EMT Unit 9
A disposable oxygen humidifier should be considered for ambulance services that often transport patients on runs longer than: A. 1 hour. B. 2 hours. C. 3 hours. D. 4 hours.
A. 1 hour.
_____________ is defined as the ability to reach the patient. A. Access B. Rescue C. Extrication D. Disentanglement
A. Access
A type _____ ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed. A. I B. II C. III D. IV
A. I
Which of the following statements regarding the use of the warning lights and siren on the ambulance is correct? A. If it is necessary to use the siren, you should tell the patient beforehand. B. If the patient is stable, you may use the warning lights without the siren. C. Warning lights and siren should be avoided, even if the patient is unstable. D. It is generally acceptable to increase your speed if lights and siren are in use.
A. If it is necessary to use the siren, you should tell the patient beforehand.
Which of the following items would MOST likely require special protocols in order to be carried on the ambulance? A. PASG B. pediatric nonrebreathing masks C. automated external defibrillator (AED) D. devices for restraining a patient
A. PASG
Which of the following situations would require the use of a specialized rescue team? A. a patient trapped in a cave or a confined space B. a patient in a badly damaged car, not entrapped C. an obese patient who must be moved to the ambulance D. a patient found floating facedown in a swimming pool
A. a patient trapped in a cave or a confined space
Minimum staffing in the patient compartment of a basic life support (BLS) ambulance includes: A. at least one EMT. B. at least two EMTs. C. an EMT and a paramedic. D. an EMT and an AEMT.
A. at least one EMT.
The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called: A. cleaning. B. disinfection. C. sterilization. D. high-level disinfection.
A. cleaning.
Phases of an ambulance call include all of the following activities, EXCEPT: A. emergency care provided at the scene. B. transport of the patient to the hospital. C. checking equipment on the ambulance. D. transferring the patient to the ambulance.
A. emergency care provided at the scene.
The rescue team is in the process of extricating a 40-year-old male from his truck. The patient's wife, who was uninjured in the crash, is calmly observing the extrication and asks you if her husband will be all right. You should: A. ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene. B. allow her to observe the extrication and keep her calm. C. ask her follow-up questions about the crash. D. allow her to talk to her husband during the extrication.
A. ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene.
The term used when individual units or different organizations make independent and often inefficient decisions regarding an incident is called: A. freelancing. B. undermining. C. logistical chaos. D. single command.
A. freelancing.
A hiker was injured when he fell approximately 20′ from a cliff. When you arrive at the scene, a member of the technical rescue group escorts you to the patient, who is positioned on a steep incline. The MOST appropriate method of immobilizing and moving the patient to the ambulance is to: A. immobilize his spine with a long backboard and place him in a basket stretcher. B. immobilize him to a long backboard and use the four-person carry to move him. C. apply a vest-style immobilization device and move him using a stair chair device. D. immobilize him with a short backboard and place him on the ambulance stretcher.
A. immobilize his spine with a long backboard and place him in a basket stretcher.
In contrast to simple access, complex access: A. involves forcible entry into a vehicle. B. is a skill commonly taught to EMTs. C. does not involve the breaking of glass. D. often involves simply unlocking a door.
A. involves forcible entry into a vehicle.
The scene size-up at a motor vehicle crash or other incident: A. is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated. B. should be performed by the most experienced EMT. C. is a quick visual assessment of the scene prior to entry. D. determines who is allowed to safely enter the hot zone.
A. is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated.
Common duties and responsibilities of EMS personnel at the scene of a motor vehicle crash include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. keeping bystanders at a safe distance. B. assigning all patients a triage category. C. preparing all patients for transportation. D. continual assessment of critical patients.
A. keeping bystanders at a safe distance.
A 50-year-old female is entrapped in her passenger car after it struck a tree. As the rescue team is preparing to extricate her, you quickly assess her and determine that she is breathing shallowly and that her radial pulse is absent. You should: A. maintain spinal stabilization as she is extricated. B. secure her with a short backboard or vest device. C. stabilize her condition before extrication begins. D. begin CPR as the rescue team begins extrication.
