EMT Midterm 2

All of the following conditions should make you suspect shock, EXCEPT: Select one: A. ischemic stroke. B. spinal injury. C. anaphylaxis. D. severe infection.

A

All of the following snakes are pit vipers, except for the: Select one: A. coral snake. B. cottonmouth. C. copperhead. D. rattlesnake.

A

An EMT might injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the: Select one: A. back is bent forward at the hips. B. force is exerted straight down the spine. C. hands are held close to the legs. D. shoulder is aligned over the pelvis.

A

An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: Select one: A. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful. B. ignore the patient's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint. C. demand that the patient remain quiet and cooperative during transport. D. reassure the patient that everything will be all right, even if it will not be.

A

An area of swelling or enlargement in a weakened arterial wall is called: Select one: A. an aneurysm. B. an embolism. C. a thrombus. D. atherosclerosis.

A

The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of: Select one: A. 25 and 35 years. B. 21 and 30 years. C. 19 and 25 years. D. 18 and 22 years.

C

The leaf-shaped flap of cartilage that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing is called the: Select one: A. vallecula. B. uvula. C. epiglottis. D. pharynx.

C

The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, form the: Select one: A. ischium. B. ilium. C. coccyx. D. sacrum.

C

You are treating a newborn who appears cyanotic all over, is not moving or crying, and has no pulse or breathing. What is the Apgar score at this time?

0

When assessing a newborn at 1 minute old, you find cyanosis of the torso, a heart rate of 50 bpm, there is no crying or respiratory effort, and the newborn is limp. What is the total Apgar score?

1

Albuterol is a/an: Select one: a. Synthetic sympathomimetic b. Natural sympathomimetic c. Natural sympatholytic d. Synthetic sympatholytic

A

After providing some care for a newborn for several minutes, you reassess the Apgar score. You find. no cyanosis, a heart rate of 116 bpm, crying when stimulated, strong flexion of the legs, and vigorous crying. What is the post-care Apgar score?

10

At 5 minutes old, a newborn has some cyanosis apparent in the hands, a heart rate of 110 bpm, cries weakly, is moving but only flexes its legs slightly, and is breathing at 16 breaths per minute. What is the total Apgar score?

6

You are treating a newborn with truncal cyanosis, heart rate of 76 bpm, crying irritably, weak leg movement, and rapid breathing. What is the current Apgar score?

6

A newborn at 5 minutes old shows some cyanosis in the extremities, a heart rate of 134 bpm, a weak cry, good strength of movement, and weak, gasping breaths. What is the newborn's Apgar score at this time?

7

You have just delivered a newborn who has some cyanosis peripherally, has a heart rate of 120, is crying vigorously, weakly resists straightening legs, and has a respiratory rate of 50. What is the total Apgar score for the newborn?

8

A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should: Select one: A. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist. B. apply pressure to the brachial artery. C. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen. D. wrap the towel with pressure bandages.

A

A 29-year-old pregnant woman has had severe vomiting for the last 2 days. Today, she is vomiting large amounts of blood. Her skin is cool and pale, and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. Mallory-Weiss tear. B. acute pancreatitis. C. esophagitis. D. esophageal varices.

A

A 38-year-old woman was bitten by fire ants while at the park. Your primary assessment reveals that she is semiconscious; has labored breathing; and has a rapid, thready pulse. She has a red rash on her entire body, and her face is swollen. You should: Select one: A. assist her ventilations with 100% oxygen. B. place her supine with her legs elevated. C. perform a rapid secondary assessment. D. locate the area where the fire ants bit her.

A

A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious, is screaming in pain, and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should: Select one: A. apply direct pressure to the wound. B. ensure that his airway is patent. C. elevate his legs and keep him warm. D. administer 100% supplemental oxygen.

A

A 42-year-old male is found unresponsive on his couch by a neighbor. During your assessment, you find no signs of trauma, and the patient's blood glucose level is 75 mg/dL. His blood pressure is 168/98 mm Hg, his heart rate is 45 beats/min and bounding, and his respirations are 8 breaths/min and irregular. The patient is wearing a medical alert bracelet that states he has hemophilia. You should: Select one: A. suspect that he has intracranial bleeding, assist his ventilations, and transport rapidly to an appropriate hospital. B. administer high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed secondary assessment at the scene, and transport promptly. C. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, apply oral glucose in between his cheek and gum, and transport. D. suspect that he has internal bleeding and is in shock, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport at once.

A

A 45-yaer-old female patient has taken several times her prescribed dose of Xanax (alprazolam) and is now unresponsive. Naloxone would be: Select one: a. Ineffective against this non-opioid drug b. Effective and appropriate to use for this situation c. Ineffective against this specific opioid drug d. Effective but not in the EMT scope of practice for this situation

A

A 56-year-old male presents with exertional, crushing, substernal chest pressure for the last 30 minutes. He is mildly nauseated and had one episode of vomiting a coffee ground like substance yesterday. What is the appropriate dose of aspirin to give this patient? Select one: a. None. Aspirin is contra-indicated. b. None. Aspirin is not indicated. c. 81 mg d. 324 mg

A

A 60-year-old man complains of chest pain. He is conscious, alert, and denies shortness of breath. Which of the following questions would be the most appropriate to ask him? Select one: A. "Do you have any heart problems or take any medications?" B. "Does the pain in your chest move to either of your arms?" C. "Were you exerting yourself when the chest pain began?" D. "Does the pain in your chest feel like a stabbing sensation?"

A

A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 90/64 mm Hg. Her skin is hot and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing: Select one: A. septic shock. B. decompensated shock. C. a local infection. D. pump failure.

A

A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ________ hours following the incident. Select one: A. 72 B. 12 C. six D. 24

A

A fracture of the humerus just above the elbow would be described as a: Select one: A. distal humerus fracture. B. distal forearm fracture. C. proximal elbow fracture. D. proximal humerus fracture.

A

A generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure is characterized by: Select one: A. severe twitching of all the body's muscles. B. unconsciousness for greater than 30 minutes. C. a core body temperature of greater than 103°F (40°C). D. a blank stare and brief lapse of consciousness.

A

A hypnotic drug is one that: Select one: A. induces sleep. B. increases the pulse. C. increases the senses. D. prevents amnesia.

A

A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted: Select one: A. with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare. B. into the smaller nostril with the tip following the roof of the nose. C. with the bevel pointing downward if inserted into the left nare. D. into the larger nostril with the tip pointing away from the septum.

A

A patient has a large accumulation of blood in the sac surrounding the heart. Which of the following types of shock would this condition cause? Select one: A. Obstructive B. Cardiogenic C. Hypovolemic D. Neurogenic

A

A patient is diagnosed with nephritis. This means: Select one: A. inflammation of the kidney. B. enlargement of the liver. C. disease of the kidney. D. dysfunction of the liver.

A

A patient with a history of schizophrenia called EMS because he was experiencing abdominal pain. When law enforcement arrived, the patient became violent, necessitating the placement of handcuffs. When you assess the patient, he tells you that killing someone will make his abdominal pain go away. His vital signs are stable. How should you manage this situation? Select one: A. Request a police officer to accompany you in the ambulance. B. Transport the patient in a prone position on the stretcher. C. Refuse to transport the patient because of his homicidal threat. D. Request that a police officer transport him to the hospital.

A

A physiologic disorder that impairs bodily function when the body seems to be structurally normal is called a: Select one: A. functional disorder B. drug and alcohol abuse C. seizure D. traumatic brain injury

A

A strangulated hernia is one that: Select one: A. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues. B. is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours. C. can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs. D. spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention.

A

A team of EMTs is caring for a critically injured patient. The team leader advises the EMT that transport will not begin until the patient's closed forearm fracture is splinted. Utilizing the crew resource management model, the EMT should: Select one: A. advise the team leader that immediate transport is more important than splinting. B. ensure that the entire team is aware that transport will be delayed for splinting. C. repeat the request back to the team leader and then splint the patient's arm. D. disregard the team leader's request and contact medical control for guidance.

A

A woman amputated the tip of her finger. Which directional term should be used to describe her injury location? Select one: A. Distal B. Medial C. Lateral D. Superior

A

A young male jumped from a tree and landed feet first. Which aspect of his body has sustained the initial injury? Select one: A. Plantar B. Ventral C. Dorsal D. Palmar

A

Abdominal thrusts in a conscious child or adult with a severe upper airway obstruction are performed: Select one: A. until he or she loses consciousness. B. until he or she experiences cardiac arrest. C. about 1 inch below the xiphoid process. D. in sets of five followed by reassessment.

A

According to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, an employer must: Select one: A. offer a workplace environment that reduces the risk of exposure. B. screen all prospective employees for bloodborne pathogens. C. provide gloves and other personal protective equipment to full-time paid employees only. D. guarantee a 100% risk-free environment prior to employment.

A

After ________ minutes without oxygen, permanent brain damage is possible. Select one: A. 4 to 6 B. 7 C. 2 to 3 D. 1 to 2

A

After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-injector to a 22-year-old female with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and resolution of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should: Select one: A. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine. B. contact medical control and obtain authorization to administer another 0.3 mg of epinephrine. C. transport her rapidly, because it is obvious that she is having a severe reaction to the epinephrine. D. consider administering 0.15 mg of epinephrine to completely resolve her allergic reaction.

A

After assuming care of a cardiac arrest patient from an EMT, the paramedic should remember that: Select one: A. BLS efforts must continue throughout the patient care continuum. B. the BLS care provided by the EMT is the "first steps" of ALS care. C. ALS interventions are fundamentally more critical than BLS interventions. D. ALS interventions are the core interventions around which BLS care is provided.

A

After delivery of the placenta, the mother is experiencing vaginal bleeding. After massaging the uterine fundus and allowing the mother to breastfeed, the bleeding stops. This occurred because: Select one: A. the production of oxytocin caused uterine contraction. B. breastfeeding causes uterine blood vessels to dilate. C. uterine massage increases blood flow to the uterus. D. a portion of the placenta was retained in the uterus.

A

After taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an example of a(n): Select one: A. adverse effect. B. untoward effect. C. therapeutic effect. D. unpredictable effect.

A

An effective team leader should: Select one: A. help the team accomplish goals. B. perform all difficult interventions. C. refrain from any direct patient care. D. command his or her team.

A

An example of an anti-inflammatory is: Select one: A. Aspirin. B. Nitroglycerin. C. Oxygen. D. Narcan.

A

An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body. B. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional. C. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms. D. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs.

A

As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should: Select one: A. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance. B. reposition your hands and continue to move the patient. C. stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs. D. guide your partner while moving the chair backwards.

A

As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: Select one: A. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician. B. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call. C. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call. D. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once.

A

At rest, the normal adult heart rate should not exceed: Select one: A. 100 beats/min. B. 80 beats/min. C. 90 beats/min. D. 70 beats/min.

A

Because an N95 mask makes a tight seal, prior to wearing one you will be required to: Select one: a. have a physician evaluate your health and have a fit test performed. b. sign a health waiver and have a fit test performed. c. have a physician evaluate your health and select a mask that is the closest to your face's size and shape. d. take a physical fitness test and tighten the mask as much as possible.

A

Breathing is often more difficult in older adults because the: Select one: A. elasticity of the lungs decreases. B. overall size of the airway decreases. C. diaphragm and intercostal muscles enlarge. D. surface area of the alveoli increases.

A

CPAP is indicated for patients who: Select one: A. have pulmonary edema and can follow verbal commands. B. have signs of pneumonia but are breathing adequately. C. are unresponsive and have signs of inadequate ventilation. D. are hypotensive and have a marked reduction in tidal volume.

A

CPR is in progress on a pulseless and apneic 29-year-old woman who is 37 weeks pregnant. When treating this patient, the EMT should: Select one: A. manually displace the patient's uterus to the left. B. deliver a compression rate of 120 to 140 per minute. C. perform compressions slightly lower on the sternum. D. avoid defibrillation because it might harm the fetus

A

CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it: Select one: A. involves hands-on practice. B. occurs every 24 months. C. is delivered by computer. D. is self-paced and brief.

A

CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it: Select one: A. involves hands-on practice. B. occurs every 24 months. C. is self-paced and brief. D. is delivered by computer.

A

Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: Select one: A. paramedic. B. EMR. C. EMT. D. AEMT.

A

Chemicals that are responsible for the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction to a bee sting include: Select one: A. histamines and leukotrienes. B. the bee venom itself. C. leukocytes and epinephrine. D. adrenaline and histamines.

A

Chronic renal failure is a condition that: Select one: A. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes. B. occurs from conditions such as dehydration. C. can be reversed with prompt treatment. D. causes dehydration from excessive urination.

A

Clinical signs of labored breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. shallow chest movement. B. gasping attempts to breathe. C. use of accessory muscles. D. supraclavicular retractions.

A

Common signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include all of the following, except: Select one: A. hot, dry skin. B. dry tongue and thirst. C. nausea. D. tachycardia.

A

Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. gastric distention. B. a fractured sternum. C. rib fractures. D. liver laceration.

A

During patient care, the EMT instructs her partner to administer one tube of oral glucose to a conscious patient with low blood sugar. The partner's most appropriate response should be: Select one: A. "Got it. I'll give oral glucose." B. "We should give two tubes." C. "Are you sure you want that?" D. "I would rather you give it."

A

During your assessment of a young female with nontraumatic vaginal bleeding, you note that her level of consciousness is decreased, her respirations are rapid and shallow, her skin is cool and moist, and her pulse is rapid and weak. You should: Select one: A. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. B. perform a visual assessment of her vaginal area. C. perform a rapid secondary assessment. D. assess her blood pressure and elevate her legs.

A

During your visual inspection of a 25-year-old woman in labor, you see the baby's head crowning at the vaginal opening. What should you do? Select one: A. Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers. B. Place your fingers in the vagina to assess for a nuchal cord. C. Maintain firm pressure to the head until it completely delivers. D. Tell the mother not to push and transport her immediately.

A

EMTs arrive at the scene of a patient who was "found down." A family member states that she gave naloxone (Narcan) to the patient before the ambulance arrived. The EMTs should suspect that the patient: Select one: A. overdosed on an opioid drug. B. experienced a prolonged seizure. C. has a low blood glucose level. D. has a history of allergic reactions.

A

EMTs respond to a known heroin abuser who is unresponsive. If they give naloxone (Narcan) to this patient, the EMTs should recall that: Select one: A. naloxone administration could cause seizures in this patient. B. naloxone should not be given if the patient's breathing is slow. C. the effects of naloxone last longer than most opioid drugs. D. naloxone should be administered in increments of 2 mg.

A

Erosion of the protective layer of the stomach or duodenum secondary to overactivity of digestive juices results in: Select one: A. an ulcer. B. ileus. C. appendicitis. D. cholecystitis.

A

Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, except: Select one: A. increased surface area available for air exchange. B. a loss of respiratory muscle mass. C. increased stiffness of the thoracic cage. D. decreased residual volume.

A

For which of the following patients is spinal immobilization clearly indicated? Select one: A. Man with altered mental status after being exposed to blunt force trauma B. Woman in a minor motor-vehicle collision who complains of severe knee pain C. Woman who fell from a standing position and has a deformed shoulder D. Man with an arrow impaled in his leg and no pulse distal to the injury

A

From what internal female organ is the fetus expelled during delivery? Select one: A. Uterus B. Cervix C. Vagina D. Perineum

A

Gastric distention will MOST likely occur: Select one: A. if you ventilate a patient too quickly. B. in patients who are intubated. C. when you deliver minimal tidal volume. D. when the airway is completely obstructed.

A

General treatment for a woman with vaginal bleeding and shock following sexual assault includes all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. carefully removing any foreign bodies from the vagina. B. refraining from placing any dressings into the vagina. C. treating external lacerations with sterile compresses. D. supplemental oxygen and keeping the patient supine.

A

Glucose is a: Select one: a. Simple sugar b. Form of insulin c. Complex carbohydrate d. Form of glucagon

A

Hemoglobin is a molecule that attaches to ___________ and carries oxygen. Select one: A. erythrocytes B. leukocytes C. monocytes D. thrombocytes

A

High air temperature reduces the body's ability to lose heat by: Select one: A. radiation. B. evaporation. C. conduction. D. convection.

A

How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems? Select one: A. It forces the alveoli open and increases the concentration of oxygen in the alveoli. B. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for lung expansion. C. It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung. D. It prevents alveolar collapse by pushing air into the lungs during inhalation.

A

Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: Select one: A. plasma. B. whole blood. C. platelets. D. red blood cells.

A

If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should: Select one: A. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives. B. avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic. C. purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer's claim. D. determine which device the American Heart Association recommends.

A

If a patient requests access to a copy of their health record in electronic format, your organization must provide access in electronic format if: Select one: a. The organization uses electronic health records b. The organization has the capability of scanning paper records into PDF format c. The organization is subject to the HIPAA Security Rule d. The organization bills electronically for services

A

If a patient requests that a covered entity restrict disclosure of his PHI and not submit the claim for an ambulance transport to his insurance company, the covered entity is required to abide by the request: Select one: a. Only if the patient first pays for the ambulance transport in full b. Only if the patient makes the request in writing c. Only if the charge for the ambulance service is less than $500 d. Only if the patient promises that he will pay for the service from an awaited court settlement

A

If a patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient's respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that: Select one: A. minute volume is decreased. B. overall tidal volume is increased. C. expiratory reserve volume is decreased. D. inspiratory reserve is increased.

A

If a woman with vaginal bleeding reports syncope, the EMT should assume that she: Select one: A. is in shock. B. has an infection. C. has an ectopic pregnancy. D. is pregnant.

A

In addition to its primary action, aspirin is a/an: Select one: a. NSAID b. Vasodilator c. Bronchoconstrictor d. ACE-inhibitor

A

In contrast to viral hepatitis, toxin-induced hepatitis: Select one: A. is not a communicable disease. B. is a far more transmittable disease. C. can be prevented with a vaccination. D. typically does not cause yellow skin.

A

In infants and children, a capillary refill time that is greater than ______ second(s) is a sign of poor peripheral perfusion. Select one: A. 2 B. 4 C. 1 D. 3

A

In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: Select one: A. respiratory arrest. B. a drug overdose. C. a cardiac dysrhythmia. D. severe chest trauma.

A

In preconventional reasoning, children: Select one: A. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want. B. make decisions based on their conscience. C. look for approval from their peers and society. D. blame their actions on what they have observed in older children.

A

In which of the following patients would the head tilt-chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway? Select one: A. A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed B. A 45-year-old male who is semiconscious after falling 20 feet C. A 24-year-old male who is found unconscious at the base of a tree D. A 50-year-old male who is unconscious following head trauma

A

In which of the following situations is an emergency patient move indicated? Select one: A. The EMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards. B. The EMT has to gain access to lesser-injured patients in a vehicle. C. A significant mechanism of injury is involved. D. A patient has an altered mental status or is in shock.

A

Information included in a radio report to the receiving hospital should include all of the following, except: Select one: A. a preliminary diagnosis of the patient's problem. B. a brief history of the patient's current problem. C. your perception of the severity of the problem. D. a brief summary of the care you provided.

A

Injuries to the vagina and external genitalia are serious because: Select one: A. these areas are rich with blood vessels and nerves. B. severe infection occurs in nearly all cases of external injury. C. external injury is always associated with internal injury. D. most injuries to these areas are unnoticed by the patient.

A

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called: Select one: A. Cheyne-Stokes respirations. B. agonal respirations. C. eupneic respirations. D. ataxic respirations.

A

Just after delivering a newborn, you ass that the baby has cyanosis of the whole body, a pulse of 88 bpm, grimaces some but does not cry when stimulated, does not resist straightening of its legs, and is only gasping weakly. What are the next appropriate actions to care for the newborn? Select one: a. Dry, warm, and stimulate the newborn. Begin positive pressure ventilation. b. Dry, warm, and stimulate the newborn. Suction the airway thoroughly. Administer blow-by oxygen. c. Dry, warm, and stimulate the infant. No further action is needed. d. Dry, warm, and stimulate the newborn. Begin ventilations and chest compressions.

A

Key hormones of the sympathetic nervous system include: Select one: A. epinephrine and norepinephrine. B. glucagon and noradrenaline. C. acetylcholine and insulin. D. norepinephrine and acetylcholine.

A

Later stage symptoms of Hepatitis include which of the following? Select one: a. Jaundice (yellowing of the skin) and right upper abdominal pain b. A characteristic rash and left upper abdominal pain c. A characteristic rash and right upper abdominal pain d. Jaundice (yellowing of the skin) and diffuse abdominal pain

A

Mental function often begins to decline within ___ year(s) before death. Select one: A. five B. one C. eight D. three

A

One of the primary waste products of normal cellular metabolism that must be removed from the body by the lungs is: Select one: A. carbon dioxide. B. pyruvic acid. C. carbon monoxide. D. lactic acid.

A

Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they: Select one: A. cough. B. vomit. C. are bleeding. D. have a fever.

A

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by: Select one: A. repeating the primary assessment. B. taking another set of vital signs. C. reviewing all treatment performed. D. reassessing the nature of illness.

A

Regarding medical terminology, the foundation of the word is called the: Select one: A. root. B. combining vowel. C. prefix. D. suffix.

A

Relative to the ankle, the knee is: Select one: A. proximal. B. lateral. C. medial. D. superior.

A

Situations in which you should use the rapid extrication technique include all of the following, except: Select one: A. a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle. B. a patient whose condition requires immediate transport to the hospital. C. a patient who needs immediate care that requires a supine position. D. a patient who blocks access to another seriously injured patient.

A

Skeletal muscle is also called: Select one: A. voluntary muscle. B. involuntary muscle. C. autonomic muscle. D. smooth muscle.

A

Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient: Select one: A. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin. B. misses one or two prescribed insulin injections. C. eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion. D. markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose.

A

Temporary, widespread vasodilation and syncope caused by a sudden nervous system reaction MOST accurately describes: Select one: A. psychogenic shock. B. vasovagal shock. C. neurogenic shock. D. neurologic shock.

A

The MOST effective way to determine whether your patient's problem is medical or traumatic in origin is to: Select one: A. perform a careful and thorough assessment. B. take note of the patient's general appearance. C. ask if bystanders are familiar with the patient. D. establish the patient's medical history early.

A

The amniotic fluid serves to: Select one: A. insulate and protect the fetus. B. remove viruses from the fetus. C. transfer oxygen to the fetus. D. assist in fetal development.

A

The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to: Select one: A. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed. B. focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient. C. administer punitive actions to EMTs who do not follow local protocols. D. ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office.

A

The decline in cardiac function that commonly occurs in late adulthood is most often related to: Select one: A. atherosclerosis. B. hypotension. C. medication use. D. kidney failure.

A

The diaphragm is innervated by the _________ nerve, which allows it to contract. Select one: A. phrenic B. hypoglossal C. vagus D. vestibulocochlear

A

The diving reflex might allow a person to survive extended periods of submersion in cold water secondary to: Select one: A. bradycardia and a slowing of the metabolic rate. B. tachycardia and a lowering of the blood pressure. C. laryngospasm that protects the lungs from water. D. increases in the metabolic rate and oxygen demand.

A

The effectiveness of pit crew CPR is dependent on: Select one: A. defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received. B. a team leader who is capable of performing all of the patient care tasks. C. rapidly assessing the patient before assigning roles and responsibilities. D. protocols that allow the EMT to function without medical control.

A

The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within _________ following administration. Select one: A. 1 minute B. 1 hour C. 30 minutes D. 30 seconds

A

Two-way communication that requires the EMT to "push to talk" and "release to listen" describes which mode of communication? Select one: A. Simplex B. Multiplex C. Complex D. Duplex

A

Typical components of an oral patient report include all of the following, except: Select one: A. the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene. B. important medical history not previously given. C. the chief complaint or mechanism of injury. D. the patient's response to treatment you provided.

A

The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-decompression CPR by: Select one: A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling. B. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles. C. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart. D. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression.

A

The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by: Select one: A. removing sodium and water from the body. B. accommodating a large amount of blood volume. C. retaining key electrolytes, such as potassium. D. eliminating toxic waste products from the body.

A

The leading cause of maternal death during the first trimester of pregnancy is: Select one: A. internal bleeding caused by a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. B. unrecognized or untreated supine hypotensive syndrome. C. blunt trauma to the abdomen during a motor vehicle crash. D. massive brain damage secondary to a prolonged seizure.

