Davies Adult echo review questions missed

in the hepatic vein spectral doppler waveform, what does the s wave represent? A. early-diastolic inflow B. atrial contraction C. systolic annular motion D. septal anterior motion E. tricuspid valve closure

systolic annular motion

in AP4 which cusps can u see on the tricuspid valve

the anterior leaflet and the septal leaflet

the tricuspid valve has how many leaflets?

three

the tricuspid valve has how many cusps

three; an anterior, a posterior, and a septal cusp

if a question asks you to give an estimated ejection fraction with the information provided below what would the equation be? LVIDs 3.28 LVIDd 5.76 LVPWd 0.89 IVSd 1.14

(LVIDd^2 - LVIDs^2) / LVIDd^2 x 100 (5.76^2 - 3.28^2) / 5.76^2 x 100 (33.18 - 10.76) / 33.18 = 0.676 0.676 x 100 = 67.6% ejection fraction

if youre given this question how would u solve it (equation)? you hear the first sound at 130 mmHg and the last at 95 mmHg what is the estimated mean blood pressure?

130 + 95(2) / 3 add systolic blood pressure to the DOUBLED diastolic blood pressure divide that quantity by 3

changes in the orientation and shape of the interatrial septum are seen as the pressure changes within the atria. which of the following statements are true and why? A: Increased LAP may result in the IAS bowing more toward the right atrium B: As LAP increases, the IAS bows more prominently toward the left atrium C: With chronically increased LAP, the IAS bows towards the left atrium during diastole and systole D: Increased RAP may result in the IAS bowing toward the left atrium

A and D

the following mechanical index (MI) setting is optimal when using contrast for left ventricular opacification A. <0.3 B. 1.0 C. 1.3 D. 1.5 E. >1.5

A. <0.3 - MI settings of <0.3 provide continuous imaging of the blood pool contrast with less bubble destruction and provide optimum visualization of LV opacification

which of the following conditions is associated with aortic aneurysms? A marfan syndrome B. Ebstein anomaly C. down syndrome D. hypotension E. williams syndrome

A. Marfan syndrome marfan syndrome, cystic medial necrosis, collagen vascular disease, and hypertension are all associated with aortic aneurysms. B, ebstein anomaly is a congenital malformation in which the tricuspid valve is displaced inferiorly from its normal location. choice C is associated with endocardial cushion defects. choice D, hypotension is not a risk factor for aortic aneurysm. choice E, williams syndrome, is associated with supravalvular aortic stenosis and branch pulmonary stenosis, not aortic aneurysm.

to obtain optimal tissue doppler tracings, you would use? A. a lower power output setting B. a high gain setting C. high filter settings D. a pulsed wave doppler gate size of 10mm or greater E. a higher power output setting

A. a low power output setting

Which left ventricular segments are demonstrated in the apical four-chamber view A. anterolateral and inferoseptal B. anterior and inferior C. anteroseptal and inferolateral D. anterior and inferolateral E. anterioseptal and anterolateral

A. anterolateral and inferoseptal

high pulse repetition frequency incoporates which of the following? A. continuous wave and pulsed wave doppler B. continuous-wave doppler only C. pulsed-wave doppler only D. color doppler only E. m-mode only

A. continuous wave and pulsed wave doppler

resting echocardiogram reveals a questionable area in the apex of the LV, to investigate this finding more closely, you should do all of the following except A. decrease the transducer frequency B. increase the overall gain C. adjust the focal zone to place it at the area of interest D. decrease the TGC in the near field E. decrease the depth

A. decrease the transducer frequency

In the hepatic vein spectral doppler waveform, what does the D wave represent A. Early diastolic inflow B. atrial contraction C. systolic annular motion D. septal anterior motion E. tricuspid valve closure

A. early diastolic inflow

aortic plaques are defined as complex when their thickness is: A. greater than 4mm with clot or ulcerations B. greater than 4mm without clot or ulcerations C. less than 4m wih clot or ulcerations D. less than 3mm with or without clot or ulcerations E. less than 2mm with or without clot or ulcerations

A. greater than 4mm with clot or ulcerartions aortic plaques that are greater than 4mm in thickness and that contain clot or ulcerations are considered "vulnerable" plaques at high risk for peripheral arterial embolism

in a normal patient, tricuspid velocities will A. increase slightly with inspiration B. decrease slightly with inspiration C. increase more than 40% with inspiration D. decrease more than 40% with inspiration E. increase slightly with expiration

A. increase slightly with inspiration - as the patient inhales, the intrathoracic pressure falls and there is a slight increase in flow velocity through the tricuspid valve and pulmonary artery. when the patient exhales, the intrathoracic pressure increases and flow into the left atrium through the mitral valve and aorta increases slightly.

