EAQ's
What is a manifestation of tertiary syphilis? 1 Chancre 2 Alopecia 3 Gummas 4 Condylomata lata
gummas Gummas which are chronic, destructive lesions affecting the skin, bone, liver, and mucous membranes occur during tertiary syphilis. A chancre appears during primary syphilis. Alopecia and condylomata lata occur during secondary syphilis.
A nurse administers intravenous (IV) therapy to the wrong client. What possible legal complications might the nurse face in such situation? 1 Assault 2 Battery 3 Malpractice 4 False imprisonment
malpractice If a nurse administers IV therapy to a wrong client, the nurse may face the charge of malpractice. Assault is any action that places the client or the nurse in fear of a harmful or offensive contact without consent. Battery is any intentional touching without consent. False imprisonment occurs with unjustified restraint of a person without legal warrant. STUDY TIP: Record the information you find to be most difficult to remember on 3" × 5" cards and carry them with you in your pocket or purse. When you are waiting in traffic or for an appointment, just pull out the cards and review again. This "found" time may add points to your test scores that you have lost in the past.
What is the role of the plasma cell in the antigen-antibody response? 1 Makes an antigen harmless without destroying it 2 Produces antibodies against the sensitizing antigen 3 Produces antibodies after an exposure to a known antigen 4 Clumps antibody-antigens linkages together to form immune complexes
Produces antibodies against the sensitizing antigen In the antigen-antibody response, once the B-cell is sensitized, it divides and forms a plasma cell, which produces antibodies against the sensitizing antigen. Inactivation or neutralization is the process of making an antigen harmless without destroying it. Memory cells produce antibodies after the next exposure to an antigen that is recognized by the body. Agglutination is the clumping of antigens linked with antibodies, forming immune complexes.
The client is experiencing postoperative pain and requests a pain shot. Which of the following healthcare providers are legally permitted to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection to the client? Select all that apply. 1 Registered nurse (RN) 2 Licensed practical nurse (LPN) 3 Licensed vocational nurse (LVN) 4 Unlicensed nursing personnel (UNP) 5 Unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)
Registered nurse (RN) Licensed practical nurse (LPN) Licensed vocational nurse (LVN) In this situation, the LPN and LVN can administer the IM medication; the RN can also administer the medication through IM when the condition is severe. The UNP and UAP can obtain, record, and report vital signs as delegated.
Which would the nurse describe as an example of an internal disaster? 1 Tornado 2 Hurricanes 3 Fire or explosion 4 Terrorism attacks
a fire or disaster An internal disaster refers to an event that impairs the hospital's normal functioning and disrupts normal client care activities. Examples include a fire or explosion and the loss of critical utilities. Tornado, hurricanes, and terrorist attacks are external disasters that result in the loss of lives and property
The parent of a 2-year-old calls a nurse who is a neighbor and reports that the child just ate several multivitamins with iron. What should the nurse say to the parent? 1 "Give your child orange juice." 2 "Call the Poison Control Center." 3 "Iron-fortified multivitamins are safe for your child." 4 "Administer an emetic—syrup of ipecac, if you have it."
call the poison control center The Poison Control Center will provide the best guidance for treatment of excess ingestion of a substance; enemas, lavage, or chelation therapy with deferoxamine (Desferal), a heavy metal antagonist, may be recommended, depending on the amount ingested and the child's age and response. Orange juice will enhance absorption of the iron and will create a greater risk for toxicity. Iron is the most toxic substance in multivitamins. Although signs and symptoms may not be evident for several hours, treatment should be initiated before a problem develops. Emetics are not used for poisonings; they are not effective in removing the toxic substance, and causing the child to vomit creates a risk for aspiration.
Which color should the nurse use to triage a victim of a train derailment who is able to walk independently to the first aid station? 1 Red 2 Black 3 Green 4 Yellow
green An emergency triage system uses colored tags to designate both the seriousness of the injury and the likelihood of survival. Green would be used for minor injuries such as the victim who is able to ambulate independently. Red indicates life-threatening injuries requiring immediate attention. Black indicates that the victim is expected to die. Yellow indicates urgent but not life-threatening injuries. Test-Taking Tip: Identify option components as correct or incorrect. This may help you identify a wrong answer.