A

The medical term for painful or difficult urination is: Select one: A. dysuria. B. anuria. C. oliguria. D. polyuria.

A

The most common presenting sign of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is: Select one: A. generalized lower abdominal pain. B. vomiting. C. foul-smelling vaginal discharge D. nausea.

A

The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, form the: Select one: A. coccyx. B. sacrum. C. ischium. D. ilium.

A

The nose, chin, umbilicus (navel), and spine are examples of ___________ anatomic structures. Select one: A. midline B. proximal C. midaxillary D. superior

A

The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg; the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg. Select one: A. 104, 40 B. 90, 50 C. 70, 28 D. 88, 30

A

The posterior tibial pulse can be palpated: Select one: A. behind the medial malleolus, on the inside of the ankle. B. in the fossa behind the knee. C. on the dorsum of the foot. D. between the trachea and the neck muscle.

A

The primary action of nitroglycerin is: Select one: a. Vasodilation b. Vasoconstriction c. Bronchoconstriction d. Bronchodilation

A

The primary waste product of aerobic metabolism is: Select one: A. carbon dioxide. B. pyruvic acid. C. lactic acid. D. adenosine triphosphate.

A

The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant is: Select one: A. one third the diameter of the chest, or about 1½ inches. B. one half the diameter of the chest, or about 1½ inches. C. one half to two thirds the diameter of the chest. D. two thirds the diameter of the chest, or about 2 inches.

A

The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is most directly related to: Select one: A. shrinkage of the brain. B. meningeal deterioration. C. a decrease in neurons. D. blood vessel dilation.

A

The root word cirrh/o means: Select one: A. yellow-orange. B. blood cell. C. kidney. D. liver.

A

The single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is: Select one: A. depression. B. a chronic illness. C. drug abuse. D. advanced age.

A

The structure located superior to the larynx is called the: Select one: A. epiglottis. B. thyroid cartilage. C. cricoid ring. D. carina.

A

The term "behavioral crisis" is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. a situation in which a patient of any age exhibits agitated, violent, or uncooperative behavior. B. a medical illness with psychological symptoms that may lead to limited motor functioning. C. a period of severe depression that lasts longer than 2 weeks and cannot be controlled with medications. D. a sudden, violent outburst of an otherwise mentally stable person toward a family member.

A

The term primigravida refers to a woman who: Select one: A. is pregnant for the first time. B. has had only one live birth. C. has had more than one live baby. D. has never been pregnant.

A

To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should: Select one: A. provide competent care that meets current standards. B. always transport patients to the hospital of their choice. C. utilize at least four personnel when moving a patient. D. use universal precautions with every patient encounter.

A

To reverse the effects of a narcotic overdose you should administer: Select one: A. Narcan. B. EpiPen. C. Advil. D. Tylenol.

A

To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose? Select one: A. A confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor B. An unconscious 33-year-old male with cool, clammy skin C. A conscious 37-year-old female with nausea and vomiting D. A semiconscious 40-year-old female without a gag reflex

A

Trauma to the __________ lobe of the brain would likely result in visual disturbances. Select one: A. occipital B. parietal C. temporal D. frontal

A

Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after: Select one: A. all the patients have been triaged. B. a physician arrives at the scene. C. area hospitals have been notified. D. medical control has been contacted.

A

Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after: Select one: A. all the patients have been triaged. B. area hospitals have been notified. C. medical control has been contacted. D. a physician arrives at the scene.

A

Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations? Select one: A. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg B. Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85% C. Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia D. Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety

A

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should: Select one: A. direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head. B. slide a long backboard under his buttocks and lay him sideways on the board. C. apply a vest-style extrication device before attempting to move the patient. D. apply a cervical collar and quickly remove the patient with a clothes drag.

A

What dose of albuterol is typically delivered by a metered dose inhaler (MDI)? Select one: a. 90 micrograms / puff b. 60 milligrams / puff c. 60 micrograms / puff d. 90 milligrams / puff

A

What is the most characteristic symptom of meningitis that should raise a healthcare provider's suspicions? Select one: a. Stiff neck with pain on flexion b. Altered mental status c. Headacche d. Light sensitivity

A

What is the most prominent symptom of Pertussis? Select one: a. Long fits of coughing b. Fever c. Shortness of breath d. Mucous secretions in the airway

A

What is the route of administration for aspirin? Select one: a. PO b. Buccal c. SL d. Parenteral

A

What route(s) of administration may be used for glucose gel? Select one: a. Oral or buccal b. Buccal only c. IV d. Rectal

A

When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she: Select one: A. has gathered patient history information. B. has obtained a complete set of vital signs. C. has formed a general impression of the patient. D. ascertains if the patient was ever pregnant.

A

When an auto-injector is used to give epinephrine, the primary injection site is the: Select one: A. lateral portion of the thigh. B. medial portion of the thigh. C. medial part of the buttocks. D. lateral portion of the arm.

A

When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes atorvastatin (Lipitor) and amlodipine (Norvasc). These medications suggest a history of: Select one: A. cardiovascular disease. B. non-insulin-dependent diabetes. C. reactive airway disease. D. bacterial infection.

A

When assessing motor function in a conscious patient's lower extremities, you should expect the patient to: Select one: A. wiggle his or her toes on command. B. feel you touching the extremity. C. identify different types of stimuli. D. note any changes in temperature.

A

When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the ________ artery. Select one: A. brachial B. femoral C. carotid D. radial

A

When caring for a 65-year-old male with respiratory distress, you place him in a comfortable position but do not apply oxygen. The patient's condition continues to deteriorate: He develops cardiac arrest and dies at the hospital. This scenario is an example of: Select one: A. negligence. B. assault. C. battery. D. abandonment

A

When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid: Select one: A. using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible. B. flexing your body at the knees. C. the use of more than two EMTs. D. the use of a long backboard or scoop stretcher.

A

When communicating information over the radio, you should: Select one: A. use the words "affirmative" and "negative" instead of "yes" or "no." B. use the patient's name only when communicating with the hospital. C. respond professionally by saying "please" and "thank you." D. limit any single transmission to 60 seconds or less and use 10 codes.

A

When documenting a call in which a female was sexually assaulted, you should: Select one: A. keep the report concise and record only what the patient stated in her own words. B. translate the patient's words or statements using proper medical terminology. C. only use quotation marks when recording any statements made by witnesses. D. record your opinion only if you have reasonable proof to justify the statement.

A

When documenting a patient's description of his or her chest pain or discomfort, the EMT should: Select one: A. use the patient's own words. B. use medical terminology. C. underline the patient's quotes. D. document his or her own perception.

A

When gathering a patient's medications, you find the following: Isordil, Lasix, Nexium, and digoxin. Which of these medications can be obtained over-the-counter (OTC)? Select one: A. Nexium B. Digoxin C. Isordil D. Lasix

A

When interviewing a patient, you can show him or her that you understand the situation by: Select one: A. repeating statements back to him or her. B. interrupting him or her as needed for clarification. C. maintaining constant eye contact with him or her. D. using medical terminology whenever possible.

A

When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: Select one: A. brief and easily understood. B. spoken in a loud voice. C. coded and scripted. D. lengthy and complete.

A

When transferring the care of a patient to a hospital or other receiving facility, you may provide necessary information about the patient's condition: Select one: a. To any staff member at the receiving facility who is involved in the patient's care b. Only to another licensed nurse or physician c. To the first person that you see who looks like they work for the organization d. No one, since HIPAA does not permit you to share this type of information with other providers

A

When using the pulse oximeter as part of your assessment of a patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. any situation that causes vasoconstriction or loss of red blood cells, such as anemia or bleeding, may result in an inaccurate or misleading value. B. carbon monoxide has no effect on pulse oximetry readings because the pulse oximeter presumes that oxygen is saturating the hemoglobin. C. pulse oximetry is especially useful in patients who have cold extremities because vasoconstriction forces blood to the capillary beds. D. as long as the patient's oxygen saturation is greater than 95%, oxygen is usually not necessary, even if the patient is experiencing respiratory distress.

A

When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to: Select one: A. become smaller. B. dilate. C. not react. D. become larger.

A

Where would you look to find out who to call in case of a work related exposure? Select one: a. Exposure Control Plan (ECP) b. State/Regional EMS Guidelines c. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) d. CDC Response Guide

A

Which agency oversees, regulates, and sets standards for the workplace environment? Select one: a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) b. International Standards Organization (ISO) c. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) d. Workplace Safety Association (WSA)

A

Which comes first in EMS decision making? Select one: A. Data gathering B. Data interpretation C. Planning D. Team communication

A

Which of the following MOST accurately describes a focal-onset aware seizure? Select one: A. A seizure that begins in one extremity B. A seizure that is not preceded by an aura C. A generalized seizure without incontinence D. A seizure that causes the patient to stare blankly

A

Which of the following anatomic terms is synonymous with the word "dorsal"? Select one: A. Posterior B. Anterior C. Palmar D. Medial

A

Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock? Select one: A. Wheezing B. Hypotension C. Dizziness D. Pallor

A

Which of the following conditions or situations presents the most unique challenge to the EMT when immobilizing an elderly patient on a long backboard? Select one: A. Abnormal spinal curvature B. Naturally deformed bones C. Patient disorientation D. Joint flexibility

A

Which of the following describes appropriate handling of medical sharps (e.g. needles)? Select one: a. Engage any safety features and place into a hard plastic container b. Insert the sharp end into a block of softer material to protect it c. Engage any safety features and place into a bio-hazard bag d. Replace the cap, if present, over the needle to cover it and put it into a hard plastic container

A

Which of the following describes the Moro reflex? Select one: A. The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled. B. When something touches a neonate's cheek, he or she instinctively turns his or her head toward the touch. C. When the sole of the foot is stroked with a blunt object, the big toe lifts upward and the other toes fan outward. D. An infant's heart rate decreases secondary to hypoxia because he or she depends heavily on the heart rate to perfuse the body.

A

Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct? Select one: A. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment. B. Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member. C. Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment. D. All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport.

A

Which of the following is a safety concern regarding immunizations? Select one: a. They may produce adverse reactions in immuno-compromised individuals b. They may cause Autism Spectrum Disorder c. They often lead to active infectious disease when administered. d. They are not subjected to routine and rigorous testing prior to human use.

A

Which of the following is an early sign of pit viper envenomation? Select one: A. Local swelling and ecchymosis B. Syncope and bleeding at distal sites C. General weakness and diaphoresis D. Signs and symptoms of hypoperfusion

A

Which of the following is an example of a rules-based medication error? Select one: A. The EMT administers a drug that is not approved by the medical director. B. The EMT accidentally gives a higher drug dose than what is indicated. C. The EMT administers a drug that is contraindicated for the patient. D. The EMT administers the correct drug, but gives it by the wrong route.

A

Which of the following is an example of closed-loop communication? Select one: A. The team leader assigns the EMT a task, and the EMT repeats the request back to the team leader. B. The EMT corrects the team leader, who states that chest compressions should be greater than 3 inches deep. C. EMTs decide not to attempt resuscitation because the patient has rigor mortis and is cold to the touch. D. The EMT requests permission from medical control to assist a patient with his prescribed nitroglycerin.

A

Which of the following is an example of exposure by direct contact? Select one: a. A patient's blood comes into contact with an uncovered abrasion on your hand b. A needle that has been used with a patient pokes through your skin c. A patient's respiratory droplets from a sneeze land on a counter top that you later touch d. A tick carries bacteria in its gut and transfers that into your body when it bites you

A

Which of the following is most characteristic of adequate breathing in an adult? Select one: A. Respirations of 20 breaths/min and bilateral chest movement B. Use of the accessory muscles in the neck and cyanosis C. Cool, clammy skin and retractions above the clavicles D. Respirations of 30 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume

A

Which of the following is not a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patient's vital signs? Select one: A. Increased weight B. Overall health C. Medications D. Medical conditions

A

Which of the following is the most appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury? Select one: A. Long backboard B. Portable stretcher C. Scoop stretcher D. Wheeled stretcher

A

Which of the following is the most significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs? Select one: A. Immunity B. Gender C. Age D. Race

A

Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation? Select one: A. "Does your mother have diabetes?" B. "Are there medications that you cannot take?" C. "Does the pain stay in your chest?" D. "Has this ever happened to you before?"

A

Which of the following medications blocks the release of histamines? Select one: A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) B. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) C. Albuterol (Ventolin) D. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

A

Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder? Select one: A. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter B. Vertical-position flowmeter C. Ball-and-float flowmeter D. Pressure-compensated flowmeter

A

Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS? Select one: A. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device B. A 53-year-old patient who is assisted with his prescribed nitroglycerin C. A 64-year-old patient who is given aspirin for suspected cardiac chest pain D. A 61-year-old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen

A

Which of the following scenarios is an example of informed consent? Select one: A. An EMT advises a patient of the risks of receiving treatment. B. A patient is advised by an EMT of the risks of refusing care. C. A patient advises an EMT of why he or she is refusing care. D. An EMT initiates immediate care for an unconscious adult.

A

Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction? Select one: A. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed. B. A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries. C. An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children. D. An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia.

A

Which of the following sets of vital signs would the EMT most likely encounter in a patient with acute cocaine overdose? Select one: A. BP, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 150 beats/min B. BP, 60/40 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min C. BP, 190/90 mm Hg; pulse, 40 beats/min D. BP, 180/100 mm Hg; pulse, 50 beats/min

A

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? Select one: A. The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen. B. Most cells will function normally without glucose. C. Blood glucose levels decrease in the absence of insulin. D. The brain requires insulin to allow glucose to enter the cells.

A

Which of the following statements regarding positive-pressure ventilation is correct? Select one: A. With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing. B. Unlike negative-pressure ventilation, positive-pressure ventilation does not affect the esophageal opening pressure. C. Positive-pressure ventilation allows blood to naturally be pulled back to the heart from the body. D. To prevent hypotension, the EMT should increase the rate and force of positive-pressure ventilation.

A

Which of the following statements regarding standing orders is correct? Select one: A. Standing orders should be followed when physician contact is not possible. B. Standing orders require you to contact medical control first before providing an intervention. C. Standing orders have less legal authority than orders given via radio. D. Standing orders only highlight the care that you may provide.

A

Which of the following statements regarding the blood pressure is correct? Select one: A. Blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age. B. Blood pressure falls early in patients with hypoperfusion. C. Blood pressure is the most reliable indicator of perfusion. D. The systolic pressure represents ventricular relaxation.

A

Which of the following statements regarding the kidneys is correct? Select one: A. The kidneys eliminate toxic waste products from the body and control the body's fluid balance. B. Because the kidneys require little oxygen, only 5% of the body's blood volume passes through them each minute. C. A series of small blood vessels attach the kidneys directly to the superior vena cava and renal arteries. D. Both kidneys are located in the anterior abdominal cavity and lie in between the liver and the spleen.

A

Which of the following statements regarding the power lift is correct? Select one: A. It is the safest and most powerful method of lifting a patient. B. The leg muscles should remain relaxed during the power lift. C. It involves using your lower back instead of your legs to lift. D. It is not recommended for people with weak knees or thighs.

A

Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct? Select one: A. You may not have time to perform a secondary assessment if you must continually manage life threats that were identified during the primary assessment. B. A focused secondary assessment would be the most appropriate approach for a patient who experienced significant trauma to multiple body systems. C. The purpose of the secondary assessment is to systematically examine every patient from head to toe, regardless of the severity of his or her injury. D. If your general impression of a patient does not reveal any obvious life threats, you should proceed directly to the secondary assessment.

A

Which of the following statements regarding toddlers and preschoolers is correct? Select one: A. Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of the loss of passive immunity. B. The normal respiratory rate in toddlers and preschoolers is between 12 and 20 breaths/min. C. Toddlers and preschoolers have well-developed lung musculature, even though they have less lung tissue. D. Muscle mass and bone density decrease in toddlers and preschoolers because of increased physical activity.

A

Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese? Select one: A. Chest thrusts B. Finger sweeps C. Abdominal thrusts D. Back slaps

A

Which of the following would MOST likely facilitate an accurate and effective verbal handoff report at the hospital? Select one: A. Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format. B. Brief pause in care to provide the verbal report. C. Providing the handoff report only to a physician. D. Clearly identifying your EMS certification level.

A

Which of the following would NOT cause a decrease in tidal volume? Select one: A. Deep respirations B. Agonal respirations C. Irregular breathing D. Shallow breathing

A

Which of the following would be the best reasonable alternative to glucose gel? Select one: a. Orange juice b. Black coffee c. Diet soda d. Green tea

A

Which of the following would be the least likely to occur in a patient with a core body temperature of between 89°F (32°C) and 92°F (33°C)? Select one: A. Muscle activity increases B. Mental status decreases C. Shivering stops D. Finger motion ceases

A

While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions? Select one: A. Aspiration pneumonia B. Early pulmonary edema C. Widespread atelectasis D. Acute asthma attack

A

While providing CPAP to a patient in severe respiratory distress, you note that his heart rate has increased by 20 beats/min. He is conscious, but is no longer following verbal commands. You should: Select one: A. remove the CPAP device and ventilate him with a bag-mask device. B. increase the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering. C. decrease the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering. D. remove the CPAP device and apply oxygen by nonrebreathing mask.

A

While transferring patient care to another healthcare provider, you should be: Select one: A. respectful. B. aggressive. C. patient. D. assertive.

A

With increasing age, the heart must work harder to move the blood effectively because: Select one: A. the blood vessels become stiff. B. the blood thickens as a person ages. C. the arteries dilate significantly. D. diastolic blood pressure decreases.

A

You and your partner are EMTs who have been dispatched to stand by at the scene of a residential fire. While standing next to the ambulance observing the firefighters, you see a woman frantically moving around in her burning house. You should: Select one: A. immediately notify the incident commander or safety officer. B. don a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) and rescue the woman. C. stay where you are until firefighters remove her from the house. D. request permission from the fire chief to enter the structure.

A

You and your partner are attempting to resuscitate a middle-aged female in cardiac arrest. Because of the remote geographic location, you are unable to contact medical control. What should you do? Select one: A. Follow locally established protocols or standing orders. B. Perform CPR only and initiate immediate transport. C. Make continuous attempts to contact medical control. D. Ask the husband if he wants to continue resuscitation.

A

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should: Select one: A. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased. B. stop any active bleeding and advise dispatch to send a paramedic crew. C. request the fire department to extricate the patient so you can begin CPR. D. ventilate the patient for five minutes and then stop if there is no response.

A

You and your partner arrive at the side of a 60-year-old woman who collapsed about 7 minutes ago. She is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should: Select one: A. begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as it is available. B. apply the AED if there is no response after 10 cycles of CPR. C. immediately apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm. D. begin CPR at a compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2.

A

You are assessing a 49-year-old man who, according to his wife, experienced a sudden, severe headache and then passed out. He is unresponsive and has slow, irregular breathing. His blood pressure is 190/94 mm Hg, and his pulse rate is 50 beats/min. His wife tells you that he has hypertension and diabetes. He has MOST likely experienced: Select one: A. a ruptured cerebral artery. B. a complex partial seizure. C. an occluded cerebral artery. D. acute hypoglycemia.

A

You are called to treat a 51-year-old man by his wife because he is acting strangely. He is found to be alert but disoriented and slurring his speech. He has no medical history and does not take any medications. When his blood glucose level is checked, the glucometer displays the message "Lo". This indicates: Select one: a. Blood glucose level is too low to read b. Glucometer battery is too low to read c. Blood volume on the test strip is too low to read d. The drop of blood on the test strip was placed too low

A

You are dispatched to a middle school for a 16-year-old female experiencing an asthma attack. She is conscious and alert but in severe respiratory distress. The school nurse informs you that she has tried several times to contact the patient's parents but has not been successful. You should: Select one: A. provide treatment up to your level of training and transport the child at once. B. recognize that you cannot begin treatment without expressed parental consent. C. administer oxygen only until you receive parental consent for further treatment. D. transport the child to the closest hospital and let the staff there provide any treatment.

A

You are dispatched to a residence for a 66-year-old male who, according to family members, has suffered a massive stroke. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should: Select one: A. initiate CPR and attach an AED as soon as possible. B. obtain a blood glucose sample to rule out hypoglycemia. C. assess the patient for a facial droop and hemiparesis. D. perform CPR for 5 minutes before applying the AED

A

You are dispatched to a state park for a young female experiencing an allergic reaction. Your assessment reveals that her breathing is severely labored and her blood pressure is very low. You carry epinephrine auto-injectors on your ambulance and have been trained and approved by your medical director to administer them. As your partner gives the patient supplemental oxygen, you attempt to contact medical control but do not have a signal from your cell phone. You should: Select one: A. administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital. B. immediately load the patient into the ambulance, begin transport, and reattempt to contact medical control when you receive a cell signal. C. place her in a supine position, keep her warm, begin transport to the hospital, and request a paramedic intercept en route. D. notify dispatch and request that a paramedic unit respond to the scene so they can administer epinephrine to the patient.

A

You are dispatched to an office building for a 49-year-old male with chest pain. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient to be conscious and alert but in obvious pain. He tells you that he did not call 911; a coworker did. He further states that he does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. You should: Select one: A. ensure that he is aware of the risks of refusing medical care. B. err in the best interest of the patient and transport him at once. C. tell him that he is having a heart attack and needs medical care. D. have him sign a refusal of care form and then return to service.

A

You are dispatched to the county jail for an inmate who is "sick." When you arrive, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, unresponsive. His airway is patent, and his respirations are rapid and shallow. Your initial action should be to: Select one: A. assist his ventilations. B. apply a pulse oximeter. C. assess his blood pressure. D. request a paramedic unit.

A

You are managing a newborn baby boy whose mother used heroin throughout the pregnancy. The newborn is now having an opioid related seizure. How should this be managed? Select one: a. Do not administer naloxone at all b. Administer intramuscular naloxone c. Administer half the usual dose of naloxone and titrate to stop the seizure d. Administer intranasal naloxone

A

You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a major motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should: Select one: A. reassess his condition in 5 minutes. B. arrange for an ALS rendezvous. C. take his vital signs in 15 minutes. D. repeat your secondary assessment.

A

You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a major motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should: Select one: A. reassess his condition in 5 minutes. B. repeat your secondary assessment. C. arrange for an ALS rendezvous. D. take his vital signs in 15 minutes.

A

You are treating a 31-year-old female with type 1 diabetes. She has been sick with a respiratory infection for the last several days. She has not been taking her medications. Today, she presents with progressive confusion, abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Her skin is flush and warm to the touch. Which of the following is most correct about this patient? Select one: a. Her BGL is most likely high. Glucose should not be given. b. Her BGL is most likely low. Glucose should not be given. c. Her BGL is most likely high. Glucose should be given. d. Her BGL is most likely low. Glucose should be given.

A

You are treating a 41-year-old male with a history of alcohol dependence who is alert and speaking but appears very intoxicated and confused and is found with a large empty alcoholic beverage container. His blood glucose level is 59 mg/dL. How should this blood glucose level be managed? Select one: a. Give glucose since his BGL is low. b. Do not give glucose since his BGL is high. c. Do not give glucose since his primary problem is not diabetes. d. Give glucose since he is probably diabetic.

A

You are treating a 50-year-old type 2 diabetic male patient. He is pale, cool, and clammy and is very confused. You have attempted to check his blood glucose level with a glucometer several times but have been unable to get a reading due to an error code. What treatment should now be provided? Select one: a. Treat for hypoglycemia b. Treat for hyperglycemia c. Provide only supportive care and transport until a blood sugar level can be obtained. d. Withhold treatment since it cannot be determined if his blood sugar level is high or low.

A

You are treating a 54-year-old man with tightness in his chest after doing yard work on a warm sunny day. You retrieve his Nitrostat from the kitchen windowsill and bring it over to him. Which of the following statements is most true? Select one: a. The patient should be asked if there is a fresh bottle of Nitrostat available instead. b. The patient should not be allowed to take the medication without a paramedic on scnee. c. The patient should be allowed to take the medication as prescribed without further assessment. d. The patient should be asked to show documentation of the prescription to prove that it is his.

