 beats per minute D) 153 beats per minute
B?
Primary training adaptations of elite aerobically trained athletes include which of the following? I. increased maximal oxygen uptake II. decreased blood lactate concentration III. increased running economy IV. decreased capillary density A) I and III only B) II and IV only C) I, II, and III only D) II, III, and IV only
C
Stimulation of muscle spindles induces a A) Relaxation of GTOs B) Relaxation of the stretched muscle C) Contraction of the stretched muscle D) Contraction of the reciprocal muscle
C
The intake of which of the following nutrient needs to decrease FIRST when making dietary changes to increase complex carbohydrate intake? A) Simple sugars B) Incomplete proteins C) Saturated fat D) Water-soluble vitamins
C
Training on instability devices can reduce the overall agonist force production capacity and power output of the athlete to less than _____ of what can be achieved in a stable condition. A) 20%. B) 50%. C) 70%. D) 90%.
C
When an eating disorder is suspected, the strength and conditioning professional should A) Monitor the athlete's daily food intake B) Require frequent weigh-ins C) Encourage further assessment by an eating disorder specialist D) Provide nutritional information
C
When measuring maximal strength of a soccer player, which of the following could adversely affect the test-retest reliability of the results? I. Using multiple testers II. Retesting at a different time of day III. An athlete's inexperience with the tested exercise IV. Using an established testing protocol A) I and III only B) II and IV only C) I, II and III only D), II, III and IV only
C
Which of the following athletics positions theoretically requires the highest percentage of Type I muscle fibers for optimal performance? A) Olympic weightlifter B) American football wide receiver C) Basketball point guard D) American football lineman
C
Which of the following catalyzes the the rate-limiting step of glycolysis? A) Myosin ATPase B) Hexokinase C) Phosphofructokinase D) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
C
Which of the following classes of a lever system can be described by the muscular force and the resistance force acting on the same side of the fulcrum? I. First II. Second III. Third A) I only B) II only C) II and III only D) I and III only
C
Which of the following describes the correlation between these sets of data for vertical jump and body weight? Athlete 1: Vert 30in (76cm) BW 210lb (95kg) Athlete 2: Vert 22in (56cm) BW 231lb (105kg Athlete 3: Vert 34in (86cm) BW 200lb (91 kg) A) Strong, positive correlation B) Weak, negative correlation C) Strong, negative correlation D) Weak, positive correlation
C
Which of the following factors increases with age but can be decreased when a senior participates in a regular resistance training program? A) Muscle strength B) Resting metabolic rate C) Body fat D) Physical function
C
Which of the following grips should be used during the deadlift exercise? I. Overhand II. Closed III. Open IV. Alternated A) I and II only B) II and IV only C) I, II and IV only D) II, III and IV only
C
Which of the following is a location where changes to connective tissue adaptions are likely to occur in response to training? 1-at the ligament-bone junction 2-inside the bone matrix 3-within the belly of the tendon 4-between the groups of muscle fibers A) 1 and 3 only B) 2 and 4 only C) 1, 3 and 4 only
C
Which of the following is a non-temperature-related effect of a warm-up? A) Enhanced neural function B) Disruption of transient connective tissue bonds C) Elevation of baseline oxygen consumption D) Increase in muscle temperature
C
Which of the following is a structural exercise? A) Seated row B) Seated shoulder press C) Upright row D) Incline bench press
C
Which of the following is an example of a short-response plyometric drill? A) Rim jump B) Tuck jump C) Alternate leg bound D) Standing long jump
C
Which of the following is characteristic of anorexia nervosa? A) Normal body weight B) Very low dietary intake C) Preoccupation with food D) Secretive eating
C
Which of the following is the MOST effective load, repetition, and rest period scheme to increase muscle strength? A) 90% 1RM, 8 reps, 120 sec rest B) 85% 1RM, 8 reps, 90 sec rest C) 90% 1RM, 4 reps, 120 sec rest D) 85% 1RM, 4 reps, 90 sec rest
C
Which of the following is the definition of power? A) (Mass) x (Acceleration) B) (Force) x (Distance) C) (Force) x (Velocity) D) (Torque) x (Time)
C
Which of the following is the primary transport mechanism of oxygen in the blood? A) Myosin B) Plasma C) Hemoglobin D) Bicarbonate
C
Which of the following joints are included in the phrase "triple extension" as part of the second pull of the power clean exercise? I. Elbow II. Knee III. Ankle IV. Hip A) I, II and III only B) I and III only C) II and IV only D) III and IV only