What is a high-level cognitive process that the nurse recognizes can be improved with practice in delegation? 1 Creativity 2 Critical thinking 3 Problem solving 4 Decision making
Critical thinking Critical thinking is a high-level cognitive process that can be improved by practice. Creativity is essential for the generation of options or solutions. Problem solving mainly focuses on resolving an issue. Decision making is a purposeful and goal-directed effort that uses a systematic process to choose among options.
The nurse is teaching a client about the prescribed diet after a Whipple procedure for cancer of the pancreas. Which statement should the nurse include in the dietary teaching? 1 "There are no dietary restrictions because the tumor has been removed." 2 "Your diet should be low in calories to prevent taxing your diseased pancreas." 3 "Meals should be restricted in protein because of your compromised liver function." 4 "Low-fat meals should be eaten to prevent interference with your fat digestion mechanism."
"Low-fat meals should be eaten to prevent interference with your fat digestion mechanism." Whipple procedure leads to malabsorption because of impaired delivery of bile to the intestine and interruption of glucose metabolism; interference with fat digestion occurs. Clients require small, frequent low-fat, high-protein, moderate-carbohydrate meals and supplemental feedings. The response "There are no dietary restrictions because the tumor has been removed" is false reassurance. High-calorie meals are needed to provide energy and to promote the use of protein for tissue repair. High protein is required for tissue building; there is no problem with the liver in clients with cancer of the pancreas unless metastasis occurs by direct extension. Test-Taking Tip: Pace yourself while taking a quiz or exam. Read the entire question and all answer choices before answering the question. Do not assume that you know what the question is asking without reading it entirely.
Which statement about Orem's theory needs to be corrected? 1 It determines self-care needs. 2 It explains the types of nursing care. 3 It aids in the design of nursing interventions. 4 It describes factors supporting the health of the family.
It describes factors supporting the health of the family. Orem's theory explains the factors within a client's living situation. These factors may support or interfere with the client's self-care abilities, but they do not refer to the family's health. This theory interprets data that determine a client's self-care needs, self-care deficits, and self-care abilities. Orem's theory explains, predicts, or describes nursing care that will help the client in bettering his or her health. The theory also aids in the design of nursing interventions for the promotion of self-care by the client during times of illness, such as asthma, diabetes mellitus, or arthritis.
When developing a plan of care for a client who had a cardiac catheterization via a femoral insertion site, what should the nurse include? 1 Ambulating the client 2 hours after the procedure 2 Checking the vital signs every 15 minutes for 8 hours 3 Keeping the client nothing by mouth for 4 hours after the procedure 4 Maintaining the supine position for a minimum of 4 hours
Maintaining the supine position for a minimum of 4 hours The supine position prevents hip flexion, limiting injury and promoting healing of the catheter insertion site; if the head of the bed is elevated, it should not exceed 20 degrees. Hip flexion when rising to ambulate traumatizes the catheter insertion site and should be avoided for at least 4 hours to promote healing. Checking the vital signs every 15 minutes for 8 hours will interfere with rest; the vital signs are measured every 15 minutes until stable, usually for 1 hour. The gastrointestinal system is not involved, and general anesthesia is not used. Test-Taking Tip: Identify option components as correct or incorrect. This may help you identify a wrong answer. Example: If you are being asked to identify a diet that is specific to a certain condition, your knowledge about that condition would help you choose the correct response (e.g., cholecystectomy = low-fat, high-protein, low-calorie diet).
Oxygen therapy is prescribed for a client being cared for in the coronary care unit. The nurse implements safety precautions. Which information should the nurse consider when planning care for this client? 1 Oxygen is flammable. 2 Oxygen supports combustion. 3 Oxygen has unstable properties. 4 Oxygen converts to an alternate form of matter.
