EMS Quizes 1, 2, 3

In which of the following situations does a legal duty to act clearly exist? a. A call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change. b. The EMT hears of a cardiac arrest after his or her shift ends. c. The EMT witnesses a vehicle crash while off duty. d. A bystander encounters a victim who is not breathing.

a. A call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change.

As an EMT, the standards of emergency care are often partially based on: a. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report. b. Incomplete reports are common and accepted in EMS. c. Patient care cannot be discredited based on poor documentation. d. EMTs are not liable for any actions that are accurately documented.

a. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report.

Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: Select one: a. Paramedic b. EMR c. AEMT d. EMT

a. Paramedic

When performing his or her duties, the EMT is generally expected to: a. exercise reasonable care and act prudently. b. function above his or her scope of practice. c. contact medical control on every EMS call. d. consistently exceed the standard of care.

a. exercise reasonable care and act prudently.

Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you: a. have been infected with hepatitis in the past. b. have a weak immune system. c. are older than 35 years of age. d. received a hepatitis B vaccination.

a. have been infected with hepatitis in the past.

Continuing education in EMS serves to: a. maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills. b. provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system. c. enforce mandatory attendance at agency-specific training. d. confirm research and statistical findings in prehospital care.

a. maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills.

At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken and power lines are lying across the car. The patients inside the car are conscious. You should: a. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines. b. advise the patients to carefully get out of the car. c. remove the lines with a nonconductive object. d. proceed with normal extrication procedures.

a. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines.

The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: a. medical director. b. local health district. c. state EMS office. d. EMS supervisor.

a. medical director.

The EMT's first priority is _________________. a. personal safety b. empathy for all patients c. treatment and transport d. rapid response

a. personal safety

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you note that two small cars collided head-on; the occupants are still in their vehicles. The fire department is in the process of stabilizing the vehicles and law enforcement personnel are directing traffic. After parking the ambulance at a safe distance, you and your partner should: a. put on high-visibility safety vests. b. report to the incident commander. c. quickly begin the triage process. d. assist with vehicle stabilization.

a. put on high-visibility safety vests.

Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser: a. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else. b. makes rude remarks about a person's body parts. c. stares at certain parts of another person's anatomy. d. touches another person without his or her consent.

a. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else.

The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the: a. state office of EMS. b. regional trauma center. c. American Heart Association. d. National Registry of EMTs.

a. state office of EMS.

Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? a. HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field. b. There is no vaccine against HIV infection. c. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B. d. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood.

b. There is no vaccine against HIV infection.

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to: a. insert a peripheral IV line and infuse fluids. b. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications. c. interpret a basic (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly. d. administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route.

b. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.

If an EMT candidate has been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor, he or she should: a. send an official request to the National Registry of EMTs (NREMT) to seek approval to take the EMT exam. b. contact the state EMS office and provide its staff with the required documentation. c. recognize that any such conviction will disqualify him or her from EMT licensure. d. wait at least 24 months before taking another state-approved EMT class.

b. contact the state EMS office and provide its staff with the required documentation.

An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, unpleasant is to: a. ignore the patient's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint. b. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful. c. demand that the patient to be quiet and cooperative during transport. d. reassure the patient that everything will be all right, even if it will not be.

b. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful

Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: a. EMS medical director. b. individual EMT. c. State Bureau of EMS. d. EMS training officer.

b. individual EMT.

Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS? a. A 53-year-old patient who is assisted with his prescribed nitroglycerin b. A 61-year-old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen c. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device d. A 64-year-old patient who is given aspirin for suspected cardiac chest pain

c. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device

Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: a. Mental disorders. b. Fear of medical personnel. c. Assessment by the EMT. d. History of chronic disease.

c. Assessment by the EMT.

Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence? a. Abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation b. Duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation c. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation d. Breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation

c. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation

An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n): a. Advanced EMT (AEMT) b. EMR c. Paramedic d. EMT

c. Paramedic

When is forcible restraint permitted? a. Anytime that the EMT feels threatened b. Only if law enforcement personnel have witnessed threatening behavior c. When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others d. Only if consent to restrain is given by a family member

c. When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others

Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: a. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight. b. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later. c. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons. d. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive.

c. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons.

Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? a. Formal b. Implied c. Informed d. Expressed

d. Expressed

While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (EMT) several days later. Which route of transmission does this scenario describe? a. Vector-bome transmission b. Airborne transmission c. Direct contact d. Indirect contact

d. Indirect contact

In which of the following circumstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information? a. A media representative inquires about the patient b. The family requests a copy for insurance purposes c. A police officer requests a copy to place on file d. The patient is competent and signs a release form

d. The patient is competent and signs a release form

You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle-versus-pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do? a. Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parents to arrive and give consent. b. Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for treatment. c. Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital. d. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital.

d. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital.

Vector-bome transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: a. inanimate objects. b. smoke or dust. c. direct contact. d. animals or insects.

d. animals or insects.

The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the: a. field training officer. b. EMS administrator. c. shift supervisor. d. medical director.

d. medical director.

The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to: a. undergo an annual physical examination. b. undergo annual testing for tuberculosis and hepatitis. c. ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date. d. wash your hands in between patient contacts.

d. wash your hands in between patient contacts.