CSCS Secrets Exam from book

What are the time considerations for assessing local muscular endurance? a. 10 seconds to 120 seconds b. 60 seconds to 80 seconds c. 30 seconds to 40 seconds d. 180 seconds to 300 seconds

A: 10 seconds to 120 seconds. Tests of local muscular endurance can persist for a few seconds to several minutes at a time depending on the amount of resistance that is being used for the testing procedure. Movement selection will affect the time this test will require from an athlete, as a pull-up will require less time than a barbell lunge at 50 percent loading intensity, because the amount of work that is possible with each movement is significantly different.

What is the correct staff-to-athlete ratio for a secondary school? a. 1:15 b. 1:20 c. 1:10 d. 1:30

A: 1:15 The correct ratio of strength and conditioning staff members, e.g., strength and conditioning director, assistant strength and conditioning coaches, and graduate assistants, in a secondary education setting is 1:15. This is established primarily due to the age of the participants, as they will be between 14 and 19 years of age, and the type of training in which the athletes will engage. The ratio for younger athletes to strength staff members at the middle school level is 1:10, while the ratio for university-aged athletes is 1:20, as the trend is for older athletes to require less supervision, as they will be of a higher training age and better suited to training independently due to familiarity with facility rules and avoiding possibly dangerous behaviors.

-1 For bench press: What percentage of the 1RM would facilitate developing an athlete's ability to accelerate and increase speed? a. 50-60 percent b. 40-50 percent c. 60-70 percent d. 30-40 percent

A: 50-60 percent An athlete using 50-60 percent of his 1RM will be able to accelerate the barbell at the desired speeds of approximately 0.08m/s in order to facilitate an increase in speed. This percentage of the 1RM is sufficiently heavy enough to require a high force output from the athlete without risking muscular failure, and also allows for sufficient training volumes to develop the neurological consistency needed to increase the rate of signaling to the muscles to facilitate the increase in bar speed and over time speed in competition.

-1 What is an impulse with regard to speed and agility training, and how is this measured? a. A shift in momentum as a result of a force, (Impulse = Force x Time) b. A shift in momentum as a result of force, (Impulse = Force/Time) c. The rate of directional change as a result of a force, (Impulse = Force x Time) d. The rate of directional change as a result of a force, (Impulse = Force/Time)

A: A shift in momentum as a result of a force, (Impulse = Force x Time) An impulse changes the momentum of an object as a result of a force and is required to achieve a predetermined momentum is less time, or greater momentum in a set period of time. This essentially outlines the necessity of high rates of force production to generate the requisite momentum to move an object, e.g., an athlete sprinting down the track from a dead start in a set time.

Which of the following exercises does not require a spotter? a. Barbell row b. Step-up c. DB incline press d. Barbell triceps extension

A: Barbell row The barbell row is the correct answer because this movement occurs in a prone position, the bar does not move overhead, and the spine is not directly loaded by the barbell. The athlete can safely execute the lift on the platform and abandon the lift if necessary without fear of injury or being unable to complete the lift.

-1 A 200-meter hurdler is about to begin his competitive training season. What training approach would the strength and conditioning coach use to maintain the athlete's explosive and work capacities? a. Complex training b. Push/pull split c. Circuit training d. Compound sets

A: Complex training An athlete who requires a high work capacity coupled with the ability to be explosive for brief periods of time will benefit most from using a complex training approach, as this will allow the athlete to use low-moderate plyometric activity during the in-season program to maintain explosive capacities and resistance train at sufficient levels to maintain strength. This type of training does not need to be high intensity to be effective, and can allow an athlete to sustain a high level of performance throughout a training season as long as the strength and conditioning coach closely monitor training volume and intensity.

-1 When transitioning to a pre-season training period, what modifications will the strength and conditioning coach make to the training parameters for the athletes? a. Decrease training load intensity b. Increase training load intensity c. Decrease training volume d. Increase training volume

A: Decrease training load intensity When preparing to start the pre-season training phase, the strength and conditioning coach does not need to alter his training program significantly from the off-season program. The primary consideration for transitioning into the pre-season phase of the training program is to decrease the training load intensity, as this will allow the athlete to begin to put more energy into sport- and practice-related activities and not negatively affect recovery rates. This change will also reduce the risk of injury heading into the period of time when the athlete is preparing most heavily for the competitive season, which generally about six to eight weeks away when the pre-season is initiated.

-1 When planning training programs for two distinct types of athlete, a marathon runner and a football player, how should a strength and conditioning coach track training volumes (respectively)? a. Duration and load-volume b. Time and training intensity c. Total distance and load-volume d. Duration and work

A: Duration and load-volume The method for assessing training volume for an aerobic athlete is to track the duration of his training sessions as a measure of time. To correctly track training volume for a football player, a strength and conditioning coach must keep track of load-volume, which is the quantification of the amount of mechanical work performed by the athlete combined with the metabolic demands associated with that work.

Which of the listed training volumes will affect muscular hypertrophy the most? a. Five sets of 10 repetitions b. Five sets of 5 repetitions c. Three sets of 8 repetitions d. One set of 15 repetitions

A: Five sets of 10 repetitions When training for muscular hypertrophy, the outlined criteria call for as few repetitions as 6 per set and as many as 12. The suggested number of sets falls between 3 and 6 total sets. An athlete who performs 5 sets of 10 repetitions will perform 50 total repetitions of a given movement, which will result in the highest training volume of the options listed and will cause the greatest change in muscular hypertrophy over time.

What sport skill and movement pairing below best exemplifies the specific adaptations to imposed demands (SAID) principle? a. Free throw shooting; overhead press b. Throwing a baseball; squat c. 100-meter sprinting; barbell row d. Freestyle swimming; power clean

A: Free throw shooting; overhead press A basketball player who is shooting a free throw must use the primary movers for the upper body, which include the triceps, the pectoral muscles, the deltoids, and the biceps, along with the forearm flexors and extensors. Using an overhead pressing movement for strength development in a basketball player meets the specific needs of the athlete's sport by targeting and training the specific muscle groups involved in the action.

In the off-season program for a Premier League soccer player, training volume and intensity are characterized by what during the strength/power phase? a. High intensity; low Volume b. Low intensity; high Volume c. Low intensity; low Volume d. High intensity; high Volume

A: High intensity; low volume. The strength/power phase is the final stage in the preparation phase and is characterized by high-intensity, lower-volume training activities. Activities that take place in this training phase include high-intensity plyometric activity, sprinting against resistance, and resistance training that includes power/explosive exercises with heavy training loads and low training volumes.

Other than adding additional training load to an athlete, what other mechanisms that utilize the progressive overload principle are acceptable for athlete progression? I. Increasing repetitions performed at specific loading parameters II. Increasing work density III. Increasing number of sets performed at specific loading parameters IV. Reducing rest periods a. I, II, III, IV b. I and III c. II and IV d. I, II, and III

A: I, II, III, IV The principle of progressive overload refers to gradually increasing the amount of external resistance an athlete must work against during training-related activities. The overload can be achieved by increasing the number of repetitions per set with a specific resistance, increasing the volume of work performed in a training session or set period of time (supersets, compound sets, etc.), increasing the total number of sets performed at a specific loading parameter, and reducing rest periods, which is another form of increasing work density. This is not an exhaustive list of possible applications of the overload principle other than simply adding resistance to the selected movements.

? = + When preparing an athlete for competition, what is considered to be the best-practice procedure for stretching, listed in the order in which the exercises should be performed? I. Sport skill II. Dynamic stretching III. Jogging IV. Bounding a. III, I, II, IV b. IV, II, I, III c. III, II, I, IV d. I, III, II, IV

A: III, I, II, IV The suggested best practice for competition warm-up begins with movements of a general or lower-intensity sport-specific activity, which include jogging, skipping, dribbling a basketball, or throwing a football. After the general warm-up period, the specific warm-up activities begin and will include dynamic stretching activities that mimic the movements of the sporting event, and can gradually increase in intensity up to jumping and bounding activities to prepare the nervous system for competition, but not sufficient to induce metabolic or neural fatigue.

If a training program called for three upper-body training sessions that emphasized upper-body pressing exercises, how would the strength and conditioning coach best create muscle balance in these training sessions? a. Include horizontal and vertical pulling exercises in all three training sessions b. Include three lower-body training sessions c. Perform rotator cuff assistance exercises at the end of each session d. Include overhead pressing and vertical pulling in one of the training sessions

A: Include horizontal and vertical pulling exercises in all three training sessions For the strength and conditioning coach to achieve training balance when performing specific movement patterns, the opposite muscles must be trained at sufficient training volumes. This does not require a one-to-one ratio, but in the provided example performing upper- and middle-back exercises during each session will only serve as a positive for developing the strength and joint stability for the athlete to reach the primary resistance goal.

What is one of the primary adaptations to energy production due to chronic aerobic exercise? a. Increased mitochondria density in muscle tissue b. Increased oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin c. Increased phosphate availability for ATP replenishment d. Increased glycogen storage capacity

A: Increased mitochondria density in muscle tissue A physiological adaptation that allows for greater ATP production is the increased number of mitochondria in the muscle tissue. This alteration occurs because of the increased energy demands placed on the muscles due to the continuous aerobic endurance exercise or training; this change increases the availability of ATP in closest proximity to the working muscle tissues, which is a result of increased oxidation in the tissues.

-1 What is the primary limitation of trunk plyometrics? a. Limited stretch-reflex response b. Too many muscles groups involved c. Hip flexors overtaking the abdominals d. Overactive stretch-reflex response

A: Limited stretch-reflex response Trunk plyometrics do not necessarily function the exact same way as upper- and lower-body plyometrics, and this is due to limited stretch-reflex response. The muscles of the trunk do not effectively store elastic energy, which limits the capacity of the trunk musculature to generate reactive force. Research findings suggest that slow response times and lower movement velocities result from the distance between the trunk musculature and the spinal cord.

