CYSA+ Chapter 4 Review Questions

Tara recently analyzed the results of a vulnerability scan report and found that a vulnerability reported by the scanner did not exist because the system was actually patched as specified. What type of error occurred? A. False Positive B. False Negative C. True Positive D. True Negative

A - False Positive. A false positive error occurs when the vulnerability scanner reports a vulnerability that does not actually exist.

Alan is reviewing web server logs after an attacker and finds many records that contain semicolons and apostrophes in queries from end users. What type of attack should he suspect? A. SQL Injection B. LDAP Injection C. Cross-Site Scripting D. Buffer Overflow

A - SQL Injection. In a SQL injection attack, the attacker seeks to use a web application to gain access to an underlying database. Semicolons and apostrophes are characteristics of these attacks.

Which of the following is not a common source of information that may be correlated with vulnerability scan results? A. Logs B. Database Tables C. SIEM D. Configuration Management System

B - Database Tables. It is unlikely that a database table would contain information relevant to assessing a vulnerability scan report. Logs, SIEM reports, and configuration management systems are much more likely to contain relevant information.

Which one of the following terms is not typically used to describe the connection of physical devices to a network? A. IoT B. IDS C. ICS D. SCADA

B - IDS. Intrusion Detection Systems (IDSs) are a security control used to detect network or host attacks. The Internet of Things (IoT), supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) systems, and Industrial Control Systems (ICS) are all associated with connecting physical objects to a network.

Which of the following conditions would not result in a certificate warning during a vulnerability scan of a web server? A. Use of an untrusted CA B. Inclusion of a Public Encryption Key C. Expiration of the Certificate D. Mismatch in Certificate Name

B - Inclusion of a Public Encryption Key. Digital certificates are intended to provide public encryption keys, and this would not cause an error. The other circumstances are all causes for concern and would trigger an alert during a vulnerability scan.

Tom is reviewing a vulnerability scan report and finds that one of the servers on his network sufferes from an internal IP address disclosure vulnerability. What protocol is likely in use on the network that resulted in this vulnerability? A. TLS B. NAT C. SSH D. VPN

B - NAT. Although the network can support any of these protocols, internal IP disclosure vulnerabilities occur when a network uses Network Address Translation (NAT to map public and private IP addresses but a server inadvertently discloses its private IP address to remote systems.

The Dirty COW attack is an example of what type of vulnerability? A. Malicious Code B. Privilege Escalation C. Buffer Overflow D. LDAP Injection

B - Privilege Escalation. In October 2016, security researchers announced the discovery of a Linux kernel vulnerability dubbed Dirty COW. This vulnerability, present int he Linux kernel for nine years, was extremely easy to exploit and provided successful attackers with administrative control of affected systems.

Which of the following metrics is not included in the calculation of the CVSS exploitability score? A. Access Vector B. Vulnerability Age C. Access Complexity D. Authentication

B - Vulnerability Age. The CVSS exploitability score is computed using the access vector, access complexity, and authentication metrics.

Which one of the CVSS metrics would contain information about the number of times that an attacker must successfully authenticate to execute an attack? A. AV B. C C. Au D. AC

C - Au. The authentication metrci describes the authentication hurdles that an attacker would need to clear to exploit a vulnerability.

Kevin recently identified a new security vulnerability and computed its CVSS base score as 6.5. Which risk category would this vulnerability fall into? A. Low B. Medium C. High D. Critical

C - High. Vulnerabilities with a CVSS score higher than 6.0 but less than 10.0 fall into the High risk category.

Which of the following values for the CVSS access complexity metric would indicate that the specified attack is simplest to execute? A. High B. Medium C. Low D. Severe

C - Low. An access complexity of "low" indicates that exploiting the vulnerability does not require any specialized conditions.

What is the most recent version of CVSS that is currently available? A. 1.0 B. 2.0 C. 2.5 D. 3.0

D - 3.0. Version 3.0 of CVSS is currently available but is not as widely used as the more common CVSS version 2.0.

In what type of attack does the attacker place more information in a memory location that is allocated for that use? A. SQL Injection B. LDAP Injection C. Cross-Site Scripting D. Buffer Overflow

D - Buffer Overflow. Buffer overflow attacks occur when an attacker manipulates a program into placing more data into an area of memory than is allocated for that program's use. The goal is to overwrite other information in memory with instructions that may be executed by a different process running on the system.

Which of the following values for the confidentiality, integrity, or availability CVSS metric would indicate the potential for total compromise of the system? A. N B. A C. P D. C

D - C. If any of these measures is marked as C, for Complete, it indicates the potential for a complete compromise of the system.

Monica discovers that an attacker posted a message in a web forum that she manages that is attacking users who visit the site. Which one of the following attack types is most likely to have occurred? A. SQL Injection B. Malware Injection C. LDAP Injection D. Cross-Site Scripting

D - Cross-Site Scripting. In a cross-site scripting (XSS) attack, an attacker embeds scripting commands on a website that will later be executed by an unsuspecting visitor accessing the site. The idea is to trick a user visiting a trusted site into executing malicious code placed there by an untrusted third party.

What software component is responsible for enforcing the separation of guest systems in a virtualized infrastructure? A. Guest Operating System B. Host Operating System C. Memory Controller D. Hypervisor

D - Hypervisor. In a virtualized data center, the virtual host hardware runs a special operating system known as a hypervisor that mediates access to the underlying hardware resources.

Betty is selecting a transport encryption protocol for use in a new public website she is creating. Which protocol would be the best choice? A. SSL 2.0 B. SSL 3.0 C. TLS 1.0 D. TLS 1.1

D - TLS 1.1. TLS 1.1 is a secure transport protocol that supports web traffic. The other protocols have listed flaws that render them insecure and unsuitable for use.

Which one of the following protocols should never be used on a public network? A. SSH B. HTTPS C. SFTP D. Telnet

D - Telnet. Telnet is an insecure protocol that does not make use of encryption. The other protocols mentioned are all considered secure.

In what type of attack does the attacker seek to gain access to resources assigned to a different virtual machine? A. VM Escape B. Management Interface Brute Force C. LDAP Injection D. DNS Amplification

A - VM Escape. VM escape vulnerabilities are the most serious issue that can exist in a virtualized environment, particularly when a virtual host runs systems of differing security levels. In an escape attack, the attacker has access to a single virtual host and then manages to leverage that access to intrude on the resources assigned to a different virtual machine.

Which one of the following operating systems should be avoided on production networks? A. Windows Server 2003 B. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 7 C. CentOS 7 D. Ubuntu 16

A - Windows Server 2003. Microsoft discontinued support for Windows Server 2003, and it is likely that the operating system contains unpatchable vulnerabilities.