A. maintain spinal stabilization as she is extricated.
When approaching a helicopter, whether the rotor blades are moving or not, you should: A. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas. B. remember that the main rotor blade is flexible and can dip as low as 5′ to 6′ from the ground. C. carefully approach the aircraft from the rear unless a crew member instructs you to do otherwise. D. approach the aircraft from the side because this will make it easier for you to access the aircraft doors.
A. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas.
When transporting a patient who is secured to a backboard, it is important to: A. place deceleration straps over the patient's shoulders. B. routinely elevate the head of the backboard 12″. C. use at least eight straps to secure the patient to the board. D. place a folded towel or blanket under his or her head.
A. place deceleration straps over the patient's shoulders.
The function of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is to: A. prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents. B. facilitate a standard method of incident command for natural disasters. C. prepare for the potential of a nuclear attack against the United States. D. educate city and county governments regarding foreign terrorist attacks.
A. prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents.
Disentanglement involves: A. removing a patient from a dangerous position. B. the use of simple access tools such as a pry bar. C. extrication techniques that EMTs are trained in. D. gaining access to a patient in a crashed vehicle.
A. removing a patient from a dangerous position.
When working at the scene of a motor vehicle crash at night, you should NOT use: A. road flares. B. reflective vests. C. portable floodlights. D. intermittent flashing devices.
A. road flares.
The use of lights and siren on an ambulance: A. signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way. B. legally gives the emergency vehicle operator the right of way. C. allows other drivers to hear and see you from a great distance. D. is required any time a patient is being transported to the hospital.
A. signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way.
When being tailgated by another vehicle while responding to an emergency call, you should: A. slow down and allow the driver to pass you. B. increase your speed to create more distance. C. slam on the brakes to frighten the tailgater. D. stop the ambulance and confront the driver.
A. slow down and allow the driver to pass you.
Command functions under the ICS include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. triage officer. B. safety officer. C. liaison officer. D. public information officer
A. triage officer.
After assessing your patient, you determine that his condition is stable. You provide the appropriate treatment and then load him into the ambulance. While en route to the hospital, you should: A. turn your emergency lights off and obey all traffic laws. B. keep your emergency lights on but avoid using the siren. C. use your lights and siren but drive slowly and defensively. D. drive slowly and remain in the far left-hand lane, if possible.
A. turn your emergency lights off and obey all traffic laws.
Upon arriving at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash at night, you find that the safest place to park your ambulance is in a direction that is facing oncoming traffic. You should: A. turn your headlights off. B. quickly access the patient. C. place a flare near the crash. D. turn all warning lights off.
A. turn your headlights off.
The main objective of traffic control at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is to: A. warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash. B. facilitate a route for the media to access the scene. C. prevent curious onlookers from observing the scene. D. get oncoming traffic past the scene as soon as possible.
A. warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash.
As soon as you leave the hospital and are en route back to your station, you should inform the dispatcher: A. whether you are back in service. B. that you are prepared for another call. C. of the name of the accepting physician. D. about the patient's clinical condition.
A. whether you are back in service.
Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately _______ per cubic foot. A. 50 lb B. 100 lb C. 150 lb D. 200 lb
B. 100 lb
When parking your ambulance at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you should position the ambulance: A. 50′ past the scene on the opposite side of the road. B. 100′ past the scene on the same side of the road. C. 50′ before the scene on the same side of the road. D. alongside the scene to rapidly access the patient(s).
B. 100′ past the scene on the same side of the road.
A portable oxygen cylinder should have a capacity of a minimum of ____ of oxygen. A. 250 L B. 500 L C. 750 L D. 1,000 L
B. 500 L
Minimum airway and ventilation equipment that should be carried on every ambulance include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. various sizes of oral and nasal airways. B. Combitubes or laryngeal mask airways. C. mounted and portable suctioning units. D. adult and pediatric bag-mask devices.
