E102 Final Exam Prep

An abortion occurs when the fetus and placenta deliver before: A. 20 weeks. B. 26 weeks. C. 28 weeks. D. 24 weeks.

A. 20 weeks.

A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the: A. proximal femur. B. pubic symphysis. C. femoral shaft. D. pelvic girdle.

A. proximal femur.

After squeezing the end of a child's finger or toe for a few seconds, blood should return to the area within: A. 2 seconds. B. 3 seconds. C. 4 seconds. D. 5 seconds.

A. 2 seconds.

Femoral shaft fractures can result in up to _____ mL of internal blood loss. A. 1,000 B. 1,500 C. 2,000 D. 4,000

A. 1,000

What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult? A. 12-20 breaths/min B. 15-30 breaths/min C. 40-60 breaths/min D. 25-50 breaths/min

A. 12-20 breaths/min

Which of the following patients should be assigned an immediate (red tag) category? A. 22-year-old male with blunt abdominal trauma, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis B. 29-year-old female with a back injury and numbness and tingling in her extremities C. 31-year-old male with an open fracture of the forearm and minimal external bleeding D. 36-year-old female with an open brain injury, agonal breathing, and a slow pulse rate

A. 22-year-old male with blunt abdominal trauma, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis

Blood pressure is usually not assessed in children younger than _____ years. A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

A. 3

Which of the following represents a low normal systolic blood pressure for a 6-year-old child? A. 82 mm Hg B. 88 mm Hg C. 90 mm Hg D. 98 mm Hg

A. 82 mm Hg

A person's ability to shiver is lost when his or her body temperature falls below: A. 90°F (32°C). B. 92°F (33°C). C. 94°F (34°C). D. 95°F (35°C).

A. 90°F (32°C).

What is the function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle? A. Allows movement of the head B. Allows flexion of the neck C. Connects the scapulae together D. Facilitates chest movement

A. Allows movement of the head

Which of the following defines the term "hazardous material"? A. Any material that poses a threat to life, health, or property B. Any material that is radioactive C. Any material that is explosive or flammable D. Any material that is poisonous if ingested

A. Any material that poses a threat to life, health, or property

Your patient is complaining of chest pain. He states it feels just like his last heart attack. You have applied oxygen with no relief. He does not take any medications. His BP is 88/64, pulse is 100, and respirations are 20. Your treatment should include. A. Aspirin B. Nitroglycerin C. albuterol MDI D. epinephrine

A. Aspirin

Which of the following sets of vital signs would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with acute cocaine overdose? A. BP, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 150 beats/min B. BP, 60/40 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min C. BP, 190/90 mm Hg; pulse, 40 beats/min D. BP, 180/100 mm Hg; pulse, 50 beats/min

A. BP, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 150 beats/min

Which of the following statements regarding cerebral palsy is correct? A. Conditions such as brain injury at birth, postpartum infections, and fetal hypoxia can cause cerebral palsy. B. Most cases of cerebral palsy develop within the first 10 years of life and are typically caused by meningitis. C. Approximately 25% of patients with cerebral palsy possess some varying degrees of developmental delay. D. A key clinical feature of cerebral palsy is paralysis of the respiratory muscles, which confines the patient to a ventilator.

A. Conditions such as brain injury at birth, postpartum infections, and fetal hypoxia can cause cerebral palsy.

The maxilla and zygoma are components of the _____________. A. Face B. Skull C. Spine D. Extremities

A. Face

In which of the following situations would external bleeding be the MOST difficult to control? A. Femoral artery laceration & a BP of 140/90 mm Hg B. Jugular vein laceration & a systolic BP of 90 mm Hg C. Carotid artery laceration & a systolic BP of 60 mmHg D. Antecubital vein laceration & a BP of 138 mm Hg

A. Femoral artery laceration & a BP of 140/90 mm Hg

During your assessment of a 50-year-old male who was found unresponsive in an alley, you note that he has slow, shallow respirations; bradycardia; facial cyanosis; and pinpoint pupils. As your partner begins assisting the patient's ventilations, he directs your attention to the patient's arms, which have multiple needle tracks on them. Which of the following would MOST likely explain the patient's presentation? A. Heroin overdose B. Alcohol intoxication C. Closed head injury D. Delirium tremens

A. Heroin overdose

___________ pressure is the pressure exerted by a liquid that occurs when blood moves through an artery at relatively high pressures. A. Hydrostatic B. Diffusion C. Osmotic D. Oncotic

A. Hydrostatic

Which of the following statements regarding the use of the warning lights and siren on the ambulance is correct? A. If it is necessary to use the siren, you should tell the patient beforehand. B. Warning lights and siren should be avoided, even if the patient is unstable. C. If the patient is stable, you may use the warning lights without the siren. D. It is generally acceptable to increase your speed if lights and siren are in use.

A. If it is necessary to use the siren, you should tell the patient beforehand.

Which of the following would cause the greatest increase in cardiac output? A. Increased heart rate and increased stroke volume B. Decreased stroke volume and increased heart rate C. Decreased heart rate and increased stroke volume D. Decreased stroke volume and decreased heart rate

A. Increased heart rate and increased stroke volume

Which of the following is true regarding injury to the kidneys? A. Injury to the kidneys usually indicates injury to other organs. B. Only minimal force is needed to damage the kidneys. C. The kidneys are not well protected. D. Kidney injuries are rarely caused by blunt trauma.

A. Injury to the kidneys usually indicates injury to other organs.

How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems? A. It forces the alveoli open and pushes more oxygen across the alveolar membrane. B. It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung tissue. C. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for the lungs to expand.

A. It forces the alveoli open and pushes more oxygen across the alveolar membrane.

Which of the following assessment findings is MOST indicative of a cardiovascular problem? A. Jugular venous distention B. Palpable pain to the epigastrium C. Unequal breath sounds D. Use of the accessory muscles

A. Jugular venous distention

The five vertebrae that form the midback are called the: A. Lumbar spine. B. Coccyx. C. Sacral spine. D. Thoracic spine.

A. Lumbar spine.

Which of the following assessment findings should concern the EMT the MOST when assessing a child who experienced a seizure? Select one: A. Neck stiffness B. Tachycardia C. High fever D. Short postictal phase

A. Neck stiffness

Which of the following is NOT a pertinent negative to note during your assessment of a patient with chest trauma? A. No heart murmurs B. No associated shortness of breath C. No rapid breathing D. No areas of deformity

A. No heart murmurs

Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? A. Off-line B. Radio C. Direct D. Online

A. Off-line

Which of the following statements regarding patients with autism spectrum disorders is​ TRUE? A. Patients with ASD may not be able to adapt to the demands of a particular​ situation, and so EMTs must be the ones to adapt. B. Patients with ASD are generally immune to diseases that affect the general population. C. Patients with ASD are flexible in unfamiliar circumstances. D. Patients with ASD behave in much the same way as most other people.

A. Patients with ASD may not be able to adapt to the demands of a particular​ situation, and so EMTs must be the ones to adapt.

Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: A. Plasma B. Platelets C. Whole blood D. Red blood cells

A. Plasma

Which of the following statements regarding plasma is correct? A. Plasma transports the blood cells and nutrients. B. Most of the body's plasma is contained within the large veins. C. Plasma has no role in the body's blood-clotting mechanism. D. Approximately 45% of the blood is composed of plasma.

A. Plasma transports the blood cells and nutrients.

While providing CPAP to a patient in severe respiratory distress, you note that his heart rate has increased by 20 beats/min. He is conscious, but is no longer following verbal commands. You should: A. Remove the CPAP device and ventilate him with a bag-valve mask. B. Remove the CPAP device and apply oxygen by nonrebreathing mask. C. Decrease the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering. D. Increase the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering.

A. Remove the CPAP device and ventilate him with a bag-valve mask.

The ___________ portion of the spinal column is joined to the iliac bones of the pelvis. A. sacrum B. coccyx C. lumbar D. thoracic

A. Sacrum

Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations? A. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg. B. Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety. C. Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia. D. Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85%.

A. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg.

Which layer of the skin is composed of fatty tissue and serves as an insulator for the body? A. Subcutaneous B. Epidermis C. Dermal D. Sebaceous

A. Subcutaneous

Which of the following statements regarding suctioning of a newborn's mouth and oropharynx is correct? A. Suctioning is indicated prior to cutting the cord if respiratory distress is present. B. If the head delivers facedown, the mouth and nose should be suctioned at once. C. Suctioning should be performed on all newborns immediately following delivery. D. Newborns rapidly expel fluid from their lungs and do not require suctioning.

A. Suctioning is indicated prior to cutting the cord if respiratory distress is present.

You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle-versus-pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do? A. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital. B. Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parents to arrive and give consent. C. Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for treatment. D. Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital.

A. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital.

Following blunt trauma to the face, a 21-year-old male complains of a severe headache and decreased ability to move his eyes. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: A. a blowout fracture. B. a lacerated globe. C. optic vessel compression. D. a ruptured eyeball.

A. a blowout fracture.

Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term used to describe: A. a group of symptoms that are caused by myocardial ischemia. B. the warning signs that occur shortly before a heart attack. C. a severe decrease in perfusion caused by changes in heart rate. D. the exact moment that a coronary artery is completely occluded.

A. a group of symptoms that are caused by myocardial ischemia.

The mesentery is: A. a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body. B. a complex network of blood vessels that supply blood to the liver. C. the point of attachment between the small and large intestines. D. a layer of thick skeletal muscles that protects the abdominal organs.

A. a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body.

Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a narcotic overdose. B. a respiratory infection. C. an overdose of aspirin. D. high blood glucose levels.

A. a narcotic overdose.

An indicator of an expanding intracranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is: A. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs. B. a progressively lowering blood pressure. C. an acute increase in the patient's pulse rate. D. acute unilateral paralysis following the injury.

A. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.

Insulin is produced when: A. absorbed carbohydrates stimulate the beta cells of the pancreas. B. the alpha cells of the pancreas sense a decrease in blood glucose. C. the metabolization of glucose in the brain significantly decreases. D. complex carbohydrates stimulate the alpha cells of the pancreas.

A. absorbed carbohydrates stimulate the beta cells of the pancreas

Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by: A. adequate amounts of surfactant. B. water or blood within the alveoli. C. surfactant-destroying organisms. D. pulmonary capillary constriction.

A. adequate amounts of surfactant.

You are transporting a 40-year-old male with respiratory distress. The patient tells you that he recently had a positive tuberculosis (TB) skin test and is currently being evaluated for possible TB. You should: A. apply a nonrebreathing mask on the patient and a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator on yourself. B. remain at least 3 feet away from the patient and apply a surgical mask on him. C. apply a sterile surgical mask on yourself and a HEPA respirator on the patient. D. apply a nasal cannula on the patient and a sterile surgical mask on yourself.

A. apply a nonrebreathing mask on the patient and a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator on yourself.

During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approximately 40 minutes. You should: A. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse. B. make two or three attempts to restore distal circulation by manipulating the elbow. C. splint the elbow in the position of deformity and transport immediately. D. carefully straighten the injured arm and secure it with padded board splints.

A. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse.

In moving joints, the ends of the bones are covered with: A. articular cartilage. B. synovial tendons. C. muscular fascia. D. gliding cartilage.

A. articular cartilage.

You are treating a patient with an apparent emotional crisis. After the patient refuses treatment, you tell him that you will call the police and have him restrained if he does not give you consent. Your actions in this case are an example of: A. assault B. battery C. negligence D. abandonment

A. assault

A 30-year-old male was rescued after being lost in the woods for approximately 18 hours. The outside temperature is 30°F (-1°C). He is immediately placed in the warmed ambulance, where you perform a primary assessment. He is unresponsive, pale, and apneic. You should: A. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds. B. apply chemical heat packs to his groin and axillae. C. open his airway and give two rescue breaths. D. apply an AED and assess his cardiac rhythm.

A. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds.

Upon delivery of an infant's head, you note that the umbilical cord is wrapped around its neck. You should: A. attempt to slip the cord gently over the infant's head. B. provide free-flow oxygen to the infant and transport. C. give high-flow oxygen to the mother and transport. D. immediately clamp and cut the umbilical cord.

A. attempt to slip the cord gently over the infant's head.

Elderly patients with diabetes commonly develop neuropathy, which predisposes them to: A. atypical acute coronary syndrome. B. a massive hemorrhagic stroke. C. an increased risk of septic shock. D. poor healing following an injury.

A. atypical acute coronary syndrome

A person's response to their environment is defined as ____________. A. behavior B. activities C. crisis D. emergency

A. behavior

A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being: A. bilateral. B. proximal. C. medial. D. unilateral.

A. bilateral.

Patients with generalized hypothermia are at an increased risk of a local cold injury because: A. blood is shunted away from the extremities to the body's core. B. peripheral vasodilation brings warm blood to the skin's surface. C. the major muscles of the body become rigid during hypothermia. D. the patient is usually unable to escape the cold ambient temperature.

A. blood is shunted away from the extremities to the body's core.

The diving reflex may allow a person to survive extended periods of submersion in cold water secondary to: A. bradycardia and a slowing of the metabolic rate. B. laryngospasm that protects the lungs from water. C. tachycardia and lowering of the blood pressure. D. increases in the metabolic rate and oxygen demand.

A. bradycardia and a slowing of the metabolic rate.

The organs most severely affected by air embolism are the: A. brain and spinal cord. B. brain and heart. C. heart and lungs. D. brain and lungs.

A. brain and spinal cord.

The _________ is the best-protected part of the CNS and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory systems. A. brain stem B. cerebellum C. spinal cord D. cerebral cortex

A. brain stem

Common hazards associated with a structural fire include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. carbon dioxide deficiency. B. high ambient temperatures. C. decreased oxygen availability. D. the risk of building collapse.

A. carbon dioxide deficiency.

The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the health care setting can usually be traced to: A. careless handling of sharps. B. a lack of proper immunizations. C. excessive blood splashing or splattering. D. a noncompliance with standard precautions.

A. careless handling of sharps.

The umbilical cord: A. carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein. B. separates from the placenta shortly after birth. C. carries blood away from the baby via the artery. D. contains two veins and one large umbilical artery.

A. carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein.

A temporary loss or alteration of part or all of the brain's abilities to function without physical damage to the brain MOST accurately describes a(n): A. cerebral concussion. B. cerebral contusion. C. intracerebral hematoma. D. intracranial hemorrhage.