Resting echo of a 32 year old, well-conditioned athlete demonstrates that the septal wall is 1.4 mm and the LV posterior wall 1.6 mm. These measurements: a. indicate remodeling of the heart based on athletic status b. indicate the presence of carcinoid heart disease c. indicate the presence of dilated CMP d. indicate follow-up with stress echo e. indicate hypertrophic obstructive CMP

A. indicate remodeling of the heart based on athletic status

when attempting to identify the morphology of the right ventricle, in the apical four chamber view, what would you look for in order to distinguish the tricuspid valve from the mitral valve? A. more apical insertion of the septal leaflet of the tricuspid valve (in relation to the anterior mitral leaflet) B. more basal insertion of the septal leaflet of the tricuspid valve (in relation to the anterior mitral valve) C. superior insertion of the septal leaflet of the tricuspid valve in relation to the anterior mitral leaflet D. the presence of four distinct papillary muscles E. A and C

A. more apical insertion of the septal leaflet of the tricuspid valve (in relation to the anterior mitral leaflet) - the more apical insertion of the tricuspid septal leaflet relative to the mitral anterior leaflet distinguishes the right ventricle. the tricuspid valve is more apical in location compared to the mitral valve.

what should you do when you are evaluating the mitral valve for stenosis using proximal isovelocity surface area (PISA)? A. shift the baseline up, allowing additional velocities to be displayed in the flow away from the transducer B. shift the baseline down, allowing additional velocities to be displayed in the flow toward the transducer C. Keep the baseline at a neutral setting D. increase the color doppler scale, allowing for a decrease in frame rate E. adjust the system for the slowest frame rate

A. shift the baseline up, allowing additional velocities to be displayed in the flow away from the transducer

a patient presents for resting echo and is noted to have a normal and reactive IVC, mild aortic stenosis with a mean gradient of 28 mmHg, tricuspid regurgitation of 2.0m/sec, and mitral valve prolapse. The most accurate estimation of this patient's right ventricular pressure would be: A. 16mmHg B. 19mmHg C. 20mmHg D. 21mmHg E. 23 mmHg

B. 19mmHg the estimated for right ventricular systolic pressure is calculated by the formula RSVP = 4v^2 + RA pressure, where v = TR max velocity and RA= right atrium. when the IVC has a normal diameter and is reactive, the estimated normal pressure is 3mmHg

in a patient with bradycardia, all of the follwing would help to increase the patient's heart rate EXCEPT: A. Inhaling amyl nitrite B. Holding his or her breath for 90 seconds C. Performing a series of handgrips D. Performing Valsalva maneuvers E. A and C

B. Holding his or her breath for 90 seconds this is the only maneuver listed that would not increase the heart rate

The pericardium consists of two layers. which of the following best describes the visceral layer? A. a thin fibrous structure that is apposed to the pleural surfaces laterally B. a layer that is contiguous with the epicardial surface of the heart C. the muscle layer of the heart D. the inner lining of the cardiac chambers that makes up valve tissue E. the layer apposed to the endothelial lining of the cardiac chambers

B. a layer that is contiguous with the epicardial surface of the heart - the pericardium consists of two layers that surround a potential space adjacent to the heart- the parietal and visceral layers. the parietal layer is attached to the pleural surface, and the visceral layer is contiguous with the epicardial surface of the heart

which left ventricular segments are demonstrated in the apical two chamber view? A. anterolateral and inferoseptal B. anterior and inferior C. anteroseptal and inferolateral D. anterior and inferolateral E. anteroseptal and anterolateral

B. anterior and inferior

the doppler measurements required to calculate the continuity equation for aortic valve area should be obtained from which of the following views? A. parasternal short axis B. apical C. subcostal short axis D. parasternal long-axis E. subcoastal long-axis