During the inflammatory phase, what kind of training can be undertaken by the athlete? a. Maintain strength and endurance in adjacent muscles b. Isometric contraction of injured area c. Lightly stretch the injured area d. Train non-affected muscle using normal processes

A: Maintain strength and endurance in adjacent muscles. Training during the inflammatory phase is not a forbidden activity, but the training should be limited to the healthy joints and muscles. This may require using a body part split to avoid excessive loading in the injured area, e.g., squatting with a leg or hip injury. The key is to work to maintain strength and endurance at sufficient levels such that once the athlete is cleared to return to training or competitive activities, the athlete will not be as far away from being in the required shaped as he would be if he were not to engage in any training at all.

Which neuromuscular structure is responsible for initiating the stretch reflex? a. Muscle spindle b. Golgi tendon organ c. Pacinian corpuscle d. Extrafusal muscle fiber

A: Muscle spindle The muscle spindle is the primary proprioceptive feedback structure in the muscle and the most important component in the stretch reflex response. The muscle spindle senses when rapid strength is applied to a muscle and reflexively contracts, which serves to potentiate the force-generating capacity of the muscle as well.

When training for strength and power, which adaptations will occur most quickly? a. Neural b. Muscular c. Body composition d. Cardiovascular

A: Neural When training for strength and power, the neural adaptations will occur most quickly due to, in large part, the size principle. The nervous system will recruit all motor units in order to facilitate maximal force generation, in the order of from weakest and slowest firing to strongest and most rapidly firing. During strength and power training phases, the high-threshold units are depended on heavily to perform the required work, but also become more easily recruited due to a lowered recruitment threshold. This change allows for these motor units to be recruited more effectively and with greater speed.

Tapering is an important component of competition preparation. What is NOT a primary benefit to a tapering strategy prior to competition? a. Neurological recovery b. Rehydration c. Increased glycogen stores d. Joint/muscle recovery

A: Neurological recovery Neurological recovery is not a primary emphasis in tapering methods, as tapering involves planned technique work and gradually reducing the training duration and intensities. The nervous system, due to the repetitive nature of aerobic endurance training, is not taxed as heavily as it is for anaerobic power athletes, and neurological fatigue will not play a significant role in the success or failure of an aerobic athlete's competitive season. Allowing for joint/muscle recovery, rehydrating, and increasing glycogen stores are of greater importance to the aerobic endurance athlete.

When opening a new strength and conditioning facility, the hiring phase for qualified staff begins during which phase? a. Pre-operation phase b. Design phase c. Construction phase d. Predesign phase

A: Pre-operation phase The pre-operation phase, also known as the start-up phase, of facility planning is the three- to four-month period of time prior to opening the facility when the selection and hiring for qualified staff members begins. This is also the time frame when staff development, in-service, and advanced credentialing standards should be put in place. This is the final stage in the facility planning process.

When evaluating areas that an athlete can improve significantly over time, which of the areas listed below is most unlikely to be impacted? a. Reaction time b. Stretch-shortening cycle c. Reactive time d. Speed-endurance

A: Reaction time Reaction time is specific to an athlete's ability to respond to external stimuli, e.g., visual or auditory, and to respond in an appropriate manner. This element of athletic competency is not easily trained because much of this response is governed by how quickly information is relayed to the CNS and then translated to a response, and this will vary from individual to individual. Reactive time can be altered via manipulation of the stretch-shortening cycle by performing reactive-explosive movements as part of a training program.

When designing training programs for children, what area of adaptation to resistance training is a concern? a. Skeletal adaptations b. Muscular adaptations c. Cardiovascular adaptations d. Neuromuscular adaptations

A: Skeletal adaptations During childhood and adolescence, when undertaking resistance training exercises, protecting the diaphysis of the long bones and the growth cartilage is extremely important in preventing injury to these areas by emphasizing loading intensity over skill and technique acquisition. AN adult will be able to handle higher training loads without risk to these areas, as these growth areas will cease growing and solidify between 17 and 22 years of age.

Using the Valsalva maneuver is helpful when transitioning from eccentric to concentric lifting phases. What is the name for this in-between transition? a. Sticking point b. Turnaround point c. Transition point d. Isokinetic point

A: Sticking point The sticking point is the transition point between the eccentric and concentric movements. This point can occur exactly at this moment of transition or slightly above or below this transition depending on the movement pattern or an athlete's specific muscular weaknesses.

-1 A strength and conditioning coach is using a sequenced training model. What should the next training block emphasize if an athlete has just completed a block that emphasizes agility? a. Strength b. Stretch-shortening cycle c. Power d. Speed Bonus: Which block of Sequenced Training is this?

A: Strength Bonus: Restitution block (emphasizes SPEED and AGILITY) Rotating the sequenced training blocks for an athlete who has just completed an agility-focused training block to begin to develop strength qualities addresses the physical quality that was trained at maintenance levels and will necessarily need to be trained in the next training block. This will also allow the progress made during the agility training block to manifest and continue to improve via enhanced neural connections, but increases in strength from the current training block will also play a role. Sequenced training is intended to develop multiple characteristics separately while also relying on the relationships between characteristics to develop the athlete's capacities.

What role, if any, does strength play with regard to an athlete achieving maximal sprint velocity? a. Strength allows an athlete to overcome increased resistance generated on the body as acceleration occurs. b. Strength is what propels an athlete forward when attempting to accelerate the body. c. Strength is essential for the initial takeoff in order to propel the body forward and sustain the sprint effort. d. No role

A: Strength allows an athlete to overcome increased resistance generated on the body as acceleration occurs. An athlete's ability to overcome the force of gravity as her movement velocity increases via producing greater force through muscular contraction is essential for developing maximal linear speed, but also significant for decelerating, changing directions, or leaping.

Which of the bone injuries listed below occurs most frequently? a. Stress fracture b. Displaced fracture c. Comminuted fracture d. Compound fracture

A: Stress fracture. Stress fractures are the most commonly occurring type of fracture among athletes, and this is due to the high forces generated in a repetitive fashion during practices, training sessions, and competition. Stress fractures will also most often occur when training volume suddenly increases or an athlete accumulates significant training stress on hard training or competitive surfaces.

-1 When considering the needs of an athlete, the sport needs of the athlete are most important. Which athlete listed below would benefit most from a moderate-volume, moderate-intensity training program in the off-season? a. Swimmer b. Discus thrower c. Golfer d. Football player

A: Swimmer Swimming is not considered a power sport, but the athlete will still need to be explosive in the pool at the starting position and will also need significant strength levels to move through the water as quickly as possible. This type of athlete would not need to train near maximal loading intensities and will not require large training volumes to be successful in his sport. The athlete will need moderate training intensity and volumes to develop the sufficient strength and resiliency needed to be successful in his sport.

-1 If training an athlete to improve work capacity, or a specific characteristic such as speed-endurance, what type of resistance training split and method could be used to enhance the anaerobic conditioning activities the athlete would necessarily undertake? a. Total body training b. Circuit training c. Upper/lower split d. body part split

A: Total body training An athlete who is trying to improve her speed endurance or anaerobic training capacity would benefit most from engaging in a total body training routine that requires the athlete to train using big compound movements at every training session, most effectively using a superset model, and training frequently throughout the week. This approach would develop the resiliency needed for competition, and with proper movement and training load selection, explosive power and strength will also increase significantly.

For an athlete who has been in a training program for two years and needed to gain significant muscle mass in the upper torso, quadriceps, and hamstrings, what type of training split would the strength and conditioning coach use? a. Upper/lower training split b. Body part split c. Total body training d. Leg power/upper hypertrophy

A: Upper/lower training split An upper/lower split training approach will allow the athlete to gain the necessary lean mass in the upper torso and in the hamstring and quadriceps because each session will have significantly higher volumes than if the athlete were to train using a total body approach. This body part split will also allow the athlete to use big compound movements, both structural and power movements, without interfering with the recovery of other muscle groups that may be involved in these exercises, as would be the case with a whole body approach.

How can the strength and conditioning coach structure a training session to account for when the athlete is not performing at or near his normal capacities? a. Use goal repetitions b. Increase rest periods c. Reduce training loads d. Reduce number of exercises

A: Use goal repetitions Setting goal repetitions for a training session, e.g., 3-5 repetitions for 3-6 sets, will allow an athlete to train slightly below her maximal capacities without the athlete fretting about a poor performance when she is not at her peak abilities. This approach serves as a form of auto-regulation, as training intensity and volume are modulated based on the athlete's day-to-day capacities instead of strict adherence to a rigid set and rep scheme that would force the athlete to attempt to work beyond her capacity, leading to poor performance and possibly compromising a training block or program.

What is the correct distance for placement of weight trees from lifting equipment? a. 42 inches b. 36 inches c. 54 inches d. 28 inches

B: 36 inches. Weight trees should be limited to a distance of 36 inches from the lifting area. This will allow space between the equipment area and the plate storage area so that the loading and unloading of plates will not be hindered by limited space, and will also help to expedite the loading and unloading process by having the necessary space to move the necessary tonnage to and from the training area. This will ensure the safety of the athletes when loading and unloading plates during training

From the prescribed repetition schemes listed below, which will cause the greatest metabolic stress? a. 3x8 at 70 percent b. 6x6 at 85 percent c. 4x4 at 90 percent d. 4x8 at 70 percent

B: 6x6 at 85 percent In the examples provided, the greatest metabolic stress would occur when the athlete performs 6x6 at 85 percent training load intensity. The total training volume is higher than the other possible selections, but is also trained with a higher training load intensity than the other options, which will require significantly more recovery time before training again. Understanding the relationship between physiological responses and the impact of training load intensity and volume is the key to resistance training programs.