B. Combitubes or laryngeal mask airways.
Which of the following statements regarding trench rescue is correct? A. Rescue vehicles should park at least 250′ from the scene. B. Ground vibration is a primary cause of secondary collapse. C. A trench deeper than 10′ should be shored prior to entry. D. Most deaths involving cave-ins are caused by head injury.
B. Ground vibration is a primary cause of secondary collapse.
Characteristics of a safe ambulance operator include: A. the ability to operate an ambulance at a high rate of speed. B. a positive attitude about the ability to tolerate other drivers. C. realizing that lights and siren will be effective traffic tools. D. an offensive attitude about driving during an emergency call.
B. a positive attitude about the ability to tolerate other drivers.
Equipment and supplies that are carried on an ambulance should be stored: A. as directed by the EMS system's medical director. B. according to the urgency and frequency of their use. C. based on recommendations of the health department. D. in locked or secured cabinets in order to prevent theft.
B. according to the urgency and frequency of their use.
You have just delivered a major trauma patient to the hospital. Shortly after departing the hospital, dispatch advises you of another call. The back of the ambulance is contaminated with bloody dressings and is in disarray, and you are in need of airway equipment and numerous other supplies. You should: A. proceed to the call, functioning only as an emergency medical responder. B. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit. C. have your partner quickly clean the ambulance as you proceed to the call. D. quickly proceed to the call and clean and restock the ambulance afterwards.
B. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit.
When a helicopter must land on a grade (uneven ground), you should: A. approach the aircraft from the uphill side. B. approach the aircraft from the downhill side. C. attempt to approach the aircraft from behind. D. move the patient to the aircraft as soon as it lands.
B. approach the aircraft from the downhill side.
You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should: A. break the window and unlock the door. B. ask the patient if he can unlock the door. C. request the rescue team to extricate him. D. use a pry bar to attempt to open the door.
B. ask the patient if he can unlock the door.
If a technical rescue team is required at the scene, but is not present when you arrive, you should: A. don personal protective equipment and begin the rescue process. B. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route. C. remain with your ambulance until the rescue team arrives at the scene. D. have fire personnel initiate the rescue process if they are at the scene.
B. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route.
During a motor vehicle collision involving multiple patients, the IC would MOST likely: A. maintain responsibility for all of the command functions. B. designate a safety officer, but retain other command functions. C. delegate all of the command functions to the appropriate personnel. D. relinquish command when a senior EMS provider arrives at the scene.
B. designate a safety officer, but retain other command functions.
The purpose of the incident command system (ICS) is to: A. reduce overall mortality and morbidity from large-scale mass-casualty incidents and to restore key infrastructure. B. ensure responder and public safety, achieve incident management goals, and ensure the effective use of resources. C. quickly and efficiently respond to natural disasters and terrorist incidents, regardless of the complexity of the incident. D. protect the public from the effects of large- and small-scale disasters and to minimize the financial impact from such incidents.
B. ensure responder and public safety, achieve incident management goals, and ensure the effective use of resources.
Which of the following is the BEST example of gaining simple access to a patient? A. using a pry bar to open a damaged door B. entering a vehicle through an open window C. breaking glass to gain access to the patient D. removing the roof to access a critical patient
B. entering a vehicle through an open window
If hydroplaning of the ambulance occurs, the driver should: A. slowly move the steering wheel back and forth. B. gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes. C. slowly pump the brakes until he or she regains vehicle control. D. quickly jerk the steering wheel.
B. gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes.
Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. face shields. B. hazardous materials gear. C. safety goggles. D. turnout gear.
B. hazardous materials gear.
A 33-year-old restrained driver of a motor vehicle crash is awake and alert, complaining only of neck pain. The vehicle is stable and no hazards are present. When removing this patient from his vehicle, you should: A. use the rapid extrication technique. B. immobilize him with a vest-style device. C. maintain slight traction to his neck area. D. adequately secure him to a long backboard.