C
Which of the following layers is the MOST superficial? A) Perimysium B) Endomysium C) Epimysium D) Fasciculus
C
Which of the following performance or physiological characteristics is NOT usually observed in a state of nonfunctional overreaching (NFOR) within athlete populations? A) Stagnation and a decrease in performance B) Hormonal disturbances C) Sleep disturbances D) Increased levels of fatigue
C
Which of the following primarily dictates the degree that an energy system contributes to the needed production of ATP? A) Mode B) Frequency C) Duration D) Intensity
C
Which of the following protein sources does not contain all essential amino acids in appreciable quantities? A) Poultry B) Eggs C) Lentils D) Beef
C
Which of the following stretching techniques decreases muscle spindle stimulation? A) Dynamic B) Ballistic C) Static D) Passive
C
Which of the following structures, when activated, reduces a muscle's ability to create force? A) Muscle spindles B) Intrafusal fibers C) Golgi Tendon Organs D) Gamma afferent fibers
C
Which of the following substances is believed to have a true ergogenic benefit? A) androstenedione B) HMB C) glucosamine D) vanadyl sulfate
C
which of the following is a reason for a trial of the T-test to be disqualified? A) Touching the base of cone D B) Shuffling from cone C to cone D C) Crossing the feet from cone B to cone C D) Running forward from cone A to cone B
C
which of the following tests is NOT used to measure maximal muscular power? A) Margaria-Kalamen test B) vertical jump C) 40-yard (37m) sprint D) 1RM power clean
C
A 40-year old female with a resting heart rate of 86 beats per minute is prescribed an exercise intensity of 50% of her functional capacity. What is the person's exercise MET level if her VO2 max is 28 ml/kg/min? A) 26 B) 14 C) 4 D) 2
C 28 mkm/3.5 mkm = 8/2 (50% intensity)
Which of the following is the recommended rest period between sprint intervals that last 30 seconds? A) 30 seconds B) 60 seconds C) 2 minutes D) 6 minutes
C (1min 30s to 2min 30s, 1:3 to 1:5 ratio)
A 17-year-old high school cross-country runner has been training aerobically for six months in preparation for the upcoming season. Which of the following adaptations will occur in the muscles during that time? A) increased concentration of glycolytic enzymes B) hyperplasia of Type II fibers C) transformation from Type I to Type II fibers D) hypertrophy of Type I fibers
D
A strength and conditioning professional is asked to perform initial assessment tests of a collegiate female volleyball team. Which of the following tests is MOST sports-specific? A) 40 yard (37m) sprint B) NSCA T-test C) 6RM Power clean D) One-step vertical jump
D
After a bout of resistance training, acute hormonal secretions provide all of the following information to the body EXCEPT A) Amount of physiological distress B) Metabolic demands of exercise C) Type of physiological distress D) Energy expended
D
All of the following are components of the FIRST phase of training for a sprinter EXCEPT: A) Dynamic joint mobility B) Core strength C) Motor learning D) Specific short-term endurance
D
All of the following are effective criteria to select exercises that have dynamic correspondence to a specific sport movement EXCEPT: A) Visual similarity B) Direction of force production C) Power production D) Skill reinforcement
D
All of the following are functions of vitamins and minerals EXCEPT: A) Maintain bone strength B) Promote hormone synthesis C) Facilitate metabolism D) Provide a source of energy
D
All of the following bones are part of the axial skeleton EXCEPT: A) Skull B) Vertebral column C) Ribs D) Pelvic girdle
D
An athlete's desire to perform to his or her potential is an example of A) motive to avoid failure B) autogenic training C) selective attention D) achievement motivation
D
As compared to the hypertrophy phase of a periodized resistance training program, which of the following is INCREASED for the basic strength phase? A) number of repetitions B) number of sets C) training volume D) training load
D
Due to time constraints, a strength and conditioning professional has to administer a 1.5 mile (2.4KM) run test on the same day as the T-test, 1RM bench press, 300-yard shuttle run, and vertical jump. To optimize results in the 1.5 mile run, when should it be performed? A) In place of the 300-yard shuttle run B) Right after the vertical jump test C) Before the 1RM bench press D) An hour after all the other tests are completed
D
Engaging in a cross-training program consisting of equal volumes of resistance training and aerobic endurance training will A) Enhance the aerobic adaptations. B) Interfere with the aerobic adaptations. C) Enhance the anaerobic adaptations. D) Interfere with the anaerobic adaptations.