-1 A volleyball player, the team's setter, needs to improve her upper-body strength in the off-season training program. What training load and repetition range would a strength and conditioning coach use to bring about the needed improvement in upper-body strength? a. 60-70 percent, 4-8 repetitions b. 70-85 percent, 6-10 repetitions c. 80-90 percent, 8-10 repetitions d. 85-100 percent, 4-6 repetitions

B: 70-85 percent, 6-10 repetitions The athlete's position on the volleyball court dictates that she will need sufficient strength and muscular resiliency in her pressing musculature as well as in her upper back. To meet this requirement, she will need to train at sufficient loading intensities to develop the strength in the targeted upper-body musculature, and this can effectively be achieved with 75-85 percent loading intensity. At that intensity level, she will develop over the entire off-season program. To develop muscular resiliency and work capacity, she will need to train with a sufficient number of repetitions per set, which should fall between 6 and 10 repetitions.

-1 When training an athlete who needs to perform multiple explosive events in brief periods of time, what intensity and repetition range should a strength coach prescribe? a. Equal to or less than 85 percent, equal to or less than 6 repetitions b. 75-85 percent, 3-5 repetitions c. 67-85 percent, 3-5 repetitions d. 80-90 percent, 1-2 repetitions

B: 75-85 percent, 3-5 repetitions An athlete who is training for repetitive explosive bouts in competition will need to train at a sufficient threshold so as to develop the power capacity required, but will also need to do so in a moderate fashion to be able to perform the activity at a high level over time. Training in the 75-85 percent loading intensity range meets the first requirement of using a training load that will require the athlete to move with great force and velocity, and the 3-5 repetitions per set is a sufficient amount of work per set to develop the capacity to produce large force and velocity consistently over a period of time.

What is combination training? a. A form of interval training b. A form of cross-training c. A form of endurance training d. A form of strength-endurance training

B: A form of cross-training Combination training is a type of cross-training that requires an anaerobic athlete to train aerobically for a period of time in order to facilitate recovery from prior training sessions. There is some debate as to the overall effectiveness of this approach when considering the traits and characteristics of an anaerobic athlete's sport, as training aerobically may cause a reduction in muscle size, strength, and power.

-1 Why is backpedal running considered to be a specific and independent movement pattern and not simply the reverse of forward sprinting? a. Mechanical resistance to backpedal running b. Anatomical and functional symmetry of the leg c. Alternate muscle firing patterns d. Different force couplings at the hip and thigh

B: Anatomical and functional symmetry of the leg The distinction between the two patterns arises from the mechanical constraints on the two movements, due to the anatomical and functional asymmetry of the leg, and is evident in the kinetics and kinematics of each. Backpedal running is characterized by shorter stride length, increased stride frequency, greater support phase time, and smaller range of motion at the knee, hip, and ankle joints.

Which of the responsibilities below is NOT within the purview of the strength and conditioning coach? a. Coach team warm-up activities b. Assess injuries c. Provide skill and movement corrections during training d. Develop and implement training programs

B: Assessing injuries. The strength and conditioning coach is not involved in the assessment of injuries during either a competition or a training session. The strength and conditioning coach should never provide medical advice, as this is not within his scope of responsibilities or within the scope of his training and education. In case of an emergency, the strength and conditioning coach can provide CPR/AED or first-aid support until medical personnel arrive. This is a legal issue, and the delineation of medical responsibilities falls to those licensed to perform such activities by the state of insurance

-1 When preparing for a training session or athletic event, what type of stretching should be avoided? a. Dynamic stretch b. Ballistic stretch c. Static stretch d. Active stretch

B: Ballistic stretch Ballistic stretching requires an athlete to be moving or producing muscular force/movement, and requires a rhythmic bouncing action at the end position. This is dangerous practice due to the activation of the stretch reflex generated by the bouncing action at the end position, as this extends the range of motion after each repetition and can result in damage to the connective and soft tissues of the joint and muscle. Activating the stretch reflex during stretching activities negates the purpose of stretching the tissues to facilitate increased range of motion, as the stretch reflex will increase muscular tension in response to the bouncing action.

During a combine event, there are 12 separate timers during the 40-yard dash event. What is the best approach for accurately collecting reporting the data? a. Remove the highest and lowest times and then assess the average b. Calculate the average of all 12 timers c. Determine the standard deviation among the times d. Determine and report the

B: Calculate the average of all 12 timers. The most effective approach for reporting the times to the athletes is to take the average of the 12 timers, because the sample size is small and removing any score will affect the accuracy of the reporting, as the differences between the lowest and highest score should be minimal at best. The only appropriate time to remove a score would be if the result were a full second or more greater than the other scores, as this suggest user error during measurement.

When working with an older adult who has been diagnosed with osteopenia, what is the key aspect of the evaluation process that ensures the implementation of developmentally appropriate training program? a. Strength testing b. Complete health and movement screenings c. Aerobic training capacity assessment d. Anaerobic power testing

B: Complete health and movement screenings Following the standard pre-screening practices - which include completing the health history questionnaire and implementing developmentally appropriate movements, loading intensities, training frequency, and volume for an older adult - will produce the desired effect on the trainee without engaging in any risky behaviors that may lead to injury due to thinning joints or falls. There are few, if any, limitations on an individual who has been diagnosed with osteopenia.

When wanting to bring up a lagging body part either to overcome a muscular weakness or increase muscular size, what approach could the strength and conditioning coach insert into the training program for a four- to six-week period? a. Pre-exhaustion b. Compound set c. Circuit training d. Complex training

B: Compound set An athlete needing to improve a muscular weakness or increase the size of a particular muscle group would benefit significantly in a brief period of time from using a compound set approach for the affected muscle. Performing multiple movements in sequence to target the muscle group will now require the body to respond to significantly greater stresses to the body, as this method is primarily oriented to forcing the muscle to work for longer periods of time (under limited recovery conditions between movements) in order to increase nutrient delivery to the training muscle. This increase in blood flow to the muscle will promote growth via increased local protein synthesis, and when coupled with heavier training methods in the early part of the training session, this will allow the athlete to meet the training goal within the four- to six-week training block.

What are the primary goals for the strength and conditioning program, either as a private company or a university athletic department? a. Improve speed and agility b. Decrease potential injury risk and improve performance c. Develop athletes mentally and physically d. Individual development through a team setting

B: Decrease potential injury risks and improve performance The primary focus of the strength and conditioning facility is to decrease potential injury risks and to improve athletic performance. The facility may offer a range of services, from restorative massages to blending smoothies, the objective of which is to decrease the risk of injury and improve performance.

When determining the grip width for the snatch, which approach listed below is recommended? a. 1/4 inch outside of snatch rings on barbell b. Elbow to elbow c. Wrist to elbow d. Total wingspan

B: Elbow to elbow The effective and preferred methods of assessing the correct grip width for the snatch lift is to measure from elbow-to-elbow or from fist-to-opposite shoulder. Using either approach is acceptable with taller or longer-armed lifters benefitting from the fist-to-opposite shoulder method as this accounts for the longer ulnae that will cause the lifter to have a longer transition phase from second pull to overhead resulting in more energy and effort expended. Shorter stature and armed lifters will benefit from the elbow-to-elbow approach.

-1 When determining the effectiveness of a training program, when should the strength and conditioning coach perform a final review? a. End of each sport season b. End of the competition year c. End of the off-season program d. End of the in-season program

B: End of the competition year A full review of the strength and conditioning program should take place at the end of the competitive year, as the post-season period will consist of little training for the athletes (other than general sport activity); and the next competitive season will not begin until the off-season training program begins again. The strength and conditioning coach should evaluate athlete progress over the course of each sport season, but does not need to do a full qualitative review until the end of the competitive season.

When adjusting a cam-, pulley-, or lever-based exercise machine, what is the most important consideration for the athlete's body position? a. Making sure the athlete is aligned with the angle of push or pull b. Ensuring the primary joint involved in an exercise is aligned with the axis of resistance c. Being sure to reduce injury possibilities by aligning the body correctly and reducing the weights lifted d. Discussing optimal body position and demonstrating proper movement execution

B: Ensuring the primary joint involved in an exercise is aligned with the axis of resistance The athlete must be in proper alignment in order for the desired joint to be loaded correctly with utmost safety and for optimal movement execution. To achieve this when using a machine or pulley system, a seat, ankle, arm, chest, or back pad may need to be adjusted.

-1 The preparatory phase is the longest training phase in a yearly macro-cycle. What is the primary emphasis for this training phase? a. Develop basic strength levels b. Establishing a baseline of conditioning c. Preparation for higher-intensity loading d. Initiation of higher training volumes

B: Establishing a baseline of conditioning. The primary focus of the preparation phase is to establish an initial level of conditioning for the athlete, as this will prepare the athlete for upcoming training phases that require higher intensity loading and higher training volumes. The preparatory phase is highlighted by LOWER training load INTENSITIES and HIGHER training VOLUMES, and NO sport-specific or skill training. This phase is strictly intended as a developmental stage for future training phases.

Name the phenomenon that causes increased oxygen usage after an intense bout of exercise. a. Post-exercise oxygen consumption b. Excess post-exercise consumption c. Excess post-intense-exercise consumption d. Excess oxygen consumption

B: Excess post-exercise consumption Excess post-exercise consumption refers to the increased rate of oxygen above resting rates after an intense bout of exercise. This increased oxygen need post-training session causes an increased metabolic demand that causes a significant increase in the resting metabolic rate for six to twelve hours post training session.