B. apical provides the best opportunity to interrogate at a 0 degree (180degree) doppler angle

after you have administered an echocardiographic contrast agent, the images display multiple bright nea-field echoes with shadowing occurring over the rest of the image. this is most likely due to A. having the mechanical index set too low B. contrast attenuation artifact C. ring-down artifact D. having the mechanical index set too high E. reverberation

B. contrast attenuation artifact

in a normal patient, mitral velocities will A. increase slightly with inspiration, varying less than 10% B. decrease slightly with inspiration varying less than 10% C. increase more than 40% with inspiration D. decrease more than 40% with inspiration E. increase more than 40% with expiration

B. decrease slightly with inspiration, varying less than 10% upon inspiration, intrathoracic and intrapericardial pressures will decrease. this will result in increased right ventricular filling and stroke volume as blood flows to the lungs. since the pericardial space is limited, one will see a compensatory decrease in the left ventricular velocities and stroke volumes. with expiration the intrathoracic and intrapericardial pressures increase, resulting in an increase in left ventricular velocities and filling and a slight decrease in right ventricular diastolic filling.

In which stage of dobutamine infusion does contractility begin to change? A. at mid-dose infusion B. during low-dose infusion C. at peak dose infusion D. 1 minute post infusion E. 3 minutes post infusion

B. during low dose infusion

in which of the following clinical scenarios would color m-mode imaging NOT be valuable? A. evaluating mitral inflow B. evaluating the severity of ebstein anomaly C. evaluating mitral valve flutter with regurgitation D. evaluating for systolic anterior motion E. evaluating the width of an aortic regurgitant jet

B. evaluating the severity of ebstein anomaly

the mitral valve is composed of all of the following except: A. chordae tendineae B. fibrous bands C. mitral annuli D. papillary muscles E. leaflet scallops

B. fibrous bands - the mitral apparatus is composed of the mitral valve leaflets, chordae tendinea, papillary muscles, and mitral annulus. fibrous bands can be found in the pericardial space of some patients with pericardial effusions. the mitral valve is septophobic and does not attach to the interventricular septum.

evaluating higher-velocity blow flow with color doppler requires A. lower prf B. higher prf C. lower scale setting D. higher scale setting

B. higher prf

which answer correctly describes a true ventricular aneurysm? A. it results in a hole between ventricles B. it is lines with a thin layer of myocardium C. it is lined with a thin layer of epicardium D. it has a wall composed of pericardium E. it has a narrow neck

B. it is lined with a thin layer of myocardium

attenuation artifacts associated with contrast usage are especially prevalent with A. agitated saline B. perfluorocarbon-based agents C. microbubble agents D. contrast inpatients older than 50 years old

B. perfluorocarbon-based agents

When evaluating a patient with an enlarged coronary sinus, you should check for: A. Kawasaki disease B. persistent left superior vena cava C. interupted inferior vena cava D. wall-motion abnormality due to ischemia E. takayasu's arteritis

B. persistent left superior vena cava - a dilated coronary sinus may indicate a persistent left superior vena cava. a persistent left superior vena cava receives blood from the left arm veins and drains into the coronary sinus, increasing blood volume and therby enlarging the coronary sinus

the correct equation for calculating ejection fraction is A. stroke volume multiplies by heart rate B. stroke volume divided by end diastolic volume C. cardiac output divided by body surface area D. left ventricular end-diastolic volume subtracted from left ventricular end systolic volume E. systolic blood pressure subtracted from diastolic blood pressure

B. stroke volume divided by end diastolic volume

the major advantage of using preprocessing rather than postprocessing functions is that: A. the pixel size increases with preprocessing functions B. the spatial resolution is increased with preprocessing functions C. the frame rate increases with preprocessing adjustments D. the temporal resolution increases with preprocessing adjustments E. the spatial resolution is decreased with preprocessing functions

B. the spatial resolution is increased with preprocessing functions

Which of the following is needed to assess the mean inflow gradient in a case of tricuspid stenosis? A. peak velocity B. velocity-time integral C. pressure half-time D. deceleration time E. acceleration time

B. velocity time integral

in which of the following scenarios might it be necessary to increase the pulsed-wave doppler sample volume to 5 mm in order to obtain accurate measurements. A. when assessing tissue perfusion B. when performing tissue doppler C. when differentiating between artifact and left ventricular thrombus D. when obtaining 2D measurements to calculate the continuity equation