Oxygen supports combustion. Oxygen is necessary for the production of fire. Oxygen does not burn; it supports combustion. Flammability, unstable properties, and conversion to an alternate form of matter are irrelevant regarding the need for safety precautions.
Which statement made by a nursing student about Swanson's theory of caring needs correction? 1 The components of Swanson's theory of caring provide a foundation of knowledge for nurses to direct and deliver caring nursing practices. 2 Swanson's theory of caring defines five components of caring: knowing, being with, doing for, enabling, and maintaining belief. 3 Swanson's theory of caring provides a basis to help nurses understand how clients cope with uncertainty and the illness response. 4 Swanson's theory of caring was developed by Kristin Swanson by conducting extensive interviews with clients and their professional caregivers.
Swanson's theory of caring provides a basis to help nurses understand how clients cope with uncertainty and the illness response. Swanson's theory of caring provides a basis for identifying and testing nurse caring behaviors to determine if caring will improve client health outcomes. Middle-range theories provide a basis to help nurses understand how clients cope with uncertainty and the illness response. The components of Swanson's theory of caring provide a foundation of knowledge for nurses to direct and deliver caring nursing practices. Swanson's theory of caring defines five components of caring: knowing, being with, doing for, enabling, and maintaining belief. Swanson's theory of caring was developed by Kristin Swanson by conducting extensive interviews with clients and their professional caregivers. Test-Taking Tip: Reread the question if the answers do not seem to make sense, because you may have missed words such as not or except in the statement.
A 17-year-old mother is to sign the consent for her son's myringotomy. What should the nurse say to the mother about this procedure? 1 "This procedure may not help." 2 "Tell me what you know about this procedure." 3 "Your son will need to have this done again when he's older." 4 "One of your parents must also sign this because you're too young."
Tell me what you know about this procedure Informed consent requires that the responsible person understand the procedure. Predicting therapeutic outcomes is not within the role of the nurse. Predicting future surgical interventions is not within the role of the nurse. A 17-year-old mother is an emancipated minor who has the legal authority to sign her child's consent form.
What determines if a client will develop AIDS from an HIV infection? 1 Level of IgM in the blood 2 The number of CD4+ T-cells available 3 Presence of antigen-antibody complexes 4 Speed with which the virus invades the RNA
The number of CD4+ T-cells available Whether HIV becomes AIDS depends upon the number of CD4+ T-cells. IgM and the presence of antigen-antibody complexes have no effect on HIV. The speed with which HIV invades the RNA has no impact on the future development of AIDS.
A 2-year-old toddler requires close supervision to protect against potential accidents. The nurse teaches a class for parents about the learning style of toddlers. How do toddlers learn self-protection? 1 Through trial-and-error strategies 2 By imitating playmates and siblings 3 By obeying orders from mother and father 4 By playing with age-appropriate toys and puzzles
Through trial-and-error strategies The toddler is developing autonomy, is curious, and learns self-protection from experience. Toddlerhood play is parallel play, not interactive, play. The struggle for autonomy at this age limits learning from siblings, even though the toddler attempts to copy their behavior. The toddler is still learning from experiences, not from others. The toddler is still attempting to distinguish the self as separate from the parents; the struggle for autonomy limits learning from parents. Toddlers learn gross and fine motor skills as they play with their toys, not self-protection.
A nurse is caring for a 9-month-old infant with severe dehydration. What does the nurse expect to note while completing a physical assessment of this infant? 1 Frothy stools 2 Weak, rapid pulse 3 Pale, copious urine 4 Bulging anterior fontanel
Weak, rapid pulse A weak, rapid pulse is an expected adaptation with a state of severe dehydration because of hypovolemia. Children with untreated cystic fibrosis and celiac disease have frothy stools. There is no indication that this infant has either of these disorders. Severe dehydration results in decreased urine output and concentrated urine. One of the signs of dehydration in an infant is a sunken, not bulging, anterior fontanel. STUDY TIP: Establish your study priorities and the goals by which to achieve these priorities. Write them out and review the goals during each of your study periods to ensure focused preparation efforts.