D
Following resistance training, augmented neural drive to the working musculature is the result of I. Increased agonist muscle recruitment II. Muscle hypertrophy III. Improved firing rate IV. Greater synchronization A) All of the above B) I and IV only C) I, II and III only D) I, III and IV only
D
In which of the following athletes might you expect limited bone mineral density (BMD) levels as a consequence of the force vectors and the physical demands associated with the given sport? A) A 16-year old gymnast with a seven-year old training history in her sport B) A 23-year old offensive lineman who has lifted weights for 8 years C) A 33-year old track cyclist who has a 1RM squat of 352 lbs. D) A 19-year old 800m freestyle swimmer with one year of drylands training
D
The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle during each beat is the A) cardiac output B) a-v ̅O2 difference C) heart rate D) stroke volume
D
The bench press, vertical jump, and 10m (11-yard) sprint are the MOST valid tests for which of the following American football positions? A) Quarterback B) Defensive back C) Wide receiver D) Defensive lineman
D
To compare performances of Olympic weightlifters of different body weights, the classic formula divides the load lifted by the athlete's A) Body weight B) Body weight squared C) Lean body weight D) Body weight to the two-thirds power
D
To promote optimal sprint start speed, the knee of the rear leg of a sprinter in the starting blocks should be at which of the following angles? A) 30 degrees B) 45 degrees C) 90 degrees D) 120 degrees
D
When stimulated during PNF stretching, Golgi tendon organs allow the relaxation of the A) Stretched muscle by contracting the reciprocal muscle B) Reciprocal muscle being stretched by the stretched muscle C) Reciprocal muscle by its own contraction D) Stretched muscle by its own contraction
D
Which of the following are the MOST important nutrients for athletes to consume? I. Vitamins and minerals II. Carbohydrates III. Protein IV. Water A) I and III only B) I and IV only C) II and III only D) II and IV only
D
Which of the following does NOT normally increase during an aerobic exercise session? A) end-diastolic volume B) cardiac contractility C) cardiac output D) diastolic blood pressure
D
Which of the following energy substrates cannot be depleted during extreme exercise intensities or durations? A) Creatine phosphate B) Glycogen C) Water D) ATP
D
Which of the following energy systems is capable of producing the GREATEST capacity of ATP? A) Phosphagen B) Slow glycolysis C) Fast glycolysis D) Oxidative
D
Which of the following exercises requires a spotter? A) Lat pulldown B) Wrist curl C) Power clean D) Step up
D
Which of the following functions of a muscle is to assist indirectly in an exercise movement? A) Agonist B) Antagonist C) Stabilizer D) Synergist
D
Which of the following is a performance characteristic of elite sprinters? A) High center of gravity B) Longer ground contact time C) Large amount of vertical translation D) Greater plantar flexor forces
D
Which of the following is a recommendation for lowering undesirably high levels of blood lipids? A) Reduce complex carbohydrate intake B) Limit saturated fatty acid intake to 30% of total calories C) Consume a minimum of 500 mg of dietary cholesterol per day D) Replace saturated fatty acids with monounsaturated or polyunsaturated fatty acids
D
Which of the following is an adaption to aerobic endurance training? A) Submax heart rate increases B) Resting VO2 increases C) Submax ventilation rate increases D) Resting vital capacity increases
D
Which of the following is an example of a closed kinetic chain exercise? A) Biceps curl B) Mach chest press C) Lunge D) Pushup
D
Which of the following is the best example of proper exercise progression of lower body plyometric drills? (low intensity to high intensity) A) Squat jump, single leg hop, zigzag hop, double leg bound B) Depth jump, double leg tuck jump, pike jump, double leg hop C) Standing long jump, single leg vertical jump, double leg hop, squat jump D) Squat jump, double leg tuck jump, alternate leg bound, single leg hop
D
Which of the following is the form of chemical energy stored in the body that is the most IMMEDIATELY available for a muscle action? A) Muscle glycogen B) Blood glucose C) Creatine Phosphate D) Adenosine Triphosphate
D
Which of the following progressions is recommended for Week #5 of an off-season aerobic conditioning program for a deconditioned American football lineman who is currently walking on the treadmill for 18 minutes per day, 3 days per week, and at 70% of his age-predicted maximal heart rate? A) Change mode of exercise to exercise to cycle ergometer B) Increase frequency to 6 days per week C) Increase intensity to 80% of age-predicted maximal heart rate D) Increase duration to 20 minutes
D
Which of the following substances is MOST readily transported into the muscle cell after a high intensity resistance training exercise session? A) Chromium B) Triglycerides C) HMB (Hydroxy beta-methylbutyric acid) D) Glucose
D
Which of the following tests can evaluate BOTH anaerobic endurance and anaerobic power? A) Margaria-Kalamen test B) Seated shot put test C) 300 yard (274m) shuttle run D) Wingate test
D
Which of the following types of training programs involve exercise intensities GREATER than VO2 max? A) Repetition B) Interval C) Fartlek D) Pace/tempo
D
Which of the following methods is recommended for monitoring exercise intensity for a 20-year-old college athlete who is taking a physician-prescribed beta blocker? A) Heart rate reserve B) Functional capacity C) Rating of perceived exertion D) Age predicted maximal heart rate
D?