When attempting to develop speed-endurance, what component of the training program must be taken into account in order to improve this specifically? a. Total training time b. Exercise relief patterns c. Training volume d. Training frequency

B: Exercise relief patterns Properly administering exercise relief patterns during speed-endurance training sessions is very important because the work-to-rest ratio needs to be adequate to facilitate proper neurological patterns and to avoid premature fatigue, but also needs to challenge the athlete's metabolic responses in order to become fatigue resistant. To achieve proper work-to-rest ratios, the coach should monitor an athlete's technique when he engages in the training activity and tack the training volume from session to session.

-1 What factor should most heavily influence the type of progression method a strength and conditioning coach uses across the different sport seasons throughout the training program? a. Increasing training loads quickly b. Gradual training load increases c. Reducing injury d. Controlling training stress

B: Gradual training load increases Having a gradual and highly structured approach to training load increases throughout a training program will ensure consistent results and allow athletes to achieve their primary resistance training goals in each sport season. Using an approach such as the two-for-two rule provides structure for gradual training load increases by requiring the athlete perform two additional repetitions at an assigned training load above the prescribed repetitions on the final set and being able to achieve this result in two consecutive training sessions. Once this has been achieved, the training load will increase.

An athlete has been tested in a laboratory in order to assess her specific heart rate and training intensities. What approach would be best for determining the athlete's training intensities? a. Fick equation b. Heart-rate reserve c. Karvonen method d. Age-predicted maximal heart rate

B: Heart-rate reserve Heart rate reserve is the difference between an athlete's maximal heart rate, measured in a laboratory during exercise testing, and the resting heart rate. Because this process requires an athlete to undergo laboratory testing procedures to assess his actual maximal heart rate, this will allow the strength and conditioning coach to more accurately assign the training intensities for the athlete. This method is superior to age-predicted and Karvonen methods for estimating aerobic training intensities.

A member of the strength and conditioning facility is wearing blue jeans to train in the facility. What are the proper action/s for a strength and conditioning coach or associate staff member to take for this first-time rules violation? I. Verbal warning by staff member II. Dismissal from facility for the day III. Make member award of violated rule IV. Document the offense a. I and II b. I and III c. I, III, and IV only d. I, II, and III only

B: I and III The process that should be undertaken when an athlete or member of the strength and conditioning facility violates a rule for the first time requires the staff member to provide a verbal warning to the member and an explanation of the rule. This verbal reprimand should also include a reminder of the disciplinary action that will be taken for a second offense.

A track and field coach is designing a training program for one of his broad jumpers. In what order should the selected exercises be performed in this program? I. Power clean II. Hamstring curl III. Reverse hyper extension IV. Deadlift a. IV, I, III, II b. I, IV, III, II c. IV, III, I, II d. I, III, IV, II

B: I, IV, III, II The strength and conditioning coach must first take into account the needs of the athlete, and in this case the athlete is a broad jumper and will rely most heavily on the posterior chain to propel the body forward and to spring into action out and across the ground. The selected movements will develop the posterior chain sufficiently and will facilitate improvements in jumping distance. The proper training order must be from most demanding and complex to the least demanding and complex. The correct order for the selection given is power clean, deadlift, reverse hyperextension, and hamstring curl.

Which testing procedure represents the BEST layout for a test battery? I. 1-RM squat II. Pro-agility III. Pull-up test IV. 110-meter sprint test a. I, II, III, IV b. II, I, IV, III c. II, III, I, IV d. III, I, IV, II

B: II, I, IV, III. The proper order in the example provided is to do the pro-agility test first, as this test relies on coordinated movement and therefore should occur first prior to the accumulation of excessive fatigue due to the other testing procedures such as the 110-meter sprint. The 1-RM squat test would occur next, as this is a maximum strength and power test, and likewise must not occur after a test that accumulates excessive fatigue like the 110-meter sprint test. The 110-meter sprint test would occur next in the battery because this test requires the athlete to achieve maximal velocity; this test should not be placed after a test of local endurance, as fatigue accumulation would affect the testing procedure. The final test in the battery would be the local endurance test, as this test will accrue the highest localized muscular fatigue and would affect the other testing procedures if placed prior to any of the options listed. Proper testing order in a battery of tests is important, as activities that utilize differing energy systems or require significant levels of movement coordination create different types of fatigue that will limit performance on other test when not sequenced correctly.

From the list of plyometric drills listed below, determine the correct order they should be in from least demanding to most demanding. I. Jumps over an object II. Depth jump III. Box jumps IV. Vertical jump a. I, II, III, IV b. IV, I, III, II c. IV, III, I, II d. I, III, IV, II

B: IV, I, III, II Lower-body plyometric intensity levels are established by assessing the METABOLIC and NEURAL demands placed on the athlete's body. Jumps that require lower force levels to generate the movement are considered to be of lowest impact, while jumps that require higher force levels are considered to be of higher impact.

When assessing a basketball player's one-legged jumping ability, the strength and conditioning coach notices the athlete does not jump very well off his left leg. What movement pattern and training strategy would the coach select to begin the process of correcting this issue? a. Include instability training using unstable surfaces b. Include unilateral lower-body movements c. Include partner stretching in the warm-up d. Include additional bilateral lower-body movements

B: Include unilateral lower-body movements Addressing a weakness that occurs on one side of the body is generally most effectively done by training that side of the body. In this example, adding in additional unilateral training volume will be sufficient to help improve the athlete's one-leg jumping ability. This will not create deficiency in the right side, as both sides will be trained using this approach. Using a unilateral approach does not movement patterns. The strength and conditioning coach may simply add the unilateral training to the program or reduce the bilateral training volume to compensate for the added training volume from the unilateral movements.

Balance between muscle groups is important when designing a training program. What possible negative outcomes are associated with poor muscle balance over the long term for an athlete? a. Reduction in total body power b. Increased injury rate c. Poor work capacity d. Decrease in athletic performance

B: Increased injury rate Without proper programming balance, the body will alter movement patterns in order to produce the necessary force needed to perform the lifts and perform in competition. These alterations, over time, will lead to increased injury rates. In order to prevent this from occurring, the strength and conditioning coach must build balance between the muscle groups at intersecting joints. This does not necessarily mean equalizing strength in antagonist muscle groups, but improving the strength ratios, e.g., hamstring to quadriceps strength at 3:4, which will prevent significant injuries and joint breakdown over time.

What is the primary role of the athletic trainer? a. Assigning training protocols to injured athletes b. Management and rehabilitation of injuries c. Performing anthropometric measurements d. Discussing injuries with strength and conditioning coach

B: Management and rehabilitation injuries. The primary role of the athletic trainer is to manage and rehabilitate injuries resulting from training, competition or other physical activity. The athletic trainer can also assign sport-specific exercises intended to prevent injuries, as well as apply prophylactic equipment for practice and competition in order to prevent injury or provide stability to an injured muscle or joint via bracing or taping.

When designing a training program, the first step for this process is to undertake what two-step task? a. Injury analysis b. Needs analysis c. Movement analysis d. Physiological analysis

B: Needs analysis Performing a needs analysis is a two-step process that requires the strength and conditioning coach to evaluate the movements and physiological requirements for a specific sport as well as evaluating the specific needs of the individual athlete. This process ensures accuracy in addressing the essential needs of competition, while also taking into account the specific needs of an individual athlete based on her injury history, training status, and physiological status.

Which of the terms listed below represent an area of legal concern that can be mitigated by a clearly outlined emergency care plan for a new strength and conditioning facility? a. Tort b. Negligence c. Statute of limitations d. Eligibility criteria

B: Negligence. Negligence refers to the failure of an individual to respond in a situation in an expected, logical manner as a person with similar training and background would respond under proximal circumstances. The importance of clearly outlining the emergency care plan is to establish the responsibilities and expectations of the staff members in the training facility. This can significantly mitigate problems that could arise regarding negligence or violating the standard-of-care expectations for people who should have the essential knowledge and understanding of how to handle challenging emergency situations.

-1 What periodization model would be most effect for an athlete who has multiple event during a competitive season? a. Linear periodization b. Non-linear periodization c. Matveyev periodization d. Strategic periodization

B: Non-linear periodization. Using a non-linear periodization model allows the strength and conditioning coach to vary training load intensities and training volumes according to the competition schedule; as there may be significant gaps between events that allow an athlete to increase intensity and training volume (for a two- to three-week period in a peaking strategy of sorts) in order to perform above previous competitions. This could also be used in a sport with weekly competitions, (e.g. a collegiate football or gymnastics program) as this would allow the strength and conditioning coach to evaluate the needs of the athlete based on the difficulty of the upcoming meet or game and prescribe training volumes and training load intensities accordingly. This approach also allows for significant variation during each training week, as training loads intensity and training volume can be altered day to day if desired.

What energy system is most active during brief intense muscular contractions? a. Anaerobic glycolysis b. Phosphagen system c. Aerobic glycolysis d. Gluconeogenesis

B: Phosphagen system The phosphagen system relies on the hydrolysis of ATP from local muscle stores, as well as on the breakdown of creatine phosphate. This system is active during bouts of intense, brief exercise that includes heavy resistance exercises and short intense sprints. This system is active during all activities at eh outset, but is active for a short time before other systems become the predominant energy resource depending on duration of exercise.