B. immobilize him with a vest-style device.
Upon returning to your station following a run, you should disinfect the ambulance as needed. Disinfection is MOST accurately defined as: A. using heat as a means of removing all microbial contaminants. B. killing pathogenic agents with a chemical made for that purpose. C. removing dirt, dust, blood, or other grossly visible contaminants. D. destroying pathogenic agents by using potent disinfection means.
B. killing pathogenic agents with a chemical made for that purpose.
The six-pointed Star of Life® emblem identifies vehicles that: A. are staffed by a minimum of one certified advanced EMT (AEMT). B. meet federal specifications as licensed or certified ambulances. C. are equipped with supplies to manage a mass-casualty situation. D. have complied with state regulations for ambulance certification.
B. meet federal specifications as licensed or certified ambulances.
Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then: A. quickly gain access to the patient. B. observe the scene for safety hazards. C. determine if additional units are needed. D. carefully assess the mechanism of injury.
B. observe the scene for safety hazards.
At a very large incident, the __________ section is responsible for managing the tactical operations usually handled by the IC on routine EMS calls. A. logistics B. operations C. planning D. finance
B. operations
In order to evaluate hazards present at the scene and determine the number of patients, you should: A. request the fire department at all scenes. B. perform a 360° walk-around of the scene. C. use the information provided by dispatch. D. interview bystanders present at the scene.
B. perform a 360° walk-around of the scene.
Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should: A. allow extrication to commence. B. perform a primary assessment. C. administer high-flow oxygen. D. begin treating his or her injuries.
B. perform a primary assessment.
When driving an ambulance on a multilane highway in emergency mode, you should: A. pass other drivers on the right side. B. remain in the extreme left-hand lane. C. remain in the extreme right-hand lane. D. drive in the center lane of the highway.
B. remain in the extreme left-hand lane.
You and your partner are standing by at the scene of a residential fire when you hear the incident commander state "We have located a victim" over the radio. You should: A. notify the hospital that you will be transporting a burn patient to their facility. B. remain with the ambulance and wait for fire personnel to bring the victim to you. C. immediately locate the incident commander and ask where the victim is located. D. locate the victim and provide initial care while your partner stays with the ambulance.
B. remain with the ambulance and wait for fire personnel to bring the victim to you.
Upon arriving at the scene of a law enforcement tactical situation, you should ensure your own safety and then: A. begin immediate triage of any injured personnel. B. report to the incident commander for instructions. C. locate all injured personnel and begin treatment. D. apprise medical control of the tactical situation.
B. report to the incident commander for instructions.
It is 10:30 pm and you have requested air medical transport for a critically injured patient. When you arrive at the designated landing zone, you should: A. mark the proposed landing area with road flares. B. survey the area for power lines or other hazards. C. provide the flight crew with a patient status update. D. mark the landing site using personnel with flashlights.
B. survey the area for power lines or other hazards.
Situational awareness is MOST accurately defined as: A. an ongoing process of information gathering and scene evaluation to determine appropriate strategies and tactics. B. the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact. C. predicting the presence of certain hazards at the scene after receiving initial information from the dispatcher. D. performing an initial scan of the scene in order to identify hazards that will pose an immediate threat to you and your crew.
B. the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact.
You are dispatched to a residence for a patient with chest pain; however, you are unfamiliar with the address and cannot find the location in your map book. A nearby police officer radios you and tells you that he knows how to get to the scene. You should: A. ask the dispatcher to call the residence and obtain driving directions. B. turn off your lights and carefully follow the police officer to the scene. C. follow the police officer in emergency mode until you get near the scene. D. keep your lights on and ask the police officer to guide you to the scene.
B. turn off your lights and carefully follow the police officer to the scene.
If you properly assess and stabilize a patient at the scene, driving to the hospital with excessive speed: A. is allowable according to state law. B. will decrease the driver's reaction time. C. is often necessary if the patient is critical. D. increases the patient's chance for survival.