A

You are treating a 66-year-old male patient for suspected ACS. His cardiologist has prescribed a daily aspirin, nitroglycerin as needed, and metoprolol. On further history taking, you learn his primary care physician has prescribed lisinopril, atorvastatin, and tedalafil. He has taken all of these medications today except for his nitroglycerin. How should you proceed? Select one: a. Do not administer the nitroglycerin because it is contra-indicated based on treatment provided by his primary care physician. b. Do not administer the nitroglycerin because the metoprolol may prevent his heart rate from compensating for the effect of the nitroglycerin. c. Administer the nitroglycerin after confirming his vital signs do not contra-indicate it. d. Administer the nitroglycerin since it is prescribed by his cardiologist.

A

You are treating a patient with shortness of breath using a nasal cannula with the flow regulator adjusted to 6 Lpm and pulse oximetry shows 92 %. What is the next appropriate treatment? Select one: a. Change to a non-rebreathing mask and adjust the flow to 15 Lpm b. Adjust the flow to 8 Lpm c. Change to a non-rebreathing mask and adjust the flow to 8 Lpm d. Adjust the flow to 4 Lpm

A

You arrive at the scene of a domestic violence situation. As you approach the doorway of the apartment, you hear screaming and the statement, "He has a gun!". Your mostappropriate action should be to: Select one: A. seek a safe place and request law enforcement assistance. B. continue into the apartment using extreme caution. C. continue into the apartment and apprehend the gunman. D. get in your ambulance and leave the scene immediately.

A

You have just delivered a full-term infant. His respirations are rapid and irregular, and he has a strong cry. What should you do next? Select one: A. Check the pulse rate at the brachial artery. B. Clamp and cut the umbilical cord. C. Begin assisting the newborn's breathing. D. Allow the mother to hold her baby.

A

You respond to a local lake where a diver complains of difficulty breathing that occurred immediately after rapidly ascending from a depth of approximately 30 feet. On assessment, you note that he has cyanosis around his lips and pink froth coming from his nose and mouth. You should: Select one: A. suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, monitor the patient's breath sounds for a pneumothorax, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility. B. suction his mouth and nose, keep him supine and elevate his legs to prevent air bubbles from entering his brain, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport to a hyperbaric chamber. C. position him supine with his head elevated 30°, suction his mouth and nose, hyperventilate him with a bag-valve mask, and contact medical control for further guidance. D. place him in a semi-sitting position, suction his mouth and nose, apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, and transport to the closest emergency department.

A

You respond to a private home in late autumn. An elderly couple report feeling ill for the last two hours with headache, nausea, lethargy, and weakness. The wife reports that she began feeling very short of breath about 15 minutes ago. Her lung sounds are clear and her SpO2 shows 100 %. What is the most appropriate initial action? Select one: a. Administer O2 to both the husband and wife after moving to the ambulance b. Administer O2 to the wife only on scene c. Administer O2 to the wife only after moving to the ambulance d. Administer O2 to both the husband and wife on scene

A

You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44-year-old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately; however, he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. You should: Select one: A. apply direct pressure to the wound. B. immediately evaluate his airway. C. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. D. assess the rate and quality of his pulse.

A

You respond to the residence of a 62-year-old male who is unresponsive. Your primary assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. You should: Select one: A. start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible. B. ask the family if the patient has a terminal disease. C. perform CPR and transport the patient immediately. D. notify dispatch and request a paramedic ambulance.

A

You would expect a patient who is experiencing difficulty breathing to be in which of the following positions? Select one: A. Fowler B. Recovery C. Prone D. Supine

A

Your ability to remain awake is a function of the: Select one: A. reticular activating system. B. limbic system. C. pons and medulla. D. cerebellum.

A

Your assessment of an unresponsive patient reveals that her breathing is inadequate. Your MOST immediate action should be to: Select one: A. check her airway for obstructions. B. ventilate her with a bag-mask device. C. move her to the ambulance stretcher. D. administer high-flow oxygen.

A

Your patient answers your questions appropriately, although her eyes remain closed the entire time. She moves each extremity on command, although her left side is weaker than the right. You should assign a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of: Select one: A. 12 B. 14 C. 13 D. 15

A

Your patient's past medical history includes hypertension, congestive heart failure, diabetes, and seizures. Today, he presents with signs of acute renal failure. Which of his medical problems MOST likely caused this? Select one: A. Heart failure B. Diabetes C. Seizures D. Hypertension

A

Your protocols state that during the first few minutes of working on a cardiac arrest patient, you should provide passive ventilation. This means that you will: Select one: A. allow recoil of the chest between compressions to draw air into the lungs. B. deliver positive-pressure ventilation at a rate of only 5 or 6 breaths/min. C. ventilate with a bag-valve mask that is not attached to oxygen. D. time your positive-pressure ventilations to occur during chest recoil.

A

Your unit is dispatched to the county jail for an intoxicated inmate. Upon arrival, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, lying supine in a jail cell. He is responsive to painful stimuli only and has slow, shallow respirations. You should be most concerned that this patient: Select one: A. might vomit and aspirate. B. is severely hypoglycemic. C. might experience a seizure. D. might become violent.

A

___________ pressure is the pressure exerted by a liquid that occurs when blood moves through an artery at relatively high pressures. Select one: A. Hydrostatic B. Diffusion C. Oncotic D. Osmotic

A

____________ is what you can see of a person's response to the environment. Select one: A. Behavior B. Neurosis C. Psychosis D. Affect

A

Assessment of a patient with hypoglycemia will MOST likely reveal: Select one: A. warm, dry skin. B. combativeness. C. hyperactivity. D. sunken eyes.

B

At rest, the normal adult heart rate should not exceed: Select one: A. 70 beats/min. B. 100 beats/min. C. 80 beats/min. D. 90 beats/min.

B

While transferring patient care to another healthcare provider, you should be: Select one: A. assertive. B. patient. C. respectful. D. aggressive.

C

A 20-year-old female is found unresponsive with an empty bottle of alcohol and an empty pill bottle labeled to have contained 30 Percocet tablets each with 10 mg oxycodone. To reverse this overdose, you should administer: Select one: a. Naloxone 4 - 8 mg Intranasal b. Naloxone 2 - 4 mg Intranasal c. EMTs do not have an antidote for this. d. Naloxone 2 - 4 mg Intramuscular

B

Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be: Select one: A. referred. B. radiating. C. provoking. D. palliating.

B

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) typically does NOT affect the: Select one: A. ovaries. B. urinary bladder. C. fallopian tubes. D. uterus.

B

A 20-year-old male was pulled from cold water by his friends. The length of his submersion is not known and was not witnessed. You perform a primary assessment and determine that the patient is apneic and has a slow, weak pulse. You should: Select one: A. suction his airway for 30 seconds, provide rescue breathing, keep him warm, and transport at once. B. provide rescue breathing, remove his wet clothing, immobilize his entire spine, keep him warm, and transport carefully. C. ventilate with a bag-valve mask, apply a rigid cervical collar, remove his wet clothing, and transport rapidly. D. apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, immobilize his spine, keep him warm, and transport rapidly.

B

A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival? Select one: A. Intravenous fluid administration B. Rapid transport to a trauma center C. High-flow oxygen administration D. Full immobilization of her spine

B

A 3-year-old female ingested several leaves from a plant in the living room. The child's mother is not sure what type of plant it is, stating that she bought it simply because it was pretty. After completing your primary assessment of the child, you should: Select one: A. induce vomiting with syrup of ipecac. B. contact the regional poison control center. C. immediately transport the child to the hospital. D. administer 25 g of activated charcoal.

B

A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is: Select one: A. an antihistamine. B. epinephrine. C. a beta-antagonist. D. albuterol.

B

A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should: Select one: A. administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress. B. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication. C. check the drug's expiration date to ensure that it is still current. D. contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did.

B

A 37-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with excessive urination and weakness of 2 days' duration. Her blood glucose level reads 320 mg/dL. If this patient's condition is not promptly treated, she will MOST likely develop: Select one: A. hypoxia and overhydration. B. acidosis and dehydration. C. irreversible renal failure. D. severe insulin shock.

B

A 40-year-old male intentionally cut his wrist out of anger after losing his job. Law enforcement has secured the scene prior to your arrival. As you enter the residence and visualize the patient, you can see that he has a towel around his wrist and a moderate amount of blood has soaked through it. You should: Select one: A. quickly tend to the bleeding wound. B. calmly identify yourself to the patient. C. tell the patient that you want to help. D. approach the patient with caution.

B

A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should: Select one: A. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin. B. assess the adequacy of his respirations. C. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history. D. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin.

B

A 49-year-old male with an extensive cardiac history presents with 2 hours of crushing chest pain and shortness of breath. He is pale and diaphoretic and tells you that he feels like he is going to die. His medications include nitroglycerin, sildenafil (Viagra), and enalapril (Vasotec). His blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to administering supplemental oxygen if needed, you should: Select one: A. obtain physician approval to give the nitroglycerin. B. ask him if he took his Viagra within the past 24 hours. C. administer one nitroglycerin and call medical control. D. place him in a supine position and transport at once.

B

A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the ____________ forearm. Select one: A. proximal B. distal C. superior D. dorsal

B

A 59-year-old male presents with severe vomiting and diarrhea of 3 days' duration. He is confused and diaphoretic, and his radial pulses are absent. His blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg. After applying supplemental oxygen, you should: Select one: A. obtain a repeat blood pressure in 5 minutes. B. prepare for immediate transport. C. perform a head-to-toe exam. D. allow him to drink plain water.

B

A 75-year-old male with a terminal illness has died at home. As you and your partner enter the residence, a family member becomes verbally abusive, pushes you, and states that you took too long to get there. You should: Select one: A. ignore the family member and assess the patient. B. retreat and notify law enforcement personnel. C. tell the family member that it is not your fault. D. subdue the family member until the police arrive.

B

A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is: Select one: A. nitrogen. B. heat. C. oxygen. D. lactic acid.

B

A fracture of the humerus just above the elbow would be described as a: Select one: A. distal forearm fracture. B. distal humerus fracture. C. proximal elbow fracture. D. proximal humerus fracture.

B

A man finds his 59-year-old wife unconscious on the couch. He states that she takes medications for type 2 diabetes. He further tells you that his wife has been ill recently and has not eaten for the past 24 hours. Your assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive. You should: Select one: A. administer oral glucose between her cheek and gum. B. open and maintain her airway and assess breathing. C. assess for the presence of a medical identification tag. D. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

B

A man with a prolonged history of alcohol abuse fell from a second-story balcony. His blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg, his heart rate is 120 beats/min, and his skin is cool and pale. When caring for this patient, the EMT should recall that: Select one: A. patients with alcoholism are prone to hyperglycemia. B. reduced blood clotting worsens internal bleeding. C. alcohol is a stimulant, which likely caused his fall. D. patients with alcoholism are prone to hyperthermia.

B

A newborn at 1 minute old has an Apgar score of 2. What is the significance of this? Select one: a. Low 1 minute Apgar scores predict the newborn will not survive and newborn care can stop b. Low 1 minute Apgar scores are common and the newborn will likely improve with appropriate care c. Low 1 minute Apgar scores are worrying and the newborn is at high risk d. Low 1 minute Apgar scores are common and no specific action is needed

B

A newborn has four anatomic abnormalities of the heart. What prefix is used to describe this? Select one: A. Multi- B. Tetra- C. Dipl- D. Uni-

B

A patient has bilateral femur fractures. This means that: Select one: A. both fractures are closer to the knee. B. both femurs are fractured. C. the femur is fractured in two places. D. both fractures are closer to the hips.

B

A patient has kidney disease that is causing him severe pain. What condition does he have and what would be administered for his pain? Select one: A. Dysuria; anti-inflammatory B. Nephropathy; analgesic C. Neuropathy; antibiotic D. Myopathy; anesthetic

B

A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced? Select one: A. Obstructive lung disease B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Uncontrolled hypertension D. Thoracic aortic aneurysm

B

A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she: Select one: A. has had a prior heart attack. B. has bleeding within the brain. C. has a GCS score that is less than 8. D. is older than 60 years of age.

B

A pregnant trauma patient might lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of shock because: Select one: A. blood is shunted to the uterus and fetus during major trauma. B. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume. C. pregnancy causes vasodilation and a lower blood pressure. D. pregnant patients can dramatically increase their heart rate.

B

A pulse with a consistent pattern is considered to be: Select one: A. irregular. B. regular. C. weak. D. strong.

B

A sign of respiratory distress seen in the neck is: Select one: A. muscular twitches. B. accessory muscle use. C. muscular definition. D. muscular atrophy.

B

An unrestrained patient is sitting in his car after an automobile crash. He is conscious and alert, has no visible trauma, and is complaining of neck and back pain. Before removing him from his car, you should: Select one: A. maintain manual stabilization of his head and grasp him by the clothes. B. apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device. C. slide a scoop stretcher under his buttocks and rotate him laterally. D. perform a detailed head-to-toe assessment and apply a cervical collar.

B

A team of EMTs is caring for a critically injured patient. The team leader advises the EMT that transport will not begin until the patient's closed forearm fracture is splinted. Utilizing the crew resource management model, the EMT should: Select one: A. disregard the team leader's request and contact medical control for guidance. B. advise the team leader that immediate transport is more important than splinting. C. repeat the request back to the team leader and then splint the patient's arm. D. ensure that the entire team is aware that transport will be delayed for splinting.

B

A young female is unconscious after intentionally ingesting a large amount of aspirin. You will MOST likely find her respirations: Select one: A. rapid and shallow. B. deep and rapid. C. slow and shallow. D. slow and deep.

B

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office to: Select one: A. give aspirin to a patient with chest pain. B. insert a peripheral intravenous catheter. C. apply and interpret data from a pulse oximeter. D. use an automatic transport ventilator.

B

Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called: Select one: A. negligence. B. assault. C. battery. D. libel.

B

After administering your patient's prescribed Nitrolingual, the patient becomes lightheaded, reports a pounding headache, and has a brief syncopal episode. What is the correct action to take? Select one: a. Administer the antidote quickly as this indicates an overdose. b. Lay the patient supine to increase cerebral blood flow. c. Sit the patient upright to decrease the intra-cranial pressure. d. Administer the next dose quickly as the effect is only temporary.

B

After an advanced airway device has been inserted during two-rescuer CPR, you should: Select one: A. increase rescue breathing to a rate of 14 breaths/min. B. deliver one rescue breath every 6 seconds. C. decrease the compression rate to about 80 per minute. D. pause compressions to deliver ventilations.

B

After applying medical restraints to a combative patient, you should: Select one: A. inform the patient that the restraints are punishment for their behavior. B. remove them only after hospital personnel have requested you to do so. C. remove them only if the patient verbally commits to calming down. D. position the patient prone in order to further prevent injury to yourself.

B

After assisting your patient with prescribed nitroglycerin, you should: Select one: A. place the patient in a recumbent position in case of fainting. B. reassess his or her blood pressure within 5 minutes to detect hypotension. C. avoid further dosing if the patient complains of a severe headache. D. perform a secondary assessment before administering further doses.

B

After being stung on the leg by a jellyfish, a man complains of severe pain to his leg, dizziness, and difficulty breathing. He has a red rash covering his trunk, and his blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. The EMT should: Select one: A. remove the stingers from his leg by scraping them with a stiff object. B. administer oxygen and epinephrine and prepare for rapid transport. C. begin transport and immerse his leg in hot water to help reduce pain. D. apply warmth to the sting area and cover it with a dry sterile dressing.

B

All information recorded on the PCR must be: Select one: A. reflective of your opinion. B. considered confidential. C. a matter of public record. D. typewritten or printed.

B

All of the following are exceptions under HIPAA where you may release protected health information to law enforcement without the patient's consent, except: Select one: a. When a state law requires that you notify police regarding the type of injury your patient received b. When law enforcement suspects that your patient may be intoxicated and asks you to render an opinion as to the patient's condition or state of intoxication c. To help police locate a suspect, fugitive, material witness or missing person d. To report a crime in an emergency, such as when there could be immediate danger to others

B

All of the following conditions should make you suspect shock, EXCEPT: Select one: A. severe infection. B. ischemic stroke. C. anaphylaxis. D. spinal injury.

B

An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n): Select one: A. EMT. B. paramedic. C. EMR. D. advanced EMT (AEMT).

B

An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n): Select one: A. advanced EMT (AEMT). B. paramedic. C. EMR. D. EMT.

B

An alert patient presents with a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and breath sounds that are clear and equal on both sides of the chest. These findings are consistent with: Select one: A. respiratory difficulty. B. adequate air exchange. C. respiratory insufficiency. D. an obstructed airway.

B

An effective team leader should: Select one: A. command his or her team. B. help the team accomplish goals. C. perform all difficult interventions. D. refrain from any direct patient care.

B

An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position? Select one: A. Recumbent B. Prone C. Supine D. Dorsal

B

As the single EMT managing an apneic patient's airway, the preferred initial method of providing ventilations is the: Select one: A. mouth-to-mouth technique. B. mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve. C. one-person bag-valve mask. D. manually triggered ventilation device.

B

Bacterial vaginosis is a condition that occurs when: Select one: A. numerous bacteria enter the uterus through the cervix and cause severe tissue damage. B. normal bacteria in the vagina are replaced by an overgrowth of other bacterial forms. C. abnormal bacteria enter the vagina and cause damage without causing any symptoms. D. harmful bacteria infect and cause damage to the uterus, cervix, and fallopian tubes.

B

Before giving activated charcoal, you should: Select one: A. have the patient drink a glass of milk. B. obtain approval from medical control. C. mix the suspension by stirring the bottle. D. mix it with an equal amount of water.

B

CPR should be initiated when: Select one: A. the carotid pulse is very weak. B. a valid living will is unavailable. C. rigor mortis is obvious. D. signs of putrefaction are present.

B

Common names for activated charcoal include all of the following, except: Select one: A. Actidose. B. Fructose. C. InstaChar. D. LiquiChar.

B

Common side effects of epinephrine include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. tachycardia. B. drowsiness. C. dizziness. D. headache.

B

Common signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. persistent dry cough. B. drying of the eyes. C. abdominal cramps. D. flushing of the skin.

B

Common signs and symptoms of severe hyperglycemia include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. warm, dry skin. B. cool, clammy skin. C. acetone breath odor. D. rapid, thready pulse.

B

During a resuscitation attempt, the team leader asks the EMT to ventilate the patient at a rate of 20 breaths/min, and the EMT replies, "Actually, sir, the correct ventilation rate is 10 breaths/min." This is an example of: Select one: A. situational awareness. B. constructive intervention. C. closed-loop communication. D. quality assurance monitoring.

B

During each heartbeat, ___________ of blood is ejected from the adult heart, an amount called the stroke volume. Select one: A. 90 to 100 mL B. 70 to 80 mL C. 100 to 120 mL D. 40 to 50 mL

B

EMRs such as firefighters, law enforcement officers, and park rangers are an integral part of the EMS system because: Select one: A. they are usually trained to assist paramedics with certain procedures. B. they often arrive at the scene before the ambulance and EMTs. C. the average response time for the EMT crew is approximately 15 minutes. D. they can initiate certain ALS procedures before EMS arrival.

B

Early signs and symptoms of viral hepatitis include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. vomiting, fever, and fatigue. B. jaundice and abdominal pain. C. loss of appetite and a cough. D. pain in the muscles and joints.

B

Eclampsia is most accurately defined as: Select one: A. a blood pressure greater than 140/90 mm Hg. B. seizures that result from severe hypertension. C. high levels of protein in the patient's urine. D. hypertension in the 20th week of pregnancy.

B

For which route of transmission would a surgical mask be insufficient (compared to an N95 HEPA respirator)? Select one: a. Direct contact b. Airborne c. Indirect contact d. Droplet borne

B

Gastric distention will MOST likely occur: Select one: A. when the airway is completely obstructed. B. if you ventilate a patient too quickly. C. when you deliver minimal tidal volume. D. in patients who are intubated.

B

General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? Select one: A. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion B. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery C. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery D. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery

B

How is most of the oxygen carried in the blood? Select one: a. Dissolved in erythrocytes b. Bound to hemoglobin in erythrocytes c. Dissolved in leukocytes d. Bound to hemoglobin in leukocytes

B

Hypotension in a child with blunt or penetrating trauma is particularly significant because: Select one: A. it typically develops earlier in children than it does in adults. B. it often indicates the loss of half of his or her blood volume. C. most children with hypotension die in the prehospital setting. D. the most likely cause of the hypotension is respiratory failure.

B

Hypotension in a child with blunt or penetrating trauma is particularly significant because: Select one: A. most children with hypotension die in the prehospital setting. B. it often indicates the loss of half of his or her blood volume. C. it typically develops earlier in children than it does in adults. D. the most likely cause of the hypotension is respiratory failure.

B

Immediately after physically restraining a violent patient, the EMT should: Select one: A. document the time the restraints were applied. B. reassess the patient's airway and breathing. C. advise the patient why restraint was needed. D. inform medical control of the situation.

B

In ___________ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner. Select one: A. patient-assisted B. peer-assisted C. paramedic-administered D. EMT-administered

B

In an apparent suicide attempt, a 19-year-old female ingested a full bottle of amitriptyline (Elavil). At present, she is conscious and alert and states that she swallowed the pills approximately 30 minutes earlier. Her blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, her pulse is 140 beats/min and irregular, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. When transporting this patient, you should be most alert for: Select one: A. an increase in her blood pressure. B. seizures and cardiac dysrhythmias. C. acute respiratory depression. D. a sudden outburst of violence.

B

In an independent group, you would have: Select one: A. a common set of tasks. B. your own work area. C. parallel work. D. shared transportation.

B

In an otherwise healthy adult, blood loss would cause: Select one: A. vascular constriction and bradycardia. B. vascular constriction and tachycardia. C. vascular dilation and bradycardia. D. vascular dilation and tachycardia.

B

In contrast to a behavioral crisis, a behavioral health emergency occurs when a person: Select one: A. experiences a sudden attack of panic secondary to a stressful situation. B. becomes agitated or violent and is a threat to him- or herself or others. C. experiences feelings of sadness and despair for longer than a month. D. exhibits impaired functioning due to a chemical or genetic disturbance.

B

In contrast to a health care group, a health care team: Select one: A. works independently. B. works interdependently. C. is not assigned specific roles. D. does not function under protocols.

B

In contrast to abruptio placenta, placenta previa: Select one: A. might not present with heavy vaginal bleeding. B. might present without significant abdominal pain. C. is typically associated with severe abdominal pain. D. is caused by hypertension or abdominal trauma.

B

In general, injected poisons are impossible to dilute or remove because they: Select one: A. are usually fatal within 30 minutes of exposure. B. are usually absorbed quickly into the body. C. absorb slowly into the body, despite their potency. D. react with the blood, which increases their toxicity.

B

In preconventional reasoning, children: Select one: A. look for approval from their peers and society. B. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want. C. blame their actions on what they have observed in older children. D. make decisions based on their conscience.

B

In situations where a patient refuses treatment, the proper course of action regarding furnishing your organization's Notice of Privacy Practices (NPP) to the individual is to: Select one: a. Tell the individual to contact your organization or go to your organization's website if they would like a copy of your NPP b. Furnish or at least offer your NPP to the individual and make an effort to obtain the individual's signature acknowledging that they received the NPP c. Do not worry about furnishing the NPP to the patient because you probably will not collect any PHI about the individual d. Read the NPP to the patient

B

In the recovery position, the patient is: Select one: A. lying face down. B. on his or her side. C. sitting upright. D. lying face up.

B

In what circumstance are antibiotic resistant infections often encountered? Select one: a. Communities with elderly populations taking multiple medications b. Healthcare settings where antibiotics are used c. Urban settings with high population densities d. Scientific and research laboratory settings

B

Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: Select one: A. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight. B. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons. C. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later. D. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive.

B

Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is a product of: Select one: A. stroke volume and systemic vascular resistance. B. cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance. C. heart rate and systemic vascular resistance. D. heart rate and stroke volume.

B

Movement or motion away from the body's midline is called: Select one: A. flexion. B. abduction. C. extension. D. adduction.

B

Narrowing of the coronary arteries caused by a buildup of fatty deposits is called: Select one: A. acute ischemia. B. atherosclerosis. C. angina pectoris. D. arteriosclerosis.

B

Negative-pressure breathing involves: Select one: A. pushing or forcing air into the lungs. B. a drop in pressure within the chest cavity. C. increasing airway resistance during breathing. D. relaxing the respiratory muscles.