When programming power and structural movements in the same session, what repetition ranges and training intensities will the strength and conditioning coach most likely assign? a. Power, 1-5 repetitions at 80-90 percent intensity; structural, 3-5 repetitions at 70-80 percent. b. Power, 3-5 repetitions at 75-85 percent; structural, 4-6 repetitions at 80-90 percent c. Power, 3-8 repetitions at 85-90 percent; structural, 10-12 repetitions at 75-85 percent d. Power, 1-5 repetitions at 70-80 percent; structural, 8-10 repetitions at 80-90 percent

B: Power, 3-5 repetitions at 75-85 percent; structural, 4-6 repetitions at 80-90 percent. When considering using both power and structural movements in a training session, training block, or throughout a training program, the key consideration is neurological fatigue. Power movements are extremely demanding on the nervous and metabolic systems due to technical and ballistic nature of these movements. This means programming the power movements in the program first is paramount, but also limiting the athletes to a training intensity that will allow multiple repetitions per set will generate the greatest performance benefit without risking excessive fatigue accumulation in the long term. Programming the structural movements for moderate loading intensities and training volume will cause significant performance increases as will, due to improving technical skill and developing the muscular strength without pushing the boundaries of neural and metabolic recovery.

? = + Which of the training phases below is an alteration to the Matveyev model of periodization? a. Preparatory phase b. Strength/power phase c. Transition phase d. competition phase

B: Strength/power phase. In the provided list, the strength/ power phase is representative of one of the alterations that have been made to the Matveyev's model of periodization. The three alterations to the Matveyev model occur during the preparation phase, and they are the hypertrophy/endurance phase, the base strength phase, and the strength/power phase. Each training phase builds into the next phase, and is defined by specific training load intensities and training volumes, with intensity increasing and training volume decreasing, generally, as the athlete moves from hypertrophy/endurance to strength/power.

Which of the movements listed below is an example of neuromuscular control? a. Jumping in a basketball game b. Swimming in the ocean c. Running on a soccer field d. Changing directions on a tennis court

B: Swimming in the ocean. Swimming in the ocean is the best example of which activity exemplifies neuromuscular control. Of the options listed, this is the most significantly changing environment with which the individual's ability to stabilize the body in the water and maintain a set directional heading, while also requiring varying levels of force to move through the water.

During a pro-agility test, what must occur for the attempt to count? a. The athlete's hand must touch the cone b. The athlete's foot must touch each line c. The athlete must touch the base of each cone d. The athlete must run past each line

B: The athlete's foot must touch each line. During the pro-agility test, the athlete's foot must touch each line for the testing procedure to count. During this test, the athlete makes three separate changes in direction after a brief sprint. When attempting to run quickly, the athlete may stop short of the line, which means the strength and conditioning coach must be very attentive to the athlete's feet touching each line to qualify the time.

-1 What is the most important element to consider when determining the training frequency for an athlete? a. Sport season b. Training status c. Training split d. Exercise selection

B: Training status Determining an athlete's training status is the key element for determining training frequency. An athlete who does not have a significant training background will require fewer training sessions per week in order to facilitate improvements, while a more experienced and conditioned athlete will require greater frequency to stimulate progress.

When an athlete is lifting maximal or near-maximal loads throughout a training cycle, what is the most effective method for maintaining progress and balancing training stress? a. Alternating training loads b. Varied training load intensity c. Block training d. Varied training volume

B: Varied training load intensity The purpose of altering training loads and volumes over the course of a training program is to allow for adequate recovery of the muscles and central nervous system in order to avoid entering into an overtrained state. The strength and conditioning coach can avoid overtraining the athlete or athletes by reducing and rotating training loads of other training sessions after a "heavy" training session, i.e., "light" and "moderate," in order to facilitate recovery while sustaining training frequency and volumes. Rotating the loading parameters between light, heavy, and moderate can be used for a variety of training goals and frequencies, while also serving as a method for addressing the physical stress of practice or competition by applying this concept.

If equipment limitations are an issue at a training facility, what test could be used most effectively for determining maximum muscular power? a. Deadlift b. Vertical jump c. Pro-agility d. Margaria-Kalamen test

B: Vertical jump. If equipment limitations are an issue when wanting to test maximal anaerobic power, the vertical jump is the most cost-effective method. To test the vertical jump, you need a wall, a measuring tape or stick, and chalk. To perform the test, the athlete will stand flat-footed next to the testing wall and reach to mark, in chalk, the highest point possible with the dominant arm. Once this has been completed, the athlete will set her feet and jump as high as possible and set her chalk mark. After the two marks have been set the measurement can be taken to assess the height of the jump.

When performing power cleans, the bar is caught in what position? a. Full squat b. Legs straight c. 1/4 squat d. 1/2 squat

C: 1/4 squat After reaching triple extension and completing the second pull, the athlete pulls the body under the bar and rotates the arms under and around the bar. At this point, the hips and knees are flexed to a quarter squat position. Once the bar reaches the clavicle and is stopped, the athlete stands from the quarter squat position, thus completing the lift. The quarter squat is preferred over the full catch position because of the inherent injury risks of performing a highly skilled movement pattern with athletes not required to perform this skill often or with significant benefit over the quarter squat catch position.

-1 What percentage of the one-repetition maximum will generally allow an athlete to complete eight repetitions per work set? a. 86 percent b. 78 percent c. 82 percent d. 90 percent

C: 82 percent An athlete training in the 80 percent loading intensity range should generally be able to perform eight repetitions. Using a percentage of the 1-repetition maximum chart will provide significant guidance for assigning training load intensities when working in specific repetition ranges. For example, an athlete can be assigned to use a training load intensity prescription of 75-83 percent when assigned 7-10 repetitions per set, according to the 1- repetition maximum chart.

What is the prescribed push-up testing standard from the American College of Sports Medicine? a. As many repetitions as possible in a two-minute period b. As many repetitions as possible in a 60-second period c. As many repetitions as possible, performed continuously, until failure d. As many repetitions as possible, resting at peak when necessary, for two minutes

C: As many repetitions as possible, performed continuously, until failure. The American College of Sports Medicine standard for the push-up assessment is for the participant to perform as many repetitions as possible in a continuous fashion until failure. There is no time consideration for the testing procedure, and it is simply a test of local muscle endurance in the chest, shoulders, and triceps.

When outlining professional responsibilities in the strength and conditioning facility, what position is responsible for supervising the training sessions for the athletes? a. Athletic trainer b. Graduate assistant strength and conditioning coach c. Assistant strength and conditioning coach d. Head coach of athlete's sport

C: Assistant strength and conditioning coach. The assistant strength and conditioning coach will possess many of the same responsibilities as the strength and conditioning director, but may not directly oversee the training and development of as many athletic teams. The assistant strength and conditioning coach should achieve and maintain the necessary certification credentials, as there is no differentiation from the facility or university professional standards and guidelines from those expected of the strength and conditioning director.

A triple jumper is completing training preparations for the World Championships in four weeks. what phase of preparation is the triple jumper in at this point in the training program? a. Competition; maintenance b. Competition; end preparation c. Competition; peaking d. Competition; transition preparation

C: Competition; peaking. When preparing an athlete for a single competitive event, the proper approach is to engage in a peaking strategy that will push the athlete's performance to the highest level possible for a three-week period. The peaking strategy differs from a maintenance approach of moderate intensity and moderate volumes, as this period calls for very high intensity and very low training volumes to maximize the necessary characteristics for competition.

If a marathon runner uses a four- to six-week training block to swim and cycle, this is considered to be what kind of training? a. Alternative training b. Neural reprogramming c. Cross-training d. General endurance training

C: Cross-training An endurance athlete engaging in alternate methods from event-specific training is considered cross-training. Cross-training for brief training segments in a competition year can assist with the recovery from injury or with general recovery during intense periods of competition preparation. This approach to breaking up training segments allows for the muscles to be trained in a different manner and provides relief to joints that may be overexposed to stress from preparation for competition.

-1 Which of the athletes listed below would benefit MOST from a circuit training approach? a. In-season basketball player b. Marathon runner c. Deconditioned football player d. Off-season golfer

C: Deconditioned football player In this example, the deconditioned football player would benefit the most from circuit training, as this will allow him to perform a high volume of work with minimum rest periods, which will contribute to improving muscular endurance and work capacity in the upper and lower body, while also enhancing cardiorespiratory fitness. If the athlete is overweight, this approach will also contribute to shedding the excess body fat.

When an athlete drops from the top of a box and first makes contact with the ground, what are the phases of the stretch-shortening cycle after ground contact has occurred? a. Reactive, transition, and concentric b. Eccentric, transition, rebound c. Eccentric, amortization, concentric d. Reactive, amortization, rebound

C: Eccentric, amortization, concentric After an athlete contacts the ground, the agonist muscles are preloaded, storing elastic energy, and stimulate the muscle spindle (eccentric). After the muscles are preloaded and the energy has been stored, there is a momentary pause in muscle action (amortization). If the amortization phase is brief, then the greater the stored energy release will be, but if this phase is too long, then the energy will be significantly less. The final phase (concentric) occurs when the stored energy is released at the same time as the contraction of the affected muscles, which increases the force of the movement or is dissipated as heat.

The feasibility study establishes what essential element for the strength and conditioning facility? a. Determines facility demographics b. Outlines services to be provided c. Establishes total cost d. Assesses existing locations for facility

C: Establishes total cost. The feasibility study is primarily intended to assess the costs of building and establishing the necessary components of a strength and conditioning facility. The feasibility study also serves to assess the conceptual strengths and weaknesses of a facility as a secondary focus in order to determine its practical viability and to make changes to the initial business plan and concept.

After performing the essential assessments of an athlete's strength, balance, and speed, what is the next step in the process a plyometric program evaluation? a. Perform a vertical jump test to establish a vertical jump baseline b. Assess movement and flexibility of the athlete c. Evaluate the athlete's jumping technique d. Perform multiple jumps in place to assess athlete's elasticity

C: Evaluate the athlete's jumping technique After the completion of an evaluation of an athlete's balance, strength , and speed, the coach should proceed to evaluating the athlete's jumping technique, as this would be necessary first step in attempting to develop a plyometric program. If the coach is not aware of movement errors in the athlete's jump, then the training program will not be successful.