A. cerebral concussion.

The _________ contain(s) about 75% of the brain's total volume. A. cerebrum B. cerebellum C. brain stem D. meninges

A. cerebrum

The three major parts of the brain are the: A. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem. B. cerebellum, medulla, and occiput. C. brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord. D. midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord.

A. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem.

Children with N meningitides would MOST likely present with: A. cherry-red spots or a purplish rash. B. a low-grade fever and tachycardia. C. hypothermia and an irregular pulse. D. a generalized rash with intense itching.

A. cherry-red spots or a purplish rash.

With regard to the assessment of a patient's cardiovascular status, capillary refill time is MOST reliable in: A. children who are younger than 6 years of age. B. patients who are significantly hypotensive. C. children who are older than 6 years of age. D. patients with decreased peripheral perfusion

A. children who are younger than 6 years of age.

You are attending to a 28-year-old female patient in labor. Her newborn baby boy has just been delivered, and you have dried and wrapped the newborn in a clean blanket. The umbilical cord has stopped pulsating. Based on this information, you should now: A. clamp the cord utilizing two clamps, placed approximately 6 inches from the newborn and 2 to 4 inches apart. B. clamp the cord, utilizing one clamp approximately 6 inches from the newborn and cut it on the maternal side of the clamp. C. pull the cord, utilizing a consistent fore and wrap in a clean towel. D. wrap the cord in a clean towel and transport mother and newborn together.

A. clamp the cord utilizing two clamps, placed approximately 6 inches from the newborn and 2 to 4 inches apart.

Often the most important intervention for sexual assault patient is _____ and transport to a facility with staff specially trained to deal with this scenario. A. comforting reassurance B. excellent assessment skills C. bandaging skills D. emotional sympathy

A. comforting reassurance

Stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors results in: A. constriction of the blood vessels. B. increased cardiac contractility. C. increased heart rate. D. dilation of the blood vessels.

A. constriction of the blood vessels

Capnography is used to: A. determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled. B. assess how much oxygen is bound to the hemoglobin. C. trend a patient's blood pressure and assess for shock. D. assess how much oxygen is reaching the body's tissues.

A. determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled.

The accumulation of ketones and fatty acids in blood tissue can lead to a dangerous condition in diabetic patients known as: A. diabetic ketoacidosis. B. insulin shock. C. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma. D. hypoglycemia.

A. diabetic ketoacidosis.

A percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) restores blood flow to the ischemic myocardium by: A. dilating the affected coronary artery with a small inflatable balloon. B. scraping fatty deposits off of the lumen of the coronary artery. C. bypassing the coronary artery with a vessel from the chest or leg. D. placing a stent inside the coronary artery to keep it from narrowing.

A. dilating the affected coronary artery with a small inflatable balloon.

_______ is heralded by the onset of convulsions, or seizures, resulting from severe hypertension in the pregnant woman. A. eclampsia B. placenta previa C. placenta abruptio D. supine hypotensive syndrome

A. eclampsia

A patient who experiences an immediate loss of consciousness followed by a lucid interval has a(n): A. epidural hematoma. B. subdural hematoma. C. concussion. D. contusion.

A. epidural hematoma.

It would be MOST appropriate to perform a focused secondary assessment on a patient who: A. fainted and fell to the ground from a standing position. B. was restrained during a high-speed motor vehicle crash. C. has blood draining from the ears following a head injury. D. struck his or her head and is experiencing nausea or vomiting.

A. fainted and fell to the ground from a standing position.

Patients with autism: A. have extreme difficulty with complex tasks that require many steps. B. prefer to maintain eye contact with whomever is talking with them. C. often speak with speech patterns that alternate in tone and speed. D. use and understand nonverbal means of communicating messages.

A. have extreme difficulty with complex tasks that require many steps.

Covering a patient's _________ will significantly minimize radiation heat loss. A. head B. chest C. abdomen D. extremities

A. head

The cervical spine is MOST protected from whiplash-type injuries when the: A. headrest is appropriately positioned. B. air bag correctly deploys upon impact. C. rear end of the vehicle is initially struck. D. patient tenses up at the time of impact.

A. headrest is appropriately positioned.

A sign of kidney damage following blunt trauma is: A. hematuria. B. hemoptysis. C. hematemesis. D. hematochezia.

A. hematuria.

In a patient with a head injury, hypertension, bradycardia, and Biot respirations indicate: A. herniation of the brain stem. B. internal bleeding in the chest. C. an underlying skull fracture. D. decreased cerebral blood flow.

A. herniation of the brain stem.

According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient is not breathing, you should: A. immediately check for a pulse. B. triage him or her as expectant. C. give five rescue breaths and reassess. D. open the airway and reassess breathing.

A. immediately check for a pulse.

"Nerve gases" overstimulate normal body functions that are controlled by parasympathetic nerves, causing: A. increased salivation. B. pupil dilation. C. decreased urination. D. decreased lacrimation.

A. increased salivation.

Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. increased surface area available for air exchange. B. decreased residual volume. C. increased stiffness of the thoracic cage. D. a loss of respiratory muscle mass.

A. increased surface area available for air exchange.

Shivering is a mechanism in which the body generates heat by: A. increasing the metabolic rate B. decreasing the use of oxygen C. decreasing metabolic rate D. retaining excess carbon dioxide

A. increasing the metabolic rate

The cricoid cartilage: A. is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea. B. is easier to see and palpate than the thyroid cartilage. C. lies superior to the thyroid cartilage in the neck. D. lies superior to the cricothyroid membrane in the neck.

A. is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea.

In contrast to delirium, dementia: A. is usually considered irreversible. B. is the result of an acute condition. C. is reversible with certain treatment. D. often develops over a period of days.

A. is usually considered irreversible.

You have just delivered a premature baby. Your assessment reveals that he is breathing adequately; however, his heart rate is 90 beats/min. You should: A. keep him warm and provide ventilatory assistance. B. begin chest compressions and reassess in 30 seconds. C. clamp and cut the umbilical cord and keep him warm. D. assess his skin color and give free-flow oxygen as needed.

A. keep him warm and provide ventilatory assistance.

The stooped posture of some older people, which gives them a humpback appearance, is called: A. kyphosis. B. arthritis. C. scoliosis. D. miosis.

A. kyphosis

The conjunctiva are kept moist by fluid produced by the: A. lacrimal gland. B. optic chiasma. C. posterior orbit. D. corneal duct.

A. lacrimal gland.

In contrast to abruptio placenta, placenta previa: A. may not present with heavy vaginal bleeding. B. may present without significant abdominal pain. C. is caused by hypertension or abdominal trauma. D. is typically associated with severe abdominal pain.

A. may not present with heavy vaginal bleeding.

A body part that lies closer to the mid-line when compared to another is considered to be: A. medial. B. distal. C. lateral. D. proximal.

A. medial.

Anaphylaxis is not always life threatening, but it typically involves: A. multiple organ systems B. wheezing C. urticaria D. wheals

A. multiple organ systems

When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should: A. palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful. B. ask the patient to point to the area of pain or tenderness and assess for rebound tenderness over that specific area. C. visually assess the painful area of the abdomen, but avoid palpation because this could worsen his or her condition. D. observe for abdominal guarding, which is characterized by sudden relaxation of the abdominal muscles when palpated.

A. palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful.

A spinal cord injury at the level of C7 would MOST likely result in: A. paralysis of the intercostal muscles. B. paralysis of the diaphragm. C. immediate cardiac arrest. D. paralysis of all the respiratory muscles.

A. paralysis of the intercostal muscles.

A 2-year-old child who has no recent history of illness suddenly appears cyanotic and cannot speak after playing with a small toy. You should: A. perform abdominal thrusts. B. visualize the child's airway. C. perform a blind finger sweep. D. give oxygen and transport at once.

A. perform abdominal thrusts.

A 67-year-old female presents with difficulty breathing and chest discomfort that awakened her from her sleep. She states that she has congestive heart failure, has had two previous heart attacks, and has been prescribed nitroglycerin. She is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. Her blood pressure is 94/64 mm Hg and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Treatment for this patient includes: A. placing her in an upright position. B. ventilations with a BVM. C. nitroglycerin for her chest pain. D. oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.

A. placing her in an upright position.

Upon arrival at a search-and-rescue incident, the EMS crew should _________. A. prepare the equipment to carry to the patient B. provide the incident commander with the crew's names and certification level(s) C. split up and request a search grid D. begin searching for the patient

A. prepare the equipment to carry to the patient

Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it: A. prevents the aggregation of platelets. B. dissolves the coronary artery clot. C. causes direct coronary vasodilation. D. reduces the associated chest pain.

A. prevents the aggregation of platelets.

Fetal complications associated with drug- or alcohol-addicted mothers include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. profound tachycardia. B. respiratory depression. C. premature delivery. D. low birth weight.

A. profound tachycardia.

Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should: A. properly dispose of the syringe. B. record the time and dose given. C. reassess the patient's vital signs. D. notify medical control of your action.

A. properly dispose of the syringe.

High air temperature reduces the body's ability to lose heat by: A. radiation. B. convection. C. conduction. D. evaporation.

A. radiation.

What type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies? A. scanner B. simplex station C. mobile repeater D. duplex station

A. scanner

When a female has reached menarche: A. she is capable of becoming pregnant. B. she can no longer produce an ovum. C. she usually requires hormone therapy. D. menstrual periods become less frequent.

A. she is capable of becoming pregnant.

Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as: A. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. B. labored breathing with reduced tidal volume. C. a complete cessation of respiratory effort. D. a marked increase in the exhalation phase.

A. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.

A tube from the brain to the abdomen that drains excessive cerebrospinal fluid is called a: A. shunt. B. G-tube. C. CS tube. D. cerebral bypass.

A. shunt.

Which of the following joints allows no motion? A. skull sutures B. sacroiliac joint C. shoulder joint D. sternoclavicular joint

A. skull sutures

You should be MOST suspicious that a patient has experienced a significant head injury if his or her pulse is: A. slow. B. weak. C. rapid. D. irregular.

A. slow.

In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system: A. slows the heart and respiratory rates. B. prepares the body to handle stress. C. dilates the blood vessels in the muscles. D. causes an increase in the heart rate.

A. slows the heart and respiratory rates.

A 52-year-old male presents with a fever of 102.5°F and a severe headache. As you assess him, you note the presence of multiple blisters on his face and chest, which are all identical in shape and size. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: A. smallpox. B. sarin toxicity. C. yellow fever virus. D. cutaneous anthrax.

A. smallpox.

You and your partner are preparing to apply a traction splint to a patient's deformed thigh. As you apply manual traction, the patient resists your efforts and states that the pain is getting worse. You should: A. stop and splint the leg in the deformed position B. assess distal pulses and continue pulling traction C. gently massage the thigh muscles to relax them D. flex the knee and place a pillow under the thigh

A. stop and splint the leg in the deformed position

During delivery of the baby's head, you should suction the mouth before the nose because: A. suctioning the nose first may cause the baby to gasp and aspirate fluid. B. it is easier to suction larger volumes of fluid from the baby's oropharynx. C. babies are primarily mouth breathers and do not breathe through their nose. D. the mucosa of the nose is fragile and is easily damaged by vigorous suctioning.

A. suctioning the nose first may cause the baby to gasp and aspirate fluid.

Signs and symptoms of a sympathomimetic drug overdose include: A. tachycardia. B. hypothermia. C. hypotension. D. slurred speech.

A. tachycardia.

Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient: A. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin. B. markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose. C. eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion. D. misses one or two prescribed insulin injections.

A. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin.

Motion of the mandible occurs at the: A. temporomandibular joint B. mastoid process C. chin D. mandibular ankle

A. temporomandibular joint

The "Golden Hour" begins when an injury occurs and ends when: A. the patient receives definitive care. B. the patient is admitted to the ICU. C. you depart the scene for the hospital. D. you arrive at the emergency department.

A. the patient receives definitive care.

Abruptio placenta occurs when: A. the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. B. the placenta affixes itself to the outer layer of the uterus. C. the placenta develops over and covers the cervical opening. D. a tear in the placenta causes severe internal hemorrhage.

A. the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall.

The Adam's apple is: A. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage. B. the lower part of the larynx that is formed by the cricoid cartilage. C. the small indentation in between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages. D. below the thyroid cartilage and forms the upper part of the trachea.

A. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage.

The descending aorta divides into the two iliac arteries at the level of the: A. umbilicus. B. nipple line. C. pubic symphysis. D. iliac crest.

A. umbilicus.

The chemical attacks that occurred in Tokyo between 1994 and 1995 were carried out by a(n): A. violent religious group. B. extremist political group. C. single-issue terrorist group. D. group of domestic terrorists.

A. violent religious group.

Distension of the abdomen is gauged by: A. visualization B. auscultation C. palpation D. the patients complaint of pain around the umbilicus.

A. visualization

Heat loss from the body through respiration occurs when: A. warm air is exhaled into the atmosphere. B. the core body temperature is greater than 98°F (37°C). C. cool air is inhaled and displaces warm air. D. air temperature is greater than body temperature.

A. warm air is exhaled into the atmosphere.

Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when: A. wheezing and hypotension are present. B. the patient is anxious and tachycardic. C. a paramedic is present at the scene. D. the reaction produces severe urticaria.

A. wheezing and hypotension are present.

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients: A. with a systolic blood pressure less than 100 mm Hg. B. with chest pain of greater than 30 minutes duration. C. who are currently taking antibiotics for an infection. D. who are younger than 40 years of age and have diabetes.

A. with a systolic blood pressure less than 100 mm Hg.

Common signs and symptoms of diabetic coma include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. warm, dry skin. B. cool, clammy skin. C. rapid, thready pulse. D. acetone breath odor.

B. cool, clammy skin.

Which of the following factors would MOST likely cause a patient's pulse rate to be slower than normal? A. Anxiety or severe stress B. Beta-blocker medications C. Internal bleeding from trauma D. Lack of a regular exercise routine

B. Beta-blocker medications

A man was found unresponsive in his bed at home. There is no evidence of injury and the patient's medical history is not known. The patient's face is cyanotic, yet the pulse oximeter reads 98%. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this? A. Severe pulmonary edema B. Carbon monoxide poisoning C. His extremities are cold D. Increased body temperature

B. Carbon monoxide poisoning

Which of the following is NOT a function of the sympathetic nervous system? A. Increases in the heart and respiratory rates B. Constriction of blood vessels in the muscles C. Constriction of blood vessels in the digestive system D. Dilation of blood vessels in the muscles

B. Constriction of blood vessels in the muscles

The mastoid process is located approximately: A. ½ inch anterior to the external opening of the ear. B. 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear. C. 1 inch posterior to the angle of the mandible. D. 1 inch inferior to the external opening of the ear.