A parent of a healthy 8-month-old infant asks a nurse which pureed foods and type of milk are most appropriate at this age. What should the nurse suggest? 1 Applesauce, carrots, chicken, and formula 2 Pears, green beans, turkey, and whole milk 3 Bananas, sweet potatoes, ham, and formula 4 Peaches, cottage cheese, corn, and whole milk
Applesauce, carrots, chicken, and formula Applesauce, carrots, chicken, and formula are easily digested foods that should be introduced by 6 months of age; breast milk or formula, rather than cow's milk, is recommended for the first year of life. Ham is too high in fat and sodium for an infant younger than 1 year. Test-Taking Tip: Notice how the subjects of the questions are related and, through that relationship, the answers to some of the questions may be provided within other questions of the test.
What is the most appropriate approach for the school nurse to take regarding children who are to be given medications while in school? 1 Assuring the children that their privacy will be respected 2 Teaching each class about taking medications in the school setting 3 Encouraging the children to tell their friends that they are taking a medication 4 Asking teachers to answer questions when other students ask about medications given in school
Assuring the children that their privacy will be respected Children's and adults' confidentiality is protected by privacy laws. Although health classes may address medication as part of its curriculum, the information should be taught on a general, not a personal, level. Children and their teachers should not be encouraged to divulge private information.
A primigravida who is at 40 weeks' gestation arrives at the birthing center with abdominal cramping and a bloody show. Her membranes ruptured 30 minutes before arrival. A vaginal examination reveals 1 cm of dilation and the presenting part at -1 station. After obtaining the fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs, what should the nurse's priority intervention be? 1 Teach the client how to push with each contraction. 2 Encourage the client to perform patterned, paced breathing. 3 Provide the client with comfort measures used for women in labor. 4 Prepare to have the client's blood typed and crossmatched in the event of the need for a transfusion.
Provide the client with comfort measures used for women in labor. The client is experiencing the expected discomforts of labor; the nurse should initiate measures that will promote relaxation. The client is in early first-stage labor; pushing commences during the second stage. Patterned, paced breathing should be used in the transition phase, not the early phase of the first stage of labor. There is no evidence that the client's bleeding is excessive or unexpected and that a transfusion will be needed. Test-Taking Tip: Answer every question. A question without an answer is always a wrong answer, so go ahead and guess.
A client whose spouse died 2 years ago is brought to the psychiatric unit by a family member, who states that the widowed spouse has no interests, is neglecting personal hygiene, and has become totally isolated. The nurse completes a history and physical examination that verifies the family member's concerns. What is most important for the nurse to explore with the client at this time? 1 Feelings about the spouse's death 2 The real cause of the depressed behavior 3 The relationship with the deceased spouse 4 Whether suicide has been considered recently
Whether suicide has been considered recently The client is depressed; it is important to know whether the client is considering suicide so the nurse can provide a safe environment and related therapeutic care. Concern for the client's safety takes priority at this time over the client's feelings, the underlying cause of the behavior, or the dynamics of the marital relationship
The nurse is preparing an intraoperative care plan for a client. Which intervention should be excluded from the care plan? 1 Ensuring the client's skin integrity 2 Reviewing the preoperative instructions 3 Administering general anesthetic to the client 4 Placing the client in the correct position on the operating table
administering general anesthetic to the client Only anesthesiologists who are specially trained can administer anesthesia. Therefore, the nurse should exclude this intervention from the nursing care plan. In the operating room, the nurse should ensure the client's skin integrity to prevent complications such as pressure sores. The nurse should review the preoperative care plan to establish or amend the plan if changes are required. The nurse should place the client in the correct position to prevent the client from injury during the operation. Test-Taking Tip: Avoid looking for an answer pattern or code. There may be times when four or five consecutive questions have the same letter or number for the correct answer.