B. will decrease the driver's reaction time.
Typically medivac helicopters fly between: A. 100 and 120 mph. B. 120 and 140 mph. C. 130 and 150 mph. D. 150 and 200 mph.
C. 130 and 150 mph.
Portable and mounted suction units must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of at least ____ mm Hg when the tubing is clamped. A. 100 B. 200 C. 300 D. 400
C. 300
When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient: A. only if the patient has experienced a major injury. B. after rescue personnel have cut the battery cables. C. after receiving approval from the extrication officer. D. only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized.
C. after receiving approval from the extrication officer.
Common activities that occur while you and your partner are en route to the scene of an emergency call include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. assigning tasks to each member of the response team. B. obtaining additional information from the dispatcher. C. apprising the medical director of the nature of the call. D. fastening your seatbelts before the ambulance departs.
C. apprising the medical director of the nature of the call.
While using lights and siren, most state laws permit an ambulance to: A. disregard all traffic control signals. B. drive as fast as the department allows. C. carefully exceed the posted speed limit. D. proceed through red lights without stopping.
C. carefully exceed the posted speed limit.
During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is MOST important to: A. reassess the patient only if he or she deteriorates. B. reassess unstable patients at least every 15 minutes. C. converse with the patient and provide reassurance. D. complete the run form before arrival at the hospital.
C. converse with the patient and provide reassurance.
You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should: A. limit your primary assessment to airway and breathing only. B. treat only critical injuries before moving him to a safe place. C. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety. D. perform a rapid assessment and move him to a place of safety.
C. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety.
A supervisor who has more than seven people reporting to him or her: A. is more beneficial to the overall effort than a supervisor with fewer personnel because his or her team can accomplish more tasks. B. should regularly report to the incident commander (IC) to inform him or her of the functions that his or her team is performing. C. has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person. D. should assign a specific task to each person reporting to him or her and regularly follow up to ensure that the tasks were carried out.
C. has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person.
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should: A. begin triage to determine injury severity. B. call medical control for further direction. C. immediately request additional resources. D. request law enforcement for traffic control.
C. immediately request additional resources.
The LEAST practical place to store a portable oxygen cylinder is: A. inside the jump kit. B. near the side or rear door. C. in the driver's compartment. D. on the ambulance stretcher.
C. in the driver's compartment.
The MOST common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at: A. stop signs. B. stop lights. C. intersections. D. railroad crossings.
C. intersections.
Aggressive ambulance driving may have a negative effect on other motorists because: A. they may become enraged and attempt to run you off the road. B. they move to the right or drive as close to the curb as possible. C. it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle. D. they often freeze when they see the lights in the rearview mirror.
C. it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle.
When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should: A. park downhill from the scene. B. ask the driver to exit the vehicle. C. position the ambulance upwind. D. quickly gain access to the patient.
C. position the ambulance upwind.
When removing a critically injured patient from his or her vehicle, you should: A. remove him or her using a short backboard. B. move him or her in one fast, continuous step. C. protect the cervical spine during the entire process. D. release c-spine control to facilitate rapid removal.
C. protect the cervical spine during the entire process.
Which of the following is a typical function of the rescue team? A. initial triage and patient prioritization B. shutting off power to downed electrical lines C. providing safe entry and access to patients D. providing emergency care during extrication
C. providing safe entry and access to patients
General guidelines for safe ambulance driving include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. avoiding one-way streets whenever possible. B. assuming that other drivers will not see you. C. regularly using the siren as much as possible. D. avoiding routes with heavy traffic congestion.
C. regularly using the siren as much as possible.
If an incident increases in scope and complexity, the IC should consider: A. ceasing all operations until a revised plan is established. B. maintaining responsibility for all of the command functions. C. relinquishing command to someone with more experience. D. requesting a second IC to assist him or her.