B. 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear.

In general what is the maximum amount of acute blood loss the adult body can tolerate? A. 2 liters B. 20% of total blood volume C. 10% of total blood volume D. 12 pints

B. 20% of total blood volume

Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing? A. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor B. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin C. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis D. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin

B. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin

Which of the following patients is breathing adequately? A. 36-year-old man with cyanosis around the lips and irregular respirations B. 29-year old woman with respirations of 20 breaths/min, who is conscious and alert C. 22-year-old man with labored respirations at a rate of 28 breaths/min and pale skin D. 59-year-old woman with difficulty breathing, whose respirations are rapid and shallow

B. 29-year old woman with respirations of 20 breaths/min, who is conscious and alert

An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than: A. 200 psi. B. 500 psi. C. 1,000 psi. D. 1,500 psi.

B. 500 psi.

Febrile seizures are MOST common in children between: A. 3 months and 4 years. B. 6 months and 6 years. C. 8 months and 8 years. D. 18 months and 10 years.

B. 6 months and 6 years.

Shortly after you load you patient, a 50-year-old man with abdominal pain, into the ambulance, he tells you that he changed his mind and does not want to go to the hospital. The patient is conscious and alert and has no signs of mental incapacitation. You are suspicious that the man has a significant underlying condition and feel strongly that he should go to the hospital Which of the following statements regarding this situation is correct? A. Once the patient is i the ambulance, he cannot legally refuse EMS treatment. B. A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time. C. Any patient who refuses EMS treatment must legally sign a patient refusal form. D. Because of your suspicions, the best approach is to transport him to the hospital.

B. A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time.

What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly? A. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate. B. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange. C. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations. D. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar- capillary membrane.

B. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange.

Which of the following statements regarding the physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem is correct? A. It is only appropriate to perform a physical examination on a patient with a behavior problem if he or she is unconscious or is being physically restrained. B. Although the physical can be difficult, the patient's emotional state may be determined by noting facial expressions, pulse rate, and respirations C. The physical examination of a patient with a behavior problem of ten yields crucial information and should always be performed, even if the patient is violent. D. Performing a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem will likely cause him or her to becomes violent and should be avoided in the field.

B. Although the physical can be difficult, the patient's emotional state may be determined by noting facial expressions, pulse rate, and respirations

Causes of delirium in the older patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. acute hypovolemia. B. Alzheimer disease. C. low blood sugar level. D. decreased cerebral perfusion

B. Alzheimer disease.

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylaxis is correct? A. Patients with asthma are at lower risk of developing anaphylaxis. B. Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension. C. Most anaphylactic reactions occur within 60 minutes after exposure. D. The signs of anaphylaxis are caused by widespread vasoconstriction.

B. Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension.

Which of the following medications is commonly given to patients with chest pain to prevent blood clots from forming or getting bigger? A. Furosemide (Lasix) B. Aspirin C. Oxygen D. Digoxin (Lanoxin)

B. Aspirin

Which of the following is the MOST reliable method of estimating a patient's cardiac output? A. Connect the patient to an electrocardiogram. B. Assess the heart rate and strength of the pulse. C. Determine the average diastolic blood pressure. D. Listen to heart sounds with a stethoscope.

B. Assess the heart rate and strength of the pulse.

General guidelines for managing a patient with a behavioral emergency include: A. Placing the patient between yourself and an exit B. Being prepared to spend extra time with the patient C. Allowing the patient to be alone if he or she wishes D. Firmly identifying yourself as an EMS provider

B. Being prepared to spend extra time with the patient

Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence? A. Transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training B. Deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury. C. Providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMTs. D. Transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will.

B. Deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury.

Which of the following statements regarding diabetic coma is correct? A. Diabetic coma can be prevented by taking smaller insulin doses. B. Diabetic coma typically develops over a period of hours or days. C. Patients with low blood glucose levels are prone to diabetic coma. D. Diabetic coma rapidly progresses once hyperglycemia develops.

B. Diabetic coma typically develops over a period of hours or days.

Which of the following systems is responsible for releasing hormones that regulate body activities? A. Nervous B. Endocrine C. Skeletal D. Reproductive

B. Endocrine

___________ is defined as over breathing to the point that the level of arterial carbon dioxide fails below normal. A. Reactive air syndrome B. Hyperventilation C. Tachycardia D. Pleural effusion

B. Hyperventilation

Which of the following breathing patterns is MOST indicative of increased intracranial pressure? A. Increased rate with a normal inspiratory time and a prolonged expiratory time B. Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea C. Increased rate and depth with the distinct odor of acetone on the patient's breath D. Slow, shallow, occasional gasps that progress to prolonged periods of apnea

B. Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea

Which of the following statements about compartment syndrome is NOT true? A. It occurs 6 to 12 hours after an injury. B. It most commonly occurs with a fractured femur. C. It is usually a result of excessive bleeding, a severely crushed extremity, or the rapid return of blood to an ischemic limb. D. It is characterized by pain that is out of proportion to the injury.

B. It most commonly occurs with a fractured femur.

When interacting with a patient with​ autism, which of the following statements is​ TRUE? A. Use as much detail as possible when giving directions. B. Ask primarily​ open-ended questions. C. Place a reassuring hand on the​ patient's shoulder when speaking. D. Minimize as many unplanned experiences as possible.

B. Minimize as many unplanned experiences as possible.

Which of the following statements regarding nitroglycerin is correct? A. A maximum of five nitroglycerin doses should be given to a patient. B. Nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes. C. The potency of nitroglycerin is increased when exposed to light. D. Nitroglycerin should be administered between the cheek and gum.

B. Nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes.

Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct? A. The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase. B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries. C. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries. D. Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has a low carbon dioxide content.

B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries.

The diaphragm is innervated by the _______ nerve, which allows it to contract. A. Hypoglossal B. Phrenic C. Vagus D. Vestibulocochlear

B. Phrenic

Which of the following has the HIGHEST priority at a hazardous materials incident? A. Providing patient care B. Protecting the safety of all rescuers and patients C. Decontaminating clothing, equipment, and the vehicle D. Immediately removing patients from a hazardous area

B. Protecting the safety of all rescuers and patients

During transport of a 40-year-old female with acute abdominal pain, you note that she has stopped talking to you and has become extremely diaphoretic. You should: A. Assess the quality of her pulse. B. Repeat the primary assessment. C. Begin assisting her ventilations. D. Perform a secondary assessment.

B. Repeat the primary assessment.

Which of the following is considered a type of motor vehicle collision? A. Ejection B. Rollover C. Crush D. Penetration

B. Rollover

Which of the following veins is located inferior to the trunk? A. Axillary B. Saphenous C. Subclavian D. Cephalic

B. Saphenous saphenous vein, the longest in the body, runs down the medial leg.

Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is typically unique to infants and children? A. Irregular breathing pattern B. Seesaw respirations C. Unequal breath sounds D. Unequal chest expansion

B. Seesaw respirations

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely be encountered in a patient with cerebral palsy? A. Paralysis B. Seizure disorder C. Type 2 diabetes D. Brain tumors

B. Seizure disorder

When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the: A. Cardiac Output Pressure B. Systolic Blood Pressure C. Diastolic Blood Pressure D. Pulse Pressure

B. Systolic Blood Pressure

Which of the following statements regarding the rule of nines is correct? A. A child's head is equal to 14% of his or her total BSA B. The anterior trunk of an adult is equal to 18% of the BSA C. The anterior arm in the adult is equal to 9% of the total BSA D. The posterior of a child's leg is equal to 13.5% of the BSA

B. The anterior trunk of an adult is equal to 18% of the BSA

Which of the following MOST accurately describes hyperthermia? A. The core body temperature exceeds 99.5°F (37°C). B. The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose. C. Heat evaporates a significant amount of body water. D. The body eliminates more heat than it can generate.

B. The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose.

Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. Gestational diabetes will clear up in most women after delivery. B. The leading cause of abruptio placenta is an ectopic pregnancy. C. As pregnancy progresses, the uterus enlarges and rises out of the pelvis. D. Some cultures may not permit male EMTs to examine a female patient.

B. The leading cause of abruptio placenta is an ectopic pregnancy.

Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? A. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B. B. There is no vaccine against HIV infection. C. HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field. D. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood.

B. There is no vaccine against HIV infection.

Age-related changes in the renal system result in: A. the formation of large amounts of urine secondary to an increase in kidney mass of up to 20%. B. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed. C. a significant increase in filtration, which causes the excretion of large amounts of water from the body. D. dilation of the blood vessels that supply the nephrons, which allows the kidneys to maintain their function.

B. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed.

When administering naloxone (Narcan) via the intranasal route, the EMT should administer: A. at least 2 mL into each nostril. B. a half dose into each nostril. C. a minimum of 2.5 mg. D. a maximum of 0.5 mL.

B. a half dose into each nostril.

The EMT should be MOST concerned when a child presents with fever and: A. chills. B. a rash. C. ear pain. D. a headache.

B. a rash.

Compared to adults, infants and children are at higher risk for hypothermia for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: A. a decreased ability to shiver. B. a relatively small surface area. C. a smaller amount of body fat. D. a smaller overall muscle mass.

B. a relatively small surface area.

Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system would result in: A. tachycardia. B. a slower heart rate. C. a strong pulse. D. vasoconstriction.

B. a slower heart rate

The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) that circulates in between each meningeal layer: A. regenerating brain cells after they have been damaged. B. acts as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord. C. delivering oxygen directly to the CNS. D. producing leukocytes that protect the brain from infection.

B. acts as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord.

A 59-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of severe lower back pain. He is conscious and alert, but very restless and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his umbilicus. You should: A. vigorously palpate the abdomen to establish pain severity. B. administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport. C. place the patient in a sitting position and transport at once. D. request a paramedic unit to give the patient pain medication.

B. administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport.

A 62-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure presents with severe respiratory distress and an oxygen saturation of 82%. When you auscultate his lungs, you hear widespread rales. He is conscious and alert, is able to follow simple commands, and can only speak in two- to three-word sentences at a time. You should: A. place him in a position of comfort, deliver oxygen via nasal cannula, and closely monitor his breathing. B. apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration. C. force fluid from his alveoli by hyperventilating him with a bag-mask device at a rate of at least 20 breaths/min. D. place him in a supine position and assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device and high-flow oxygen.

B. apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration.

A patient who presents with rapid breathing, nausea and vomiting, ringing in the ears, and hyperthermia should be suspected of ingesting a significant quantity of: A. cocaine. B. aspirin. C. Tylenol. D. ibuprofen.

B. aspirin.

According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient has a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min, you should: A. look for posturing. B. assess for a distal pulse. C. assess neurologic status. D. assign an immediate category.

B. assess for a distal pulse.

While triaging patients at the scene of a building collapse, you encounter a young child who is conscious, alert, and breathing has bilateral radial pulses and has points to his severely angulated leg, which is not bleeding. According to the JumpSTART triage system, you should: A. quickly bind his legs together to stabilize the fracture, and continue triaging. B. assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients. C. evacuate him to a designated area and assign him a minimal (green) category. D. apply high-flow oxygen, obtain baseline vital signs, and continue triaging.

B. assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients.

You and your partner are treating a 66-year-old man who experienced a sudden onset of respiratory distress. He is conscious but is unable to follow simple verbal commands. Further assessment reveals that his breathing is severely labored and his oxygen saturation is 80%. You should: A. attempt to insert an oropharyngeal airway. B. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device. C. apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device and monitor his breathing. D. apply high-flow oxygen via non-rebreathing mask.

B. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device.

As you enter the residence of a patient who has possibly overdosed, you should: A. look for drug paraphernalia. B. be alert for personal hazards. C. quickly gain access to the patient. D. observe the scene for drug bottles.

B. be alert for personal hazards.

The onset of menstruation is called menarche and usually occurs in women who are: A. between 12 and 14 years of age B. between 11 and 16 years of age C. between 25 and 35 years of age D. between 45 and 50 years of age

B. between 11 and 16 years of age

When an electrical impulse reaches the AV node, it is slowed for a brief period of time so that: A. the impulse can spread through the Purkinje fibers. B. blood can pass from the atria to the ventricles. C. the SA node can reset and generate another impulse. D. blood returning from the body can fill the atria.

B. blood can pass from the atria to the ventricles.

As you are assessing a 24-year-old man with a large laceration to the top of his head, you should recall that: A. the scalp, unlike other parts of the body, has relatively fewer blood vessels. B. blood loss from a scalp laceration may contribute to hypovolemic shock in adults. C. any avulsed portions of the scalp should be carefully cut away to facilitate bandaging. D. most scalp injuries are superficial and are rarely associated with more serious injuries.

B. blood loss from a scalp laceration may contribute to hypovolemic shock in adults.

Which of the following is the LEAST reliable assessment parameter to evaluate when determining the presence of shock in infants and children? A. heart rate B. blood pressure C. skin condition D. capillary refill

B. blood pressure

The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the: A. cerebellum and brain. B. brain and spinal cord. C. cerebrum and meninges. D. meninges and spinal cord.

B. brain and spinal cord.

The inferior vena cava returns deoxygenated blood to the right side of the heart from all of the following areas, EXCEPT the: A. legs. B. brain. C. abdomen. D. kidneys.

B. brain.

Your patient has a decreased cardiac output and poor myocardial contractility. This will likely lead to_______. A. hypovolemic shock B. cardiogenic shock C. neurogenic shock D. septic shock

B. cardiogenic shock

Clouding of the lenses of the eyes is called: A. retinitis. B. cataracts. C. glaucoma. D. conjunctivitis.

B. cataracts.

Muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the: A. cerebrum. B. cerebellum. C. brain stem. D. cerebral cortex.

B. cerebellum.

A temporary loss or alteration of part or all of the brain's abilities to function without physical damage to the brain MOST accurately describes a(n): A. cerebral contusion. B. cerebral concussion. C. intracranial hemorrhage. D. intracerebral hematoma.