B

Neurogenic shock occurs when: Select one: A. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging. B. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. C. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury. D. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container.

B

Nitroglycerin relieves cardiac-related chest pain by: Select one: A. increasing the amount of stress that is placed on the myocardium. B. dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow. C. constricting the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow. D. contracting the smooth muscle of the coronary and cerebral arteries.

B

Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: Select one: A. State Bureau of EMS. B. individual EMT. C. EMS training officer. D. EMS medical director.

B

Placenta previa is defined as: Select one: A. premature placental separation from the uterine wall. B. development of the placenta over the cervical opening. C. delivery of a portion of the placenta before the baby. D. abnormal development and functioning of the placenta.

B

Pregnant women are advised to take iron supplements, such as prenatal vitamins, because: Select one: A. the blood naturally thins during pregnancy, which predisposes the mother to severe bleeding. B. pregnancy causes an increased number of red blood cells, which predisposes the mother to anemia. C. white blood cells decrease during pregnancy, which increases the mother's risk of an infection. D. iron makes the blood clot faster, which protects the mother from excessive bleeding during delivery.

B

Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that: Select one: A. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately. B. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient. C. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms. D. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions.

B

The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes: Select one: A. visualizing the airway and removing the obstruction. B. administering oxygen and transporting immediately. C. performing five back slaps and five abdominal thrusts. D. advising the patient not to make any attempts to cough.

B

The MOST common and significant complication associated with an acute abdomen is: Select one: A. severe pain. B. peritonitis. C. high fever. D. internal bleeding.

B

The _________ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle. Select one: A. coccyx B. sacrum C. ischium D. thorax

B

The __________ of a medication usually dictates the route by which it will be administered. Select one: A. name B. form C. class D. type

B

The ____________ deals with the well-being of the EMT, career progression, and EMT compensation. Select one: A. local public health department B. human resources department C. office of the medical director D. EMS administrator or chief

B

The ____________ deals with the well-being of the EMT, career progression, and EMT compensation. Select one: A. office of the medical director B. human resources department C. EMS administrator or chief D. local public health department

B

The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the: Select one: A. spinous foramen. B. foramen magnum. C. foramen ovale. D. vertebral foramen.

B

The central nervous system is composed of the: Select one: A. brain and sensory nerves. B. brain and spinal cord. C. spinal cord and sensory nerves. D. motor and sensory nerves.

B

The concept of consistent care across the entire health care team from first patient contact to patient discharge is called: Select one: A. patient care advocacy. B. the continuum of care. C. the scope of practice. D. the standard of care.

B

The diaphragm is unique because it: Select one: A. does not have striations like skeletal muscle. B. is both a voluntary and an involuntary muscle. C. does not receive impulses from the brain. D. is the exclusive muscle of breathing.

B

The diaphragm is unique because it: Select one: A. is the exclusive muscle of breathing. B. is both a voluntary and an involuntary muscle. C. does not have striations like skeletal muscle. D. does not receive impulses from the brain.

B

The first rule of safe lifting is to: Select one: A. keep your back in a slightly curved position. B. keep your back in a straight, vertical position. C. spread your legs approximately 20″ apart. D. always lift with your palms facing down.

B

The first step in assessing a patient with a behavioral emergency is to: Select one: A. restrain the patient. B. ensure your safety. C. obtain proper consent. D. take vital signs.

B

What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR? Select one: A. 30:2 B. 15:2 C. 5:1 D. 3:1

B

The low normal systolic blood pressure for a 30-year-old is: Select one: A. 60 mm Hg. B. 90 mm Hg. C. 80 mm Hg. D. 70 mm Hg.

B

The low normal systolic blood pressure for a 30-year-old is: Select one: A. 70 mm Hg. B. 90 mm Hg. C. 60 mm Hg. D. 80 mm Hg.

B

The most effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to: Select one: A. wear socks made of heavy-duty cotton. B. wear at least three layers of clothing. C. wear a heavy, thick jacket or coat. D. avoid outer clothing with zippers.

B

The most serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is: Select one: A. low morale and frequently missed shifts. B. substandard or inappropriate patient care. C. punitive action and the loss of a job. D. tension among coworkers and supervisors

B

The nasal cannula is MOST appropriately used in the prehospital setting: Select one: A. when the patient breathes primarily through his or her mouth. B. when the patient cannot tolerate a nonrebreathing mask. C. if long-term supplemental oxygen administration is required. D. if the patient's nasopharynx is obstructed by secretions.

B

The onset of menstruation usually occurs in females who are: Select one: A. between 8 and 10 years of age. B. between 11 and 16 years of age. C. between 18 and 23 years of age. D. between 25 and 28 years of age.

B

The poison control center will provide you with the most information regarding the appropriate treatment for a patient with a drug overdose if the center: Select one: A. knows why the patient overdosed on the drug. B. is aware of the substance that is involved. C. is aware of the patient's age and gender. D. knows the location of the closest hospital.

B

The route of administration of nitroglycerin is: Select one: a. Superlingual b. Sublingual c. Oral d. Buccal

B

To ensure that you will deliver the appropriate number of chest compressions during one-rescuer adult CPR, you should compress the patient's chest at a rate of: Select one: A. no greater than 100 compressions per minute. B. 100 to 120 compressions per minute. C. 80 to 100 compressions per minute. D. at least 120 compressions per minute.

B

To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should: Select one: A. use universal precautions with every patient encounter. B. provide competent care that meets current standards. C. utilize at least four personnel when moving a patient. D. always transport patients to the hospital of their choice.

B

Twelve pairs of ribs attach to the ___________ section of the spinal column. Select one: A. lumbar B. thoracic C. sacral D. coccyx

B

Two EMTs witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient's emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The EMTs ignored the coworker's treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the two EMTs is considered: Select one: A. illegal and unethical. B. legal but unethical. C. legal and ethical. D. illegal but ethical.

B

Upon arriving at the hospital after transporting a patient from whom you experienced an exposure to blood, what special actions should you take? Select one: a. Wash the site, notify your supervisor, and take down the source patient's information to follow up later b. Wash the site thoroughly, notify your supervisor, and be evaluated by a physician at the receiving hospital c. Wash the site with waterless sanitizer, notify your supervisor and contact your primary care physician for an evaluation d. Contact your primary care physician and begin a course of antibiotics immediately

B

Vectorborne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: Select one: A. smoke or dust. B. animals or insects. C. inanimate objects. D. direct contact.

B

What class of medication is epinephrine? Select one: a. Cholinergic b. Catecholamine c. Cholesterol d. Anticholinergic

B

What is the function of the fallopian tubes? Select one: A. To connect the ovaries B. To transport a mature egg to the uterus C. To supply blood to the uterine lining D. To produce progesterone and estrogen

B

What is the most appropriate way to deliver O2 to a 3-year-old with shallow breathing? Select one: a. 6 Lpm via nasal cannula b. 15 Lpm via BVM c. 15 Lpm via non-rebreather d. 10 Lpm via blow by

B

What range of heart rate would result in 2 points toward an Apgar score? Select one: a. > 60 bpm b. > 100 bpm c. < 60 bpm d. < 100 bpm

B

When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should: Select one: A. visually assess the painful area of the abdomen, but avoid palpation because this could worsen his or her condition. B. palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction, beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful. C. ask the patient to point to the area of pain or tenderness and assess for rebound tenderness over that specific area. D. observe for abdominal guarding, which is characterized by sudden relaxation of the abdominal muscles when palpated.

B

When caring for a 65-year-old male with respiratory distress, you place him in a comfortable position but do not apply oxygen. The patient's condition continues to deteriorate: He develops cardiac arrest and dies at the hospital. This scenario is an example of: Select one: A. abandonment. B. negligence. C. assault. D. battery.

B

When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should: Select one: A. advise her that she will not be allowed to shower or change her clothes. B. place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags. C. allow law enforcement to take her statement before you begin treatment. D. ask the patient for a concise, detailed report of what happened to her.

B

When caring for a known alcoholic patient with severe trauma to the chest and abdomen, you should be concerned that: Select one: A. delirium tremens (DTs) are commonly induced by physical trauma and can lead to life-threatening seizures. B. internal bleeding might be profuse because prolonged alcohol use might impair the blood's ability to clot. C. long-bone fractures are likely because chronic alcohol consumption weakens the structure of the bones. D. signs and symptoms of shock might be masked by the stimulant effects produced by alcohol.

B

When determining the frequency of contractions, you should time the contractions from the: Select one: A. start of one to the end of the next. B. start of one to the start of the next. C. end of one to the end of the next. D. end of one to the start of the next.

B

When does infection with HIV become the condition of AIDS? Select one: a. When a separate AIDS virus is also able to infect the body b. When immune system function weakens and allows opportunistic infections c. When the HIV infection becomes symptomatic d. When the HIV virus replicates in the body to a certain level

B

When is a gown most appropriate to use? Select one: a. When caring for a patient who has not bathed for over a week and is covered in dirt, oil, and sweat. b. During a stationary procedure with significant amounts of body fluid (like childbirth). c. While caring for a trauma patient with significant amounts of blood present (like a motor vehicle crash). d. When respiratory secretions are likely to be produced (like airway management).

B

When is aspirin administration indicated for the EMT? Select one: a. Suspected left heart failure b. Suspected myocardial infarction c. Suspected cardiac arrhythmia d. Suspected right heart failure

B

When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a patient with diabetes who has an altered mental status, it would be MOST important to determine: Select one: A. approximately how much water the patient drank that day. B. if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress. C. if there is a family history of diabetes or related conditions. D. the name of the physician who prescribed his or her insulin.

B

When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that there is a short interval between pulsations. This indicates that the pulse is: Select one: A. slow. B. rapid. C. thready. D. irregular.

B

When palpating the carotid pulse of a responsive patient, you should: Select one: A. ensure that his or her head is in a hyperextended position. B. avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously. C. avoid gentle pressure so that weak pulses can be detected. D. firmly compress the artery because the pulse is often weak.

B

When performing chest compressions on an adult, the EMT should compress: Select one: A. at least 1 inch B. at least 2 inches C. greater than 2.4 inches D. between 1 inch and 2 inches

B

When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than: Select one: A. 100 mm Hg. B. 300 mm Hg. C. 400 mm Hg. D. 200 mm Hg.

B

When using a body drag to pull a patient who is on the ground, you should: Select one: A. bend your back laterally to maximize your amount of pulling power. B. kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over. C. avoid situations involving strenuous effort lasting more than five minutes. D. extend your elbows as far beyond your anterior torso as possible.

B

When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. speaking loudly and distinctly will ensure that the patient can hear you. B. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions. C. hostility and confusion should be presumed to be due to the patient's age. D. your questions should focus exclusively on the patient's obvious problem.

B

When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the: Select one: A. cardiac output pressure. B. systolic blood pressure. C. pulse pressure. D. diastolic blood pressure.

B

Which immunization is required to be provided by healthcare employers free of charge to each employee? Select one: a. Haemophillus Influenza B (HiB) b. Hepatitis B (HBV) c. Tetanus d. Influenza

B

Which of the following abnormal breath sounds indicates obstruction of the upper airway? Select one: A. Crackles B. Stridor C. Rales D. Rhonchi

B

Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock? Select one: A. Pallor B. Wheezing C. Hypotension D. Dizziness

B

Which of the following conditions is NOT a common cause of seizures? Select one: A. Acute alcohol withdrawal B. Hypotension C. Acute hypoglycemia D. Poisoning or overdose

B

Which of the following conditions is more common in women than in men? Select one: A. Pancreatitis B. Cystitis C. Hepatitis D. Cholecystitis

B

Which of the following conditions is the diabetic patient at an increased risk of developing? Select one: A. Alcoholism B. Blindness C. Depression D. Hepatitis B

B

Which of the following conditions or situations would MOST likely make excited delirium worse? Select one: A. Dimly lit environment B. Alcohol withdrawal C. Limited physical contact D. Elevated blood glucose

B

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to pelvic inflammatory disease if left untreated? Select one: A. Genital herpes B. Chlamydia C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Ovarian cysts

B

Which of the following descriptions most accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? Select one: A. A vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting B. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured C. A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients D. A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients

B

Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure? Select one: A. An EMT gives the correct drug to a patient, although his protocols clearly state that he is not authorized to do so. B. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug. C. Due to an improperly applied cervical collar, a patient's spinal injury is aggravated and he is permanently disabled. D. A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first.

B

Which of the following is NOT a function of the sympathetic nervous system? Select one: A. Increases in the heart and respiratory rates B. Constriction of blood vessels in the muscles C. Dilation of blood vessels in the muscles D. Constriction of blood vessels in the digestive system

B

Which of the following is NOT an indication to stop CPR once you have started? Select one: A. Pulse and respirations return. B. Care is transferred to a bystander. C. You are physically exhausted. D. A physician directs you to do so.

B

Which of the following is a correct single dose of nitroglycerin? Select one: a. 4.0 g b. 0.4 mg c. 4.0 mg d. 0.4 g

B

Which of the following is an effective stress management strategy? Select one: A. Frequently reflecting on troublesome calls B. Developing a social network outside of EMS C. Requesting overtime to occupy your mind D. Modestly increasing caffeine consumption

B

Which of the following is an example of a generic of a drug? Select one: A. Bayer B. Aspirin C. Advil D. Excedrin

B

Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy? Select one: A. The construction of a guardrail on a dangerous curve following a fatal motor vehicle crash B. Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving C. Teaching a group of new parents how to perform one- and two-rescuer infant CPR D. Protecting a patient's spine from further injury after a fall from a significant height

B

Which of the following is an example of a trade (brand) name of a drug? Select one: A. Furosemide B. Tylenol C. Ibuprofen D. Nitroglycerin

B

Which of the following is not a function of the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)? Select one: A. Licensing base stations and assigning appropriate radio call signs B. Maintaining communications equipment on the ambulance C. Allocating specific radio frequencies for use by EMS providers D. Monitoring all radio traffic and conducting field spot checks

B

Which of the following is not a function of the skin? Select one: A. Sensory reception B. Metabolic coordination C. Temperature regulation D. Pressure and pain perception

B

Which of the following is not a right that HIPAA grants to patients with respect to their protected health information (PHI)? Select one: a. The right to access their own PHI b. The right to ask a covered entity to destroy all of their own PHI c. The right to request an amendment to PHI d. The right to request an accounting of certain disclosures of PHI

B

Which of the following is the most appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury? Select one: A. Scoop stretcher B. Long backboard C. Portable stretcher D. Wheeled stretcher

B

Which of the following most accurately describes the correct position of the EMTs who are executing the diamond carry technique? Select one: A. Two at the head, one at the feet, and one on the left side of the patient's torso B. One at the head, one at the feet, and one on each side of the patient's torso C. Two at the head, two at the feet, and a fifth EMT balancing the torso D. One at the head, two at the feet, and a fourth EMT balancing the torso

B

Which of the following negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the MOST rapidly fatal if not treated immediately? Select one: A. Diffuse urticaria B. Upper airway swelling C. Severe hypotension D. Systemic vasodilation

B

Which of the following patients is in decompensated shock? Select one: A. A 28-year-old female with pale skin and rapid, shallow respirations B. A 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils C. A 23-year-old restless male with cool, clammy skin and tachycardia D. A 32-year-old male with anxiety and a systolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg

B

Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure? Select one: A. Pulmonary edema B. Dependent edema C. Labored breathing D. Flat jugular veins

B

Which of the following situations or conditions warrants immediate transport? Select one: A. Decreased ability to move an extremity B. Severe chest pain and cool, pale skin C. Mild pain in the lower abdomen D. Ability to follow commands

B

Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training? Select one: A. Use of a manually triggered ventilator B. Automated external defibrillation C. Intranasal medication administration D. Oral glucose for hypoglycemia

B

Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? Select one: A. HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field. B. There is no vaccine against HIV infection. C. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood. D. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B.

B

Which of the following statements regarding an infant's vital signs is correct? Select one: A. An infant's heart rate generally ranges between 70 and 110 beats/min. B. An infant's normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler's normal body temperature. C. An infant's normal heart rate increases by 10 beats/min each month. D. By six months of age, an infant's normal tidal volume is 2 to 4 mL/kg.

B

Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct? Select one: A. A patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume. B. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate. C. Patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation. D. The single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate.

B

Which of the following statements regarding drowning is correct? Select one: A. Large amounts of water enter the lungs in a small number of drowning victims. B. Patients with a submersion injury might deteriorate rapidly because of pulmonary injury and cerebral hypoxia. C. Artificial ventilations can easily be performed in patients with a laryngospasm. D. Hypoxia in the drowning victim initially occurs due to water in the lungs.

B

Which of the following statements regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus(MRSA) is correct? Select one: A. Most cases of MRSA transmission occur following an accidental needlestick. B. MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics. C. Studies have shown that fewer than 1% of health care providers are MRSA carriers. D. The communicable period for MRSA is 10 days to 2 weeks after being infected.

B

Which of the following statements regarding middle adults is correct? Select one: A. Increased cholesterol levels in the middle adult age group often do not respond to exercise and diet. B. Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer. C. Significant impairments in hearing and vision begin to occur in persons between the ages of 41 and 44 years. D. Women in the middle adult age group typically experience menopause in their late 50s or early 60s.

B

Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct? Select one: A. Parenteral medications are absorbed by the body through the digestive system. B. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications. C. Compared to enteral medications, parenteral medications have fewer side effects. D. Tylenol is an example of a parenteral medication because it is taken orally.

B

Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct? Select one: A. PID is a life-threatening condition that is associated with shock. B. Untreated PID can lead to an ectopic pregnancy or an abscess. C. PID is an infection of the lower female reproductive organs. D. The majority of women with PID never develop symptoms.

B

Which of the following statements regarding psychosocial development in the adolescent age group is correct? Select one: A. Because they think rationally, adolescents are at the lowest risk for suicide. B. Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak around 14 to 16 years of age. C. Family conflict decreases as the adolescent gains control of his or her own life. D. Adolescents are less fixated on their public image than younger children.

B

Which of the following statements regarding pulse oximetry is correct? Select one: A. Most otherwise healthy patients can maintain adequate oxygenation and good skin color with oxygen saturation readings as low as 70% to 80%. B. Pulse oximetry measures the percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen but does not measure the actual hemoglobin content of the blood. C. The pulse oximeter is a valuable assessment tool that measures the percentage of red blood cells that contain hemoglobin molecules. D. Caution must be exercised when using the pulse oximeter on a patient with carbon monoxide poisoning because falsely low readings are common.

B

Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct? Select one: A. The ADA applies only to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability. B. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled. C. The minimum number of hours required to successfully complete an EMT course is less for candidates who are disabled. D. According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam.

B

Which of the following statements regarding the EMS medical director and an EMT's scope of practice is correct? Select one: A. An EMT's scope of practice is exclusively regulated by the state EMS office, not the EMS medical director. B. An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval. C. The EMS medical director can expand or limit an individual EMT's scope of practice without state approval. D. The EMS medical director can expand the EMT's scope of practice but cannot limit it without state approval.

B

Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct? Select one: A. The risk of HIV infection is high, even if an infected person's blood comes in contact with your intact skin. B. The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream. C. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B and is easily transmitted in the health care setting. D. Most patients who are infected with HIV experience chronic symptoms that vary in duration and severity.

B

Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is correct? Select one: A. The hypoxic drive serves as the primary stimulus for breathing in healthy individuals. B. The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels. C. 100% supplemental oxygen will always cause apnea in patients with a hypoxic drive. D. Chronic carbon dioxide elimination often results in activation of the hypoxic drive.

B

Which of the following statements regarding the kidneys is correct? Select one: A. Because the kidneys require little oxygen, only 5% of the body's blood volume passes through them each minute. B. The kidneys eliminate toxic waste products from the body and control the body's fluid balance. C. A series of small blood vessels attach the kidneys directly to the superior vena cava and renal arteries. D. Both kidneys are located in the anterior abdominal cavity and lie in between the liver and the spleen.

B

Which of the following statements regarding the neonatal isolette is correct? Select one: A. The safest type of isolette is one that takes the place of the ambulance stretcher. B. The isolette serves to keep the neonate warm and protects him or her from excess handling. C. If an isolette is not available, the neonate can safely be transported on the stretcher. D. A freestanding isolette should be used, not one that is secured to the stretcher.

B

Which of the following veins is located inferior to the trunk? Select one: A. Axillary B. Saphenous C. Cephalic D. Subclavian

B

Which of the following would NOT cause a decrease in tidal volume? Select one: A. Shallow breathing B. Deep respirations C. Agonal respirations D. Irregular breathing

B

Why should aspirin not be administered to pediatric patients? Select one: a. The side effects are more severe in children. b. It can result in a serious neurologic complication in children. c. The risk of severe allergic reaction is higher in children. d. The indication for aspirin is never seen in children.

B

You and your partner are dispatched to a residence for an "ill person." When you arrive, you find that the patient, a 44-year-old man, does not speak English. There are no relatives or bystanders present who can act as an interpreter. You should: Select one: A. speak to the patient with a moderately louder voice to facilitate his ability to understand what you are saying. B. use short, simple questions and point to specific parts of your body to try to determine the source of the patient's complaint. C. give the patient oxygen, assess his vital signs, and transport him to the hospital in a position of comfort. D. refrain from performing any assessment or treatment until you can contact someone who can function as an interpreter.

B

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should: Select one: A. ventilate the patient for five minutes and then stop if there is no response. B. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased. C. request the fire department to extricate the patient so you can begin CPR. D. stop any active bleeding and advise dispatch to send a paramedic crew.

B

You and your partner arrive at the side of a 60-year-old woman who collapsed about 7 minutes ago. She is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should: Select one: A. apply the AED if there is no response after 10 cycles of CPR. B. begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as it is available. C. immediately apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm. D. begin CPR at a compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2.

B

You are assessing a man with suspected hypothermia. The patient is conscious, alert, and actively shivering. His respiratory rate is increased, but his breathing is unlabored, and the pulse oximeter reads 72%. The pulse oximetry reading is most likely: Select one: A. accurate because shivering affects hemoglobin binding. B. secondary to decreased perfusion in the extremities. C. accurate because he has signs of respiratory failure. D. a direct reflection of his increased respiratory rate.

B

You are assessing a young male who was stung on the leg by a scorpion. He is conscious and alert, his breathing is regular and unlabored, and his blood pressure is 122/64 mm Hg. Assessment of his leg reveals a wheal surrounded by an area of redness. He states that he had a "bad reaction" the last time he was stung by a scorpion, and carries his own epinephrine auto-injector. You should: Select one: A. apply high-flow oxygen, apply a chemical cold pack directly to the injection site, and transport at once. B. apply oxygen as needed, clean the area with soap and water or a mild antiseptic, and transport him to the hospital. C. apply high-flow oxygen, obtain approval from medical control to assist him with his epinephrine, and transport. D. assess his ABCs and vital signs in 15 minutes and allow him to drive himself to the hospital if he remains stable.

B

You are caring for a 70-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an acute stroke. She is conscious, has secretions in her mouth, is breathing at a normal rate with adequate depth, and has an oxygen saturation of 96%. You should: Select one: A. assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask. B. suction her oropharynx and transport immediately. C. administer one tube of oral glucose and transport. D. insert an oral airway, apply oxygen, and transport.

B

You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that: Select one: A. an infant's head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction. B. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times. C. assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs. D. the infant's proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction.

B

You are dispatched to a residence for a young female who is sick. The patient complains of a rash to her lower extremities and truncal area. Your assessment reveals a small, painful blister on her inner thigh. As your partner is taking the patient's vital signs, she states that she and her family returned from a camping trip two days ago. On the basis of this patient's presentation, you should suspect: Select one: A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. B. Lyme disease. C. an allergic reaction. D. exposure to poison ivy.

B

You are dispatched to an apartment complex to respond to a shooting. Law enforcement personnel are present and have the suspect in custody. You find the patient lying in a narrow space between the couch and coffee table of his small apartment. He is semiconscious and has a large gunshot wound to his chest. You should: Select one: A. obtain permission from law enforcement before moving anything. B. quickly move the coffee table so you can access and treat the patient. C. drag the patient into a larger area so that you can begin treatment. D. treat the patient where he is so that you do not destroy any evidence.