C. relinquishing command to someone with more experience.
Extrication is MOST accurately defined as: A. using heavy equipment to access a patient. B. dismantling an automobile to remove a victim. C. removal from a dangerous situation or position. D. immobilizing a patient before moving him or her.
C. removal from a dangerous situation or position.
Which of the following is an example of regional equipment or supplies? A. oral glucose B. vacuum splint C. snake bite kit D. bronchodilator
C. snake bite kit
As you and your team are removing an unconscious patient from her wrecked car, you note that she has closed deformities to both of her legs and a deformity to her left humerus. You should: A. realign the deformed extremities before continuing. B. splint the deformities before moving her any further. C. support the injured extremities and continue removal. D. assess distal neurovascular functions in her extremities.
C. support the injured extremities and continue removal.
When determining the exact location and position of the patient(s) in a wrecked vehicle, you and your team should routinely consider all of the following, EXCEPT: A. the position of the crashed vehicle. B. hazards that pose a risk to rescuers. C. the make and model of the vehicle. D. the possibility of vehicle instability.
C. the make and model of the vehicle.
The reasons for rescue failure can be referred to by the mnemonic FAILURE. According to this mnemonic, the "U" stands for: A. underutilizing personnel at the scene. B. unprepared to effectively manage the scene. C. underestimating the logistics of the incident. D. undertrained to correctly utilize equipment.
C. underestimating the logistics of the incident.
Your unit and a fire department vehicle are responding to the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest. As you approach an intersection that is highly congested, you should: A. turn off your lights and siren and proceed with safety. B. advise the fire department vehicle to follow you closely. C. use a different siren tone than the fire department vehicle. D. ask the fire department vehicle to remain 1,000′ behind you.
C. use a different siren tone than the fire department vehicle.
Hydroplaning of the ambulance on wet roads would MOST likely occur at speeds of greater than _____ mph. A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 30
D. 30
Which of the following statements regarding the rapid extrication technique is correct? A. The only indication for performing a rapid extrication is if the patient is not entrapped and is in cardiac arrest. B. Rapid extrication involves the use of heavy equipment to disentangle a patient from his or her crashed vehicle. C. It involves rapidly removing a patient from his or her vehicle after immobilizing him or her with a short backboard. D. The rapid extrication technique is indicated if the scene is unsafe and the patient is not entrapped in his or her vehicle.
D. The rapid extrication technique is indicated if the scene is unsafe and the patient is not entrapped in his or her vehicle.
Which of the following statements regarding the unified command system is correct? A. The unified command system is one in which one person is in charge, even if multiple agencies respond to a disaster or mass-casualty incident. B. Ideally, the unified command system is used for short-duration, limited incidents that require the services of a single agency from one jurisdiction. C. In a unified command system, there are separate ICs for fire, police, EMS, and any other agencies that respond to the incident. D. Under the unified command system, plans are drawn up in advance by all cooperating agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making.
D. Under the unified command system, plans are drawn up in advance by all cooperating agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making.
In general, medivac helicopters should be utilized when: A. ground transport would leave your service area without an ambulance for greater than 30 minutes. B. ground transport to the hospital exceeds 30 to 45 minutes, even if the patient's present condition is stable. C. a patient has been in cardiac arrest for more than 15 minutes and has not responded to CPR and defibrillation. D. a patient has a time-dependent injury or illness and traffic conditions would cause a significant delay in definitive care.
D. a patient has a time-dependent injury or illness and traffic conditions would cause a significant delay in definitive care.
Interoperability, an important feature of the NIMS, refers to the ability of: A. the federal government to intervene during any large- or small-scale incident involving terrorism. B. EMS systems and fire departments in the same jurisdiction to effectively work as a team. C. county and state law enforcement agencies to acquire information and pass it along to EMS personnel. D. agencies of different types or from different jurisdictions to communicate with each other.