B. when performing tissue doppler

how does microbubble contrast interact with doppler technology? A Microbubbles will burst when subjected to doppler imaging B. microbubbles will cancel the doppler shift C. microbubbles will create a range of frequency shifts detectable by doppler D. microbubbles will not interact with doppler functions E. microbubbles will cause the doppler signal to be much weaker and harder to see

C. Microbubbles will create a range of frequency shifts detectable by doppler

which left ventricular segments are demonstrated in the apical long axis view? A. anterolateral and inferoseptal B. anterior and inferior C. anteroseptal and inferolateral D. anterior and inferolateral E. anteroseptal and anterolateral

C. anteroseptal and inferolateral

auscultation of your patient has revealed an Austin flint murmur. which valve do you suspect to be abnormal? A. tricuspid B. pulmonic C. aortic D. bicuspid valve E. mitral valve

C. aortic valve an Austin flint murmur includes a short ejection murmur, an early-diastolic decrescendo murmur, and a mid-diastolic murmur over the cardiac apex and indicated the presence of aortic insufficiency

You are conducting resting echocardiography. you need to utilize doppler technology for all the required parts of this exam, EXCEPT: A. calculation of the ejection fraction B. calculation of fractional shortening C. evaluation of central venous pressure D. assessment of valvular regurgitation E. assessment of left ventricular volume

C. evaluation of central venous pressure

what would be the most likely result of lowering the color threshold? A. increased visibility of small vessel flow in a parenchymal organ B. decreased flash artifact C. increased color writing on the vessel or cardiac wall D. increased frame rate

C. increased color writing on the vessel or cardiac wall - the threshold controls the brightness of the shade of gray that the color is allowed to overwrite. if the threshold is lowered, it is more likely that the color will overwrite the vessel of cardiac wall. axial resolution in color doppler almost always is poorer than that in b mode.

compared to 2-D imaging, m-mode: A. interrogates along multiple lines of interrogation B. provides more rapid anatomic screening capabilities C. provides higher temporal resolution D. is less axis dependent E. provides 3D information

C. provides higher temporal resolution

the technology involved in acquiring color m-mode images is best described by which of the following statements? A. CW doppler is performed in conjunction with m-mode B. power doppler is performed in conjunction with m-mode C. PW doppler is performed along a single line of interrogation D. m-mode is performed using multiple lines of interrogation E. color doppler information is transposed with m-mode

C. pulsed wave doppler is performed along a single line of interrogation

a sinus of valsalva aneurysm in the right coronary sinus usuallyu protrudes into the A LA B. LV C. right ventricular outflow tract D. RA E.RV

C. right ventricular outflow tract

in a patient with a patent ductus arteriosus, what other factor must be known in order to calculate the right ventricular systolic pressure (RVSP)? A. right atrial pressure B. IVC reactivity C. systolic blood pressure D. left atrial pressure E. diastolic blood pressure

C. systolic blood pressure the equation for calculating right ventricular systolic pressure in the presence of a patent ductus arteriosus is systolic blood pressure - 4v^2 = RVSP (where v = velocity measured in milliseconds)

pulmonary vein inflow is best assessed with pulsed wave doppler at the A. tips of the mitral valve leaflets B. tips of the pulmonic valve leaflets C. upper pulmonary vein 1-2 cm deep D. superior vena cava 2-4cm deep E. pulmonary artery 1-2cm after the valve tips

C. upper pulmonary vein 1-2 cm deep

in a patient with a large ventricular septal defect, you would expect a Qp/Qs value of: A. 1:1 B. 1.2:1 C. 1:1.5 D. 2.6:1 E. 1.3:2

D. 2.6:1 Qp/Qs ratio <1.5 small 1.5-2.0 moderate >2.0 large

sinus of valsalva aneurysms can be caused by A. infection B. marfan syndrome C. aortic insufficiency D. A and B only E. a,b, and c

D. A and B only sinus of Valsalva aneurysms can be congenita; or acquired. congenital sinus of Valsalva aneurysms are often associated with connective tissue disorders like marfan syndrome, acquired sinus of Valsalva aneurysms are also associated with connective tissue disorders with infectious courses (such as bacterial endocarditis), which can lead to tissue weakening and development of aneurysms.

the fourth heart sound represents A. closure of the mitral valve B. closure of the tricuspid valve C. closure of both the aortic and pulmonic valve D. atrial contraction