B

You are dispatched to an office building for a 49-year-old male with chest pain. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient to be conscious and alert but in obvious pain. He tells you that he did not call 911; a coworker did. He further states that he does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. You should: Select one: A. have him sign a refusal of care form and then return to service. B. ensure that he is aware of the risks of refusing medical care. C. err in the best interest of the patient and transport him at once. D. tell him that he is having a heart attack and needs medical care.

B

You are dispatched to the residence of a person who frequently calls 911 for nonemergency care. You should: Select one: A. refuse the call, but thoroughly document the patient's circumstances. B. ask the dispatcher to send law enforcement before you respond. C. defer the call to a local private ambulance company. D. respond under the assumption that an acute emergency exists.

B

You are dispatched to the residence of an Asian family for a child with a high fever. When you assess the child, you note that he has numerous red marks on his back. The child's parents explain that these marks represent coining—a traditional Asian healing practice in which hot coins are rubbed on the back. You should: Select one: A. advise the child's parents that this is a harmful practice and is considered a form of child abuse in the United States. B. document this finding on your patient care report and advise the emergency department staff of what the child's parents told you. C. acknowledge and respect this practice as a cultural belief, but advise the child's parents that it has no healing power. D. advise the emergency department physician that you believe the child was intentionally abused by his parents.

B

You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should: Select one: A. maintain eye contact at all times and tell her that there is no need for her to be scared. B. acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her. C. reassure her that after proper treatment in the hospital, she will regain her speech in time. D. tell her that you understand why she is scared and that everything will likely be okay.

B

You are treated a 62-year-old man with a history of angina pectoris. He is complaining of crushing chest pain and shortness of breath. He has a prescription for nitroglycerin but no prescription for aspirin. Which of the following is true about aspirin administration? Select one: a. Aspirin should be administered only if nitroglycerin is also administered. b. Aspirin should be administered c. Aspirin should be administered only if nitroglycerin is not administered. d. Aspirin should not be administered without a prescription

B

You are treating a 25-year-old woman with a history of asthma. She is prescribed Proventil (albuterol) and Advair (fluticasone/salmeterol) MDIs and has both with her. Which of the following is true about administering these medications? Select one: a. You should not administer either medication because the albuterol and almeterol have the same mechanism of action and could interact. b. You should administer only the Proventil. c. You should administer the Proventil and ensure ALS comes to administer the Advair. d. You should administer both since they are prescribed to help with her asthma.

B

You are treating a 50 lb patient who is experiencing anaphylaxis. What is the appropriate dose of epinephrine? Select one: a. 0.3 mg b. 0.15 mg c. 0.3 g d. 0.15 g

B

You are treating a 58-year-old diabetic female who took too much insulin and developed altered metal status. After giving 3 tubes of glucose, the patient's mental status improves. The patient says she does not want to be transported to the hospital. How should you proceed? Select one: a. The patient had altered mental status. She cannot refuse transport. b. Advise the patient that her blood sugar may decrease again without further monitoring and care. c. The patient is alert and oriented. Allow her to refuse transport if she chooses. d. Advise the patient that her blood sugar may increase dangerously after 3 tubes of glucose given her history of diabetes.

B

You are treating a 6-year-old boy who accidentally ate a peanut butter cookie he traded with another student. He has a history of allergy to peanuts. He has urticaria present on several parts of his body. He does not have respiratory distress, signs of shock, or gastrointestinal symptoms. His prescribed Epi-Pen Jr. is available. What is the best course of action? Select one: a. Administer the Epi-Pen Jr. because the urticaria is widespread. b. Do not administer the Epi-Pen Jr. because the signs and symptoms do not meet the indication for epinephrine c. Administer his Epi-Pen Jr. before the reaction worsens. d. Do not administer the Epi-Pen Jr. because the signs and symptoms do not indicate an allergic reaction.

B

You are treating a patient with a history of angina who is having crushing chest pain after performing physical activity. He has a prescription for nitroglycerin tablets. Which of the following would be a contra-indication to use of this medication? Select one: a. HR < 100 bpm b. SBP < 100 mm Hg c. HT > 100 bpm d. SBP > 100 mm Hg

B

You are treating an adult patient for a suspected acute myocardial infarction. The patient takes a daily "baby" aspirin and did take their dose this morning. How should you proceed with aspirin administration? Select one: a. Do not administer additional aspirin since they have already taken their usual dose b. Administer 81 - 243 mg of additional aspirin c. Administer 160 - 325 mg of additional aspirin d. Administer 1 more "baby" aspirin than for a patient not taking a daily dose.

B

You are ventilating a 40-year-old uninjured man who is apneic but has a pulse. When your partner reassesses his blood pressure, she notes that he has decreased significantly from previous readings. You should: Select one: A. increase the rate at which you are ventilating and reassess his blood pressure. B. reduce the rate or volume of the ventilations you are delivering. C. increase the volume of your ventilations and reassess his blood pressure. D. perform a head-to-toe assessment to look for signs of bleeding.

B

You arrive at the residence of a 33-year-old woman who is experiencing a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure. She has a small amount of vomitus draining from the side of her mouth. After protecting her from further injury, you should: Select one: A. restrain her extremities to prevent her from injuring herself, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, and assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. B. maintain her airway with manual head positioning, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, insert a nasopharyngeal airway, and administer high-flow oxygen. C. wait for the seizure to stop, manually open her airway, insert an oropharyngeal airway, and assess her oxygen saturation with the pulse oximeter. D. place a bite block in between her teeth, apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, and consider inserting a nasopharyngeal airway.

B

You have two patients who were involved in a motor vehicle crash when their SUV struck a tree—one with neck and back pain, and the other with a deformed left femur. The patient with the deformed femur states that he does not want to be placed on a hard board, nor does he want a collar around his neck. What is the most appropriate and practical method of securing these patients and placing them into the ambulance? Select one: A. Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the squad bench; allow the patient with the deformed femur to sit on the wheeled stretcher. B. Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with the deformed femur on a folding stretcher secured to the squad bench. C. Immobilize both patients with a cervical collar and long backboard based on the mechanism of injury; place one on the wheeled stretcher and the other on the squad bench. D. Apply a traction splint to the patient with the deformed femur and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with neck and back pain on the squad bench immobilized with a cervical collar and scoop stretcher.

B

You receive a call to a daycare center for an unresponsive 8-month-old infant. Upon arrival, you perform an assessment and determine that the infant is not breathing. Your next action should be to: Select one: A. begin chest compressions and request backup. B. assess for a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds. C. immediately transport the child to the hospital. D. open the airway and give two rescue breaths.

B

You respond to a call for an unknown emergency. When you arrive at the scene, the patient's husband meets you at the door and states that his wife has been depressed and has locked herself in an upstairs bedroom. He further tells you that he keeps his handgun in the bedroom. You should: Select one: A. ask the husband to attempt to reason with his wife. B. remain in a safe place and request law enforcement. C. go upstairs with caution and attempt to talk to the patient. D. get in your ambulance and leave the scene immediately.

B

You respond to a local motel for a young female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious but confused. She tells you that the last thing she remembers was drinking beer at a club with her friends the night before. When she awoke, she was in the bed of the motel room. You should suspect that this patient: Select one: A. is a frequent and heavy heroin user. B. was given flunitrazepam (Rohypnol). C. has a hangover from the night before. D. is addicted to a benzodiazepine drug.

B

You should suspect that a patient is experiencing respiratory failure if he or she: Select one: A. is restless and is working hard to breathe. B. has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone. C. is anxious, tachycardic, and leaning forward. D. has an increased heart rate and retractions.

B

You suspect that a 6-year-old girl has broken her leg after falling from a swing at a playground. Shortly after you arrive, the child's mother appears and refuses to allow you to continue treatment. You should: Select one: A. ask the mother to sign a refusal form and then leave. B. try to persuade the mother that treatment is needed. C. use your authority under the implied consent law. D. tell the mother that her refusal is a form of child abuse.

B

You suspect that a pregnant 16-year-old girl has a broken leg after she was hit by a car. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she agrees to treatment. Which of the following types of consent describes her agreement? Select one: A. Informed B. Expressed C. Minor's D. Implied

B

Your ability to remain awake is a function of the: Select one: A. cerebellum. B. reticular activating system. C. limbic system. D. pons and medulla.

B

Your patient's symptoms include high fever, cough, vomiting, bloody diarrhea, and shortness of breath. Which of the following should you suspect? Select one: A. Hepatitis B B. MERS-CoV C. Influenza D. Whooping cough

B

Your protocols state that during the first few minutes of working on a cardiac arrest patient, you should provide passive ventilation. This means that you will: Select one: A. time your positive-pressure ventilations to occur during chest recoil. B. allow recoil of the chest between compressions to draw air into the lungs. C. deliver positive-pressure ventilation at a rate of only 5 or 6 breaths/min. D. ventilate with a bag-valve mask that is not attached to oxygen.

B

After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should: Select one: A. transport the patient at once. B. assess for a carotid pulse. C. immediately resume CPR. D. re-analyze the cardiac rhythm.

C

A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is: Select one: A. 10. B. 12. C. 13. D. 14.

C

After receiving online orders from medical control to perform a patient care intervention, you should: Select one: A. perform the intervention as ordered. B. confirm the order in your own words. C. repeat the order to medical control word for word. D. ask the physician to repeat the order.

C

A 19-year-old male was stung multiple times by fire ants. He is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock. You administer high-flow oxygen and give him epinephrine via intramuscular injection. Upon reassessment, you determine that his condition has not improved. You should: Select one: A. transport him immediately and provide supportive care while en route. B. consider that he may actually be experiencing an acute asthma attack. C. repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control. D. request a paramedic unit that is stationed approximately 15 miles away.

C

A 22-year-old male with a history of clinical depression called 9-1-1 and stated that he has attempted to kill himself. Your unit and law enforcement officers arrive at the scene simultaneously. You find the patient lying supine on the living room floor. He is unresponsive and cyanotic. An empty bottle of hydromorphone (Dilaudid) is found on an adjacent table. You should: Select one: A. wait for the police to examine him before providing care. B. ask the police to handcuff the patient for safety purposes. C. open the patient's airway and assess his respirations. D. provide care after determining what Dilaudid is used for.

C

A 26-year-old female asthma patient has been using her Ventolin (albuterol) MDI repeatedly throughout the day. Which of the following is a likely side effect? Select one: a. Nausea b. Diaphoresis c. Tachycardia d. Hypotension

C

A 27-year-old male was stabbed in the chest during a disagreement at a poker game. As you approach him, you see that a knife is impaled in his chest. Before you make physical contact with the patient, it is MOST important to: Select one: A. form a general impression. B. call for an ALS ambulance. C. follow standard precautions. D. ask bystanders what happened.

C

A 37-year-old male is having a severe allergic reaction to penicillin. He does not have an epinephrine auto-injector, and your protocols do not allow you to carry epinephrine on the ambulance. How should you proceed with the treatment of this patient? Select one: A. Quickly determine if there are any bystanders who may carry epinephrine. B. Ask the patient if he has any diphenhydramine tablets that you can administer. C. Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept. D. Remain at the scene with the patient and request a paramedic ambulance

C

A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious, is screaming in pain, and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should: Select one: A. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. B. elevate his legs and keep him warm. C. apply direct pressure to the wound. D. ensure that his airway is patent.

C

A ___________ receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency. Select one: A. duplex B. decoder C. repeater D. scanner

C

A construction worker fell approximately 30 feet. He is semiconscious with rapid, shallow respirations. Further assessment reveals deformity to the thoracic region of his spine. His blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg, his pulse is 66 beats/min and weak, and his skin is warm and dry. In addition to spinal immobilization and rapid transport, the MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, thermal management, and elevation of his legs. B. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, blankets for warmth, and elevation of his head. C. assisted ventilation, thermal management, and elevation of the lower extremities. D. assisted ventilation, preventing hyperthermia, and elevating his lower extremities.

C

A drug is contraindicated for a patient when it: Select one: A. produces actions other than the desired ones. B. is used to treat a multitude of conditions. C. may cause harm or has no positive effect. D. is used to treat a specific medical condition.

C

A man was found unresponsive in his bed at home. There is no evidence of injury, and the patient's medical history is not known. The patient's face is cherry red, yet the pulse oximeter reads 98%. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this? Select one: A. Cold extremities B. Severe pulmonary edema C. Carbon monoxide poisoning D. Increased body temperature

C

A patient in a semi-reclined position with the head elevated to facilitate breathing is in the ___________ position. Select one: A. supine B. recovery C. Fowler D. prone

C

A patient should be placed in the recovery position when he or she: Select one: A. has experienced trauma but is breathing effectively. B. is semiconscious, injured, and breathing adequately. C. is unresponsive, uninjured, and breathing adequately. D. has a pulse but is unresponsive and breathing shallowly.

C

A patient who presents with a headache, fever, confusion, and red blotches on his or her skin should be suspected of having: Select one: A. MERS-CoV. B. tuberculosis. C. meningitis. D. hepatitis.

C

A patient who presents with rapid breathing, nausea and vomiting, ringing in the ears, and hyperthermia should be suspected of ingesting a significant quantity of: Select one: A. cocaine. B. ibuprofen. C. aspirin. D. acetaminophen.

C

A patient with an altered mental status is: Select one: A. usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus. B. completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli. C. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused. D. typically alert but is confused as to preceding events.

C

A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing: Select one: A. withdrawal. B. dependence. C. tolerance. D. addiction.

C

A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q ratio) mismatch occurs when: Select one: A. ventilation is compromised, resulting in the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream, alveoli, and the tissues and cells of the body. B. a traumatic injury or medical condition impairs the body's ability to effectively bring oxygen into the lungs and remove carbon dioxide from the body. C. a disruption in blood flow inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, even though the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen. D. ventilation is inadequate due to a traumatic injury or medical condition, which results in an impairment in pulmonary gas exchange.

C

A woman amputated the tip of her finger. Which directional term should be used to describe her injury location? Select one: A. Lateral B. Superior C. Distal D. Medial

C

A young female presents with costovertebral angle tenderness. She is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Which of the following organs is MOST likely causing her pain? Select one: A. Gallbladder B. Pancreas C. Kidney D. Liver

C

Abnormalities in metabolism are most likely to be caused by dysfunction of the: Select one: A. parathyroid gland. B. pancreas. C. thyroid gland. D. adrenal gland.

C

After administration of epinephrine, you reassess your patient's vital signs and find the heart rate has increased significantly. Which adrenergic receptor is responsible for this effect? Select one: a. Alpha-1 b. Beta-2 c. Beta-1 d. Alpha-2

C

Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when: Select one: A. slow, shallow breathing eliminates too much carbon dioxide. B. the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases. C. blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing. D. dangerous acids accumulate in the bloodstream.

C

All of the following terms refer to a body part that is cold but not frozen, except: Select one: A. trench foot. B. frostnip. C. frostbite. D. immersion foot.

C

An 81-year-old female cancer patient with a valid DNR order is found with several Duragesic (fentanyl) patches applied to her body. She is completely unresponsive and her vital signs include RR 12 bpm, SpO2 96 %, HR 74 bpm, BP 114/66. What is the appropriate management of this patient? Select one: a. Administer ventilation with a BVM and supplemental O2 b. Administer naloxone to reverse the overdose c. Transport the patient to the emergency department and reassess frequently d. Administer supplemental O2 with a non-rebreather mask

C

An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score? Select one: A. Eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension B. Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain C. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain D. Opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion

C

An overdose of acetaminophen, the active ingredient in Tylenol, will most likely cause: Select one: A. bleeding gastric ulcers. B. central nervous system depression. C. liver damage and failure. D. acute kidney failure.

C

An unconscious patient found in a prone position must be placed in a supine position in case he or she: Select one: A. begins to vomit. B. regains consciousness. C. requires CPR. D. has increased tidal volume.

C

Anaphylaxis is best defined as: Select one: a. A failure of the immune system to distinguish between the body's own tissues and foreign substances b. A severe allergic reaction to any substance causing serious symptoms c. An inappropriate immune system reaction to a particular substance that affects multiple organ systems d. A reaction of the immune system to a dangerous foreign substance affecting several body systems

C

As time progresses following a significant injury: Select one: A. most patients will die secondary to internal bleeding. B. the patient's blood pressure elevates significantly. C. the body's ability to compensate for shock decreases. D. the patient's injuries will most likely be irreparable.

C

As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: Select one: A. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call. B. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once. C. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician. D. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call.

C

As you enter the residence of a patient who has possibly overdosed, you should: Select one: A. observe the scene for drug bottles. B. look for drug paraphernalia. C. be alert for personal hazards. D. quickly gain access to the patient.

C

Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it: Select one: A. reduces the associated chest pain. B. causes direct coronary vasodilation. C. prevents the aggregation of platelets. D. dissolves the coronary artery clot.

C

Based on current guidelines, in which of the following situations should supplemental oxygen be administered? Select one: A. Signs of myocardial infarction and an oxygen saturation of 97% B. Any diabetic patient whose oxygen saturation is less than 98% C. Exposure to carbon monoxide and an oxygen saturation of 94% D. Any elderly patient whose oxygen saturation is less than 95%

C

Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, except: Select one: A. mental disorders. B. history of chronic disease. C. distrust of EMTs. D. fear of medical personnel.

C

The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of: Select one: A. 21 and 30 years. B. 25 and 35 years. C. 19 and 25 years. D. 18 and 22 years.

C

Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, except: Select one: A. placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips. B. providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response. C. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation. D. shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment.

C

Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, except: Select one: A. shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment. B. providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response. C. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation. D. placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips.

C

EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of: Select one: A. the Emergency Medical Services Act. B. Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured. C. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society. D. the Department of Transportation's White Paper: Death and Dying.

C

EMTs and other health care providers function as a true team when they work: Select one: A. independently. B. dependently. C. interdependently. D. under standing orders.

C

EMTs are dispatched for a teenage male who is "not acting right." When they arrive, they are informed that the patient was huffing. Several cans of Freon are found near the patient. Which of the following is a unique consideration for this patient? Select one: A. Oxygen will not increase the patient's oxygen saturation. B. The pulse oximeter will yield a falsely elevated reading. C. A sudden adrenaline release can cause a fatal dysrhythmia. D. Encouraging walking will help eliminate Freon from the body.

C

EMTs receive a call for a possible sexual assault. The patient is a young female who is conscious and alert and has no apparent injuries. She states, "I can't remember anything, but I know I was raped." The EMTs should suspect that: Select one: A. an underlying head injury is causing her amnesia. B. the traumatic experience has created a mental block. C. the patient was given a drug prior to the incident. D. the patient knew her attacker, but is afraid to say.

C

Esophageal varices MOST commonly occur in patients who: Select one: A. have a history of esophagitis. B. have weak immune systems. C. consume a lot of alcohol. D. have uncontrolled diabetes.

C

Ethnocentrism is defined as: Select one: A. suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question. B. subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you believe that your own values are more acceptable. C. considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture. D. understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently.

C

General guidelines for carrying a patient on a stretcher include: Select one: A. leaning back from your waist when lifting. B. maintaining slight flexion of your back. C. constant communication with your partners. D. slightly twisting your body when carrying

C

Geriatric patients, newborns, and infants are especially prone to hyperthermia because they: Select one: A. have relatively smaller heads. B. have smaller body surface areas. C. exhibit poor thermoregulation. D. have less body fat.

C

HIPAA permits EMS caregivers to disclose protected health information (PHI) about a patient who is incapacitated to a relative, friend, or other person if that individual: Select one: a. States that they need to know about the information b. Represents that the patient would not care if the information was shared c. Is involved in the patient's care and disclosure is in the best interest of teh patient d. Is standing in close proximity to the patient when you are rendering care

C

Heat loss from the body through respiration occurs when: Select one: A. the core body temperature is greater than 98°F (37°C). B. air temperature is greater than body temperature. C. warm air is exhaled into the atmosphere. D. cool air is inhaled and displaces warm air.

C

How does positive-pressure ventilation affect cardiac output? Select one: A. There is no effect on cardiac output because positive-pressure ventilation is the act of normal breathing. B. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which facilitates venous return to the heart and increases cardiac output. C. It increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return to the heart and causes a decrease in cardiac output. D. It causes pressure in the chest to decrease, which increases stroke volume and cardiac output.

C

Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: Select one: A. platelets. B. whole blood. C. plasma. D. red blood cells.

C

If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should: Select one: A. purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer's claim. B. avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic. C. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives. D. determine which device the American Heart Association recommends.

C

If a law enforcement officer approaches you at the scene of a motor vehicle accident and asks to speak wit your patient, who is currently stable, the best course of action is to: Select one: a. Inform the officer that it would be a violation of HIPAA to allow him to speak with the patient b. Tell the officer that you can give him whatever information he needs to know about the patient's condition c. As long as it would not impede care, you may allow the officer to speak directly to the patient without violating HIPAA d. Simply refuse to acknowledge the officer

C

If a pregnant patient must be placed onto a backboard, you should: Select one: A. elevate the head of the board six inches to prevent breathing impairment. B. raise the foot of the board 12 inches in order to maintain blood pressure. C. elevate the right side of the board with rolled towels or blankets. D. place a folded towel behind her head to make it easier to breathe.

C

If a problem with a team member is not directly or immediately impacting patient care, the team leader should: Select one: A. ignore the problem to avoid conflict. B. engage the team member at once. C. discuss the problem after the call. D. contact the medical director at once.

C

Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should: Select one: A. notify medical control of your action. B. record the time and dose given. C. properly dispose of the syringe. D. reassess the patient's vital signs.

C

In a healthy individual, the brainstem stimulates breathing on the basis of: Select one: A. decreased oxygen levels. B. increased oxygen levels. C. increased carbon dioxide levels. D. decreased carbon dioxide levels.

C

In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall: Select one: A. sheds and is expelled externally. B. diverts blood flow to the vagina. C. becomes engorged with blood. D. thins and begins to separate.

C

In general, oral glucose should be given to any patient who: Select one: A. has documented hypoglycemia and an absent gag reflex. B. has a blood glucose level that is less than 100 mg/dL. C. has an altered mental status and a history of diabetes. D. is unresponsive, even in the absence of a history of diabetes.

C

In relation to the chest, the back is: Select one: A. inferior. B. ventral. C. posterior. D. anterior.

C

In which position should you restrain a physically uncooperative patient? Select one: A. With hands tied behind the back B. Prone C. Supine D. With arms and legs bound together

C

Interruption of cerebral blood flow may result from all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. an embolism. B. an acute arterial rupture. C. cerebral vasodilation. D. a thrombus.

C

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called: Select one: A. eupneic respirations. B. agonal respirations. C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations. D. ataxic respirations.

C

It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem. Select one: A. respiratory B. cardiac C. neurologic D. endocrine

C

It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease. Select one: A. incinerate B. properly store C. decontaminate D. throw out

C

Most medical models base a pregnant woman's due date: Select one: A. on the last day of her last menstrual cycle. B. two weeks before her last menstrual cycle. C. on the first day of her last menstrual cycle. D. two weeks after her last menstrual cycle.

C

Nitroglycerin, when given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain: Select one: A. constricts the veins throughout the body. B. increases blood return to the right atrium. C. relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries. D. increases myocardial contraction force.

C

Organic brain syndrome is defined as: Select one: A. a disorder that cannot be traced to the abnormal structure or function of an organ. B. a change in behavior or mental status secondary to decreased cerebral blood flow. C. a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function. D. bizarre behavior secondary to a chemical imbalance or disturbance in the brain.

C

Patients with type 2 diabetes usually control their disease with all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. tolbutamide (Orinase). B. glyburide (Micronase). C. supplemental insulin. D. diet and exercise.

C

Poor peripheral circulation will cause the skin to appear: Select one: A. pink. B. flushed. C. ashen. D. cyanotic.

C

Premature diagnosis during a call can be due to what error? Select one: A. Streamlining B. Bias C. Anchoring D. Overconfidence

C

Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they: Select one: A. have large, rounded lenses. B. do not have shatterproof lenses. C. offer little or no side protection. D. are not secured with a strap.

C

Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: Select one: A. septic shock. B. neurogenic shock. C. cardiogenic shock. D. anaphylactic shock.

C

Shock is the result of: Select one: A. widespread constriction of the blood vessels. B. the body's maintenance of homeostasis. C. hypoperfusion to the cells of the body. D. temporary dysfunction of a major organ.