A nurse speaking in support of the best interest of a vulnerable client reflects which nursing duty? 1 Caring 2 Veracity 3 Advocacy 4 Confidentiality
advocacy The nurse has a professional duty to advocate for a client by promoting what is best for the client. This is accomplished by ensuring that the client's needs are met and by protecting the client's rights. Caring is a behavioral characteristic of the nurse. Veracity relates to the habitual observance of truth, fact, and accuracy. Confidentiality is an ethical principle and legal right that the nurse will hold secret all information relating to the client unless the client gives consent to permit disclosure.
Which clients belong to class I according to the disaster triage tag system? A Clients who can wait a short time for treatment B Clients who are dead or expected to die C Clients who need emergency treatment D Clients who have no urgent need for treatment
clients who need emergency treatment Emergent clients are identified with red tags and belong to class I according to the disaster triage tag system. Clients who can wait a short time for treatment are identified by yellow tags and belong to class II according to the disaster triage tag system. Clients who are expected to die or are dead are given a black tag and belong to class IV in the disaster triage tag system. Clients who have no urgency for treatment are issued green tags and belong to class III. Test-Taking Tip: Make certain that the answer you select is reasonable and obtainable under ordinary circumstances and that the action can be carried out in the given situation.
A nurse is assessing the urine of a client with a urinary tract infection. Which assessment finding is consistent with a urinary tract infection? 1 Smoky 2 Cloudy 3 Orange-amber 4 Yellow-brown
cloudy Cellular debris, white blood cells, bacteria, and pus can cause the urine to become cloudy. Dark, smoky urine usually suggests hematuria. Orange-amber color of urine may indicate concentrated urine; also, it can be caused by phenazopyridine or foods such as beets. Yellow-brown to dark color of urine indicates excessive bilirubin. Test-Taking Tip: Be aware that information from previously asked questions may help you respond to other examination questions.
Which test would the client undergo to receive a diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus? 1 Patch test 2 Photo patch test 3 Direct immunofluorescence test 4 Indirect immunofluorescence test
direct immunofluorescence test A direct immunofluorescence test is used in the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus. The patch test and photo patch test are used to evaluate allergic dermatitis and photo allergic reactions. An indirect immunofluorescence test is performed on a blood sample.
A client is instructed to avoid straining on defecation postoperatively. Which food item chosen by the client indicates successful learning? 1 Ripe bananas 2 Milk products 3 Green vegetables 4 Creamed potatoes
green vegetables Green vegetables contain fiber, which promotes defecation. Bananas, milk products, and creamed potatoes have a constipating effect, which results in straining at stool. Test-Taking Tip: Do not spend too much time on one question, because it can compromise your overall performance. There is no deduction for incorrect answers, so you are not penalized for guessing. You cannot leave an answer blank; therefore, guess. Go for it! Remember: You do not have to get all the questions correct to pass.
A child with a diagnosis of tuberculosis is admitted to the pediatric unit. Which location should the nurse select as the best placement for the child? 1 Private room 2 Isolation room 3 Four-bed room 4 Semiprivate room
isolation room An isolation room is a private room fitted with special air handling and ventilation to prevent the transmission of airborne droplet nuclei 5 micrometers or smaller. It has monitored negative pressure to prevent air from moving from the room into the corridor of the facility. Room air is exchanged 6 to 12 times an hour to the outdoors or through a monitored high-efficiency filtration system. Mycobacterium tuberculosis remains suspended in the air for prolonged periods and is transmitted in air currents. A private room does not have the technical equipment to manage airborne droplet nuclei of 5 micrometers or smaller. Other children and people on the unit will be exposed to the infected individual's pathogens that travel through air currents. A four-bed room or semiprivate room will expose the children and other people on the unit to the infected individual's pathogens.
A nurse educates a group of parents about how to teach their children to safely cross roads and walk in parking lots. Which age group of the children is the nurse referring to? 1 Toddlers 2 Adolescents 3 Preschoolers 4 School-age children
preschoolers Preschoolers should be taught how to cross roads and walk in parking lots. Parents of toddlers should be instructed to place window guards on all windows and to never leave a child alone in the bathroom, tub, or near any water source. Adolescents should be taught about the effects of using alcohol and drugs and referred to community and school-sponsored activities. School-aged child should be taught about the safe use of equipment for play and work as well as proper bicycle safety.