D. atrial contraction - is associated with a poorly complaint ventricle

a patient's performance of a Valsalva maneuver during resting echocardiography would have all of the following hemodynamic effects except A, decreased cardiac output B. decreased stroke volume C. increased murmur in a patient with idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) D. cessation of flow across the mitral valve E. A and C

D. cessation of flow across mitral valve cardiac pressures- not physiologic maneuvers- regulate the opening and closure of the cardiac valves

which statement is true for the term blood pressure? A. it's reported in cm H2O unless otherwise specified B. it is constant throughout the cardiac cycle C. it represent and can be used interchangeably with the term blood flow D. it represents the force exerted by the blood against any unit area of the vessel wall E. it is the same as hydrostatic pressure

D. it represents the force exerted by the blood against any unit area of the vessel wall

a 65 year old patient with exertional angina is referred for stress echo. during the rest time period there are no regional wall abnormalities present. during acquisition of the postexercise images, a wall motion abnormality is noted in the mid and apical segments of the anteroseptal wall in the apical long axis view. this most likely denotes hemodynamically significant stenosis in the: A. right coronary artery B. posterior descending artery C. circumflex artery D. left anterior descending artery E. coronary sinus

D. left anterior descending artery LAD provides blood supply to the apical lateral, apical cap, apical anterior, apical anteroseptal, and basal anteroseptal segments

the great cardiac vein and the small anterior cardiac vein drain the right and left ventricles into which of the following? A. right ventricle B. left ventricle C. left atrium D. right atrium E. superior vena cava

D. right atrium

which of the following findings would be associated with aortic dissection? A. an aortic valve area of 1.0cm^2 B. a left ventricular outflow tract diameter of 1.9cm C. a left ventricular wall measurement of 5mm D. wall motion abnormalities associated with obstruction of the right coronary artery territory E. aortic stenosis

D. wall motion abnormalites wall motion abnormalities may be present when the false lumen obstructs the coronary artery ostia. this results in decreased flow to the myocardium and on echo manifests as RWMA

Having a patient stand from supine position would cause which of the following physiologic changes? A. decreased stroke volume B. decreased cardiac output C. increased stroke volume D. increased cardiac output E. A and B

E. A and B

which of these m-mode findings would be detected in a patient with aortic regurgitation? A. diastolic echoes in the left ventricular outflow tract B. systolic flutter of the interventricular septum C. fine systolic flutter of the aortic cusps D. fine diastolic flutter of the aortic cusps E. A and D

E. A and D

which of the following actions would be appropriate to correct doppler aliasing? A. increase the scale setting B. decrease the scale setting C. decrease the baseline D. lower the frequency E. A, C, and D

E. A, C, and D

which of the following is associated with mitral stenosis? A. pan-systolic murmur B. blowing early diastolic murmur C. opening snap murmur D. systolic ejection murmur with crescendo-decrescendo E. B and C

E. B and C the murmur associated with mitral stenosis is a blowing early-diastolic murmur associated with blood flow through the stenotic valve and an opening snap associated with leaflet rebound

which of the following best describes a pseudoaneurysm? A. a hole between the two ventricles B. a hyperdynamic left ventricular wall with exaggerated systolic contour C. a dyskinetic region with abnormal diastolic contour D. laminated thrombus along the ventricular wall E. a contained ventricular rupture

E. a contained ventricular rupture - a hole between the ventricular wall due to ischemia would be a VSD -choice b is just describing wall motion - choice c describes the appearance of a ventricular aneurysm

which artifact is most likely to manifest itself in a patient with severe valve stenosis? A. reverberation B. shadowing C. crosstalk D. beam averaging E. aliasing

E. aliasing

what m-mode findings would you expect with a flail mitral valve? A. mitral leaflets noted in the left atrium during systole B. fine systolic flutter of the mitral valve C. coarse, chaotic diastolic flutter of the anterior or posterior mitral leaflet D. noncoaptation of the anterior and posterior mitral valve leaflets E. all of the above

E. all of the above

which of the following is considered to be an echocardiographic criteria diagnostic for an aortic dissection? A. vessel wall plaque greater than 1.5mm B. lumen narrowing greater than 50% C. peak systolic velocity greater than 220cm/sec D. a regurgitant fraction of 30% E. opposite doppler color flow patterns in true and false luminae