C

The EMT certification exam is designed to: Select one: A. rank EMTs based on performance on the certification exam. B. identify those EMTs who are prepared for advanced levels of training. C. ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills. D. provide EMTs with the best possible wage once certification is achieved.

C

The MOST common reason that many people experiencing AMI do not seek immediate medical attention is because they: Select one: A. are elderly. B. do not trust EMTs. C. are in denial. D. cannot afford it.

C

The MOST important treatment for a patient with severe abdominal pain and signs of shock is: Select one: A. administering high-flow oxygen. B. positioning the patient on his or her side. C. transporting the patient without delay. D. giving oral fluids to maintain perfusion.

C

The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium. Select one: A. occiput B. mastoid C. orbit D. sphenoid

C

The ability of cardiac muscle cells to contract spontaneously without a stimulus from a nerve source is called: Select one: A. impulsivity. B. excitability. C. automaticity. D. contractility.

C

The adult epinephrine auto-injector delivers ______ mg of epinephrine, and the infant-child auto-injector delivers ______ mg. Select one: A. 0.1; 0.01 B. 0.01; 0.1 C. 0.3; 0.15 D. 0.03; 0.3

C

The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of: Select one: A. 3 and 4 months. B. 7 and 14 months. C. 9 and 18 months. D. 6 and 8 months.

C

The autonomic nervous system controls all of the following functions, except: Select one: A. vessel dilation. B. breathing. C. breath holding. D. digestion.

C

The best way to reduce your risk of contracting a work-related disease following exposure is to: Select one: A. vigorously wash the affected area with an antimicrobial solution. B. be evaluated by a physician within 72 hours following the exposure. C. activate your department's infection control plan as soon as possible. D. get vaccinated against the disease you think you were exposed to.

C

The bones of the forearm are called the: Select one: A. radius and humerus. B. tibia and radius. C. radius and ulna. D. humerus and ulna.

C

The concept of consistent care across the entire health care team from first patient contact to patient discharge is called: Select one: A. the standard of care. B. the scope of practice. C. the continuum of care. D. patient care advocacy.

C

The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based mostly on: Select one: A. local protocols. B. regional trauma guidelines. C. EMS research. D. the lead EMT's decision.

C

The extremity lift would not be appropriate to use on a patient: Select one: A. without a spinal injury. B. who complains of nausea. C. with a deformed humerus. D. with forearm lacerations.

C

The following persons are responsible for ensuring that protected health information (PHI) is not shared in violation of HIPAA: Select one: a. An EMT who works or volunteers for an ambulance provider that bills for services b. An ambulance biller that performs billing services on behalf of an ambulance provider that bills for services c. A and B d. None of the above

C

The hepatitis B vaccine program, a component of the infection control plan, addresses all of the following issues, except: Select one: A. postvaccine antibody titers. B. record keeping and tracking. C. family history of hepatitis. D. vaccine safety and efficacy.

C

The most serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: Select one: A. confusion among team members. B. causing patient anxiety or fear. C. injury to you or your patient. D. unnecessarily wasting time.

C

The most serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: Select one: A. unnecessarily wasting time. B. causing patient anxiety or fear. C. injury to you or your patient. D. confusion among team members.

C

To be a great EMT, strive for: Select one: A. retraining. B. management work. C. foundational knowledge. D. the chance to replace an EMR.

C

Two of the MOST common signs of anaphylaxis are: Select one: A. hypertension and swollen hands. B. watery eyes and localized itching. C. urticaria and angioedema. D. expiratory stridor and tachycardia.

C

Urticaria is the medical term for: Select one: A. a wheal. B. swelling. C. hives. D. burning.

C

What effect does epinephrine have through binding to alpha-1 adrenergic receptors? Select one: a. Bronchoconstriction b. Vasodilation c. Vasoconstriction d. Bronchodilation

C

What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient? Select one: A. Vomitus B. Blood clots C. The tongue D. Aspirated fluid

C

What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR? Select one: A. 30:2 B. 5:1 C. 15:2 D. 3:1

C

What is the function of platelets? Select one: A. Defense against invading organisms B. Transport of cellular waste materials C. Initial formation of a blood clot D. Transport of oxygen and nutrients

C

What is the function of the left atrium? Select one: A. It receives oxygenated blood from the vena cava. B. It ejects oxygenated blood into the aorta. C. It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs. D. It receives blood from the pulmonary arteries.

C

What is the primary mechanism of action of albuterol? Select one: a. Beta-1 adrenergic antagonist b. Beta-2 adrenergic antagonist c. Beta-2 adrenergic agonist d. Beta-1 adrenergic agonist

C

When administering oxygen via non-rebreathing mask, you notice that the reservoir bag is fully deflating with each deep breath the patient takes. What is the most appropriate action? Select one: a. Decrease the flow rate through the mask so that the reservoir can fill. b. Immediately switch to a BVM and ventilate the patient c. Increase the flow rate to fill the reservoir d. Do nothing. This is normal functioning of the reservoir bag.

C

When an electrical impulse reaches the AV node, it is slowed for a brief period of time so that: Select one: A. the impulse can spread through the Purkinje fibers. B. blood can pass from the atria to the ventricles. C. blood returning from the body can fill the atria. D. the SA node can reset and generate another impulse.

C

When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should: Select one: A. stand behind him and immediately stabilize his head. B. assess his mental status by having him move his head. C. ensure that the patient can see you approaching him. D. approach him from behind and ask him not to move.

C

When assessing a patient who is displaying bizarre behavior, the EMT should: Select one: A. carefully document his or her perception of what is causing the patient's behavior. B. check his or her blood glucose level only if he or she has a history of diabetes. C. consider that an acute medical illness may be causing the patient's behavior. D. avoid asking questions about suicide because this may give the patient ideas.

C

When assisting an ALS worker, a BLS worker who performs a skill outside his or her level of certification: Select one: A. is striving for promotion to ALS. B. needs incident command authorization. C. risks a lawsuit. D. plays a team role.

C

When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for: Select one: A. a febrile convulsion. B. respiratory distress. C. a seizure. D. an acute stroke.

C

When communicating with a visually impaired patient, you should: Select one: A. possess an in-depth knowledge of sign language. B. recall that most visually impaired patients are blind. C. determine the degree of the patient's impairment. D. expect the patient to have difficulty understanding.

C

When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: Select one: A. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel. B. use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces. C. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions. D. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water.

C

Which of the following patients has signs of an altered mental status? Select one: A. A patient with an acute allergic reaction and dizziness B. A patient who overdosed and tells you he tried to kill himself C. A patient with a head injury who is slow to answer questions D. A diabetic who has nausea and severe lightheadedness

C

When encountering patients that you known you have treated in the past, the best practice to follow regarding distributing your organization's Notice of Privacy Practices (NPP) is to: Select one: a. Ask the patient whether or not she knows about her HPAA rights and only furnish a notice to the patient if she states that she does not b. Just assume that the patient has received a notice because your policy states that every patient gets the NPP the first time that you treat them c. Always furnish a copy of the NPP to patients, whenever possible, regardless of whether or not you believe that they have received a prior notice d. Only furnish the NPP to the patient if they specifically ask for it

C

When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms. B. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured. C. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first. D. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs.

C

When performing a rapid exam on a supine patient, what part of the body is typically assessed last? Select one: A. Extremities B. Abdomen C. Posterior D. Anterior chest

C

When performing a reassessment of your patient, you should first: Select one: A. obtain updated vital signs. B. reassess your interventions. C. repeat the primary assessment. D. confirm medical history findings.

C

When titrating oxygen therapy for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), what is an appropriate target? Select one: a. SpO2 < 94 b. SpO2 >/= 94 c. SpO2 >/= 90 d. SpO2 < 90

C

When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. your questions should focus exclusively on the patient's obvious problem. B. speaking loudly and distinctly will ensure that the patient can hear you. C. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions. D. hostility and confusion should be presumed to be due to the patient's age.

C

Which of the following anatomic terms is synonymous with the word "dorsal"? Select one: A. Medial B. Palmar C. Posterior D. Anterior

C

Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant? Select one: A. Knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance B. Walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions C. Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up D. Responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently

C

Which of the following best describes how albuterol works? Select one: a. It causes constriction of the smooth muscles that pull open the lower airways. b. It causes relaxation of the smooth muscles to open the upper airways. c. It causes relaxation of the smooth muscles to open the lower airways. d. It causes constriction of smooth muscles that pull open the upper airways.

C

Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT? Select one: A. Demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds B. A minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care C. Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases D. Successful completion of a recognized bystander CPR course

C

Which of the following findings should make the EMT especially suspicious that a woman was sexually assaulted? Select one: A. A prescription for alprazolam (Xanax) B. The odor of alcohol on her breath C. Inability to remember the event D. Signs of shock on assessment

C

Which of the following incidents does not require a report to be filed with local authorities? Select one: A. Spousal abuse B. Gunshot wounds C. Cardiac arrest D. Animal bites

C

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock? Select one: A. Liver laceration B. Spinal cord injury C. Cardiac tamponade D. Simple pneumothorax

C

Which of the following is a function of the upper airway? Select one: A. Creates sound from vocal cord vibration B. Relaxes smooth muscle in the bronchioles C. Warms and humidifies inhaled air D. Exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide

C

Which of the following is an effective stress management strategy? Select one: A. Frequently reflecting on troublesome calls B. Requesting overtime to occupy your mind C. Developing a social network outside of EMS D. Modestly increasing caffeine consumption

C

Which of the following is an indication of imminent birth? Select one: A. Rupture of the amniotic sac B. Irregular contractions lasting 10 minutes C. Crowning of the baby's head D. Expulsion of the mucus plug from the vagina

C

Which of the following is not a component of the Apgar score? Select one: A. Activity B. Pulse C. Body size D. Grimace

C

Which of the following is the MOST effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs? Select one: A. Evaluating the patient's chest for cyanosis B. Applying a pulse oximeter and monitoring the SpO2 C. Auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope D. Looking for the presence of accessory muscle use

C

Which of the following medications would indicate that a patient has a history of seizures? Select one: A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) B. Enalapril (Vasotec) C. Levetiracetam (Keppra) D. Metformin (Glucophage)

C

Which of the following most accurately defines negligence? Select one: A. Transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training B. Transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will C. Deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury D. Providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMTs

C

While transferring a patient to ALS staff, interference should be: Select one: A. optimized for care. B. kept in place. C. minimized overall. D. transformed by coordination.

C

Which of the following patients would MOST likely require insertion of an oropharyngeal airway? Select one: A. A 51-year-old confused patient with severely labored respirations B. A 33-year-old semiconscious patient with reduced tidal volume C. A 40-year-old unconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations D. A 64-year-old conscious patient with rapid and deep respirations

C

Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway? Select one: A. Rales B. Wheezing C. Stridor D. Rhonchi

C

Which of the following statements regarding a "dedicated line" is correct? Select one: A. It is a designated frequency on a portable radio that provides direct access to medical control. B. It is a frequency that is used exclusively by EMTs to communicate with one another in the field. C. It is a constantly open line of communication that cannot be accessed by outside users. D. It is a constantly open line of communication that is under exclusive control of a single user.

C

Which of the following statements regarding age-related changes in the nervous system is correct? Select one: A. The metabolic rate in the brain increases with age, but the consumption of oxygen decreases significantly. B. Because of a decrease in the number of brain cells, a person's level of intelligence decreases with age. C. Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of neurons. D. Generally speaking, the brain increases in size by 10% to 20% by the time a person reaches 80 years of age.

C

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylaxis is correct? Select one: A. The signs of anaphylaxis are caused by widespread vasoconstriction. B. Most anaphylactic reactions occur within 60 minutes of exposure. C. Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension. D. Patients with asthma are at lower risk of developing anaphylaxis.

C

Which of the following statements regarding fire ants is correct? Select one: A. Most people are allergic to fire ant toxin. B. Fire ant bites typically occur on the face. C. Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly. D. Fire ant bites rarely cause anaphylaxis.

C

Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct? Select one: A. PID most commonly affects women who have had an ectopic pregnancy in the past. B. The most common presenting symptom of PID is generalized upper abdominal pain. C. PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. D. The most severe cases of PID occur in women who are not sexually active.

C

Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? Select one: A. The NREMT regulates EMS training standards. B. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs. C. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing. D. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs.

C

Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct? Select one: A. During the secondary assessment, the EMT's primary focus should be on taking the patient's vital signs and obtaining a SAMPLE history. B. A secondary assessment should always be performed, even if you must continually manage life threats that were identified in the primary assessment. C. The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint. D. The secondary assessment should be performed en route to the hospital, regardless of the severity of the patient's condition.

C

Which of the following will MOST reliably allow you to determine the nature of a patient's illness? Select one: A. Focusing solely on how the call is dispatched B. Trending of the patient's vital signs over time C. Asking questions related to the chief complaint D. Refraining from asking open-ended questions

C

Which of the following would cause an increase in the amount of exhaled carbon dioxide? Select one: A. Excessive ventilation B. Anaerobic metabolism C. Increased cardiac output D. Cardiopulmonary arrest

C

Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old, mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? Select one: A. Implied B. Informed C. Expressed D. Formal

C

While eating dinner, your partner suddenly grabs his throat and has a panicked look on his face. He is unable to cough and becomes cyanotic around the lips. You should: Select one: A. deliver up to five back blows and reassess him. B. place him in a supine position and open his airway. C. stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts. D. encourage him to cough as forcefully as he can.

C

While providing care to a patient, the EMT informs her partner that a shotgun is leaning against the wall in the corner of the room. In making this observation, the EMT has demonstrated: Select one: A. closed-loop communication. B. crew resource management. C. situational awareness. D. constructive intervention.

C

While transporting a stable patient with chest pain to the hospital, you come across a major motor vehicle crash involving several critically injured patients. You should: Select one: A. remain at the scene until law enforcement and another ambulance arrive. B. ask a bystander to remain with your patient as you treat the crash victims. C. continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash. D. stop and triage the patients while your partner remains in the ambulance.

C

Why are airborne pathogens harder to control than droplet borne pathogens? Select one: a. Droplet borne pathogens always quickly become dry and unable to infect the body once they land on a surface. b. Airborne pathogens necessarily remain potent outside of the body for longer than droplet borne ones. c. Airborne pathogens are carried on smaller particles that may travel around simple masks. d. Droplet borne pathogens can travel further when forced by a cough or sneeze.

C

Why are prehospital emergency care guidelines updated on a regular basis? Select one: A. EMS providers should be encouraged to actively participate in research and become familiar with data analysis. B. Statistical data indicate that an increasing number of people are being diagnosed with a particular illness. C. Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed. D. The federal government requires the implementation of changes to existing emergency care protocols at least every five years.

C

With proper technique, you and your partner should be able to safely lift a patient who weighs up to ______ pounds. Select one: A. 190 B. 175 C. 220 D. 150

C

You and your partner are the first to arrive at a potential crime scene with a critically injured patient involved. The scene is safe. Your first priority is to: Select one: A. notify medical control for advice. B. wait for law enforcement to arrive. C. provide immediate patient care. D. determine why the patient was injured.

C

You and your partner are the first to arrive at a potential crime scene with a critically injured patient involved. The scene is safe. Your first priority is to: Select one: A. wait for law enforcement to arrive. B. notify medical control for advice. C. provide immediate patient care. D. determine why the patient was injured

C

You and your partner are treating a 66-year-old man who experienced a sudden onset of respiratory distress. He is conscious but is unable to follow simple verbal commands. Further assessment reveals that his breathing is severely labored and his oxygen saturation is 80%. You should: Select one: A. apply high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. B. attempt to insert an oropharyngeal airway. C. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device. D. administer continuous positive airway pressure.

C

You and your partner have achieved return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) in a patient who was in cardiac arrest. An ALS unit will arrive in less than 2 minutes. The patient remains unresponsive and has slow, irregular breathing. Further treatment for this patient should include: Select one: A. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min and immediate transport. B. insertion of an oropharyngeal airway and positioning him on his side. C. bag-mask ventilation at 10 breaths/min and assessment of oxygen saturation. D. elevation of his lower extremities and covering him with warm blankets.

C

You and your partner respond to the scene of a 49-year-old male with acute abdominal pain. As you enter his residence, you find him lying on the floor in severe pain. He is conscious and alert. The patient appears to weigh in excess of 350 pounds. Your first action should be to: Select one: A. request the fire department if one attempt to move him fails. B. encourage the patient to walk himself to the awaiting ambulance. C. request additional personnel before making any attempts to lift him. D. assess him and then move him to the stretcher with a direct carry.

C

You are assessing a 33-year-old male who complains of severe abdominal pain, weakness, and nausea. He tells you that he was gathering wood to build a fire when he felt a sudden, sharp pain on the back of his hand. Your assessment reveals that the patient's abdomen is rigid and painful to palpation. You should suspect: Select one: A. a brown recluse spider bite. B. envenomation from a pit viper. C. a black widow spider bite. D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

C

You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient exhales, and before inhaling, the patient should put his or her lips around the inhaler, take a deep breath, and depress the inhale. You should: Select one: A. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption. B. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation. C. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can. D. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition.

C

You are dispatched to a convenience store for a patient who passed out. Upon arriving at the scene, you find two off-duty EMTs performing CPR on the patient, a 58-year-old male. Your initial action should be to: Select one: A. request a paramedic unit and quickly attach the AED. B. have the EMTs stop CPR and assess for a pulse. C. feel for a pulse while compressions are ongoing. D. quickly attach the AED and push the analyze button.

C

You are dispatched to a residence for a 67-year-old female who was awakened by shortness of breath and sharp chest pain. Her husband tells you that she was recently discharged from the hospital after having hip surgery. Your assessment reveals dried blood around her mouth, facial cyanosis, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. You should suspect: Select one: A. spontaneous pneumothorax. B. acute pulmonary edema. C. acute pulmonary embolism. D. right-sided heart failure.

C

You are treating a 23-year-old female with type 1 diabetes. She took too much of her insulin and now has a blood glucose level of 28 mg/dL and a GCS of 7. How should you administer glucose to this patient? Select one: a. Buccally b. Orally c. Do not administer glucose d. Rectally

C

You are treating a 68-year-old female with COPD using her Proventil (albuterol) MDI. She has just taken a puff of her medication. Which of the following is true about administering the next puff? Select one: a. She should not have another dose since the maximum has been reached. b. She must wait 5 minutes before an additional dose. c. She can take a second puff right away. d. She may only take a second puff if her distress is severe.

C

You arrive at a local grocery store approximately 5 minutes after a 21-year-old female stopped seizing. She is confused and disoriented; she keeps asking you what happened and tells you that she is thirsty. Her brother, who witnessed the seizure, tells you that she takes valproate (Depakote) for her seizures, but has not taken it in a few days. He also tells you that she has diabetes. In addition to administering oxygen, you should: Select one: A. place her in the recovery position and transport her with lights and siren. B. give her small cups of water to drink and observe for further seizure activity. C. monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level. D. administer one tube of oral glucose and prepare for immediate transport.

C

You have been tasked by your medical director with assisting in the development of your EMS agency's institutional standards. When developing these standards, it is important to: Select one: A. expect personnel to function beyond their scope of practice if needed. B. require personnel to transport all patients to the closest hospital. C. be reasonable and realistic to avoid overburdening EMS personnel. D. demand that all personnel consistently exceed the standard of care.

C

You receive a call for a 70-year-old female with respiratory distress. Her husband tells you that she has congestive heart failure; however, he does not think that she has been taking her medications as prescribed. The patient is laboring to breathe, appears tired, and has cyanosis around her lips. You should: Select one: A. apply a pulse oximeter and assess her vital signs. B. obtain a complete list of all of her medications. C. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. D. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

C

You respond to a college campus for a young male who is acting strangely. After law enforcement has secured the scene, you enter the patient's dorm room and find him sitting on the edge of the bed; he appears agitated. As you approach him, you note that he has dried blood around both nostrils. He is breathing adequately, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is 200/110 mm Hg. Treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. assisting his ventilations with a bag-mask device. B. requesting a paramedic to administer naloxone (Narcan). C. attempting to calm him and giving him oxygen if tolerated. D. asking law enforcement to place handcuffs on the patient.

C

You respond to a movie theater for a 70-year-old male who is confused. His wife tells you he has type 2 diabetes but refuses to take his pills. Your assessment reveals that the patient is diaphoretic, tachycardic, and tachypneic. Initial management for this patient should include: Select one: A. performing a rapid exam and obtaining vital signs. B. assisting the patient with his diabetic medication. C. applying a nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min. D. administering one to two tubes of oral glucose.

C

You respond to a residence for a patient who is "not acting right." As you approach the door, the patient, a 35-year-old male, begins shouting profanities at you and your partner while holding a baseball bat. The man is confused and diaphoretic, and is wearing a medical identification bracelet. You should: Select one: A. calm him down so you can assess him. B. contact medical control for instructions. C. retreat at once and call law enforcement. D. be assertive and talk the patient down.

C

You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision. Upon arrival, you find the driver, a young female, sitting on the curb. She is confused; is in obvious respiratory distress; and has pale, moist skin. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you perform a primary assessment. After performing any immediate life-saving treatment, you should: Select one: A. assess her vital signs, secure her to a backboard, and transport her immediately. B. identify the specific areas of her injuries and focus your assessment on those areas. C. perform a detailed head-to-toe exam and prepare for immediate transport. D. fully immobilize her spine, load her into the ambulance, and assess her vital signs.

C

You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision. Upon arrival, you find the driver, a young female, sitting on the curb. She is confused; is in obvious respiratory distress; and has pale, moist skin. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you perform a primary assessment. After performing any immediate life-saving treatment, you should: Select one: A. fully immobilize her spine, load her into the ambulance, and assess her vital signs. B. assess her vital signs, secure her to a backboard, and transport her immediately. C. perform a detailed head-to-toe exam and prepare for immediate transport. D. identify the specific areas of her injuries and focus your assessment on those areas.

C

You suspect that a 75-year-old man has internal injuries after he fell and struck his ribs and abdomen on the corner of a table. When assessing and treating an injured patient of this age, you must recall that: Select one: A. blood pressure is usually adequately maintained because the blood vessels of older people can contract easily. B. it is not uncommon to observe heart rates in excess of 150 beats/min in elderly patients with internal injuries. C. his ability to physiologically compensate for his injury might be impaired due to an inability to increase cardiac output. D. functional blood volume in patients of this age steadily increases due to increased production of red blood cells.

C

Your EMS system uses a computerized PCR in which you fill in the information electronically and then send it to the emergency department via a secure Internet server. The PCR has a comprehensive series of drop-down boxes, which are used to identify your assessment findings and specify the treatment that you provided; it also has a section for your narrative. When completing your PCR after a call, you should: Select one: A. enter all of the pertinent information of the electronic PCR, but then print it out and provide a copy to the emergency department staff. B. avoid documenting personally identifiable information, such as the patient's name, because the PCR could be intercepted during transmission. C. complete a thorough and accurate narrative because drop-down boxes cannot provide all of the information that needs to be documented. D. defer the narrative only if the information in the drop-down boxes accurately reflects the assessment and treatment that you performed.

C

Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should: Select one: A. move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pad. B. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns. C. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pad. D. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch.

C

Your partner, a veteran EMT with whom you have worked regularly for the past four years, seems unusually agitated during a call involving an elderly patient. Upon arrival back at your station, you note the obvious smell of alcohol on his breath. What should you do? Select one: A. Report the incident to your EMS medical director. B. Tell your partner that he must seek professional help. C. Discreetly report your suspicions to your supervisor. D. Remain quiet and simply request another partner.

C

The circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' current needs is called: Select one: A. metabolism. B. cardiac output. C. respiration. D. perfusion.

D

A 16-year-old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should: Select one: A. avoid asking questions that she will feel uncomfortable answering. B. recall that patients in this age group prefer not to be treated as adults. C. obtain the majority of your information from one of her parents. D. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible.

D

A 16-year-old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should: Select one: A. recall that patients in this age group prefer not to be treated as adults. B. obtain the majority of your information from one of her parents. C. avoid asking questions that she will feel uncomfortable answering. D. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible.

D

A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should: Select one: A. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen. B. wrap the towel with pressure bandages. C. apply pressure to the brachial artery. D. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.

D

A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is: Select one: A. 10. B. 12. C. 14. D. 13.