Which of the listed options below is representative of steps an athlete should take to return to normal training processes during the remodeling phase after an injury? a. Isotonic strengthening to dynamic stretching b. Concentric strength to eccentric strength c. Flexibility to eccentric strength d. Rapid isotonic strengthening to dynamic stretching

C: Flexibility to eccentric strength. correctly developing the necessary flexibility and strength capacities to return to training and competition is essential during the remodeling phase of injury recovery. The proper procedure for returning an athlete to normal training includes transitioning from an emphasis on flexibility to developing eccentric strength in the affected muscle to ensure the injured muscle's ability to load without creating too much stress in the injured tissues.

Under what conditions is using the Valsalva maneuver appropriate and inappropriate? I. Experienced and properly resistance-trained athletes II. Under maximal loading during structural exercise III. Under heavy loading during assistance exercises IV. When performing heavy-resistance abdominal exercises a. I and IV b. II and III c. I and II d. II and IV

C: I and II The Valsalva maneuver is appropriate to use with athletes who have been properly trained on movement skill and execution, and those who have substantial training experience. Secondarily, structural exercises that load the spine will require use of the Valsalva maneuver in some cases in order to properly stabilize the spine when under heavy training loads.

-1 When determining the methods to include in a sprint training program, where do sprinting, sprint assistance, mobility, and endurance training fall in order of importance? I. Sprinting II. Endurance training III. Sprint assistance IV. Mobility a. I, III, II, IV b. I, IV, III, II c. I, III, IV, II d. I, II, III, IV

C: I, III, IV, II The correct hierarchy for developing speed and agility is making sure to properly orient the methodology, which means establishing the primary, secondary, and tertiary methods for inclusion in the program. This would place primary methods first, which consist of sprint and agility training to acquire the correct technical skill and develop the basic patterns first in the training program. Secondary methods would include using specialized techniques to develop acceleration, maximal velocity, or other special skills, and utilizing sprint assistance or sprint resistance techniques to achieve this end. Tertiary methods for developing an athlete's sprint and agility capacities would include mobility, strength, and endurance training.

Using a superset approach to a training program can be most beneficial during what part of the sport season? a. Off-season b. Pre-season c. In-season d. Post-season

C: In-season Using a superset approach during the in-season training program is the best time of year to include this approach, as this increases the amount of work performed in a brief window of time. During the in-season training period, time is at a premium due to other obligations that include practice, film study, position and team meetings, etc. Using a superset approach will allow the athlete to train with great focus and intensity for a brief period of time, and this will benefit the athlete during the season by maintaining strength, stamina, and other work capacities that may decrease during the season.

What would be an appropriate primary resistance goal for a lacrosse player in the off-season, which is eight weeks in length? a. Adding 30 lbs. to overhead press b. Increasing bench press from 315 lbs. to 385 lbs. c. Increasing deadlift from 405 lbs. to 415 lbs. d. Increasing power clean from 265 lbs. to 300 lbs.

C: Increasing deadlift from 405 lbs. to 415 lbs. When setting resistance training goals, the most important factor is ensuring that the final resistance training goal is attainable in the current sport season. In the example provided, the desire to add 15 lbs. to the deadlift is a reasonable goal in the allotted time frame for the off-season training period. This goal, unlike the others provided, will not require the athlete to engage in any special behaviors or to access substances or specialized training methods in order to obtain it.

When setting up for the bench press, which of the body positions below is NOT one of the five points of body contact? a. Right foot is flat on the floor b. Shoulders and upper back are on bench c. Lower back is highly arched to increase spinal stability d. buttocks are firmly and evenly placed on bench

C: Lower back is highly arched to increase spinal stability The lower back is highly arched, which suggests there is no contact with the bench or back pad and is not considered to be part of the five points of body contact in the supine position. The five points of body contact when performing supine resistance exercises start with the head being firmly in place on the bench or back pad, the buttocks place evenly on the bench or seat and under the hips, with the right and left foot placed firmly and flatly on the floor.

If a strength and conditioning coach wants to improve sprint speed, what type of plyometric drills would be most effective over a six-week plyometric program? a. Lower-body plyometrics; jumps in place; box jumps for height b. Lower-body plyometrics; jumps over an object; standing jumps c. Lower-body plyometrics; horizontal bounding; single-leg jumps d. Lower-body plyometrics; single-leg jumps in place; single-leg jumps for height

C: Lower-body plyometrics; horizontal bounding; single-leg jumps Developing sprint speed, which is considered a form of horizontal single-leg bounding, can be achieved effectively using a combination of horizontal bounding and single-leg jumps. These exercises can also be included in a sprinting program prior to sprint technique and speed work.

-1 When evaluating the work performed by an athlete during a training session, what essential factor must be most accurately assessed? a. Mechanical loading b. External loading c. Metabolic energy d. Time

C: Metabolic energy Physical work is simply the force needed to move an object one meter (work= force x displacement). When assessing the work performed by an athlete, the amount of energy, via metabolic energy, required to perform the work prescribed is absolutely necessary because the metabolic stress on the athlete will require sufficient time for recovery and regeneration across multiple physiological systems.

Which muscle structure is responsible for providing reflex responses to sudden changes in muscle tension? a. Extrafusal muscle fiber b. Golgi tendon organ c. Muscle spindle d. Pacinian corpuscle

C: Muscle spindle A muscle spindle is responsible for providing feedback to motor neurons of the spine when a sudden stretching action occurs. After the signal is sent from the muscle spindle to the motor neuron of the spine, the motor neuron then generates a muscular action of the stretched muscle. This is a response arch that occurs as part of the stretch reflex.

When assigning training volumes during periods of maximal or near-maximal lifting intensities, a coach must consider what specific element when completing a program outline? a. Increasing total training volumes for the week b. Current strength levels of the athletes c. Need for increased recovery time d. Decreasing rest periods

C: Need for increased recovery time Athletes who train with maximal or near-maximal lifting intensities will require longer recovery times between training sessions. This is necessary because of the neural and muscular fatigue that occurs when lifting a heavy training intensities.

-1 During warm-ups, a lacrosse player notices that his right hamstring is a bit tighter than normal, so he spends an extra five minutes of the warm-up period performing light static and dynamic stretching. He is able to play and presents with little to no evidence of having any remaining hamstring stiffness. The athlete has taken advantage of what muscle quality? a. Tension b. Autogenic inhibition c. Plasticity d. Elasticity

C: Plasticity Muscular plasticity is the capacity of a muscle to be gradually stretched in order to achieve a new and greater length after passive or static stretching action. This allows for the stiffness in the athlete's hamstring to be reduced to manageable levels in order to facilitate a high level of performance and reduce apprehensions of sustaining an injury. Elasticity is the ability to return to a specific resting length after a passive stretching

What is the primary reason for including an unloading week in a training program? a. Acclimate to higher training loads during the current training phase b. Allow the body to recuperate during a week off c. Prepare the athlete for demands of next training phase d. Provide a break from training during a competitive season

C: Prepare the athlete for demands of next training phase. An unloading week is intended to reduce overall training stress on the athlete prior to engaging in the next phase of the training period. This is generally intended to allow the athlete to recuperate sufficiently and begin to express some, if not all, of the trained capacities of the prior phase. This concept serves as a means for one phase to build on top of another and to avoid overreaching in the short term and overtraining in the long term. An unloading week can be very useful for athletes moving: 1. From a hypertrophy phase (with significant volumes) to a combination strength/hypertrophy phase (with higher loading and increased training volumes) or 2. From a strength phase heading into a competition period

What determines the energy systems used during a training session? a. Loading intensity b. Injury history c. Session duration d. Athlete's training capacity

C: Session duration The duration, or total training time, will determine the energy systems utilized during a training session. The body's ability to use multiple energy systems to meet the specific needs of an individual fall within a finite time frame for each system, e.g., the phosphagen system persists for approximately six to eight seconds, while aerobic glycolysis can produce energy for several hours.

When designing a plyometric training program for younger athletes, what should focus of the program be? a. Increased power b. Increased horizontal jumping distance c. Skill acquisition and neuromuscular control d. Skill acquisition and movement-specific strength

C: Skill acquisition and neuromuscular control Considerations for younger athletes include emphasizing development of proper technical movement patterns, neuromuscular control, and anaerobic skills necessary to participate in athletic endeavors. Younger athletes will require progression from simple movement skills to more complex skills over time, and consideration for development in the areas of power, strength, and other measurable elements will benefit from the time spent developing proper movement skill and technique execution.

When evaluating athlete readiness for engaging in a plyometric program, what are the primary considerations? a. Balance, strength, flexibility, speed b. Balance, technique, flexibility, strength c. Strength, technique, balance, speed d. Flexibility, technique, strength, speed

C: Strength, technique, balance, speed Prior to initiating a plyometric training program, an athlete must be assessed for sufficient balance, strength, and speed while also possessing an understanding of proper plyometric technique. These are mandatory elements that must be present prior to initiating a plyometric training program to reduce the risk of injury, as plyometric movements are high-force, high-velocity movements that carry significant risk if performed incorrectly or with athletes who are not adequately prepared to perform these exercises.

What is the primary factor for achieving maximal sprint velocities? a. Stride length b. Arm swing c. Stride frequency d. Length of recovery phase

C: Stride frequency Stride frequency is the primary determinant of an athlete's maximal velocity due to greater change in stride frequency as speed reaches maximal velocity, as stride length is relatively unchanged at maximal velocity.