A client has paraplegia as a result of a motorcycle accident. What is the reason the nursing care plan should include turning the client every 1 to 2 hours? 1 Maintain comfort 2 Prevent pressure ulcers 3 Prevent flexion contractures of the extremities 4 Improve venous circulation in the lower extremities
prevent pressure ulcers Pressure ulcers [1] [2] easily develop when a particular position is maintained; the body weight, directed continuously in one region, restricts circulation and results in tissue necrosis. Denervated tissue has less perfusion and is more prone to pressure ulcers. Clients often state that they are comfortable and wish to remain in one position. Proper positioning with supportive devices and range of motion are more effective measures to prevent contractures. Because turning usually is done laterally, the circulation to the lower extremities is not dramatically affected. Test-Taking Tip: Watch for grammatical inconsistencies. If one or more of the options is not grammatically consistent with the stem, the alert test taker can identify it as a probable incorrect option. When the stem is in the form of an incomplete sentence, each option should complete the sentence in a grammatically correct way.
A 13-year-old adolescent is found to have idiopathic scoliosis. Because exercise and avoidance of fatigue are essential components of care, which sport should the nurse suggest as the most therapeutic for this preadolescent? 1 Golf 2 Bowling 3 Swimming 4 Badminton
swimming The hyperextension required in swimming helps strengthen back muscles and necessitates deeper respirations, both of which are necessary before surgery and before wearing a brace or cast. The other options involve twisting the back muscles, which is not therapeutic for a child with this condition. Test-Taking Tip: Do not select answers that contain exceptions to the general rule, controversial material, or responses that appear to be degrading.
Arrange the order of steps involved in the evidence-based practice process. 1. Evaluate the practice decision or change. 2. Ask a clinical question. 3. Collect the most relevant and best evidence. 4. Critically appraise the evidence you gather. 5. Share the outcomes of evidence-based practice. 6. Integrate all evidence with one's clinical expertise and client preferences and values in making a practice decision or change.
Ask a clinical question. Collect the most relevant and best evidence. Critically appraise the evidence you gather. Integrate all evidence with one's clinical expertise and client preferences and values in making a practice decision or change. Evaluate the practice decision or change. Share the outcomes of evidence-based practice. Evidence-based practice is a problem-solving approach that integrates the conscientious use of best evidence in combination with a clinician's expertise, client preferences, and client values to make decisions about client care. First, the nurse should ask a clinical question and collect the most relevant and best evidence. Then, the nurse critically appraises the gathered evidence and integrates the evidence with his or her clinical expertise along with the client's preferences and values to make a decision or change. Then the nurse evaluates the practice decision or change and shares the outcomes of the evidence-based practice changes with his or her team.
A 13-month-old toddler has a respiratory tract infection with a low-grade fever. When teaching the parents, which intervention should the nurse emphasize? 1 Encouraging high-calorie snacks to prevent weight loss 2 Keeping the toddler wrapped in blankets to prevent shivering 3 Giving small amounts of clear liquids frequently to prevent dehydration 4 Using cool-water baths to prevent the toddler's fever from increasing further
Giving small amounts of clear liquids frequently to prevent dehydration Fluid is lost through perspiration and the increased metabolic rate associated with a fever; an intake of small, frequent amounts of fluids will replenish lost fluid and prevent dehydration. Although caloric intake is important, it is not the priority. Keeping the toddler wrapped in blankets to prevent shivering interferes with the radiation of heat from the body; dressing the toddler in light clothing will help reduce the fever. Cool baths may produce shivering; this will increase the fever; a low-grade fever is part of the body's adaptive mechanism that limits the multiplication of microorganisms. Test-Taking Tip: Pace yourself while taking a quiz or exam. Read the entire question and all answer choices before answering the question. Do not assume that you know what the question is asking without reading it entirely.