D

A 75-year-old male with type 1 diabetes presents with chest pain and a general feeling of weakness. He tells you that he took his insulin today and ate a regular meal approximately 2 hours ago. You should treat this patient as though he is experiencing: Select one: A. hypoglycemia B. an acute stroke. C. hyperglycemia. D. a heart attack.

D

A 30-year-old male was rescued after being lost in the woods for approximately 18 hours. The outside temperature is 30°F (−1°C). He is immediately placed in the warmed ambulance, where you perform a primary assessment. He is unresponsive, pale, and apneic. You should: Select one: A. open his airway and give two rescue breaths. B. apply an automated external defibrillator and assess his cardiac rhythm. C. apply chemical heat packs to his groin and axillae. D. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds.

D

A 38-year-old male with a history of schizophrenia is reported by neighbors to be screaming and throwing things in his house. You are familiar with the patient and have cared for him in the past for unrelated problems. Law enforcement officers escort you into the residence when you arrive. The patient tells you that he sees vampires and is attempting to ward them off by screaming and throwing things at them. He has several large lacerations to his forearms that are actively bleeding. The MOST appropriate way to manage this situation is to: Select one: A. approach the patient and calm him by placing your hand on his shoulder. B. request that the police officers arrest him and take him to the hospital. C. try to gain the patient's trust by telling him that you see the vampires too. D. restrain the patient with appropriate force in order to treat his injuries.

D

A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother's lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child's mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should: Select one: A. reassure the child's mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about. B. attempt to calm the child's mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety. C. give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability. D. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother.

D

A 47-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain of 3 hours' duration. His abdomen is distended and guarded. Your MOST important consideration for this patient should be to: Select one: A. determine the exact location and cause of his pain. B. assess his blood pressure to determine perfusion adequacy. C. transport him in a supine position. D. be alert for signs and symptoms of shock.

D

A 50-year-old male was stung by a honeybee approximately 15 minutes ago. He presents with respiratory distress, facial swelling, and hypotension. After placing him on oxygen and administering his epinephrine via auto-injector, you note that his breathing has improved. Additionally, his facial swelling is resolving and his blood pressure is stable. Your next action should be to: Select one: A. reassess his breathing and blood pressure in 15 minutes. B. visualize his airway to assess for oropharyngeal swelling. C. notify medical control of the patient's response to your treatment. D. record the time and dose of the injection and transport promptly.

D

A 51-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She is conscious and alert and able to speak in complete sentences. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. You should: Select one: A. perform a secondary assessment and then begin treatment. B. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. C. insert a nasal airway in case her mental status decreases. D. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

D

A 58-year-old man complains of chest discomfort and nausea. He is conscious and alert; his blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, his pulse is 104 beats/min, and his respirations are 16 breaths/min. Your partner has applied supplemental oxygen. Prior to assisting the patient with one of his prescribed nitroglycerin tablets, you ask him if he takes medication to treat erectile dysfunction (ED), and he tells you that he does. You should: Select one: A. avoid giving him nitroglycerin and transport him at once. B. administer his nitroglycerin and then reassess his blood pressure. C. recall that erectile ED drugs can cause significant hypertension. D. ask him what he takes, how much, and when he last took it.

D

A 59-year-old male presents with severe vomiting and diarrhea of 3 days' duration. He is confused and diaphoretic, and his radial pulses are absent. His blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg. After applying supplemental oxygen, you should: Select one: A. obtain a repeat blood pressure in 5 minutes. B. perform a head-to-toe exam. C. allow him to drink plain water. D. prepare for immediate transport.

D

A 60-year-old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is sweaty, and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. acute pancreatitis. B. strangulated hernia. C. kidney stones. D. aortic aneurysm.

D

A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should: Select one: A. determine if he has a valid living will. B. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated. C. start CPR and transport immediately. D. begin CPR until an AED is available.

D

A 71-year-old female slipped on a rug and fell. She is conscious but confused and complains of severe pelvic pain. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. What should you do? Select one: A. Transport her on her left side B. Gently palpate her pelvis C. Transport her in a seated position D. Treat her for possible shock

D

A COPD patient has been prescribed a Duoneb (albuterol/ipratropium) nebulizer for home use. In addition to an adrenergic agonist, which of the following does this medication contain? Select one: a. A cholinergic agonist b. An adrenergic antagonist c. A second adrenergic agonist d. An anticholinergic agent

D

A ___________ receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency. Select one: A. duplex B. scanner C. decoder D. repeater

D

A frostbitten foot can be identified by the presence of: Select one: A. blanching of the skin. B. gross deformity. C. soft, smooth skin. D. mottling and blisters.

D

A patient is diagnosed with nephritis. This means: Select one: A. dysfunction of the liver. B. disease of the kidney. C. enlargement of the liver. D. inflammation of the kidney.

D

A patient regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. The patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should: Select one: A. request that the police place the patient under protective custody. B. have the patient sign a refusal form and return him to his office. C. document the patient's request but continue to transport him. D. assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired.

D

A patient with hepatomegaly has: Select one: A. pain in a joint. B. cancer of the lymphatic system. C. disease of the kidneys. D. an enlarged liver.

D

A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing: Select one: A. without difficulty. B. with shallow depth. C. at a normal rate. D. without assistance.

D

A physician who specializes in diseases of the nervous system is called a: Select one: A. radiologist. B. nephrologist. C. cardiologist. D. neurologist.

D

A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli. B. a unilaterally collapsed lung. C. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue. D. fluid accumulation outside the lung.

D

A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover: Select one: A. the entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease at the elbow. B. one third the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow. C. one half the length between the armpit and the crease at the elbow. D. two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.

D

A proximal humeral fracture is one that is located: Select one: A. at a point closest to the body. B. at a point closest to the elbow. C. between the shoulder and elbow. D. at the upper part of the humerus.

D

A proximal humeral fracture is one that is located: Select one: A. at a point closest to the body. B. between the shoulder and elbow. C. at a point closest to the elbow. D. at the upper part of the humerus.

D

A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bite or sting is called: Select one: A. urticaria. B. purpura. C. a pustule. D. a wheal.

D

A team of EMTs and paramedics are attempting to resuscitate a man who is in cardiac arrest while his wife and son are present. Which of the following should occur during the resuscitation attempt? Select one: A. A law enforcement officer should prepare the family for the patient's death and contact the funeral home. B. Each member of the resuscitation team should update the family at various intervals throughout the attempt. C. Communication with the family should be minimal until the final outcome of the resuscitation attempt is known. D. One EMT should update the family on the interventions that have been performed and how the patient has responded.

D

A technique used to gain insight into a patient's thinking, which involves repeating in question form what the patient has said, is called: Select one: A. intuitive listening. B. passive listening. C. active listening. D. reflective listening.

D

Abdominal thrusts in a conscious child or adult with a severe upper airway obstruction are performed: Select one: A. until he or she experiences cardiac arrest. B. about 1 inch below the xiphoid process. C. in sets of five followed by reassessment. D. until he or she loses consciousness.

D

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to: Select one: A. interpret a basic (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly. B. administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route. C. insert a peripheral IV line and infuse fluids. D. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.

D

After administration of naloxone to correct an opioid overdose, why is it important for the patient to still be transported to the emergency department even if their symptoms are completely reversed? Select one: a. The side effects of naloxone can be serious b. The patient needs substance abuse counseling and cannot refuse transport to a rehab center c. Naloxone will last longer than the opioid causing a naloxone overdose later d. The original opioid may last longer than the naloxone causing overdose symptoms to recur

D

After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called: Select one: A. hematemesis. B. hemiplegia. C. hemolysis. D. hemostasis.

D

After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to: Select one: A. determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions. B. find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life. C. look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion. D. identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.

D

All information recorded on the PCR must be: Select one: A. reflective of your opinion. B. a matter of public record. C. typewritten or printed. D. considered confidential.

D

All of the following are considered to be protected health information (PHI), except: Select one: A. patient history. B. treatment rendered. C. assessment findings. D. location of the call.

D

An infant's blood pressure typically increases with age because: Select one: A. as the infant gets older, his or her blood vessels dilate. B. the infant's total blood volume decreases with age. C. his or her normal heart rate usually increases with age. D. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight.

D

As a woman approaches menopause: Select one: A. her risk of developing pelvic inflammatory disease lowers significantly. B. she usually experiences abdominal cramping without vaginal bleeding. C. she cannot become pregnant because of fluctuating hormone levels. D. her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity.

D

As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: Select one: A. an order from a paramedic. B. the transport time to the hospital. C. the patient's condition. D. medical director approval.

D

As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should: Select one: A. prepare the immobilization equipment. B. look in the ears for gross bleeding. C. assess the rest of the body for bleeding. D. maintain stabilization of the head.

D

Asthma is caused by a response of the: Select one: A. respiratory system. B. endocrine system. C. cardiovascular system. D. immune system.

D

At present, the average life expectancy is ________ years, while the maximum life expectancy is estimated at ________ years. Select one: A. 72, 110 B. 70, 102 C. 68, 100 D. 78, 120

D

Breathing occurs as the result of a(n): Select one: A. decrease in oxygen, which increases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. B. decrease in carbon dioxide, which increases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. C. increase in oxygen, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. D. increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

D

Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: Select one: A. EMR. B. EMT. C. AEMT. D. paramedic.

D

Cardiac output may decrease if the heart beats too rapidly because: Select one: A. a rapid heartbeat causes a decrease in the strength of cardiac contractions. B. the volume of blood that returns to the heart is not sufficient with fast heart rates. C. as the heart rate increases, more blood is pumped from the ventricles than the atria D. there is not enough time in between contractions for the heart to refill completely.

D

Central chemoreceptors located in the medulla provide feedback to increase the rate and depth of breathing when they sense: Select one: A. increased levels of oxygen in the blood and a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. B. decreased levels of oxygen in the blood and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. C. slight decreases in carbon dioxide and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. D. slight increases in carbon dioxide or a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

D

Characteristics of eustress following dispatch to a high-speed motor vehicle collision may include: Select one: A. short term loss of energy due to the high physical demands of the job. B. the inability to remain focused, because the task at hand is demanding. C. long-term feelings of being overwhelmed by the nature of the call. D. increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation.

D

Characteristics of eustress following dispatch to a high-speed motor vehicle collision may include: Select one: A. the inability to remain focused, because the task at hand is demanding. B. short term loss of energy due to the high physical demands of the job. C. long-term feelings of being overwhelmed by the nature of the call. D. increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation.

D

Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include: Select one: A. cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; and deep, rapid respirations. B. warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; and rapid respirations. C. warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; and deep, slow respirations. D. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations.

D

Continuing education in EMS serves to: Select one: A. provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system. B. confirm research and statistical findings in prehospital care. C. enforce mandatory attendance at agency-specific training. D. maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills.

D

Covered entities should be employing which of the following techniques to secure electronic protected health information (PHI): Select one: a. Automatic logoffs b. Unique user IDs and passwords c. Encryption technology d. All of the above

D

Determination of exposure is an important component of an infection control plan because it: Select one: A. defines who is most likely to transmit communicable diseases in the workplace. B. determines which type of communicable disease might be present in the workplace. C. determines the time of day when most exposures are likely to occur. D. defines who is at risk for contact with blood and body fluids and which tasks pose a risk of exposure.

D

Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when: Select one: A. blood glucose levels rapidly fall. B. the cells rapidly metabolize glucose. C. the pancreas produces excess insulin. D. insulin is not available in the body.

D

During a call, the EMT observes her partner using an assessment approach that she is unfamiliar with. The patient is stable and has no life-threatening conditions. What should the EMT do? Select one: A. Contact a supervisor after the call and suggest remediation for her partner. B. Assume care of the patient and ask her partner to drive the ambulance. C. Immediately engage her partner and correct his assessment approach. D. Discuss the assessment approach that was taken after the call is over.

D

During the primary assessment, circulation is evaluated by assessing: Select one: A. skin quality, blood pressure, and capillary refill. B. blood pressure, pulse rate, and external bleeding. C. external bleeding, skin condition, and capillary refill. D. pulse quality, external bleeding, and skin condition.

D

During your monthly internal quality improvement (QI) meeting, you review several patient care reports (PCRs) with the staff of your EMS system. You identify the patient's name, age, and sex, and then discuss the treatment that was provided by the EMTs in the field. By taking this approach to the QI process, you: Select one: A. acted appropriately but must have each EMT sign a waiver stating that he or she will not discuss the cases with others. B. adequately safeguarded the patient's PHI because the cases were discussed internally. C. violated the patient's privacy because you should have discussed the information only with the EMTs involved. D. are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove the PHI from the PCR beforehand.

D

EMTs arrive at the scene of an ill person. The EMR, who arrived before the EMTs, advises that the patient had a syncopal episode. The patient is conscious and alert and remains so throughout transport. When transferring patient care to the emergency department nurse, the EMT should advise the nurse that: Select one: A. there is no evidence to support the syncopal episode. B. she should contact the EMR about the incident. C. the EMR was probably mistaken about the episode. D. the patient had a reported syncopal episode.

D

Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called: Select one: A. dyspepsia. B. polydipsia. C. dysphasia. D. polyphagia.

D

For a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must: Select one: A. be dated within the previous 24 months. B. be signed by the local justice of the peace. C. be updated a minimum of every 6 months. D. clearly state the patient's medical problem.

D

For a patient with signs and symptoms of a respiratory infection, an important question to ask to determine potential exposure may include: Select one: a. How high is your fever? b. Have you had the hepatitis vaccine before? c. Do you have any other pulmonary conditions? d. Have you ever had Tuberculosis or a positive Tuberculosis Skin Test, or PPD?

D

Gathering data about a patient begins when: Select one: A. the EMT first sets eyes on the patient. B. a full medical history has been obtained. C. an initial patient care plan has been established. D. the EMT is given dispatch information.

D

HIPAA permits disclosure of protected health information (PHI) about a patient to the media when: Select one: a. The patient is a celebrity or well-known public figure b. When the provider feels the disclosure would be in the best interests of the patient c. If the media person making the request represents that the information will be reported in a fair and balanced manner d. Only if the patient specifically authorizes the disclosure in writing

D

Health care providers who infrequently work together can function effectively as a team if they work in an environment that supports and promotes: Select one: A. rigid protocols. B. competition. C. discipline. D. collaboration.

D

Health care teams that infrequently train and work together: Select one: A. need less-explicit verbal direction. B. are unable to accomplish their tasks. C. often work better under pressure. D. can create delays in patient care.

D

Hemoglobin is: Select one: A. a key component of the blood and is produced in response to an infection. B. the fluid portion of the blood that transports cells throughout the body. C. essential for the formation of clots, such as when vessel damage occurs. D. found within the red blood cells and is responsible for carrying oxygen.

D

How does epinephrine correct the effect of anaphylaxis on the lower airways? Select one: a. Beta-1 adrenergic receptors lead to bronchoconstriction b. Beta-2 adrenergic receptors lead to bronchoconstriction c. Beta-1 adrenergic receptors lead to bronchodilation d. Beta-2 adrenergic receptors lead to bronchodilation

D

How does nitroglycerin affect a myocardial infarction? Select one: a. Increased O2 consumption by the affected myocardium b. Decreased O2 delivery to the affected myocardium c. Increased O2 delivery to the affected myocardium d. Decreased O2 consumption by the affected myocardium

D

How much glucose is typically supplied in one tube? Select one: a. 0.15 - 0.3 mg b. 15 - 30 mg c. 0.15 - 0.3 g d. 15 - 30 g

D

If a field provider receives a request for PHI from an attorney, the best course of action for the provider to follow is: Select one: a. Check to see whether the attorney is licensed to practice law in your state b. Release the information if the attorney sends the request in writing c. Call the attorney to ask her whether or not the patient authorized the release and release the information if teh attorney confirms this to you over the phone d. Direct the request to your HIPAA Compliance Officer

D

The amount of air that remains in the lungs simply to keep them open is called the: Select one: A. tidal volume. B. inspiratory reserve volume. C. expiratory reserve volume. D. residual volume.

D

If it is not possible to adequately clean your ambulance at the hospital following a call, you should: Select one: A. thoroughly wash the back of the ambulance at a local car wash or similar facility. B. wait until the end of your shift and then disinfect the entire patient compartment. C. quickly wipe down all high-contact surfaces with an antibacterial solution. D. clean the ambulance at your station in a designated area that is well ventilated.

D

If you notice someone at your organization using or disclosing PHI in a way that you think may violate HIPAA you should: Select one: a. Document the incident and only report it if you see it happen again b. Tell another coworker about the incident c. Warn the individual that you will report them the next time you see it happen d. Report the incident immediately to the HIPAA Compliance Officer or a supervisor

D

If you use a waterless handwashing substitute in the field, it is important to: Select one: A. immediately dry your hands with a paper towel. B. avoid donning another pair of gloves for at least 10 minutes. C. wait at least five minutes before touching another patient. D. wash your hands with soap and water at the hospital.

D

In addition to obtaining a SAMPLE history and asking questions related to the chief complaint, what else should you specifically inquire about when assessing a patient with a potentially infectious disease? Select one: A. Drug allergies B. Sexual practices C. HIV status D. Recent travel

D

In cases where your patient may be the victim of a crime, you may disclose PHI to law enforcement if the following is true: Select one: a. The police officer tells you he needs the information immediately for investigative purposes b. You believe that disclosure is in the best interest of the patient c. The police officer agrees that the information will not be used against the patient d. All of the above

D

In contrast to Lyme disease, Rocky Mountain spotted fever: Select one: A. presents with flu-like symptoms and a bull's-eye rash. B. causes painful joint swelling after a few days or weeks. C. might be confused with rheumatoid arthritis. D. can cause paralysis and cardiorespiratory collapse.

D

In contrast to an automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator (AICD), an external defibrillator vest: Select one: A. will only deliver a shock if ventricular fibrillation occurs. B. does not warn when a shock is about to be delivered. C. does not require the EMT to stand clear when it shocks. D. delivers high-energy shocks, similar to an AED.

D

In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina, bleeding caused by conditions such as polyps or cancer: Select one: A. can be controlled in the field. B. is typically not as severe. C. often presents with acute pain. D. may be relatively painless.

D

In late adults, the amount of air left in the lungs after expiration of the maximum amount of air: Select one: A. decreases, which increases diffusion in the lungs and causes an accumulation of carbon dioxide. B. decreases, resulting in widespread collapsing of the alveoli and impaired diffusion of gases. C. remains unchanged because the lungs have become accustomed to years of breathing pollution. D. increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of the stagnant air that remains in the alveoli.

D

In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor: Select one: A. has a poor relationship with his or her parents. B. is mentally competent and able to refuse. C. possesses a valid driver's license. D. is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself.

D

In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: Select one: A. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed. B. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen. C. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion. D. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

D

In the recovery position, the patient is: Select one: A. sitting upright. B. lying face up. C. lying face down. D. on his or her side.

D

In which of the following situations is an emergency patient move indicated? Select one: A. The EMT has to gain access to lesser-injured patients in a vehicle. B. A significant mechanism of injury is involved. C. A patient has an altered mental status or is in shock. D. The EMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards.

D

Infants are often referred to as "belly breathers" because: Select one: A. an infant's ribs are brittle and are less able to expand. B. their diaphragm does not receive impulses from the brain. C. their intercostal muscles are not functional. D. their rib cage is less rigid, and the ribs sit horizontally.

D

Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant involves: Select one: A. blind finger sweeps. B. abdominal thrusts. C. bag-mask ventilation. D. back slaps.

D

The areas of the spinal column, in descending order, are: Select one: A. cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, and coccyx. B. cervical, thoracic, sacral, lumbar, and coccyx. C. cervical, thoracic, coccyx, lumbar, and sacral. D. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx.

D

The axial skeleton is composed of the: Select one: A. arms, legs, and pelvis. B. lower part of the torso and the legs. C. bones that constitute the pelvic girdle. D. skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column.

D

Law enforcement personnel request your assistance for a 30-year-old man who was pulled over for erratic driving. The patient became acutely violent while he was being questioned, which required one of the officers to subdue him with a Taser. When you arrive and assess the patient, you find that he is very agitated and is experiencing apparent hallucinations. His skin is flushed and diaphoretic. You should: Select one: A. suspect that he is acutely hypoglycemic, consider giving him one tube of oral glucose, and transport with lights and siren. B. recognize that he is experiencing a complex psychiatric crisis, quickly load him into the ambulance, and transport without delay. C. quickly rule out any life-threatening conditions and then perform a detailed secondary assessment as he is being restrained. D. limit physical contact with the patient as much as possible and avoid interrupting him if he is attempting to communicate with you.

D

Naloxone (Narcan) would reverse the effects of: Select one: A. temazepam (Restoril). B. diazepam (Valium). C. phenobarbital (Luminal). D. hydromorphone (Dilaudid).

D

Naloxone is a/an: Select one: a. Opioid b. Opioid agonist c. Anti-opioid d. Opioid antagonist

D

Normal respiratory rates should not exceed _______ breaths per minute in toddlers and _______ breaths per minute in infants. Select one: A. 18, 28 B. 30, 40 C. 20, 30 D. 40, 60

D

Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be: Select one: A. pink, warm, and moist. B. pale, cool, and moist. C. flushed, cool, and dry. D. pink, warm, and dry.

D

Patients with generalized hypothermia are at an increased risk of a local cold injury because: Select one: A. the major muscles of the body become rigid during hypothermia. B. peripheral vasodilation brings warm blood to the skin's surface. C. the patient is usually unable to escape the cold ambient temperature. D. blood is shunted away from the extremities to the body's core.

D

Posttraumatic stress disorder can happen after: Select one: A. extended periods of hyperthermia or hypothermia. B. alcohol withdrawal. C. a bout with depression. D. exposure to or injury from a traumatic occurrence.

D

Premature diagnosis during a call can be due to what error? Select one: A. Overconfidence B. Bias C. Streamlining D. Anchoring

D

Protected health information (PHI) must be safeguarded under HIPAA when it is in the following form(s): Select one: a. Photograpphic b. Verbal c. Written d. All of the above

D

Protected health information may be used and disclosed without the patient's permission for the following purposes: Select one: a. Payment (Example: to submit a bill to a patient's insurance company) b. Healthcare Operations (Example: to conduct quality assurance activities and client reviews c. Treatment (Example: to share information with the receiving hospital about the treatment you provided to the patient) d. All of the above

D

Putrefaction is defined as: Select one: A. separation of the torso from the rest of the body. B. blood settling to the lowest point of the body. C. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face. D. decomposition of the body's tissues.

D

Shock is the result of: Select one: A. widespread constriction of the blood vessels. B. the body's maintenance of homeostasis. C. temporary dysfunction of a major organ. D. hypoperfusion to the cells of the body.

D

Signs and symptoms of a sympathomimetic drug overdose include: Select one: A. hypothermia. B. slurred speech. C. hypotension. D. tachycardia.

D

Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system would result in: Select one: A. a strong pulse. B. vasoconstriction. C. tachycardia. D. a slower heart rate.

D

The "minimum necessary" rule means that you should only disclose the minimum amount of protected health information (PHI) necessary to accomplish the task and nothing more. This rule applies to the following types of disclosures" Select one: a. Disclosures for treatment purposes b. Disclosures for payment purposes c. Disclosure for operations purposes d. Both B and C

D

The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to: Select one: A. ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad. B. wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient. C. routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients. D. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.

D

The EMT is assessing a man who fell and struck his head. The patient is a known alcoholic and has the odor of alcohol on his breath. The EMT assumes that the man is drunk and does not assess for signs and symptoms of a head injury. This is an example of: Select one: A. anchoring. B. overestimation. C. overconfidence. D. bias.

D

The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes: Select one: A. visualizing the airway and removing the obstruction. B. advising the patient not to make any attempts to cough. C. performing five back slaps and five abdominal thrusts. D. administering oxygen and transporting immediately.

D

The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is: Select one: A. severe stress. B. heavy exertion. C. diabetes mellitus. D. hypertension.

D

The extremity lift would not be appropriate to use on a patient: Select one: A. with forearm lacerations. B. without a spinal injury. C. who complains of nausea. D. with a deformed humerus.

D

The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-decompression CPR by: Select one: A. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles. B. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart. C. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression. D. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.