Which of the following is the method of measuring aerobic exercise intensity based on increments of resting oxygen uptake? A) Mechanical equivalent B) Metabolic efficiency C) Mechanical efficiency D) Metabolic equivalent
A?
Which of the following is the prime factor that leads to sports related injuries in youth? A) Imbalances of the muscles and tendons B) Mistakes in the design of the training program C) Rapid muscle and bone growth D) Frequent and long periods of inactivity
A?
A collegiate swimmer is consuming 2500 kilocalories per day. Her daily caloric intake consists of 344 grams of carbohydrates, 83 grams of fat, and 94 grams of protein. What percent of her diet is comprised of fat? A) 3% B) 13% C) 30% D) 34%
C
A combination of which of the following changes during the final week before a competition will BEST increase muscle glycogen stores? I. Increase fluid intake to 1 mL per kilocalorie of expended energy per day II. Reduce exercise intensity and duration III. Consume at least 8 grams of CHO per kg of bodyweight per day IV. Raise the total caloric intake to 6000 kilocalories per day A) I and III only B) I and IV only C) II and III only D) II and IV only
C
A spotter is recommended for which of the following exercises? I. Push press II. Incline dumbbell fly III. Overhead triceps extension IV. Lateral shoulder raise A) I and II only B) I and IV only C) II and III only D) III and IV only
C
A strength and conditioning professional needs to do a post-season assessment on a soccer team. In what order should the following tests be administered? A) 300-yard shuttle run, 1RM back squat, bodyweight measurements, skin fold measurements B) 1RM back squat, 300-yard shuttle run, skin fold measurements, bodyweight measurements C) Skin fold measurements, bodyweight measurements, 1RM back squat, 300-yard shuttle run D) Bodyweight measurements, skin fold measurements, 300-yard shuttle run, 1RM backsquat
C
An athlete is performing a concentric isokinetic elbow flexion and extension exercise. Which of the following type(s) of levers occur(s) at the elbow during this exercise? I. first class. II. second class. III. third class. A) I only. B) II only. C) I and III only. D) II and III only.
C
Approximately how many net ATP are produced via the oxidative energy system from the metabolism of one glucose molecule? A) 27 B) 34 C) 38 D) 41
C
As compared to a muscle whose fibers are not pennated, all of the following are affected by a muscle with pennated fibers EXCEPT: A) Contraction speed B) Power production C) Creatine content D) Force capacity
C
Depletion of which of the following substrates is associated with fatigue? I. Creatine phosphate II. Lactate III. Glycogen IV. Lactic acid A) I and II only B) III and IV only C) I and III only D) II and IV only
C
Following a period of chronic high-intensity resistance training, a variety of physiological adaptations take place in a number of systems within the body that promote improved athletic performance in strength/power activities. if an elite athlete were to undergo 12 weeks of heavy strength training, which of the following adaptations would NOT be expected consequent to this type of anaerobic exercise? A) Transition from Type IIx to Type IIa muscle fiber B) Increased pennation angle in certain muscle groups C) Reduced sarcoplasmic reticulum and T-tubule density D) Elevated sodium-potassium ATPase activity
C
For which of the following exercises is it appropriate for a trained and experienced athlete to momentarily hold the breath during the upward movement phase? I. Lat pulldown II. Leg press III. Bent over row IV. Tricep pushdown A) I and II only B) I and IV only C) II and III only D) III and IV only
C
In teaching the push press, which of the following is an example of segmentation with pure-part training integration? A) Practice the push press without any equipment, progress to practice with a PVC pipe, and end with an unloaded bar. B) Practice the dip, followed by the dip with the drive, and end with practice of the entire push press. C) Practice the dip, the drive, and the catch independently before practicing the entire push press. D) Practice the dip and the drive independently, followed by practice of the dip with the drive; then practice the catch independently and end with practice of the entire push press.
C
Performing a resistance training workout causes which of the following changes in blood pressure or peripheral resistance that does NOT occur during an aerobic exercise workout? A) Systolic blood pressure increases B) Mean blood pressure increases C) Diastolic blood pressure increases D) Peripheral resistance decreases
C