When establishing baseline testing values, what is the key element for accurately tracking changes over time? a. Testing frequency b. Regimented time periods between testing procedures c. Testing in similar conditions d. Duration of the testing process

C: Testing in similar conditions. To accurately collect testing data over a period of time, testing conditions must be similar to the original testing period. Adverse testing conditions will affect the athlete being tested, e.g., extreme hot/cold or rainy weather, as will testing on different ground surfaces. Another element for testing is to make sure that the athlete is properly hydrated and properly fed, i.e., not fasted or recently fed. Testing conditions should closely resemble each other as much as possible.

When performing a data analysis on the effectiveness of the strength and conditioning program for three similar female sports - Volleyball, basketball, and sprinter and jumpers - the strength and conditioning director should use what statistical approach to the data? a. Central tendency b. Difference score c. Variability d. Descriptive statistics

C: Variability Using variability to assess a large statistical sample is the best approach to evaluating the effectiveness of the program for the total group sample. Standard deviation will separate the data, if the data is normal, which is most probable, according to the best and least responsible in the training program. This will clearly provide insight into the global effectiveness of the program, but not on an individual basis. A program may have some very poor performers, e.g., college freshman with little training experience, who make substantial progress but are still considered below average according to a variability analysis.

Which testing procedure would be the BEST option for assessing an athlete's speed? a. 400-meter sprint b. T-test c. Pro-agility test d. 150-meter sprint

D: 150-meter sprint The best test to assess an athlete's speed is the 150-meter sprint. When assessing an athlete's maximal speed, the testing procedure requires a straight line on a flat surface, with the final distance not surpassing the 200-meter mark. The reasoning behind limiting the distance of the testing procedure is because going beyond 200 meters becomes a test of anaerobic capacity and not straight-line maximal velocity. The additional distance violates the purpose and focus of the testing procedure.

-1 Rest periods are extremely important for allowing muscular and neural recovery between sets. What is the suggested rest period for an athlete performing four sets of 12 repetitions in the squat? a. 2-5 minutes b. 1-2 minutes c. 45 seconds d. 20 seconds

D: 20 seconds The recommended rest period for athletes training to enhance muscular endurance is less than or equal to 30 seconds. This is intentional in order to perform large amounts of work in a brief period of time, which will enhance an athlete's ability to sustain effort over time. This is also a result of the percentage of 1RM that is recommended, as lighter training loads (<70 percent) can be lifted for a higher total number of repetitions per set than heavier training loads.

When performing a PNF hamstring stretching exercise, an athlete contracts the hamstring and then relaxes the muscle in order to facilitate the passive stretch. How long should the stretch be applied by the partner? a. 5 seconds b. 60 seconds c. 20 seconds d. 30 seconds

D: 30 seconds The correct time frame for PNF stretching techniques is 30 seconds. This is primarily to allow for an increased range of motion to be sustained for a period of time long enough to increase the range of motion but not enough to elicit a negative response by increasing muscular tension due to stretching the muscle too far and for too long.

-1 In the off-season training program, how often should the athlete resistance train? a. 2-3 training sessions per week b. 5-7 training sessions per week c. 3-4 training sessions per week d. 4-6 training sessions per week

D: 4-6 training sessions per week During the off-season training program, an athlete should be training as frequently as possible, with four sessions per week being the bare minimum. More experienced athletes should train more frequently in order to stimulate progress, as training program as the athlete matures in training age and experience. The other aspect in consideration is the lack of other activities to distract from the training program, as there are no sport-specific activities the athlete is engaging in and recovery from session to session can be maximized because energy is solely directed to the training program.

What is the suggested square-footage recommendation for the stretching area, per athlete? a. 36-square-foot area b. 58-square-foot area c. 40-square-foot area d. 49-square-foot area

D: 49-square-foot area. The suggested square footage allotment for each athlete in the stretching and warm-up area is 49 square feet. This is to allow for dynamic and static stretching exercises. Each athlete should have ample room to move in the space and to eliminate the possibility of injury due to being too close in proximity to one another. If partner stretching is an emphasis in the training program, a large stretching and warm-up area is necessary.

-1 When working with an athlete with very little training experience what is the most appropriate way to assess strength levels? a. 15-20 repetition maximum b. 1-3 repetition maximum c. 10-12 repetition maximum d. 6-8 repetition maximum

D: 6-8 repetition maximum When training individuals with limited training experience, the most important component for testing is to ensure maximal safety and to perform the test in a way such that the result is useful for multiple loading intensities. This would require the strength and conditioning coach to use a repetition maximum that would be useful for moderate loading intensities while also being light enough to ensure technique and joint health are not compromised. In the provided example, using a 6-8 repetition maximum is the most effective and safest option for an athlete with limited training experience.

Which situation requires multiple spotters to assist an athlete should they miss a lift? a. An athlete performing 225 lbs. maximum repetitions test b. An athlete performing barbell step-ups. c. An athlete overhead pressing 185 lbs. d. An athlete squatting 450 lbs. in a work-set.

D: An athlete squatting 450 lbs. in a work-set. An athlete performing a squat with 450 lbs. is sufficient loading and carries sufficient risks to the athlete should a lift be missed that multiple spotters should be utilized. While a 225-lbs. maximum repetition test could require multiple spotters, the loading is not sufficient to command multiple spotters.

-1 Addressing a muscular weakness, primarily as a contributor to a compound movement, would require the inclusion of what kind of movements? a. Power b. Isolation c. Structural d. Assistance

D: Assistance Assistance exercises are movements that recruit smaller muscle groups, generally involve one primary joint, and serve to balance out muscular imbalances. Exercises that fit into this category can be added to a training program without the strength and conditioning coach being concerned with overtraining or adding substantial training volume to an athlete's program, as these movements are not neutrally demanding and do not require significant loading to elicit the desired training effect.

In the modified Matveyev model, in which phase do sport-specific activities begin? a. Hypertrophy/endurance phase b. Strength/power phase c. Peaking phase d. Basic strength phase

D: Basic strength phase. The basic strength phase is the first phase when sport-specific and practice activities occur. This training phase is part of the preparation phase and occurs after the hypertrophy and endurance phase, and is highlighted by high-intensity training loads and moderate training volumes. The emphasis of this training phase is to improve muscular strength for the primary muscles involved in the sport-specific movements the athlete will need in order to perform at the highest level possible.

When designing a training program, a strength and conditioning coach uses both structural movements and core movements. How are these movements similar and different? a. Both affect multiple joints and large muscle groups, with core movements requiring higher force outputs as these are speed and power movements b. Both affect large muscle groups, but core movements are primarily considered assistance exercises. c. Both affect large muscle groups, but structural movements are always high-force movements and should be placed first in a training program. d. Both affect multiple joints and muscle groups, but structural movements load the spine either directly or indirectly.

D: Both affect multiple joints and muscle groups, but structural movements load the spine either directly or indirectly. Multi-joint movements are compound movements that affect multiple joints and affect large muscle areas across the body. Structural movements are also multiple joint exercises and affect large muscle areas, but are specifically movements that load the spine directly, e.g., a back squat, or indirectly, e.g., a power clean.

When spotting the bench press, where are the hands placed in the event of a missed repetition? a. Outside the athlete's hands in an overhand grip b. Center of the barbell using a pronated grip c. Outside the athlete's hands in a pronated grip d. Center of the barbell using an alternated grip

D: Center of the barbell using an alternated grip Spotting a barbell bench press in this fashion ensures that the spotter will not lose grip suddenly if the athlete is struggling to complete a set or has missed a maximum intensity load attempt. The alternated grip is the best approach to spotting the bench press.

-1 When designing a resistance training program for a rugby player, what should NOT be part of a coach's assessment? a. Training status b. Health history c. Movement analysis d. Comparative strength analysis

D: Comparative strength analysis A comparative strength analysis is not necessary or essential when initiating a training program, as a comparison of strength levels between two athletes does not provide important information when attempting to establish the core needs of an athlete prior to developing a training program. When performing an assessment on an individual athlete, the key elements to include are the needs analysis, movement and injury analysis, and evaluating training status and background, along with physiological assessments (strength, endurance, etc.).

Utilizing heavy resistance exercises and movements that utilize the stretch-shortening cycle is considered what type of training? a. Neural manipulation training b. Combination training c. Contrast training d. Complex training

D: Complex training Complex training is combining a reactive stretch-shortening cycle exercise, such as a depth jump for height, and a traditional strength exercise in a similar movement pattern, such as the squat. Utilizing a complex training method, the athlete will benefit from the manipulation of the stretch-shortening cycle by increasing power via elastic energy recovery, increased movement efficiency, and rate of neural signaling through feedback and impulse strength.

During the second transition phase, a collegiate baseball player should engage in which of the following activities? a. Motocross b. High-intensity interval training c. Lounging on the beach d. Free swimming

D: Free swimming. An athlete who has completed his competitive season should engage in some light activity that is not related to his sport skill. This activity should be a low-intensity, non-baseball sport activity, and free swimming is the selected option as this best meets the core criteria of the second transition phase. The other activities listed are not excellent choices. Motocross is a dangerous activity for an athlete to engage in during the off-season. High-intensity intervals are too demanding and do not fit into the second transition paradigm. Lounging on the beach, while leisurely in nature, does not require any activity; while an athlete should rest, light-to-moderate general activity should be engaged in every day.

What areas of the body are most significantly affected by sarcopenia? I. Lower limb extensors II. Lower limb flexors III. Upper limb extensors IV. Trunk extensors a. II and III b. I and III c. III and IV d. I and IV

D: I and IV Sarcopenia is a reduction of the skeletal muscle in older adults, and results as part of the aging process and a sedentary lifestyle. The most pronounced reduction in muscular function in adults experiencing sarcopenia is found in the lower limb and trunk extensors.