B. cerebral concussion.

The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the: A. thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral. B. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal. C. coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical. D. cervical, coccygeal, thoracic, sacral, and lumbar.

B. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.

The descending aorta branches into the: A. deep femoral arteries. B. common iliac arteries. C. internal carotid arteries. D. external carotid arteries

B. common iliac arteries

A 44-year-old man was struck in the back of the head and was reportedly unconscious for approximately 30 seconds. He complains of a severe headache and "seeing stars," and states that he regained his memory shortly before your arrival. His presentation is MOST consistent with a(n): A. contusion. B. concussion. C. subdural hematoma. D. intracerebral hemorrhage.

B. concussion.

You are treating a middle-aged man with chest discomfort. He has a history of three previous heart attacks and takes nitroglycerin as needed for chest pain. You have standing orders to administer aspirin to patients with suspected cardiac-related chest pain or discomfort. While your partner is preparing to give oxygen to the patient, you should: A. contact medical control, apprise him or her of the patient's chief complaint and vital signs, and request permission to give him aspirin. B. confirm that the patient is not allergic to aspirin, give him the appropriate dose of aspirin, and document the time and dose given. C. assist the patient in taking one of his prescribed nitroglycerin, assess his vital signs, and give him aspirin if he is still experiencing chest discomfort. D. ensure that the patient's systolic blood pressure is at least 100 mm Hg since aspirin dilates the blood vessels and can cause a drop in blood pressure

B. confirm that the patient is not allergic to aspirin, give him the appropriate dose of aspirin, and document the time and dose given.

The inner surface of the eyelids and the exposed surface of the eye itself are covered by a delicate membrane called the: A. retina. B. conjunctiva. C. sclera. D. cornea.

B. conjunctiva.

Dead space is the portion of the respiratory system that: A. receives oxygen but is unable to release carbon dioxide. B. contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange. C. must be filled with air before gas exchange can take place. D. includes the alveoli and capillaries surrounding the alveoli.

B. contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange.

Your presence is requested by law enforcement to assess a 33 year old female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious and obviously upset. As you are talking to her, you note an impressive amount of blood on her clothes in the groin area. Her blood pressure is 98/58 mm Hg, her pulse is 130 beats/min, and her respirations are 24 breaths/min. You should: A. arrange for a rape crisis center representative to speak with the patient. B. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once. C. visualize the vaginal area and pack the vagina with sterile dressings. D. allow her to change her clothes and take a shower before you transport.

B. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once.

A 2-year-old female has experienced a seizure. When you arrive at the scene, the child is conscious, crying, and clinging to her mother. Her skin is hot and moist. The mother tells you that the seizure lasted approximately 5 minutes. She further tells you that her daughter has no history of seizures, but has had a recent ear infection. You should: A. allow the mother to drive her daughter to the hospital. B. cool the child with tepid water and transport to the hospital. C. place the child in cold water to attempt to reduce her fever. D. suspect that the child has meningitis and transport at once.

B. cool the child with tepid water and transport to the hospital.

A young female is unconscious after intentionally ingesting a large amount of aspirin. You will MOST likely find her respirations: A. slow and deep. B. deep and rapid. C. slow and shallow. D. rapid and shallow.

B. deep and rapid.

A patient with an altered mental status; high blood glucose levels; and deep, rapid breathing may have a condition known as __________. A. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma B. diabetic ketoacidosis C. hypoglycemic crisis D. hyperglycemic crisis

B. diabetic ketoacidosis

You are requested by law enforcement to assess a "drunken patient". When you arrive at the jail, you find the patient to be unresponsive with deep, rapid respirations. His skin is warm and dry and he is incontinent of urine. There is no evidence of trauma and the patient's medical history is not known. You should suspect: A. that he had a seizure. B. diabetic ketoacidosis. C. chronic hypoglycemia. D. acute alcohol intoxication.

B. diabetic ketoacidosis.

When the body loses sweat, it also loses: A. erythrocytes B. electrolytes C. plasma D. nutrients

B. electrolytes

The anterior aspect of the cerebrum controls: A. touch. B. emotion. C. movement. D. vision.

B. emotion.

A 6-year-old male presents with acute respiratory distress. His mother states that she saw him put a small toy into his mouth shortly before the episode began. The child is conscious, obviously frightened, and is coughing forcefully. You should: A. carefully look into his mouth and remove the object if you see it. B. encourage him to cough, give oxygen as tolerated, and transport. C. deliver a series of five back blows and then reassess his condition. D. place the child in a supine position and perform abdominal thrusts.

B. encourage him to cough, give oxygen as tolerated, and transport.

Key hormones of the sympathetic nervous system include: A. acetylcholine and insulin. B. epinephrine and norepinephrine. C. glucagon and noradrenaline. D. norepinephrine and acetylcholine.

B. epinephrine and norepinephrine

Hemoglobin is a molecule that attaches to ___________ and carries oxygen. A. monocytes B. erythrocytes C. leukocytes D. thrombocytes

B. erythrocytes

Kussmaul respirations indicate that the respiratory system is: A. trying to lower the blood's pH. B. excreting ketones from the blood. C. compensating for severe hypoxia. D. removing lactic acid from the body.

B. excreting ketones from the blood

Two of the MOST common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are: A. low-caliber gunshot wounds and falls. B. falls and motor vehicle collisions. C. gunshot wounds and vehicle ejections. D. motor vehicle collisions and stabbings.

B. falls and motor vehicle collisions.

Blood that is ejected from the right ventricle: A. enters the systemic circulation. B. flows into the pulmonary arteries. C. has a high concentration of oxygen. D. was received directly from the aorta.

B. flows into the pulmonary arteries.

Injuries or conditions that would be classified as first priority (red tag immediate) include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. severe medical problems. B. fractures of multiple long bones. C. any airway or breathing difficulty. D. uncontrolled or severe hemorrhage.

B. fractures of multiple long bones.

Patients with a subarachnoid hemorrhage typically complain of a sudden severe: A. bout of dizziness. B. headache. C. altered mental status. D. thirst.

B. headache.

Diabetic coma is a life-threatening condition that results from: A. hypoglycemia, excess insulin, and dehydration. B. hyperglycemia, ketoacidosis, and dehydration. C. hypoglycemia, dehydration, and ketoacidosis. D. hyperglycemia, excess insulin, and ketoacidosis.

B. hyperglycemia, ketoacidosis, and dehydration.

The MOST significant complication associated with oropharyngeal suctioning is: A. oral abrasions from vigorous suctioning. B. hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts. C. clogging of the catheter with thick secretions. D. vomiting from stimulating the anterior airway.

B. hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts.

The body's backup system of respiratory control, which is based on low concentrations of oxygen in the blood, is called the: A. pneumotaxic drive. B. hypoxic drive. C. hypocarbic drive. D. oxyhemoglobin drive.

B. hypoxic drive

Your patient has a chronic respiratory condition. His stimulus to breathe is triggered by low oxygen levels in the blood. This is known as the ______. A. alternate drive B. hypoxic drive C. CO2 drive D. COPD drive

B. hypoxic drive

Which of the following medications would the EMT be LEAST likely to administer to a patient with a medical complaint? A. acetaminophen. B. ibuprofen. C. aspirin. D. Nitrostat.

B. ibuprofen.

After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to: A. determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions. B. identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment. C. look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion. D. find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life.

B. identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should: A. begin triage to determine injury severity. B. immediately request additional resources. C. call medical control for further direction. D. request law enforcement for traffic control.

B. immediately request additional resources.

The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract during: A. ventilation. B. inhalation. C. exhalation. D. respiration.

B. inhalation

A 25-year-old man overdosed on heroin and is unresponsive. His breathing is slow and shallow and he is bradycardic. He has track marks on both arms. The EMT should: A. administer naloxone via the intranasal route. B. insert a nasal airway and ventilate with a BVM. C. position the patient on his side and transport. D. administer naloxone via the intramuscular route

B. insert a nasal airway and ventilate with a BVM.

During your primary assessment of a semiconscious 30-year-old female with closed head trauma, you note that she has slow, irregular breathing and a slow, bounding pulse. As your partner maintains manual in-line stabilization of her head, you should: A. perform a focused secondary assessment of the patient's head and neck. B. instruct him to assist her ventilations while you perform a rapid assessment. C. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and obtain baseline vital signs. D. immediately place her on a long backboard and prepare for rapid transport.

B. instruct him to assist her ventilations while you perform a rapid assessment.

Bleeding within the brain tissue itself is called a(n): A. epidural hematoma. B. intracerebral hematoma. C. subdural hematoma. D. intracranial hematoma.

B. intracerebral hematoma.

A laceration: A. is an injury that separates various layers of soft tissue. B. is a jagged cut caused by a sharp object or blunt force trauma. C. rarely penetrates through the subcutaneous tissue to the muscle. D. is a sharp, smooth cut that is made by a surgical scalpel.

B. is a jagged cut caused by a sharp object or blunt force trauma.

In contrast to type 1 diabetes, type 2 diabetes: A. occurs when antibodies attack insulin-producing cells. B. is caused by resistance to insulin at the cellular level. C. is caused by a complete lack of insulin in the body. D. is commonly diagnosed in children and young adults.

B. is caused by resistance to insulin at the cellular level.

By placing one hand on top of your head and the other hand over your abdomen, you are asking a hearing-impaired patient if he or she: A. is hurt. B. is sick. C. needs help. D. is nauseated.

B. is sick.

In order for sweating to be an effective cooling mechanism: A. several layers of clothing must be worn. B. it must be able to evaporate from the body. C. the relative humidity must be above 90%. D. the body must produce at least 1 L per hour.

B. it must be able to evaporate from the body.

Care for a patient with a fractured tibia and suspected compartment syndrome includes: A. applying traction to maintain distal pulses B. keeping the leg at the level of the heart C. immobilizing the leg with an air splint D. applying chemical hot packs to the leg

B. keeping the leg at the level of the heart

Following direct trauma to the upper part of the anterior neck, a young male presents with labored breathing, loss of voice and subcutaneous emphysema in the soft tissues around his neck. You should suspect a(n): A. esophageal tear B. laryngeal fracture C. collapsed trachea D. crushed cricoid

B. laryngeal fracture

A 40-year-old male presents with pain to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment, you note that his skin and sclera are jaundiced. You should suspect: A. acute pancreatitis. B. liver dysfunction. C. gallbladder disease. D. renal insufficiency.

B. liver dysfunction.

The hypoxic drive—the primary stimulus to breathe for patients with certain chronic respiratory diseases—is influenced by: A. high blood oxygen levels. B. low blood oxygen levels. C. low blood carbon dioxide levels. D. high blood carbon dioxide levels.

B. low blood oxygen levels.

Continuing education in EMS serves to: A. prove research and statistical findings in prehospital care. B. maintain, update, and expand your knowledge and skills. C. enforce mandatory attendance to agency-specific training. D. provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system.

B. maintain, update, and expand your knowledge and skills.

The principal difference between a patient who has had a stroke and a patient with hypoglycemia almost always has to do with the: A. papillary response. B. mental status. C. blood pressure. D. capillary refill time.

B. mental status.

The diastolic blood pressure represents the: A. average pressure against the arterial walls during a cardiac cycle. B. minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries. C. increased arterial pressure that occurs during ventricular contraction. D. difference in pressure between ventricular contraction and relaxation.

B. minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries.

The onset of hypoglycemia can occur within: A. seconds. B. minutes. C. hours. D. days.

B. minutes.

EMTs respond to a known heroin abuser who is unresponsive. If they give naloxone (Narcan) to this patient, the EMTs should recall that: A. naloxone should be administered in increments of 2 mg. B. naloxone administration could cause seizures in this patient. C. naloxone should not be given if the patient's breathing is slow. D. the effects of naloxone last longer than most opioid drugs.

B. naloxone administration could cause seizures in this patient.

When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by: A. withholding medical history data. B. not disclosing his or her name. C. refraining from objective statements. D. using coded medical language.

B. not disclosing his or her name.

Signs and symptoms of an air embolism include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. dysphasia. B. pale skin. C. dizziness. D. joint pain.

B. pale skin.

In order to evaluate hazards present at the scene and determine the number of patients, you should: A. request the fire department at all scenes. B. perform a 360° walk-around of the scene. C. use the information provided by dispatch. D. interview bystanders present at the scene.

B. perform a 360° walk-around of the scene.

Your abdominal pain patient denies chest pain or vomiting. These findings are considered ____________. A. associated symptoms B. pertinent negatives C. irrelevant D. secondary complaints

B. pertinent negatives

You and your partner arrive at the scene where a truck has crashed into a small building, injuring eight people. You immediately request additional ambulances and begin the triage process. The first patient that you triage is a young female who is unconscious and apneic. She has an open head injury and her pulse is weak and thready. You should: A. assess the severity of her open head injury. B. place a red tag on her and continue triaging. C. begin ventilating her with a bag-mask device. D. assign her a low priority and continue triaging.

B. place a red tag on her and continue triaging.

When immobilizing a patient with a kyphotic spine to a long backboard, the EMT would MOST likely have to: A. force the head into a neutral alignment. B. place blankets behind the patient's head. C. secure the patient's head before the torso. D. use a scoop stretcher instead of a log roll.

B. place blankets behind the patient's head.

Your assessment of a 23-year-old female reveals a core body temperature of 93.4°F (34°C). She is conscious, answers your questions appropriately, is shivering, and complains of nausea. Her skin is cold and pale, her muscles appear rigid, and her respirations are rapid. You should: A. apply the AED in case she develops cardiopulmonary arrest, cover her with layers of blankets, and transport carefully. B. place heat packs to her groin, axillae, and behind her neck; cover her with warm blankets; and avoid rough handling. C. cover her with warm blankets and let her move about on the stretcher in order to generate body heat and increase her temperature. D. sit her up and give her small sips of warm water to drink, place heat packs to her axillae and groin, and cover her with blankets.

B. place heat packs to her groin, axillae, and behind her neck; cover her with warm blankets; and avoid rough handling.

Immediately life-threatening chest injuries must be found and managed during the _______. A. scene size-up B. primary assessment C. secondary assessment D. patient history

B. primary assessment

Law enforcement personnel request your assistance to assess a 31-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient sitting on a curb outside her apartment. She is conscious, alert, and crying. When you ask her what happened, she tells you that she does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. She further tells you that all she wants to do is clean up. You should: A. advise her that she cannot clean herself up because this will destroy evidence. B. provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma. C. ask her if there is anyone you can contact, such as a friend or relative. D. perform a limited hands-on assessment to detect life-threatening injuries.

B. provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma.

If the level of carbon dioxide in the arterial blood rises above normal, the patient breathes: A. normally. B. rapidly and deeply. C. slower and deeply. D. fast and shallow.

B. rapidly and deeply.

After assisting your patient with prescribed nitroglycerin, you should: A. avoid further dosing if the patient complains of a severe headache. B. reassess his or her blood pressure within 5 minutes to detect hypotension. C. perform a secondary assessment before administering further doses. D. place the patient in a recumbent position in case of fainting.

B. reassess his or her blood pressure within 5 minutes to detect hypotension.

Bone marrow produces: A. platelets. B. red blood cells. C. lymphocytes. D. electrolytes.

B. red blood cells.

End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring is clearly indicated for patients who present with: A. a headache. B. respiratory distress. C. high blood pressure. D. abdominal pain.

B. respiratory distress.

Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the: A. left atrium. B. right atrium. C. right ventricle. D. left ventricle.

B. right atrium.

The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury: A. indicates a state of decompensated shock B. should be assumed to be a sign of shock C. is most commonly caused by severe pain D. is always accompanied by hypo tension

B. should be assumed to be a sign of shock

Worn-out blood cells, foreign substances, and bacteria are filtered from the blood by the: A. liver. B. spleen. C. pancreas. D. kidney.

B. spleen

You are dispatched to a local elementary school for an injured child. As you approach the child, you note that he is lying at the base of the monkey bars. He is unresponsive and there are no signs of breathing. You should: A. begin immediate rescue breathing. B. stabilize his head and check for a pulse. C. perform a head tilt-chin lift maneuver. D. open his airway and look in his mouth.

B. stabilize his head and check for a pulse.

The purpose of defibrillation is to: A. improve the chance of CPR being successful in resuscitation. B. stop the chaotic, disorganized contraction of the cardiac cells. C. cause a rapid decrease in the heart rate of an unstable patient. D. prevent asystole from deteriorating into ventricular fibrillation.

B. stop the chaotic, disorganized contraction of the cardiac cells.

Epinephrine stimulates the ________ response, increasing blood pressure and relieving bronchospasm. A. respiratory B. sympathetic C. cardiac D. parasympathetic

B. sympathetic

The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the: A. blood pressure. B. systolic pressure. C. diastolic pressure. D. pulse pressure.

B. systolic pressure.

When assessing an 8-year-old child, you should: A. refrain from taking a blood pressure. B. talk to the child, not just the caregiver. C. use a toe-to-head assessment approach. D. rely solely on the parent for information.

B. talk to the child, not just the caregiver.

When the myocardium requires more oxygen: A. the heart contracts with less force. B. the arteries supplying the heart dilate. C. the AV node conducts fewer impulses. D. the heart rate decreases significantly.

B. the arteries supplying the heart dilate.

Heat Stroke occurs when: A. a person's core body temperature rises above 103°F (39°C). B. the body's heat-eliminating mechanisms are overwhelmed. C. a person becomes dehydrated secondary to excess water loss. D. the ambient temperature exceeds 90°F (32°C) and the humidity is high.

B. the body's heat-eliminating mechanisms are overwhelmed.

An air embolism associated with diving occurs when: A. the diver hyperventilates prior to entering the water. B. the diver holds his or her breath during a rapid ascent. C. the alveoli completely collapse due to high pressure. D. high water pressure forces air into the mediastinum.

B. the diver holds his or her breath during a rapid ascent.

When determining the exact location and position of the patient(s) in a wrecked vehicle, you and your team should routinely consider all of the following, EXCEPT: A. the position of the crashed vehicle. B. the make and model of the vehicle. C. the possibility of vehicle instability. D. hazards that pose a risk to rescuers.

B. the make and model of the vehicle.

When caring for patients with cerebral palsy, it is important to remember that: A. they are unable to walk and are totally dependent upon you. B. their limbs are often underdeveloped and are prone to injury. C. hearing aids are usually ineffective for patients with hearing loss. D. most patients have the ability to walk, but have an unsteady gait.

B. their limbs are often underdeveloped and are prone to injury.

Vigorous suctioning of a newborn's airway is indicated if: A. positive-pressure ventilations are indicated. B. there is meconium in the amniotic fluid. C. the newborn presents with labored breathing. D. his or her heart rate is less than 60 beats/min.

B. there is meconium in the amniotic fluid.

Cardiac output may decrease if the heart beats too rapidly because: A. a rapid heartbeat causes a decrease in the strength of cardiac contractions. B. there is not enough time in between contractions for the heart to refill completely. C. as the heart rate increases, more blood is pumped from the ventricles than the atria. D. the volume of blood that returns to the heart is not sufficient with fast heart rates.

B. there is not enough time in between contractions for the heart to refill completely.

According to the START triage system, which of the following patients should be triaged as an immediate priority (red tag)? A. conscious with a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min B. unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min C. apneic, despite manually opening the airway D. conscious, in severe pain, with radial pulses present

B. unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min

When communicating information over the radio, you should: A. respond professionally by saying "please" and "thank you." B. use the words "affirmative" and "negative" instead of "yes" or "no." C. limit any single transmission to 60 seconds or less and use 10 codes. D. use the patient's name only when communicating with the hospital.

B. use the words "affirmative" and "negative" instead of "yes" or "no."

General guidelines for effective radio communications include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. acknowledging a transmission as soon as possible. B. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality. C. holding the microphone about 2" to 3" from your mouth. D. speaking in a clear, calm, monotone voice.

B. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality.

Which of the following would be the MOST practical method of communicating with a hearing-impaired patient until his or her hearing aids can be located? A. attempting to use body language to determine the problem B. using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions C. using a high-pitched voice while speaking directly into the ear D. contacting dispatch and requesting a sign language interpreter

B. using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions

Which of the following physiologic actions does epinephrine produce when given for an allergic reaction? A. bronchodilation and vasodilation B. vasoconstriction and bronchodilation C. bronchoconstriction and vasoconstriction D. blocking of further histamine release

B. vasoconstriction and bronchodilation

Burn patients without airway compromise and patients with multiple bone or joint injuries should be marked with a __________ triage at a mass-casualty incident. A. red B. yellow C. green D. black

B. yellow

A 39-year-old male with a history of type 1 diabetes is found unresponsive by his wife. When obtaining initial information from the wife, which of the following questions would be LEAST pertinent? A. "Has your husband been ill or unusually stressed recently?" B. "Did your husband take his prescribed insulin and eat today?" C. "Was your husband hospitalized for this problem in the past?" D. "Has your husband's medication regimen been changed recently?"

C. "Was your husband hospitalized for this problem in the past?"

During each heartbeat, ___________ of blood is ejected from the adult heart, an amount called the stroke volume. A. 40 to 50 mL B. 90 to 100 mL C. 70 to 80 mL D. 100 to 120 mL

C. 70 to 80 mL

Which of the following is NOT an indication of inadequate breathing? A. Accessory muscle use B. Cyanosis C. A regular pattern of inspiration D. Unequal chest expansion

C. A regular pattern of inspiration

Which of the following conditions would result in the MOST rapid loss of consciousness? A. Ketoacidosis B. Diabetic coma C. Acute hypoglycemia D. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL

C. Acute hypoglycemia

Which of the following statements regarding nervous system control of the cardiovascular system is correct? A. When stimulated, the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for increasing the heart rate. B. Alpha-adrenergic receptors are located exclusively in the heart and are stimulated by epinephrine. C. Baroreceptors located throughout the body provide information to the brain regarding the blood pressure. D. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems work together to perform the same function.

C. Baroreceptors located throughout the body provide information to the brain regarding the blood pressure.

Which of the following skills would a layperson MOST likely be trained to perform before arrival of EMS? A. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway B. Administration of supplemental oxygen C. Bleeding control using a tourniquet D. Obtaining a manual blood pressure Incorrect

C. Bleeding control using a tourniquet

You have just delivered a full-term infant. His respirations are rapid and irregular, and he has a strong cry. What should you do next? A. Allow the mother to hold her baby. B. Clamp and cut the umbilical cord. C. Check the pulse rate at the the brachial artery (or umbilical pulse). D. Begin assisting the newborn's breathing.

C. Check the pulse rate at the the brachial artery (or umbilical pulse).

When would it be MOST appropriate for a patient to take his or her prescribed nitroglycerin? A. Sharp chest pain that lasts longer than 10 to 15 minutes B. An acute onset of dizziness during a period of exertion C. Chest pain that does not immediately subside with rest D. Difficulty breathing that awakens the patient from sleep

C. Chest pain that does not immediately subside with rest

Which of the following statements regarding pediatric trauma is correct? A. Children are less likely than adults to be struck by a car. B. A child's head is less frequently injured than an adult's. C. Children are more likely to experience diving-related injuries. D. Inexperience and poor judgment are rare causes of pediatric trauma.

C. Children are more likely to experience diving-related injuries.

What is typically the most important intervention that an EMT can provide to the victim of sexual assault? A. Control of vaginal bleeding B. Calling for ALS personnel C. Comfort and reassurance D. High-flow oxygen therapy

C. Comfort and reassurance

Which of the following should be established FIRST at a hazardous materials incident? A. Decon units B. Triage units C. Control zones D. Patient care areas

C. Control zones

Severe abrasion injuries can occur when motorcycle riders are slowed after a collision by road drag. Road drag is most often associated with which type of motorcycle impact? A. Head-on collision B. Angular collision C. Ejection D. Controlled crash

C. Ejection

Together, the right and left lungs contain how many lobes? A. Three B. Six C. Five D. Four

C. Five

Which of the following statements regarding hearing aids is correct? A. Over time, hearing aids can restore normal hearing. B. In-the-canal hearing aids fit in the outer part of the ear. C. Hearing aids cannot restore hearing to normal levels. D. A whistling sound indicates correct hearing aid placement.

C. Hearing aids cannot restore hearing to normal levels.

Which of the following statements regarding secondary brain injury is correct? A. It results from direct brain trauma following an impact to the head. B. Because cerebral edema develops quickly, it is considered to be a primary brain injury. C. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury. D. Signs are often present immediately after an impact to the head.

C. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury.

Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space? A. Ascending aorta B. Spleen C. Kidneys D. Gallbladder

C. Kidneys

Which of the following statements regarding sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is correct? A. Certain cases of SIDS are predictable and therefore preventable. B. SIDS is most commonly the result of an overwhelming infection. C. Most cases of SIDS occur in infants younger than 6 months. D. The cause of death following SIDS can be established by autopsy.

C. Most cases of SIDS occur in infants younger than 6 months.

Which of the following statements regarding autism is correct? A. Autism affects females four times greater than males. B. The majority of patients with autism do not speak at all. C. Most cases of autism are diagnosed by 3 years of age. D. Impairment of motor activity is a classic sign of autism.

C. Most cases of autism are diagnosed by 3 years of age.

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely cause a patient to slur words, speak very slowly, or speak in a monotone? A. advanced age B. cerebral palsy C. Parkinson disease D. visual impairment

C. Parkinson disease

A tour bus has overturned, resulting in numerous patients. When you arrive, you are immediately assigned to assist in the triage process. - Patient 1 is a middle-aged male with respiratory distress, chest pain, and a closed deformity to his right forearm. - Patient 2 is a young female who is conscious and alert, but has bilateral femur fractures and numerous abrasions to her arms and face. - Patient 3 is an older woman who complains of abdominal pain and has a history of cardiovascular disease. - Patient 4 is unresponsive, is not breathing, has a weak carotid pulse, and has a grossly deformed skull. What triage categories should you assign to these patients? A. Patient 1, immediate (red) Patient 2, minimal (green) Patient 3, delayed (yellow) Patient 4, expectant (black) B. Patient 1, delayed (yellow) Patient 2, immediate (red Patient 3, delayed (yellow) Patient 4, immediate (red) C. Patient 1, immediate (red) Patient 2, delayed (yellow) Patient 3, immediate (red) Patient 4, expectant (black) D. Patient 1, delayed (yellow) Patient 2, delayed (yellow) Patient 3, minimal (green) Patient 4, immediate (red)

C. Patient 1, immediate (red) Patient 2, delayed (yellow) Patient 3, immediate (red) Patient 4, expectant (black)

Which of the following fractures has the greatest potential for internal blood loss and shock? A. Hip B. Femur C. Pelvis D. Humerus

C. Pelvis

Which of the following should immediately increase your suspicion of a hazardous materials incident? A. An out-of-control wildfire in a wooded area B. Fire that starts on the lowest level of a structure C. Presence of a Class 1 placard D. Smoke coming from the driver area of a vehicle involved in a head-on collision

C. Presence of a Class 1 placard

Which of the following clinical signs would necessitate the administration of naloxone (Narcan)? A. Extreme agitation. B. Tachycardia. C. Slow respirations. D. Hypertension.

C. Slow respirations.

Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway? A. Rhonchi B. Rales C. Stridor D. Wheezing

C. Stridor

Which of the following statements regarding intra-abdominal bleeding is FALSE? A. Intra-abdominal bleeding often causes abdominal distention. B. Intra-abdominal bleeding is common following blunt force trauma. C. The absence of pain and tenderness rules out intra-abdominal bleeding. D. Bruising may not occur immediately following blunt abdominal trauma.

C. The absence of pain and tenderness rules out intra-abdominal bleeding.

Which of the following statements regarding the placenta is correct? A. The placenta, also referred to as the afterbirth, provides oxygen and nutrients to the fetus and is expelled from the vagina about 30 minutes before the baby is born. B. The placenta allows for the transfer of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the mother and fetus but prevents most medications from passing between the mother and fetus. C. The placenta allows oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other products to transfer between the mother and fetus but does not allow blood to mix between the mother and fetus. D. The placental barrier consists of two layers of cells and allows the mother's blood that contains high concentrations of oxygen to directly mix with the blood of the fetus.

C. The placenta allows oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other products to transfer between the mother and fetus but does not allow blood to mix between the mother and fetus.