E. opposite doppler color flow patters in true and false luminae this is one of the major echocardiographic findings with aortic dissection. additional echocardiographic findings are echogenic linear structures separate from the aortic wall, a dilated aortic lumen, and the visualization of an echogenic intimal flap

the third heart sound represents A. closure of the mitral valve B. closure of the tricuspid valve C. closure of both the pulmonic and aortic valve D. atrial contraction E. rapid early-diastolic filling of the left ventricle

E. rapid early diastolic filling of the left ventricle - is heard in patients with a dilated left ventricle

an 18 year old patient presents with dyspnea. Blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. echo shows a bidirectional mid-interatrial septal shunt. the IVC is dilated and nonreactive. the tricuspid regurgitation is 4.0 m/sec. which statement below is accurate? A. the RVSP is 1/5 the systemic pressure B. RVSP is 1/4 the systemic pressure C. the RVSP is 1/3 the systemic pressure D. the RVSP is 1/2 the systemic pressure E. The RVSP is near the systemic pressure

E. the RVSP is near the systemic pressure

a true aneurysm is lined with

Thin myocardium

what leaflets are seen on the tricuspid valve in the.... RVIT PLAX view APICAL view PSAX view

anterior and posterior septal and anterior all 3 optimally

what are the two great arteries of the heart?

aorta and pulmonary artery. the aorta delivers oxygenated blood to the body, and the pulmonary artery delivers deoxygenated blood to the lungs

the following calculation helps to categorize the severity of shunt flow A. dP/dt B. Qp/Qs C. aortic valve area D. pressure half time E. PISA

b. Qp/Qs

where is the basilar area of the ventricles

closest to the atrioventricular valves

what am i describing? collects blood from several smaller veins to for one vein and function as the main vein of the heart. i enter the right atrium

coronary sinus

which of the following will not cause an artifactual, contrast-free region to appear on ultrasound images? A. papillary muscles B. fibrosis C. cystic abscess D. High MI settings E. dense calcification

cystic abscess

having a patient perform a squat would result in all of the following physiologic effects except A. increased stroke volume B. increased cardiac output C. decreased stroke volume D. increased aortic insufficiency E. decreased blood volume returning to the heart

decreased stroke volume squatting would increase stroke volume,cardiac output, and (if present) aortic insufficiency as well as decreasing blood volume returning to the heart

which of the following adjustments will lower the power output of the ultrasound machine? A. decreasing overall gain B. increasing overall gain C. increasing frequency D. decreasing the mechanical index E. increasing the mechanical index

decreasing the mechanical index

what is the infundibulum?

funnel-shaped passage leading directly out of the right ventricle.

utilization of high pulse repetition frequency in order to rvaluate for valve stenosis requires that the sample volume is placed at A. the area of interest B. twice the depth of the area of interest C. half of the depth of the area of interest D. a quarter of the depth of interest

half of the depth of the area of interest

flash artifact is typically caused by what

high amplitude but low frequency shift signal

causes of pericardial effusion

infection, cancer, trauma, and autoimmune diseases

what is pericarditis and what can cause it

inflammation of the pericardium. Infection, uremia, trauma, and myocardial infarction

in a left-sided aortic arch, what are the three most important/primary branches?

innominate artery, left carotid and left subclavian -bc right cca and subclavian come off of the innominate aka brachiocephalic trunk

what is the weakest point of the aorta? Explain why

isthmus, the isthmus is located just after the third branch of the aortic arch- the left subclavian- and in the region where the ductus arteriosus entered in the fetus. this area is considered the weakest point of the aorta and is a location sonographers should interrogate closely when evaluating for a dissection.

a sinus of Valsalva aneurysm in the left coronary sinus usually protrudes into the

left atrium

if you set your pulsed-wave doppler scale at the maximum setting but still encounter aliasing, what can be done?

maximize the PRF, shift the baseline down, and use the lowest frequency, then lastly utilize a CW doppler probe

Which of the following doppler measurements must be obtained to calculate the stroke volume of the mitral valve? A. tricuspid valve velocity-time integral (VTI) B. mitral valve mean gradient C. mitral valve diameter D. mitral valve VTI E. peak C-wave velocity of the hepatic vein

mitral valve VTI

The most superior and lateral cardiac valve is the A. Mitral valve B. pulmonic valve C. tricuspid valve D. aortic valve

pulmonic valve

the coronary sinus returns blood to the

right atrium