During the starting position, what coaching cue should be given to an athlete who starts with his chest over the barbell and hips higher than the shoulder? I. Squat down with the hips lower than the shoulders II. Eyes focused straight ahead or slightly downward III. Shoulders over or slightly in front of the bar IV. Chest held up and out a. I and III b. I and IV c. II and III d. I, III, and IV

D: I, III, and IV The proper starting position for the snatch exercise requires the athlete to have feet either hip or shoulder width apart, the hips down below the shoulders, a grip that is wider than the snatch rings, elbows fully extended, and feet flat on the floor. The body is positioned with the back flat or slightly arched, chest held up and out, head in line with the vertebral column, heels on the floor, shoulders over or slightly in front of the bar, and eyes focused straight ahead or slightly UPWARD.

Which of the following movements are open-chain movements? I. Bench press II. Lunge III. Leg curl IV. Lying triceps exercise a. I and II only b. I and III only c. I, II, and IV only d. I, III, and IV only

D: I, III, and IV only. Differentiating between open- and closed-chain movements is important when assigning exercises to injured individuals. This is because exercise selection should follow a natural development path as the athlete heals and is able to produce greater force through a joint. It should begin with an open-chain movement, which can typically be performed on a machine or with dumbbells in order to allow free joint movement but also control the amount of resistance being used to promote the desired training effect. Closed-chain movements tend to be big compound movements that allow for large forces to be produced using fee weights, e.g., squats, deadlifts, or overhead presses. The key is understanding when to use a closed- or open-chain movement in an injured player's programming to the greatest benefit for the athlete

Counterconditioning is a combination of two techniques that are utilized to overcome performance anxiety. What are these two techniques? I. Hypnosis techniques II. Reciprocal inhibition III. Cognitive techniques IV. Somatic techniques a. I and IV b. I and II c. II and III d. III and IV

D: III and IV - Cognitive and Somatic techniques Counterconditioning uses a combination of somatic and cognitive responses in order to reduce an athlete's performance-related anxiety. This is achieved through systematic desensitization that requires an athlete to engage in visualization of a stressful competitive situation; in order to counter the stress response, the athlete engages in progressive muscle relaxation to induce a relaxed mental and physical state.

If a 100-meter sprinter has a problem with pulling her hamstring frequently, what would be a prescription for her in an off-season program to help eliminate this issue? a. Increase conditioning work b. Increase training frequency c. Focus on developing weaknesses d. Improve strength ratios at the affected joints

D: Improve strength ratios at the affected joints Improving the strength ratio at the affected joint where frequent injuries occur is a basic step in programming to correct a structural weakness. Addressing the issue after proper rehabilitative steps have been completed would consist of addressing the underlying deficiency through properly programming the resistance training for the athlete. In this example, the athlete would be required to focus on developing posterior strength and resiliency, and this could be achieved through movement patterns that directly engage this area, e.g., deadlift, glute-ham raise, reverse hyper extension, step-ups, hip thrusts, etc., with a wide range of repetitions from which to choose, including strength emphasis work, e.g., 4-12 repetitions per set. This phase would also see a maintenance level or quad-dominant training prescribed, and for a period of four to six weeks could be eliminated to allow all training energies to be directed to correcting the imbalance.

-1 When training an athlete with a weakness in a small muscle group, what type of movement will the strength coach prescribe? a. Auxiliary movement b. Assistance movement c. Core movement d. Isolation movement

D: Isolation movement When addressing structural weaknesses or a size deficiency in smaller muscle groups, using isolation movements will address the weakness directly. Generally, a smaller muscle group will need direct training stimulus to improve neural integration and recruitment patterns, and isolation work will allow the athlete to focus on contracting the weak muscle group and developing the ability to contract the muscle group maximally when using compound movements.

-1 Which of the terms listed is NOT considered a part of the general adaptation syndrome? a. Reaction b. Super-compensation c. Alarm d. Overtraining

D: Overtraining. Overtraining is not considered part of the general adaptation syndrome. The general adaptation syndrome consists of three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. A fourth component can be identified as super-compensation, which can be included after the resistance phase. Overtraining can be considered a symptom of the exhaustion phase of the general adaptation syndrome

When designing a training program, a strength coach includes a box jump for maximum height in a superset with front squats. The coach is attempting to utilize what neurological phenomenon? a. Stretch-shortening cycle b. Myotatic stretch reflex c. Series elastic component d. Potentiation

D: Potentiation Potentiation is a neurophysiological response that increases the contractile capacity of muscles via alteration of the force-velocity curve due to stretch, which also increases neural drive to the working muscles. Potentiation functions to increase the muscles' capacity for force production by generating a reflexive response form the nervous system that can be used to decrease recruitment thresholds for fast-twitch muscle fibers that are necessary to perform strength exercises at or above maximal intensity levels. Using this combined training approach can result in immediate strength increases for a training session and significantly affect strength progression over the course of several weeks.

-1 An athlete needs to develop specific movement patterns in order to gain mastery in his sport. What is the guiding principle for this type of training and what skill type needs to be trained? a. Skill specificity; closed movement skill b. Practice specificity; open movement skill c. Skill specificity; open movement skill d. Practice specificity; closed movement skill

D: Practice specificity; closed movement skill Athletic development for sports requires that general and specific tasks be performed in order to develop coordination, retain movement patterns, and transfer skills to the sport, along with the sensorimotor elements needed to perform in the athletic environment, which fall under the overarching principle of practice specificity. The athlete in the example needs to develop closed movements skills in order to enhance technique and execution of the required skills for his sport.

What is the primary goal for the competition period? a. Increase strength and power gradually b. Maintain conditioning levels for competition c. Increase training intensity in preparation for competition d. Preserve strength and performance levels

D: Preserve strength and performance levels. The primary focus of the competition period is to maintain the strength and performance levels attained throughout the training program and carry them through the competitive season. Performing a maintenance schedule, as opposed to a peaking schedule, requires the athlete to train using structural and power exercises with moderate training loads and training volumes in order to sustain performance.

During the repair phase, what is the primary objective of treatment? a. Optimizing joint function b. Maintain joint mobility and increase muscular elasticity c. Prevent disruption of tissue healing d. Prevent muscle atrophy and joint deterioration

D: Prevent muscle atrophy and joint deterioration. During the repair phase of tissue healing, the treatment focus is on preventing muscle atrophy and joint deterioration. This phase must be handled delicately, as the newly regenerated tissues, primarily collagen , are still vulnerable to stress, so a low-load stress process must be undertaken while still working to prevent the joint from losing range of motion. This process will allow the joint to stabilize and the tissues to heal sufficiently to begin the next phase in healing, the remodeling phase.

-1 When would using a body-part training split be appropriate for an athlete in an off-season training program? a. Correcting muscular imbalance b. Increasing muscle size c. Reducing body fat d. Recovering from an injury

D: Recovering from an injury Using a body part split in an athletic training program is usually not the most effective method for developing an athlete, because this will limit training frequency and to a degree the movements used; as power and structural movements require large muscle groups to work together and are difficult to segment according to predominant muscle activity in X or Y selected movement. An athlete who is returning from an injury, or is currently rehabilitating an injury, can benefit from training the body parts, as this will allow the athlete to train around an injured area and still train non-affected muscles and joints. This will allow the athlete to sustain or even reach a higher level of fitness than if he were to simply rehabilitate only or avoid training altogether.

-1 If an aerobic athlete wanted to improve his anaerobic metabolism while enhancing his finishing strength at the end of a race, which of the selected methods below would provide this most effectively? a. Pace/tempo training b. Interval training c. Fartlek training d. Repetition training

D: Repetition training Repetition training is a training approach that requires an athlete to train above her VO2max using an interval approach, with each interval lasting between 30 and 90 seconds. Repetition training relies heavily on anaerobic metabolism, which will benefit the athlete's running economy, faster running speeds, and increased working capacity at higher intensity levels. Training in this manner will allow the athlete to finish races more effectively or with a better finishing kick.

Who will the strength and condition coach have direct and most frequent contact with on the sports medicine team? a. Team physician b. Nutritionist c. Exercise physiologist d. Sports physical therapist

D: Sports physical therapist. The strength and conditioning coach will have most frequent contact with the sports physical therapist or the athletic trainer. Communication between members of the medical team is essential, and the strength and conditioning coach must stay in frequent contact with the sports physical therapist or athletic trainer. Players of nay sport will have injuries, and communicating the athlete's needs is of greatest importance, not just to be able to play in the next game, but also for the athlete to effectively heal and strengthen the affected joint or muscle.

When determining what equipment to purchase for a new strength and conditioning facility, this decision should be most heavily influenced by which person? a. Athletic director b. Director of business operation c. Facility manager d. Strength and conditioning director

D: Strength and conditioning director The strength and conditioning director is responsible for the selection of the equipment for purchase. This is due to the strength and conditioning director's expertise and understanding of the athletic needs of the program participants. Of the options listed, he is the only one who will have this unique qualification and authority. This does not mean, however, that he has the final word on whether or not the equipment is purchased; budgetary constraints may limit the strength and conditioning director's options, but this is an area where communication between staff members is essential.

When evaluating high-school-aged female athletes' body composition using a skin-fold measurement procedure, what sites are tested? a. Thigh, subscapular b. Suprailiac, biceps c. Thigh, abdomen d. Suprailiac, triceps

D: Suprailiac, triceps. When testing body composition in high-school-aged female athletes, the test requires that the measurement be taken at the suprailiac and triceps sites. For high-school-aged male athletes, the testing procedure calls for the measurement to be taken at the thigh and subscapular sites. These sites allow for consistent measurement and fall in line with where young men and women from an athletic population will typically store fat.