What is 'vital capacity'? A. The volume of blood moved by each contraction of the heart B. The maximum thickness of the meninges C. The volume of air moved during the deepest points of respiration D. The amount of air left in the lungs following exhalation

C. The volume of air moved during the deepest points of respiration

You should suspect a kidney injury anytime the patient presents with _______. A. abdominal distention B. dyspnea C. a hematoma in the flank region D. nausea

C. a hematoma in the flank region

Signs of late heat stroke include: A. hot, moist skin. B. nausea and vomiting. C. a weak, rapid pulse. D. a change in behavior.

C. a weak, rapid pulse.

In addition to severe bleeding, the MOST life-threatening complication associated with an open neck injury is: A. an ischemic stroke. B. a spinal fracture. C. an air embolism. D. nerve fiber damage.

C. an air embolism.

When blood flow to a particular part of the brain is cut off by a blockage inside a blood vessel, the result is: A. a hemorrhagic stroke. B. atherosclerosis. C. an ischemic stroke. D. a cerebral embolism.

C. an ischemic stroke.

A patient is bleeding severely from a severed femoral artery high in the groin region. Which of the following would MOST likely control the bleeding? A. apply chemical ice packs to the wound and transport B. apply a pelvic binder device to stabilize the pelvis C. apply a topical hemostatic agent with direct pressure D. position the patient with his injured side down

C. apply a topical hemostatic agent with direct pressure

Despite numerous, sincere efforts to convince a 40-year-old man to consent to EMS treatment and transport, he refuses. After explaining the potential consequences of his refusal and determining that he has decision-making capacity, you ask him to sign an EMS refusal form, but he refuses to do that as well. You should: A. document the patient's refusal, but leave the refusal form blank because only the patient can legally sign it. B. advise the patient that unless he signs the refusal form, he cannot legally refuse EMS treatment or transport. C. ask a family member, law enforcement officer, or bystander to sign the form verifying that the patient refused to sign. D. sign the refusal form, include the date and time, and have your partner witness it with his or her signature.

C. ask a family member, law enforcement officer, or bystander to sign the form verifying that the patient refused to sign.

When interacting with a intellectually disabled patient, the best approach is to: A. speak primarily with the patient's family to establish the degree of disability. B. approach the patient as a team to reassure him or her that you are there to help. C. ask your team members to wait until you can establish a rapport with the patient. D. position yourself slightly above the patient's level to reduce his or her anxiety.

C. ask your team members to wait until you can establish a rapport with the patient.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 56-year-old male with an altered mental status. Upon arrival at the scene, the patient's wife tells you that he complained of chest pain the day before, but would not allow her to call EMS. The patient is semiconscious; has rapid, shallow respirations; and has a thready pulse. You should: A. attach the AED immediately. B. obtain baseline vital signs. C. begin ventilatory assistance. D. apply a nonrebreathing mask.

C. begin ventilatory assistance.

Intrapulmonary shunting occurs when: A. the presence of pulmonary surfactant causes a decrease in alveolar surface tension, thus impairing the exchange of gases in the lungs. B. a decrease in respiratory rate and depth causes carbon dioxide accumulation in the alveoli and an overall decrease in blood oxygen levels. C. blood coming from the right side of the heart bypasses nonfunctional alveoli and returns to the left side of the heart in an unoxygenated state. D. any impairment in circulatory function causes a reduced ability for oxygen and carbon dioxide to diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

C. blood coming from the right side of the heart bypasses nonfunctional alveoli and returns to the left side of the heart in an unoxygenated state.

Cerebral palsy is characterized by poorly controlled ________ movement. A. eye B. neck C. body D. extremity

C. body

The waste products of aerobic metabolism include: A. glucose and lactic acid. B. uric acid and nitrogen. C. carbon dioxide and water. D. ATP and glucose.

C. carbon dioxide and water

The primary waste product of aerobic metabolism is: A. lactic acid. B. pyruvic acid. C. carbon dioxide. D. adenosine triphosphate.

C. carbon dioxide.

The two MOST efficient ways for the body to eliminate excess heat are: A. respiration and bradycardia. B. perspiration and tachycardia. C. sweating and dilation of skin blood vessels. D. hyperventilation and tachycardia.

C. sweating and vasodilation

Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is a product of: A. heart rate and stroke volume. B. stroke volume and systemic vascular resistance. C. cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance. D. heart rate and systemic vascular resistance.

C. cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance

Coordination of balance and body movement is controlled by the: A. medulla. B. cerebrum. C. cerebellum. D. brain stem.

C. cerebellum.

The EMT should assess for hypoglycemia in small children with a severe illness or injury because: A. a child's cells do not uptake glucose as rapidly as adults' do. B. children overproduce insulin during severe illness or injury. C. children cannot store excess glucose as effectively as adults. D. illness or injury causes the pancreas to produce less insulin.

C. children cannot store excess glucose as effectively as adults.

You are attending to a 26-year-old suspected overdose patient who is unresponsive. As part of your care, you administer naloxone to reverse the effects of the suspected opioid overdose. Immediately after administering the drug you realize that while the dose and the route were correct, the patient condition did not warrant Naloxone as per your local protocols. Your most appropriate next step should be to: A. notify your medical control as quickly as possible. B. take careful notes on the patient condition so that you can accurately complete the required documentation later. C. continue to provide care for the patient and address any issues that the naloxone administration may have caused. D. discuss the situation with your partner so that it will not be repeated.

C. continue to provide care for the patient and address any issues that the naloxone administration may have caused.

The ______ connects the cricoid cartilage and thyroid cartilage. A. larynx B. cricoid membrane C. cricothyroid membrane D. thyroid membrane

C. cricothyroid membrane

The presence of subcutaneous emphysema following trauma to the face and throat is MOST suggestive of: A. esophageal injury. B. cervical spine fracture. C. crushing tracheal injury. D. carotid artery laceration.

C. crushing tracheal injury.

A patient with profuse sweating is referred to as being: A. flushed. B. plethoric. C. diaphoretic. D. edematous.

C. diaphoretic. edematous - relating to edema plethoric - excessively full flushed - reddened or ruddy appearance

Inhalation occurs when the: A. diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure. B. diaphragm and intercostal muscles ascend and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure. C. diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure. D. diaphragm ascends and the intercostal muscles contract, causing a decrease in intrathoracic pressure.

C. diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure.

Nitroglycerin relieves cardiac-related chest pain by: A. increasing the amount of stress that is placed on the myocardium. B. contracting the smooth muscle of the coronary and cerebral arteries. C. dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow. D. constricting the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow.

C. dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow.

A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the ____________ forearm. A. proximal B. superior C. distal D. dorsal

C. distal

You are attending to a 28-year-old female patient in severe respiratory distress. The patient has had a high fever all day, and the respiratory distress came on very quickly. Your patient is now sitting in a chair, leaning forward with her hands on her knees. She is making high-pitched sounds with each breath and does not seem to be moving very much air. Based on this information, your patient is likely suffering from: A. bronchiolitis. B. acute asthma. C. epiglottitis. D. foreign body airway obstruction.

C. epiglottitis.

A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, facial swelling, and a red rash on his neck and chest. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. According to the NM EMT-Basic Scope of Practice and in addition to giving him 100% oxygen, the MOST important medication for this patient is: A. a beta-antagonist B. an antihistamine C. epinephrine D. albuterol

C. epinephrine

The MOST common error associated with the use of the AED is: A. malfunction of the AED's internal computer processor. B. inability of the EMT to recognize ventricular fibrillation. C. failure of the EMT to ensure the battery is charged. D. inappropriately placed adhesive defibrillation electrodes.

C. failure of the EMT to ensure the battery is charged.

A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give a: A. falsely low systolic and diastolic reading. B. falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading. C. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading. D. falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading.

C. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading.

When assessing the heart rate of a 6-month-old infant, you should palpate the brachial pulse or ________ pulse. A. radial B. carotid C. femoral D. popliteal

C. femoral

Traction splints are used primarily to immobilize and secure fractures of the: A. hip. B. pelvis. C. femur. D. humerus.

C. femur.

Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the: A. pancreas. B. kidneys. C. gallbladder. D. stomach.

C. gallbladder.

In most children, febrile seizures are characterized by: A. a blank stare, a duration of between 15 and 30 minutes, and a prolonged postictal phase. B. unresponsiveness, complete body relaxation, a fever greater than 105°F, and a short postictal phase. C. generalized tonic-clonic activity, a duration of less than 15 minutes, and a short or absent postictal phase. D. isolated tonic-clonic activity, a duration of greater than 15 minutes, and a short postictal phase.

C. generalized tonic-clonic activity, a duration of less than 15 minutes, and a short or absent postictal phase.

Gastrointestinal bleeding should be suspected if a patient presents with: A. dyspnea B. hemoptysis C. hematemesis D. hematuria

C. hematemesis

Common side effects of nitroglycerin include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. bradycardia. B. hypotension. C. hypertension. D. severe headache.

C. hypertension.

The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is: A. diabetes mellitus. B. severe stress. C. hypertension. D. heavy exertion.

C. hypertension.

In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity? A. when distal circulation and neurological functions are absent B. if transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes C. if resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain D. if a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity

C. if resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain

Even when seatbelts are worn properly and the airbags deploy, injury may occur to the: A. chest. B. extremities. C. iliac crests. D. lower ribcage.

C. iliac crests.

You respond to a residence for a 40-year-old female who was assaulted by her husband; the scene has been secured by law enforcement. Upon your arrival, you find the patient lying supine on the floor in the kitchen. She is semiconscious with severely labored breathing. Further assessment reveals a large bruise to the left anterior chest, jugular venous distention, and unilaterally absent breath sounds. As your partner is supporting her ventilations, you should: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway. B. obtain a set of baseline vital signs. C. immediately request ALS support. D. perform a focused secondary exam.

C. immediately request ALS support.

Diastolic blood pressure tends to _______ with age. A. decrease B. compensate C. increase D. decompensate

C. increase

You are dispatched to an apartment complex where a 21-year-old female has apparently overdosed on several narcotic medications. She is semiconscious and has slow, shallow respirations. You should: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway and perform oral suctioning. B. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and transport at once. C. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation. D. place her in the recovery position and monitor for vomiting.

C. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation.

In contrast to a cerebral concussion, a cerebral contusion: A. does not cause pressure within the skull. B. results from a laceration to the brain tissue. C. involves physical injury to the brain tissue. D. usually does not cause a loss of consciousness.

C. involves physical injury to the brain tissue.

A 37-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with excessive urination and weakness of 2 days' duration. Her blood glucose level reads 320 mg/dL. If this patient's condition is not promptly treated, she will MOST likely develop: A. severe insulin shock. B. acidosis and dehydration. C. irreversible renal failure. D. hypoxia and overhydration.

C. irreversible renal failure.

The diaphragm is unique because it: A. does not receive impulses from the brain. B. is the exclusive muscle of breathing. C. is both a voluntary and an involuntary muscle. D. does not have striations like skeletal muscle.

C. is both a voluntary and an involuntary muscle

Chronic renal failure is a condition that: A. can be reversed with prompt treatment. B. occurs from conditions such as dehydration. C. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes. D. causes dehydration from excessive urination.

C. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes.

A nuchal cord is defined as an umbilical cord that: A. has separated from the placenta. B. is lacerated due to a traumatic delivery. C. is wrapped around the baby's neck. D. has abnormally developed blood vessels.

C. is wrapped around the baby's neck.

Aggressive ambulance driving may have a negative effect on other motorists because: A. they move to the right or drive as close to the curb as possible. B. they may become enraged and attempt to run you off the road. C. it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle. D. they often freeze when they see the lights in the rearview mirror.

C. it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle.

You receive a call to a residence for a sick patient. Upon your arrival, you find the patient, a 53-year-old diabetic male, lying down on his front porch. His wife tells you that he had been mowing the lawn in the heat for the past 3 hours. The patient is confused and has hot, moist skin. His pulse is weak and thready, and his blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. You should: A. perform a head-to-toe assessment and look for signs of trauma. B. place him in a sitting position and have him drink 1 L of water. C. load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions. D. administer one tube of oral glucose and reassess his mental status.

C. load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions.

Because hearing-impaired patients typically have more difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds, it is important for you to: A. try basic sign language first. B. speak in a monotone voice. C. lower the pitch of your voice. D. increase the pitch of your voice.

C. lower the pitch of your voice.

The lower jawbone is called the: A. maxillae. B. zygoma. C. mandible. D. mastoid.

C. mandible.

The upper jawbones are called the: A. mastoid. B. mandible. C. maxillae. D. zygoma.

C. maxillae.

Once the infant's head has been delivered: A. suction the infant's nose, and then the mouth. B. apply oxygen over the mother's vagina. C. suction the infant's mouth, then the nose. D. apply a nasal cannula at 3 L/min to the infant.

C. suction the infant's mouth, then the nose.

After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-injector to a 22-year-old woman with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and dissipation of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should: A. transport her rapidly, as it is obvious that she is having a severe reaction to the epinephrine. B. contact medical control and obtain authorization to administer another 0.3 mg of epinephrine. C. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine. D. consider administering 0.15 mg of epinephrine to completely resolve her allergic reaction.

C. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine.

While auscultating breath sounds of a patient who was stung multiple times by a yellow jacket, you hear bilateral wheezing over all lung fields. This indicates: A. rapid swelling of the upper airway tissues. B. a significant amount of fluid in the alveoli. C. narrowing of the bronchioles in the lungs. D. enlargement of the bronchioles in the lungs.

C. narrowing of the bronchioles in the lungs.

The respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute in an infant is ___________. A. too shallow B. too slow C. normal D. too fast

C. normal

Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they: A. have large rounded lenses. B. are not secured with a strap. C. offer little or no side protection. D. do not have shatterproof lenses.

C. offer little or no side protection.

EMTs arrive at the scene of a patient who was "found down." A family member states that she gave naloxone (Narcan) to the patient before the ambulance arrived. The EMTs should suspect that the patient: A. had a heart attack B. is having a stroke C. overdosed on an opioid drug D. is severely intoxicated

C. overdosed on an opioid drug

Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include: A. warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; and deep, slow respirations. B. cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; and deep, rapid respirations. C. pale, cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations. D. warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; and rapid respirations.

C. pale, cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations.

While triaging patients at the scene of a motor-vehicle crash, you encounter a 5-year-old child who is unresponsive and apneic. After positioning his airway, you should: A. categorize him as immediate. B. deliver 5 rescue breaths. C. palpate for a carotid pulse. D. categorize him as deceased.