D

The left cerebral hemisphere controls: Select one: A. breathing and blood pressure. B. heart rate and pupil reaction. C. the right side of the face. D. the right side of the body.

D

The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the: Select one: A. inferior venae cavae. B. superior venae cavae. C. pulmonary arteries. D. pulmonary veins.

D

The main benefit of using a mechanical piston device for chest compressions is: Select one: A. the minimal training required to correctly operate the device. B. the elimination of the need to place a firm, flat device under the patient. C. its ability to be used with any patient, regardless of age, weight, or body size. D. the elimination of rescuer fatigue that results from manual compressions.

D

The manner in which the EMT must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the: Select one: A. code of ethics. B. EMT oath. C. scope of practice. D. standard of care.

D

The most important consideration at the scene of a hazardous materials incident is: Select one: A. calling the hazardous materials team. B. evacuating the bystanders. C. identifying the hazardous material. D. ensuring your personal safety.

D

The most superior section of the sternum is called the: Select one: A. angle of Louis. B. costal arch. C. xiphoid process. D. manubrium.

D

The muscle tissue of the heart is called the: Select one: A. pericardium. B. epicardium. C. endocardium. D. myocardium.

D

The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT: Select one: A. informs dispatch of the patient's arrival at the emergency department. B. notifies the admitting clerk of the patient's arrival at the hospital. C. gives a radio report to the receiving medical facility. D. gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse.

D

The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT: Select one: A. notifies the admitting clerk of the patient's arrival at the hospital. B. gives a radio report to the receiving medical facility. C. informs dispatch of the patient's arrival at the emergency department. D. gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse.

D

The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg; the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg. Select one: A. 70, 28 B. 88, 30 C. 90, 50 D. 104, 40

D

The principal symptom in both infectious and noninfectious gastroenteritis is: Select one: A. dysuria. B. high fever. C. vomiting. D. diarrhea.

D

The purpose of the pin-indexing system for compressed gas cylinders is to: Select one: A. help you determine what type of oxygen regulator to use. B. reduce the cylinder pressure to a safe and more useful range. C. prevent destroying or stripping the threads on the cylinder. D. ensure that the correct regulator is used for the cylinder.

D

The term "supraventricular tachycardia" means: Select one: A. a slow heart rate that originates from within the ventricles. B. a rapid heart rate that originates from within the ventricles. C. a slow heart rate that originates from above the ventricles. D. a rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles.

D

The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline of the body is: Select one: A. midaxillary. B. lateral. C. midclavicular. D. medial.

D

Three days after delivering her baby, a 30-year-old woman complains of a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. Her level of consciousness is decreased, and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. acute pulmonary edema. B. intrauterine bleeding. C. spontaneous pneumothorax. D. pulmonary embolism.

D

To facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should: Select one: A. speak softly but clearly to avoid startling the patient. B. never become involved in the move, only direct the move. C. be positioned at the feet so the team can hear. D. use preparatory commands to initiate any moves.

D

When is oxygen administration contraindicated? Select one: a. Nasal mucous membranes are bleeding b. History of COPD c. History of allergy d. There are no contraindications for emergency use

D

Upon initial contact with a patient who appears to be unconscious, you should: Select one: A. direct your partner to apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. B. squeeze the trapezius muscle to see if the patient responds. C. assess breathing depth and determine the respiratory rate. D. attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient.

D

Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you: Select one: A. received a hepatitis B vaccination. B. are older than 35 years of age. C. have a weak immune system. D. have been infected with hepatitis A in the past.

D

What are the signs and symptoms of the opioid toxidrome? Select one: a. CNS stimulation, hypoventilation, constricted pupils b. CNS depression, hypoventilation, dilated pupils c. CNS depression, hyperventilation, constricted pupils d. CNS depression, hypoventilation, constricted pupils

D

What form of aspirin is appropriate to use in an emergency for an adult? Select one: a. Non-chewable non-enteric coated tablets b. Chewable enteric coated tablets c. Non-chewable enteric coated tablets d. Chewable non-enteric coated tablets

D

What guideline should be followed when removing medical gloves after use? Select one: a. Remove and dispose of the first glove completely before beginning to remove the second. b. Glove removal requires a second person's assistance to be done safely. c. Gloves must always be put into a bio-hazard bag after any use. d. The skin should only touch the clean inside of the glove and never the contaminated outside.

D

What is the appropriate adult dose of epinephrine for anaphylaxis? Select one: a. 3 mg b. 0.3 g c. 3 mg d. 0.3 mg

D

What is the approximate percentage of oxygen being inspired by a patient receiving supplemental oxygen delivered via nasal cannula at 6 Lpm? Select one: a. 21 % b. 24 % c. 100 % d. 44 %

D

What is the primary action of aspirin? Select one: a. Breaks down platelets b. Breaks down clots c. Inhibits the clotting cascade d. Inhibits platelet aggregation

D

When administering naloxone to a patient via the intranasal route, what is the appropriate dose? Select one: a. 0.4 - 2 mg b. 0.4 - 4 mg c. 0.2 - 0.4 mg d. 2 - 4 mg

D

When administering supplemental oxygen to a hypoxemic patient with a chronic lung disease, you should: Select one: A. recall that most patients with chronic lung diseases are stimulated to breathe by increased carbon dioxide levels. B. avoid positive-pressure ventilation because the majority of patients with chronic lung disease are at increased risk for lung trauma. C. begin with a low oxygen flow rate, even if the patient is unresponsive, because high-flow oxygen may depress his or her breathing. D. adjust the flow rate accordingly until you see symptom improvement, but be prepared to assist his or her ventilations.

D

When assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. You should administer supplemental oxygen if needed and then: Select one: A. document your findings and perform a detailed assessment. B. apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm. C. conclude that the irregular pulse is normal based on her age. D. transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit.

D

When assessing a patient with a behavioral crisis, you should: Select one: A. frisk the patient for the presence of weapons. B. ask the police to handcuff the patient for safety. C. spend as little time with the patient as possible. D. be direct and clearly state your intentions.

D

When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the: Select one: A. rate of the patient's pulse. B. patient's mental status. C. presence of a medical identification tag. D. rate and depth of breathing.

D

When assessing for fluid collection in the lungs during auscultation of lung sounds, you should: Select one: A. note the presence of a high-pitched whistling sound, which is an indicator of fluid in the lungs. B. pay special attention to the exhalation phase because this is when you will likely hear rales or rhonchi. C. auscultate the posterior chest first and compare the apex of one lung to the base of the opposite lung. D. start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds.

D

When assessing the skin of an unresponsive patient, you note that it has a bluish tint to it. This finding is called: Select one: A. pallor. B. mottling. C. flushing. D. cyanosis.

D

When assisting an ALS worker, a BLS worker who performs a skill outside his or her level of certification: Select one: A. needs incident command authorization. B. plays a team role. C. is striving for promotion to ALS. D. risks a lawsuit.

D

When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should: Select one: A. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away. B. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital. C. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient. D. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.

D

When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than: Select one: A. 200 mm Hg. B. 100 mm Hg. C. 400 mm Hg. D. 300 mm Hg.

D

When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal: Select one: A. exhalation lasts longer than inhalation. B. respirations decrease in rate and depth. C. the brain stem inhibits respirations. D. respirations increase in rate and depth.

D

Where and how should epinephrine be administered for anaphylaxis? Select one: a. SC into the middle of the antero-lateral thigh b. SC into the middle of the lateral thigh c. IM into the rectus femoris muscle d. IM into the vastus lateralis muscle

D

Where would you look for the most up to date information regarding emerging diseases and recommendations for proper precautions to take? Select one: a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) b. Emerging Infectious Diseases Network (EIDN) c. Healthcare Precautions Alert System (HPAS) d. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

D

Which immunization requires an update every year due to the high mutation rate of the pathogen? Select one: a. Tuberculosis b. Hepatitis B (HBV) c. Meningitis d. Influenza

D

Which is the most appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to a wheeled stretcher? Select one: A. Extremity carry B. Log roll C. Direct carry D. Draw sheet method

D

Which of the following MOST accurately defines an allergic reaction? Select one: A. A direct negative effect on the body by an external substance B. A release of erythrocytes in response to a foreign substance C. Destruction of the immune system by an external substance D. An exaggerated immune system response to any substance

D

Which of the following clinical presentations is MOST consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? Select one: A. Left lower quadrant pain, referred pain to the left shoulder, and fever B. Pain around the umbilicus, low-grade fever, and generalized weakness C. Upper abdominal cramping, severe headache, and heavy vaginal bleeding D. Lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge

D

Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke? Select one: A. Hypoglycemia B. Intracranial bleeding C. A postictal state D. Hypovolemia

D

Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure? Select one: A. A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first. B. Due to an improperly applied cervical collar, a patient's spinal injury is aggravated and he is permanently disabled. C. An EMT gives the correct drug to a patient, although his protocols clearly state that he is not authorized to do so. D. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug.

D

Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway? Select one: A. Unresponsiveness B. Ability to speak C. Audible breathing D. Inspiratory stridor

D

Which of the following is considered an obvious sign of death and would not require the initiation of CPR? Select one: A. Agonal respiratory effort B. Pulselessness and apnea C. Severe cyanosis to the face D. Dependent blood pooling

D

Which of the following is not a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patient's vital signs? Select one: A. Overall health B. Medications C. Medical conditions D. Increased weight

D

Which of the following is not a facial bone? Select one: A. Maxilla B. Mandible C. Zygoma D. Mastoid

D

Which of the following is the most significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs? Select one: A. Age B. Race C. Gender D. Immunity

D

Which of the following is true about oxygen administration? Select one: a. It supports anaerobic cellular metabolism b. It raises the pH of blood c. It lowers the pH of blood d. It supports aerobic cellular metabolism

D

Which of the following medications is commonly given to patients with chest pain to prevent blood clots from forming or getting bigger? Select one: A. Oxygen B. Metoprolol (Toprol) C. Furosemide (Lasix) D. Aspirin

D

Which of the following occurs during true labor? Select one: A. Uterine contractions decrease in intensity. B. Uterine contractions last about 10 seconds. C. The uterus becomes very soft and movable. D. Uterine contractions become more regular.

D

Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies? Select one: A. Pancreas B. Liver C. Kidneys D. Spleen

D

Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space? Select one: A. Spleen B. Liver C. Gallbladder D. Pancreas

D

Which of the following patients would MOST likely require insertion of an oropharyngeal airway? Select one: A. A 33-year-old semiconscious patient with reduced tidal volume B. A 51-year-old confused patient with severely labored respirations C. A 64-year-old conscious patient with rapid and deep respirations D. A 40-year-old unconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations

D

Which of the following pupillary changes would indicate depressed brain function? Select one: A. Both pupils dilate when a bright light is removed. B. Both pupils react briskly to light instead of sluggishly. C. Both pupils constrict when a bright light is introduced. D. Both pupils are sluggish with introduction of a bright light.

D

Which of the following signs would indicate that your partner is experiencing significant stress? Select one: A. Acute increase in appetite B. Hyperactivity during an EMS call C. Increased interest in daily activities D. Isolation from the rest of the crew

D

Which of the following situations would require an urgent patient move? Select one: A. Conscious patient with abrasions and a possibly fractured humerus B. Stable patient who is blocking access to a critically injured patient C. Imminent risk of a fire or explosion in or near the patient's vehicle D. Semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock

D

Which of the following statements regarding anaerobic metabolism is correct? Select one: A. Without anaerobic metabolism, perfusion to the body will suffer and cellular death will occur. B. Anaerobic metabolism can be supported in most of the body's cells for up to 10 minutes. C. The body functions optimally and produces maximum ATP during anaerobic metabolism. D. Anaerobic metabolism produces lactic acid and occurs when cellular oxygen is limited.

D

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct? Select one: A. Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen. B. Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure. C. Anaphylactic shock is caused by immune system failure due to a toxic exposure. D. Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction.

D

Which of the following statements regarding communication with a child is correct? Select one: A. Unlike adults, children cannot see through lies or deceptions. B. Most children are intrigued by strangers wearing uniforms. C. The EMT should give the child minimal information to avoid scaring him or her. D. Standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety.

D

Which of the following statements regarding dialysis is correct? Select one: A. The purpose of dialysis is to help the kidneys retain salt and water. B. Acute hypertension is a common adverse effect of dialysis. C. Hemodialysis is effective but carries a high risk of peritonitis. D. Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness.

D

Which of the following statements regarding plasma is correct? Select one: A. Most of the body's plasma is contained within the large veins. B. Approximately 45% of the blood is composed of plasma. C. Plasma has no role in the body's blood-clotting mechanism. D. Plasma transports the blood cells and nutrients.

D

Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct? Select one: A. The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated. B. The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver. C. An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs. D. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.

D

Which of the following statements regarding the metered-dose inhaler (MDI) is correct? Select one: A. MDIs are most commonly used by patients with cardiovascular disease. B. MDIs are contraindicated for patients with asthma or emphysema. C. Shaking an MDI prior to use will cause deactivation of the medication. D. An MDI delivers the same amount of medication every time it is used.

D

Which of the following statements would not be appropriate to say to the family of a dying patient? Select one: A. "It is okay to be angry and sad." B. "Tell me how you are feeling." C. "This must be painful for you." D. "Things will get better in time."

D

Which of the following steps is not proper procedure when performing an emergency move? Select one: A. Using a long-axis body drag during the move B. Pulling the patient on a blanket or similar object C. Pulling the patient's clothing in the shoulder area D. Lifting the patient by the belt to move him or her

D

Which of the following structures does not contain smooth muscle? Select one: A. Blood vessels B. Gastrointestinal tract C. Urinary system D. Skeletal system

D

Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated? Select one: A. Informed B. Actual C. Expressed D. Implied

D

Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen? Select one: A. Liver B. Cecum C. Stomach D. Spleen

D

Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? Select one: A. Radio B. Online C. Direct D. Off-line

D

Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells: Select one: A. begin to metabolize fat, resulting in the production and accumulation of ketoacids. B. cease metabolism altogether, resulting in carbon dioxide accumulation in the blood. C. rely solely on glucose, which is completely converted into adenosine triphosphate. D. incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood.

D

You and your partner respond to the scene of a 49-year-old male with acute abdominal pain. As you enter his residence, you find him lying on the floor in severe pain. He is conscious and alert. The patient appears to weigh in excess of 350 pounds. Your first action should be to: Select one: A. request the fire department if one attempt to move him fails. B. assess him and then move him to the stretcher with a direct carry. C. encourage the patient to walk himself to the awaiting ambulance. D. request additional personnel before making any attempts to lift him.

D

You are assessing a 13-month-old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will most likely find that she: Select one: A. has bulging fontanelles secondary to severe dehydration. B. is unable to track your movements with her eyes. C. will readily allow you to separate her from her mother. D. responds to her name but is fearful of your presence.

D

You are assessing a patient with respiratory distress and are unsure if the cause is congestive heart failure or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following clinical signs would be the MOST helpful in determining whether the patient has chronic heart failure or COPD? Select one: A. Rapid breathing B. Altered mental status C. Cyanosis of the skin D. Jugular vein distention

D

You are caring for a 40-year-old female who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. Her husband, who was driving the vehicle, was killed. When the patient asks you if her husband is all right, you should: Select one: A. tell her that he is being resuscitated by other EMTs. B. avoid answering her questions and focus on her injuries. C. immediately tell her of his death so that she might grieve. D. let clergy or hospital staff relay the bad news if possible.

D

You are caring for a 68-year-old man with sudden onset of left-sided paralysis and slurred speech. His airway is patent, his respirations are 14 breaths/min with adequate depth, and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Treatment for this patient should include: Select one: A. ventilatory assistance and transport. B. high-flow oxygen and transport. C. oral glucose gel and transport. D. recovery position and transport.

D

You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that: Select one: A. an infant's head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction. B. the infant's proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction. C. assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs. D. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times.

D

Your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to: Select one: A. perform a head-to-toe secondary assessment. B. assess her oxygen saturation and blood pressure. C. retrieve the stretcher and prepare for transport. D. administer oxygen with the appropriate device.

D

You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to: Select one: A. obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history. B. advise her that she needs to go to the hospital. C. provide emotional support regarding her sister. D. determine if she was injured when she fainted.

D

You are dispatched to an apartment complex for a young male with abdominal pain. Your priority upon arriving at the scene should be to: Select one: A. quickly gain access to the patient. B. notify the dispatcher of your arrival. C. place a paramedic ambulance on standby. D. assess the scene for potential hazards.

D

You are performing bag-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen are you delivering? Select one: A. 45% B. 55% C. 65% D. Nearly 100%

D

You are preparing to administer epinephrine to an adult using a needle and syringe. The vial you are using contains 1 mL of 1 mg/mL solution. What should you do before withdrawing solution from the vial? Select one: a. Inject 0.3 mL of water into the vial b. Withdraw the solution without delay c. Withdraw 0.3 mL of air from the vial d. Inject 0.3 mL of air into the vial

D

You are treating a 19-year-old male patient who is found unresponsive with slow shallow breathing. His friend says that he has been using a combination of heroin and cocaine, known as a "speedball", in large amounts. What effect would you expect naloxone to have on this patient? Select one: a. Naloxone will decrease the effect of one drug and bring it into balance with the other. b. Naloxone will not affect either drug. c. Naloxone will reverse the effects of the overdose. d. Naloxone will only reverse one of the drugs and leave the other unbalanced.

D

You are treating a 6-year-old with severe respiratory distress and a history of reactive airway disease. He has accessory muscle use and retractions and pulse oximetry shows 80 %. His mother presents you with a Xopenex (levalbuterol) MDI and a spacer. How should you administer the medication? Select one: a. Do not administer the medication. The distress is too severe for adequate absorption. b. Do not administer the medication. It is not in the EMT scope of practice. c. Administer the medication without using the spacer. d. Administer the medication using the spacer.

D

You are treating a 60-year-old female patient with a history of heart failure. She presents with severe dyspnea, tripoding, crackles heard on auscultation of all lung fields. Her vital signs are RR 28 bpm, Sp)2 87 % on non-rebreather mask, HR 110 bpm, BP 158/96. She has prescriptions for hydrochlorothiazide and nitroglycerin. Which may you administer? Select one: a. Neither b. Both c. Hydrochlorothiazide d. Nitroglycerin

D

You are using a D tank (cylinder constant of 0.16) with a safe residual pressure of 500 psi. You begin treating your patient with a tank pressure of 2000 psi and the flow rate set to 15 Lpm. How long can you expect this oxygen supply to last? Select one: a. 12 min b. 24 min c. 36 min d. 16 min

D

You arrive on scene to find a 23-year-old male unresponsive with agonal breathing. There is a needle and syringe next to him and his girlfriend tells you he has been using heroin. Your most appropriate next action would be to: Select one: a. Administer naloxone to correct the opioid overdose b. Confirm the exact substance and amount used prior to administering naloxone c. Provide ventilation with a BVM and supplemental O2 d. Assess for a pulse and request ALS

D

You arrive on scene to find a 75-year-old male with difficulty breathing. He has a barrel shaped chest and a 50 pack-year history of smoking. His lung sounds are very diminished without audible adventitious sounds. He is using a small volume nebulizer at home that was prescribed by his doctor for emergencies like this. What class of medication is most likely being delivered? Select one: a. Bronchoconstrictor b. Pulmonary vasoconstrictor c. Pulmonary vasodilator d. Bronchodilator

D

You have administered an appropriate initial dose of aspirin to your patient. After five minutes, the patient reports that they continue to have symptoms with no relief. What does this indicate? Select one: a. The medication may have lost its potency due to storage condtions. b. The field impression was probably incorrect and aspirin was not indicated. c. An additional dose may be required to improves the patient's condition. d. Nothing. The medication is not expected to relieve symptoms.

D

You have administered nitroglycerin to your patient twice already. What should you do next regarding nitroglycerin administration? Select one: a. Nothing. The maximum dose has already been reached. b. Administer another dose if it is not contra-indicated. There is no maximum dose. c. Administer another dose after rechecking that SBP > 100 Hg. The maximum is 4 doses. d. Administer another dose after rechecking that SBP > 100 mm Hg. The maximum is 3 doses.

D

You respond to a residence for a child who is having a seizure. Upon arrival at the scene, you enter the residence and find the mother holding her child, a 2-year-old male. The child is conscious and crying. According to the mother, the child had been running a high fever and then experienced a seizure that lasted approximately 3 minutes. You should: Select one: A. call medical control and request permission to give the child aspirin. B. advise the mother to take her child to the doctor the following day. C. cover the child with wet towels and give oxygen via nasal cannula. D. transport the child to the hospital and reassure the mother en route.

D

Your EMS system uses a computerized PCR in which you fill in the information electronically and then send it to the emergency department via a secure Internet server. The PCR has a comprehensive series of drop-down boxes, which are used to identify your assessment findings and specify the treatment that you provided; it also has a section for your narrative. When completing your PCR after a call, you should: Select one: A. avoid documenting personally identifiable information, such as the patient's name, because the PCR could be intercepted during transmission. B. enter all of the pertinent information of the electronic PCR, but then print it out and provide a copy to the emergency department staff. C. defer the narrative only if the information in the drop-down boxes accurately reflects the assessment and treatment that you performed. D. complete a thorough and accurate narrative because drop-down boxes cannot provide all of the information that needs to be documented.

D

GCS: You are treating a patient that has no eye opening with painful stimuli, is nonverbal, and doesn't respond with any motor response to painful stimuli.

Eyes: 1 Verbal: 1 Motor: 1 GCS: 3

GCS: You are treating a patient that has no eye opening with painful stimuli, no verbal response, and has decorticate posturing with your painful stimuli.

Eyes: 1 Verbal: 1 Motor: 3 GCS: 5

GCS: You are treating a patient that doesn't respond by eye opening to painful stimuli, is nonverbal, and localizes painful stimuli.

Eyes: 1 Verbal: 1 Motor: 5 GCS: 7

GCS: You are treating a patient that doesn't open their eyes with voice or painful stimuli, is nonverbal, and also has no motor response to painful stimuli.

Eyes: 1 Verbal: 1 Motor:1 GCS: 3

GCS: You are treating a patient that doesn't open their eyes with painful stimuli, mumbling incomprehensible sounds, and their extremities are extended away from their body.

Eyes: 1 Verbal: 2 Motor: 2 GCS: 5

GCS: You are treating a patient that has eye opening with painful stimuli, is mumbling incomprehensible sounds, and localizes painful stimuli.

Eyes: 2 Verbal: 2 Motor: 5 GCS: 9

GCS: You are treating a patient that opens their eyes when you pinch their shoulder, is CA+O x3 (not sure of what happened), and is also following all motor commands.

Eyes: 2 Verbal: 4 Motor: 6 GCS: 12

GCS: You are treating a patient that opens their eyes with verbal stimuli, is CA+O x3 (confused about date and time), and is moving all extremities as asked.

Eyes: 3 Verbal: 4 Motor: 6 GCS: 13

GCS: You are treating a patient whose eyes track you as you approach them, is not sure of today's date or time, and obeys your verbal commands with motor response.

Eyes: 4 Verbal: 4 Motor: 6 GCS: 14

GCS: You are treating a patient that tracks you with their eyes as you walk in the room, is CA+O x4 with verbal response, and is moving all extremities as you ask.

Eyes: 4 Verbal: 5 Motor: 6 GCS: 15

Because others could be listening on the open airwaves, you should absolutely refrain from using any patient identifying information over the radio. Select one: True False

FALSE

HIPAA does not regulate what EMS providers are allowed to disclose on social networking sites such as Facebook and Twitter because they are private websites. Select one: True False

FALSE

If a patient is under duress, unconscious, incapacitated, or in the midst of a medical emergency, you must still make a reasonable effort to get them to sign an acknowledgment that they have received your notice of privacy practices. Select one: True False

FALSE

Once an ambulance service knows that a patient is deceased, the organization may freely use and disclose the individual's protected health information because HIPAA no longer applies. Select one: True False

FALSE

When providing an interfacility transport to a patient, EMS providers should never look at patient records or other patient information, even if it may aid in treating the patient. Select one: True False

FALSE

For information about the patient to qualify as protect health information (PHI), it must in some way relate to the patient's past, present, or future healthcare. Select one: True False

TRUE

The use of PHI for "treatment" purposes means that PHI can generally be used for any purpose related to providing emergency medical services or other healthcare to a patient. Select one: True False

TRUE