D. agencies of different types or from different jurisdictions to communicate with each other.
Your unit has been dispatched to stand by at the scene of a structure fire. There are no injuries of which you are aware. Upon arriving at the scene, you should: A. contact medical control and apprise him or her of the situation. B. park your ambulance behind the incident commander's vehicle. C. set up a staging area where fire fighters can be treated if necessary. D. ask the incident commander where the ambulance should be staged.
D. ask the incident commander where the ambulance should be staged.
Regardless of where portable and mounted oxygen cylinders are stored in the ambulance, they must: A. undergo hydrostatic testing on a weekly basis. B. hold a minimum capacity of 1,500 L of oxygen. C. be easily identifiable by their bright green color. D. be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min.
D. be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min.
When transporting a patient to the hospital, you should: A. generally exceed the posted speed limit by 10 to 20 mph. B. place the patient on a long backboard, even if no trauma is involved. C. secure the patient to the ambulance stretcher with at least two straps. D. be safe and get the patient to the hospital in the shortest practical time.
D. be safe and get the patient to the hospital in the shortest practical time.
Other than personal safety equipment, which of the following should be the MOST readily accessible item in the back of an ambulance? A. emergency childbirth kit B. stethoscope and penlight C. pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) and traction splint D. bleeding control supplies
D. bleeding control supplies
The purpose of a jump kit is to: A. facilitate defibrillation within 5 to 10 minutes after making patient contact. B. manage a critically injured patient until he or she is loaded into the ambulance. C. carry advanced life support equipment approved by the EMS medical director. D. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.
D. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.
A 19-year-old female has just been extricated from her severely damaged car. She is on a long backboard and has been moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid assessment. The patient is unconscious, has slow and shallow respirations, and has bilaterally closed femur deformities. You should: A. stabilize her legs with the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG). B. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. obtain baseline vital signs and transport at once. D. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance.
D. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance.
Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, EXCEPT: A. completing a detailed written report. B. informing the dispatcher of your arrival. C. restocking any disposable items you used. D. giving a verbal report to the triage clerk.
D. giving a verbal report to the triage clerk.
Maintaining a cushion of safety when operating an ambulance means: A. remaining in the far right-hand lane when transporting a critical patient and refraining from passing other motorists on the left side. B. driving at the posted speed limit, regardless of the patient's condition, and routinely using your lights and siren when driving on a freeway. C. driving about 2 to 3 seconds behind any vehicles in front of you and exceeding the posted speed limit by no more than 20 to 25 mph. D. keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirror's blind spots.
D. keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirror's blind spots.
For every emergency request, the dispatcher should routinely gather and record all of the following information, EXCEPT the: A. nature of the call. B. caller's phone number. C. location of the patient(s). D. patient's medical history.
D. patient's medical history.
You are en route to an emergency call when you approach a slow-moving vehicle on a two-way road. You can see oncoming traffic in the other lane. The driver has his windows up and does not realize that you are behind him. You should: A. use your public address (PA) system to alert the driver. B. quickly pass the vehicle on the left side. C. pass the driver on the right-hand shoulder. D. remain at a safe distance until it is safe to pass.
D. remain at a safe distance until it is safe to pass.
The EMT's role at the scene of a search and rescue attempt is to: A. accompany search team members and provide care. B. reassure the family members of the missing person. C. report to a location where the patient will be carried. D. stand by at the command post until the person is located.
D. stand by at the command post until the person is located.
While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should: A. pass the bus only after all the children have exited. B. back up and take an alternate route to the scene. C. slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side. D. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing.
D. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing.
Your primary concern when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is: A. gaining access to the patient(s). B. requesting additional resources. C. immediately beginning triage. D. surveying the area for hazards.
D. surveying the area for hazards.
A unique consideration when dealing with a hybrid vehicle is that: A. you must locate the ignition switch and cut it to prevent a fire. B. cutting the battery cables often results in an explosion or fire. C. rescue teams should disconnect the positive battery cable first. D. the battery has higher amperes than a traditional vehicle battery.
D. the battery has higher amperes than a traditional vehicle battery.