C. palpate for a carotid pulse.

Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: A. AEMT. B. EMT. C. paramedic. D. EMR.

C. paramedic. (aka ALS)

A collection of fluid outside the lungs on one or both sides of the chest is called a: A. pulmonary edema. B. subcutaneous emphysema. C. pleural effusion. D. tension pneumothorax.

C. pleural effusion.

Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. thorough drying with a towel. B. some form of tactile stimulation. C. positive-pressure ventilations. D. suctioning of the upper airway.

C. positive-pressure ventilations.

Which of the following is NOT a known risk factor of SIDS? A. mother younger than 20 years B. low birth weight C. putting a baby to sleep on his or her back D. mother smoked during pregnancy

C. putting a baby to sleep on his or her back

The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by: A. retaining key electrolytes, such as potassium. B. eliminating toxic waste products from the body. C. removing sodium, and thus water, from the body. D. accommodating a large amount of blood volume.

C. removing sodium, and thus water, from the body.

When performing a reassessment of your patient, you should first: A. obtain updated vital signs. B. reassess your interventions. C. repeat the primary assessment. D. confirm medical history findings.

C. repeat the primary assessment. first part of reassessment

Prior to applying a nonrebreathing mask on a patient, you must ensure that the: A. one-way valve is sealed. B. flow rate is set at 6 L/min. C. reservoir bag is fully inflated. D. patient has reduced tidal volume.

C. reservoir bag is fully inflated.

Early signs of respiratory distress in the child include: A. cyanosis. B. bradycardia. C. restlessness. D. decreased LOC.

C. restlessness.

According to the JumpSTART triage system, infants or children not developed enough to walk or follow commands, including children with special needs: A. are treated immediately in the primary triage area and then transported. B. are initially triaged on the basis of whether or not they have distal pulses. C. should be taken to the treatment area for immediate secondary triage. D. are the first to be transported, regardless of the severity of their injuries.

C. should be taken to the treatment area for immediate secondary triage.

The electrical impulses generated by the heart originates in the: A. coronary artery. B. atrioventricular node. C. sinoatrial node. D. bundle of His.

C. sinoatrial node.

If carbon dioxide levels drops too low, the person automatically breathes: A. normally. B. rapidly and deeply. C. slower and less deeply. D. fast and shallow.

C. slower and less deeply.

Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies? A. liver B. kidney C. spleen D. pancreas

C. spleen

Cardiac output (CO) is affected by: A. blood pressure. B. heart rate only. C. stroke volume and heart rate. D. stroke volume only.

C. stroke volume and heart rate

In contrast to younger patients, older patients are more prone to a decrease in blood pressure upon standing because: A. their red blood cells are destroyed at a faster than normal rate. B. the aging process results in an overall increase in blood volume. C. the body is less able to adapt the BP to rapid postural changes. D. any change in position causes blood to be shunted to the brain.

C. the body is less able to adapt the BP to rapid postural changes. i.e. the baroreceptors have become less sensitive to blood pressure.

A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when: A. medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot. B. a small cerebral artery ruptures and causes minimal damage. C. the normal body processes destroy a clot in a cerebral artery. D. signs and symptoms resolve spontaneously within 48 hours.

C. the normal body processes destroy a clot in a cerebral artery.

Reassessment is performed to determine all of the following, EXCEPT: A. whether or not the patient is deteriorating. B. the patient's response to your treatment. C. the reason why the patient called EMS. D. the nature of any newly identified problems.

C. the reason why the patient called EMS.

A patient in respiratory arrest at the scene of a mass-casualty incident would typically be classified as a fourth priority (black tag expectant) patient, unless: A. he or she has signs of an injury to the cervical spine. B. he or she has external signs of severe thoracic trauma. C. there are at least three other patients in respiratory arrest. D. there are enough resources to provide care for him or her.

C. there are at least three other patients in respiratory arrest.

Acute pulmonary edema would MOST likely develop as the result of: A. right-sided heart failure. B. severe hyperventilation. C. toxic chemical inhalation. D. an upper airway infection.

C. toxic chemical inhalation.

Toxicology is best described as the study of _________. A. hazardous materials B. substance abuse C. toxic or poisonous substances D. overdoses

C. toxic or poisonous substances

A 70-year-old male complains of shortness of breath. During your assessment, you note that he has bilateral hearing aids. When you ask him questions related to his chief complaint, he does not answer you. You can hear a whistling sound coming from his hearing aids. You should: A. recognize that the batteries in his hearing aids are probably depleted. B. remove his hearing aids, turn up the volume, and replace them in his ears. C. try repositioning the hearing aid or remove it and turn down the volume. D. remove both of his hearing aids and use pencil and paper to communicate.

C. try repositioning the hearing aid or remove it and turn down the volume.

You are attending to a 3-year-old male patient who is presenting with severe shortness of breath. His parents report that he has had a cough and cold with a low grade fever for the past two days. They became worried today, as his level of distress has increased dramatically. On assessment, the patient is sitting upright and making high-pitched noises with each breath. Based on this information, the patient is most likely suffering from: A. inflammation of the lower respiratory tract and bronchospasm. B. inflammation of the bronchioles. C. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract. D. bacterial infection of the epiglottis.

C. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract.

Which of the following chemicals requires identification with a placard, regardless of how many pounds the shipment weighs? A. air-reactive solids B. flammable liquids C. water-reactive solids D. nonflammable gases

C. water-reactive solids

Critical incident stress management (CISM) can occur at an ongoing scene in all of the following circumstances, EXCEPT: A. when personnel are assessed during periods of rest. B. before personnel are preparing to reenter the scene. C. when patients are actively being assessed or treated. D. before leaving the scene after the incident is resolved

C. when patients are actively being assessed or treated.

When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for: A. an acute stroke. B. a febrile convulsion. C. respiratory distress. D. a seizure.

D. a seizure.

The adult epinephrine auto-injector delivers ______ mg of epinephrine, and the infant-child auto-injector delivers ______ mg. A. 0.03; 0.3 B. 0.1; 0.01 C. 0.01; 0.1 D. 0.3; 0.15

D. 0.3; 0.15

A 21-year-old male was working in an auto repair shop and sustained radiator burns to the anterior aspect of both arms and to his anterior chest. According to the rule of nines, this patient has burns that cover _____ of his BSA. A. 36% B. 45% C. 27% D. 18%

D. 18%

The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately _______ pounds per square inch (psi). A. 500 B. 1,000 C. 1,500 D. 2,000

D. 2,000

Which of the following interventions may be used to help reduce intracranial pressure? A. Supine with the legs elevated B. Increasing the patient's body temperature C. Maintaining SpO2 at 90% D. 30-degree elevation of the head

D. 30-degree elevation of the head

Normal respiratory rates should not exceed _______ breaths per minute in toddlers and _______ breaths per minute in infants. A. 18, 28 B. 20, 30 C. 30, 40 D. 40, 60

D. 40, 60

The JumpSTART triage system is intended to be used for children younger than _____ years or who appear to weigh less than _____. A. 5, 50 lb. B. 6, 70 lb. C. 7, 90 lb. D. 8, 100 lb.

D. 8, 100 lb.

A normal systolic blood pressure for a 30-year-old is between: A. 70 and 140 mm Hg. B. 80 and 120 mm Hg. C. 60 and 120 mm Hg. D. 90 and 140 mm Hg.

D. 90 and 140 mm Hg.

In which of the following situations is a pertinent negative identified? A. A 50-year-old woman states that nothing makes her chest pain better or worse. B. A 53-year-old man with dizziness also tells you that he has vomited three times. C. A 56-year-old woman states that her chest hurts when she takes a deep breath. D. A 59-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath.

D. A 59-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath.

Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct? A. Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment. B. All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport. C. Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member. D. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated.

D. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated.

In cases of sexual assault, it is important to ensure that you do which of the following? A. Immediately write down your observations of the scene before assessing the patient. B. Call for a female EMT or ALS care provider. C. Discuss with law enforcement any suspicions that you may have about the perpetrator. D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

The ability of cardiac muscle cells to contract spontaneously without a stimulus from a nerve source is called: A. Excitability. B. Contractility. C. Impulsivity. D. Automaticity.

D. Automaticity.

Which of the following statements regarding scalp lacerations is correct? A. Because the scalp is highly vascular, you should always apply a tight pressure dressing to control bleeding B. Patients who take antihypertensive medications bleed more severely from scalp lacerations C. Although deep scalp lacerations bleed profusely, they are rarely associated with skull fractures D. Blood loss from a scalp laceration may result in hypovolemic shock, especially in children

D. Blood loss from a scalp laceration may result in hypovolemic shock, especially in children

Which of the following statements regarding the blood pressure is correct? A. The systolic pressure represents ventricular relaxation. B. Blood pressure falls early in patients with hypoperfusion. C. Blood pressure is the most reliable indicator of perfusion. D. Blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age

D. Blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age

The phrenic nerves control the diaphragm and exit the spinal cord at: A. C1 and C2. B. C3 and C4. C. C1, C2, and C3. D. C3, C4, and C5

D. C3, C4, and C5

Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure? A. Pulmonary edema. B. Flat jugular veins. C. Labored breathing. D. Dependent edema.

D. Dependent edema.

A history of pelvic inflammatory disease or tubal ligations increases a woman's risk for: A. placenta previa. B. gestational diabetes. C. preeclampsia. D. an ectopic pregnancy.

D. an ectopic pregnancy.

Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence? A. Breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation B. Abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation C. Duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation D. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation

D. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation

Which of the following head injuries would cause the patient's condition to deteriorate MOST rapidly? A. cerebral contusion B. subdural hematoma C. cerebral concussion D. epidural hematoma

D. Epidural hematoma

Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? A. Informed B. Formal C. Implied D. Expressed

D. Expressed

Your patient's past medical history includes hypertension, congestive heart failure, diabetes, and seizures. Today, he presents with signs of acute renal failure. Which of his medical problems MOST likely caused this? A. Seizures B. Diabetes C. Hypertension D. Heart failure

D. Heart failure

How does positive-pressure ventilation affect cardiac output? A. There is no effect on cardiac output because positive-pressure ventilation is the act of normal breathing. B. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which facilitates venous return to the heart and increases cardiac output. C. It causes pressure in the chest to decrease, which increases stroke volume and cardiac output. D. It increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return to the heart and causes a decrease in cardiac output.

D. It increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return to the heart and causes a decrease in cardiac output.

Your work uniform is an example of what level of protection? A. Level A protection B. Level B protection C. Level C protection D. Level D protection

D. Level D protection

If a​ hearing-impaired patient is having difficulty understanding you while you are seated behind the patient in the​ ambulance, which of the following actions is​ recommended? A. Proceed directly to the physical assessment. B. Call the receiving facility to arrange for a sign language interpreter. C. Shout. D. Move to where the patient can see your face.

D. Move to where the patient can see your face

Which of the following should make the EMT consider the likelihood of a hazardous materials incident? A. An accident involving a car and a pedestrian B. Calls involving children C. A car fire D. Multiple patients with similar complaints

D. Multiple patients with similar complaints

What is the most common type of facial fracture? A. Orbit B. Mandible C. Maxilla D. Nasal

D. Nasal

Which of the following is the BEST description of a safety data sheet (SDS)? A. Papers that must accompany hazardous materials during transport B. A resource book published by the U.S. Department of Transportation for referencing hazardous materials C. A placard that must be attached to a fixed container of hazardous materials D. Papers kept on-site with hazardous chemicals

D. Papers kept on-site with hazardous chemicals

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life? A. An amputated extremity B. Bilateral femur fractures C. Nondisplaced long bone fractures D. Pelvic fracture with hypotension

D. Pelvic fracture with hypotension

Which of the following blood vessels transports oxygenated blood? A. Superior vena cava B. Pulmonary arteries C. Inferior vena cava D. Pulmonary veins

D. Pulmonary veins

Which of the following is NOT generally considered an obstetrical emergency? A. Significant bleeding after delivery of the placenta B. Failure of the placenta to deliver after 30 minutes C. More than 500 mL of blood loss before placental delivery D. Return of contractions following delivery of the baby

D. Return of contractions following delivery of the baby

Which of the following statements regarding Kussmaul respirations is correct? A. Kussmaul respirations are characterized by rapid, shallow breathing. B. It is the body's compensatory mechanism for rapidly lowering the pH. C. You should assist ventilations in all patients with Kussmaul respirations. D. The SpO2 may be normal due to an increase in respiratory rate and depth.

D. The SpO2 may be normal due to an increase in respiratory rate and depth

Which of the following statements regarding the medulla oblongata is correct? A. The medulla reduces the rate and depth of breathing if it detects an increase in carbon dioxide levels. B. The medulla's primary role is to increase the body's level of oxygen, not to decrease its level of carbon dioxide. C. The medulla is a portion of the cerebrum and primarily responds to an increase in the pH of cerebrospinal fluid. D. The medulla is sensitive to pH changes and sends messages via the phrenic nerve to contract the diaphragm.

D. The medulla is sensitive to pH changes and sends messages via the phrenic nerve to contract the diaphragm.

Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct? A. Most patients who are infected with HIV experience chronic symptoms that vary in duration and severity. B. The risk of HIV infection is high, even if an infected person's blood comes in contact with your intact skin. C. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B and is easily transmitted in the health care setting. D. The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream.

D. The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream.

Abnormal variations in pupil size and reaction would MOST likely be observed in a patient with: A. conjunctivitis. B. contact lenses. C. retinitis. D. a brain injury.

D. a brain injury.

A patient who is complaining of seeing flashing lights, specks, or "floaters" in his or her field of vision has MOST likely experienced: A. conjunctivitis. B. acute hyphemia. C. a blowout fracture. D. a detached retina.

D. a detached retina.

Information included in a radio report to the receiving hospital should include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a brief summary of the care you provided. B. a brief history of the patient's current problem. C. your perception of the severity of the problem. D. a preliminary diagnosis of the patient's problem.

D. a preliminary diagnosis of the patient's problem.

Which of the following MOST accurately describes a mass-casualty incident? A. an incident that involves more than five critically injured or ill patients B. an incident where patients have been exposed to hazardous materials C. an incident in which at least half of the patients are critically injured D. an incident that greatly taxes or depletes a system's available resources

D. an incident that greatly taxes or depletes a system's available resources

You receive a call to a daycare center for an unresponsive 8-month-old infant. Upon arrival, you perform an assessment and determine that the infant is not breathing. Your next action should be to: A. open the airway and give two rescue breaths. B. begin chest compressions and request backup. C. immediately transport the child to the hospital. D. assess for a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds.