An adult client is brought to the emergency department after an accident. The client has limitations in mental functioning related to Down syndrome. How can the nurse best assess the client's pain level? 1 Asking the client's parent 2 Using Wong's "Pain Faces" 3 Observing the client's body language 4 Explaining the use of a 0 to 10 pain scale
Using Wong's "Pain Faces" An adult client with limited mental capacity may not understand the concept of numbers as an indicator of levels of pain; Wong's "Pain Faces" uses pictures to which the individual can relate. The client, irrespective of mental capacity, is the primary source from whom to obtain information about pain because it is a personal experience. Body language provides some information, but it may not accurately reflect the client's level of pain. A client with limitations in mental functioning may not understand the concept of numbers. Test-Taking Tip: Do not select answers that contain exceptions to the general rule, controversial material, or degrading responses.
What does a nurse understand by the quality improvement competency, according to Quality and Safety Education (QSEN)? 1 Using information and technology to communicate, manage knowledge, mitigate errors, and support decision-making 2 Integrating best current evidence with clinical expertise along with client and family preferences and values for the delivery of quality healthcare 3 Functioning effectively within nursing and interprofessional teams by fostering open communication, mutual respect, and shared decision making to achieve quality client care 4 Using data to monitor the outcomes of care processes and use improvement methods to design and test changes to continuously improve the quality and safety of health care systems
Using data to monitor the outcomes of care processes and use improvement methods to design and test changes to continuously improve the quality and safety of health care systems The quality improvement competency states that a nurse should use data to monitor the outcomes of healthcare processes and use improvement methods to design and test changes to continuously improve the quality and safety of healthcare systems. According to the competency called informatics, a nurse should use information and technology to communicate, manage knowledge, mitigate errors, and support decision-making. As per the competency called evidence-based practice, a nurse should integrate best current evidence with clinical expertise and client and family preferences and values for the delivery of quality healthcare. According to the competency called teamwork and collaboration, a nurse should function effectively within nursing and interprofessional teams by fostering open communication, mutual respect, and shared decision making to achieve quality client care. Test-Taking Tip: Reread the question if the answers do not seem to make sense, because you may have missed words such as not or except in the statement.
On a visit to the well-baby clinic the parents are upset because their 9-month-old infant has severe diaper rash; one parent wants to know how to treat it and prevent it from recurring. What cause of diaper dermatitis should the nurse include when answering the parent's question? 1 Use of disposable diapers 2 Prolonged contact with an irritant 3 Decreased pH of the infant's urine 4 Too-early introduction of solid foods
prolonged contact with an irritant Diaper dermatitis is caused by prolonged repetitive contact with an irritant (e.g., urine, feces, soaps, detergents, ointments, friction). Both cloth and disposable diapers can cause diaper dermatitis if they are not changed frequently. An increased pH (i.e., alkaline) of the urine can contribute to diaper dermatitis. A change in diet may contribute, but there is no evidence that this is directly related. Test-Taking Tip: Choose the best answer for questions asking for a single answer. More than one answer may be correct, but one answer may contain more information or more important information than another answer.
What is the main motto of the Hersey's 2006 model? 1 Information decay 2 Information salience 3 Situational leadership 4 Individual accountability
situational leadership Hersey's 2006 model provides a solid foundation for delegation decisions. The main motto of this model is situational leadership. The core competencies of a situational leader are the ability to diagnose the performance, competence, and commitment of others; to be flexible; and to partner for performance. Anthony and Vidal describe characteristics of communication that interfere with the delegation process, such as information decay. They also describe information salience, or the quality, meaning, and clarity of the information. Ana mentioned individual accountability, the expectation of accountability and responsibility in 2011, specifically referencing delegation.
Which stage of HIV would a client with a CD4+ T-cell count of 325 cells/mm3 be classified? 1 Stage 1 2 Stage 2 3 Stage 3 4 Stage 4
stage 2 Stage 2 describes a client with a CD4+ T-cell count between 200 and 499 cells/mm3. Stage 1 describes a client with a CD4+ T-cell count of greater than 500 cells/mm3. Stage 3 describes a client with a CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/mm3. Stage 4 describes a client with a confirmed HIV infection but no information regarding CD4+ T-cell counts is available.