D. assess for a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds.

Kussmaul respirations are an indication that the body is: A. trying to generate energy by breathing deeply. B. severely hypoxic and is eliminating excess CO2. C. compensating for decreased blood glucose levels. D. attempting to eliminate acids from the blood.

D. attempting to eliminate acids from the blood.

An EMT may administer aspirin to a patient if: A. the patient is believed to be experiencing an acute stroke. B. transport time to the hospital is greater than 30 minutes. C. the patient is currently experiencing hypotension. D. authorization from medical control has been obtained.

D. authorization from medical control has been obtained.

When documenting a call involving a female patient who was sexually assaulted, the EMT should: A. theorize as to why the sexual assault occurred. B. include the results of his or her internal vaginal exam. C. include a description of the suspected perpetrator. D. avoid speculation and document only factual data.

D. avoid speculation and document only factual data.

Your documentation on a sexual assault victim should _______. A. include your opinion of the nature of the incident B. describe the status of the suspect(s) C. be subjective and summarize the crime D. be objective and factual

D. be objective and factual

Hypothermia can worsen internal bleeding secondary to: A. cardiac arrhythmias. B. a decreased heart rate. C. severe muscular rigidity. D. blood clotting abnormalities.

D. blood clotting abnormalities.

The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled by the: A. cerebellum. B. cerebrum. C. cerebral cortex. D. brain stem.

D. brain stem.

When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: A. spoken in a loud voice. B. coded and scripted. C. lengthy and complete. D. brief and easily understood.

D. brief and easily understood.

Assessment of a patient with hypoglycemia will MOST likely reveal: A. sunken eyes. B. hyperactivity. C. warm, dry skin. D. combativeness.

D. combativeness.

The slow onset of progressive disorientation, shortened attention span, and loss of cognitive function is known as: A. delirium. B. delusion. C. paranoia. D. dementia.

D. dementia.

A conscious and alert 29-year-old female with a history of asthma complains of difficulty breathing that began after her morning jog. The temperature outside is 40°F (5°C). On exam, you hear bilateral expiratory wheezing. After providing 100% oxygen, you should: A. place her in a recumbent position to facilitate breathing. B. contact medical control and administer an antihistamine. C. call medical control and ask how to proceed with treatment. D. determine if she has been prescribed a beta-agonist inhaler.

D. determine if she has been prescribed a beta-agonist inhaler.

The phase of the cardiac cycle in which the ventricles fill with blood is called: A. stroke volume. B. cardiac output. C. systole. D. diastole.

D. diastole

Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity will MOST likely cause: A. referred pain. B. nausea or vomiting. C. diffuse bruising. D. distention.

D. distention.

Which of the following medications increases a person's risk of a heat-related emergency? A. Motrin B. Tylenol C. Aspirin D. diuretics

D. diuretics

The tough, fibrous outer meningeal layer is called the: A. pia mater. B. arachnoid. C. gray mater. D. dura mater.

D. dura mater.

Death from a rollover motor vehicle crash is MOST often secondary to: A. crushing injuries. B. airbag-related trauma. C. multiple collisions to the interior of the car. D. ejection of the patient from the motor vehicle.

D. ejection of the patient from the motor vehicle.

Following a stab wound to the left anterior chest, a 25-year-old male presents with a decreased level of consciousness and signs of shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings should increase your index of suspicion for a cardiac tamponade? A. widening pulse pressure B. diminished breath sounds C. a rapid, irregular pulse D. engorged jugular veins

D. engorged jugular veins

Burns in children are commonly caused by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hot items on a stovetop. B. scalding water in a bathtub. C. exposure to caustic chemicals. D. entrapment in a structural fire.

D. entrapment in a structural fire.

The bony prominence on the lateral/superior aspect of the thigh is called the: A. sacral symphysis. B. iliac crest. C. sacroiliac joint. D. greater trochanter.

D. greater trochanter

A distraction injury to the cervical spine would MOST likely occur following: A. a diving accident. B. blunt neck trauma. C. hyperextension of the neck. D. hanging-type mechanisms.

D. hanging-type mechanisms.

A 10% to 20% reduction in brain weight and volume would MOST likely increase an older person's risk for: A. stroke. B. delirium. C. dementia. D. head trauma.

D. head trauma.

Clinical findings associated with a laryngeal injury include: A. hematemesis, bulging eyes, and jugular venous distention. B. pallor, a mediastinal shift, and tracheal deviation. C. posterior neck deformity, Battle's sign, and a dry cough. D. hemoptysis, subcutaneous emphysema, and cyanosis.

D. hemoptysis, subcutaneous emphysema, and cyanosis.

Common signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. nausea. B. headache. C. tachycardia. D. hot, dry skin.

D. hot, dry skin.

Causes of infant death that may be mistaken for SIDS include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. child abuse. B. meningitis. C. severe infection. D. hyperglycemia.

D. hyperglycemia.

Contraindications for continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) include: A. being alert and able to follow commands. B. a pulse oximetry reading of less than 90%. C. a respiratory rate greater than 26 breaths/min. D. hypotension.

D. hypotension.

A 58-year-old woman fell and landed face-first on a concrete sidewalk. She is conscious, but confused. Her skin is pale, cool, and clammy; her radial pulses are weak and rapid; and her blood pressure is 72/54 mm Hg. Further assessment reveals crepitus to her left cheekbone. After administering high-flow oxygen, you should: A. perform a detailed secondary assessment, immobilize her entire spine, and establish IV access. B. place her in a sitting position on the stretcher, insert a saline lock, and reassess her blood pressure. C. apply a cervical collar only, establish two large-bore IV lines, and administer 2 liters of normal saline. D. immobilize her entire spine, establish at least one large-bore IV line, and give a 20-mL/kg crystalloid bolus.

D. immobilize her entire spine, establish at least one large-bore IV line, and give a 20-mL/kg crystalloid bolus.

Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells: A. rely solely on glucose, which is completely converted into adenosine triphosphate (ATP). B. cease metabolism altogether, resulting in carbon dioxide accumulation in the blood. C. begin to metabolize fat, resulting in the production and accumulation of ketoacids. D. incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood.

D. incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood.

Deoxygenated blood from the abdomen, pelvis, and lower extremities is returned to the right atrium via the: A. superior vena cava. B. coronary sinus vein. C. common iliac vein. D. inferior vena cava.

D. inferior vena cava

A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will MOST likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she: A. experiences multiple impacts. B. remains within the vehicle. C. is wearing only a lap belt. D. is ejected or partially ejected.

D. is ejected or partially ejected.

Early signs and symptoms of viral hepatitis include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. loss of appetite and a cough. B. vomiting, fever, and fatigue. C. pain in the muscles and joints. D. jaundice and abdominal pain.

D. jaundice and abdominal pain.

Upon arrival at a motor vehicle crash, the EMT should: A. turn off the emergency flashing lights and headlights. B. turn off the ambulance and set the emergency brake. C. park at least 300 feet away from the accident scene. D. leave only the essential warning lights activated.

D. leave only the essential warning lights activated.

An overdose of acetaminophen, the active ingredient in Tylenol, will MOST likely cause: A. CNS depression. B. gastric ulcers. C. kidney failure. D. liver failure.

D. liver failure.

Febrile seizures in a child: A. typically last less than 30 minutes. B. occur after a week of a febrile illness. C. are usually caused by viral meningitis. D. may indicate a serious underlying illness.

D. may indicate a serious underlying illness.

Prior to assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin, the EMT must: A. ensure the medication is in tablet form. B. wait at least 5 minutes after assessing the blood pressure. C. determine who prescribed the nitroglycerin. D. obtain authorization from medical control.

D. obtain authorization from medical control.

Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of: A. crack cocaine. B. amphetamine sulfate (Benzedrine). C. ecstasy. D. oxycodone (Percocet).

D. oxycodone (Percocet).

In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: A. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen. B. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion. C. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed. D. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

D. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

It can be difficult to assess the severity of injuries to the genitourinary system following sexual assault because: A. the police must collect evidence before you begin care. B. the patient typically minimizes the pain or discomfort. C. patients generally prefer to remain in a prone position. D. patients may be hesitant to allow you to examine them.

D. patients may be hesitant to allow you to examine them.

Autism is defined as a: A. psychiatric condition related to an imbalance of serotonin in the brain. B. mental disability caused by insufficient cognitive development of the brain. C. congenital condition caused by factors such as malnutrition or birth complications. D. pervasive developmental disorder characterized by impairment of social interaction.

D. pervasive developmental disorder characterized by impairment of social interaction.

General techniques for communicating with hearing-impaired patients include: A. exaggerating your lip movements to ensure the patient understands. B. speaking directly into the patient's ear with an increased voice pitch. C. removing any hearing aids and using pen and paper to ask questions. D. positioning yourself approximately 18″ directly in front of the patient.

D. positioning yourself approximately 18″ directly in front of the patient.

In relation to the wrist, the elbow is: A. medial B. lateral C. distal D. proximal

D. proximal

Patients with thrombophilia are at an increased risk for: A. various cancers. B. hemorrhagic stroke. C. acute arterial rupture. D. pulmonary embolism.

D. pulmonary embolism.

When assessing an unconscious diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the: A. patient's mental status. B. rate of the patient's pulse. C. presence of a medical identification tag. D. rate and depth of breathing.

D. rate and depth of breathing.

When caring for an elderly patient who is hearing-impaired, you should: A. speak directly into his or her ear with an elevated tone. B. remember that most hearing-impaired patients can read lips. C. request that he or she communicates with you by writing on paper. D. recall that elderly patients have difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds.

D. recall that elderly patients have difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds.

A ___________ receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency. A. scanner B. duplex C. decoder D. repeater

D. repeater

Most terrorist attacks: A. are carried out by fewer than three people. B. occur within the continental United States. C. involve the use of nuclear explosive devices. D. require multiple terrorists working together.

D. require multiple terrorists working together.

A Level 4 hazardous material: A. causes temporary damage or injury unless prompt medical care is provided. B. requires protective gear to ensure that no part of the skin's surface is exposed. C. is mildly toxic but still requires the use of a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA). D. requires specialized gear designed for protection against that particular hazard.

D. requires specialized gear designed for protection against that particular hazard.

The amount of air that remains in the lungs simply to keep them open is called the: A. tidal volume. B. inspiratory reserve volume. C. expiratory reserve volume. D. residual volume.

D. residual volume

The optic nerve endings are located within the: A. cornea. B. pupil. C. sclera. D. retina.

D. retina.

When an organ of the abdomen is enlarged, rough palpation may cause ________ of the organ. A. distension B. nausea C. swelling D. rupture

D. rupture

When assessing a patient with a head injury, you note the presence of thin, bloody fluid draining from his right ear. This indicates: A. fractures to the internal structures of the ear following direct trauma. B. a linear skull fracture and a significant increase in intracranial pressure. C. significant pressure and bleeding in between the skull and dura mater. D. rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head.

D. rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head.

You are assessing a man with suspected hypothermia. The patient is conscious and alert, and is actively shivering. His respiratory rate is increased, but his breathing is unlabored, and the pulse oximeter reads 72%. The pulse oximetry reading is MOST likely: A. accurate because shivering affects hemoglobin binding. B. a direct reflection of his increased respiratory rate. C. accurate because he has signs of respiratory failure. D. secondary to decreased perfusion in the extremities

D. secondary to decreased perfusion in the extremities

Which condition is likely when signs of hypotension; tachycardia; and cool, clammy skin are found? A. intracranial bleeding B. internal bleeding C. CNS depression D. shock

D. shock

When assessing a patient with a hemothorax, you will MOST likely find: A. jugular venous engorgement. B. ipsilateral tracheal deviation. C. distant or muffled heart tones. D. signs and symptoms of shock.

D. signs and symptoms of shock.

Jugular venous distention suggests a problem with blood returning to the heart if the patient is: A. in a supine position. B. in a prone position. C. in a recumbent position. D. sitting up at a 45° angle.

D. sitting up at a 45° angle.

A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition? A. rupture of the diaphragm B. exacerbation of his COPD C. acute pulmonary embolism D. spontaneous pneumothorax

D. spontaneous pneumothorax

During your secondary assessment of a 30-year-old male who fell 25 feet, you note crepitus when palpating his pelvis. Your partner advises you that the patient's blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak. After completing your assessment, you should: A. perform a focused physical exam with emphasis on the pelvis. B. log roll the patient onto a long backboard and transport at once. C. defer spinal immobilization and transport to a trauma center. D. stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine.

D. stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine.

The EMT's role at the scene of a search and rescue attempt is to: A. accompany search team members and provide care. B. reassure the family members of the missing person. C. report to a location where the patient will be carried. D. stand by at the command post until the person is located.

D. stand by at the command post until the person is located.

Hypoglycemia can mimic conditions such as: A. cystic fibrosis. B. myocardial infarction. C. high fever. D. stroke.

D. stroke.

The presence of air in the soft tissues of the neck that produces a crackling sensation is called: A. the "Rice Krispy" effect B. a pneumothorax C. rales D. subcutaneous emphysema

D. subcutaneous emphysema

Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include: A. altered mental status and bradycardia. B. unilateral paralysis and slurred speech. C. anxiety, dizziness, and severe bradypnea. D. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities.

D. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities.

The principal clinical difference between a stroke and hypoglycemia is that patients with hypoglycemia: A. always take oral medications to maintain normal blood glucose levels. B. do not present with slurred speech or weakness to one side of the body. C. are typically alert and attempt to communicate with health care providers. D. usually have an altered mental status or decreased level of consciousness.

D. usually have an altered mental status or decreased level of consciousness.

The body's natural protective mechanisms against heat loss are: A. shivering and vasodilation. B. vasodilation and respiration. C. respiration and vasoconstriction. D. vasoconstriction and shivering.

D. vasoconstriction and shivering.

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients: A. with a systolic pressure less than 120 mm Hg. B. who have taken up to two doses. C. with a history of an ischemic stroke. D. who have experienced a head injury.

D. who have experienced a head injury.

A patient who has experienced a back injury, with or without spinal cord damage, would be triaged with a __________ tag during a mass-casualty incident. A. red B. green C. black D. yellow

D. yellow