EPPP Section Quizzes

mammillary bodies

The primary function associated with the mammillary bodies is recollective memory.

selection ratio

The ratio of the number of applicants hired to the total number of applicants

What is the difference between Type 1 and Type 2 bipolar disorder?

Bipolar I disorder involves periods of severe mood episodes from mania to depression. Bipolar II disorder is a milder form of mood elevation, involving milder episodes of hypomania that alternate with periods of severe depression.

Studies examining language acquisition in children have shown that the fastest rate of increase in vocabulary typically occurs between the ages of: Select one: a. 12 and 18 months. b. 20 and 26 months. c. 30 and 36 months. d. 36 and 42 months.

30 and 36 months. The fastest rate of vocabulary increase occurs between the ages of 30 and 36 months. During this period, the child's vocabulary increases from 300-400 words to about 1000 words. Answer C is correct: As noted above, the child's vocabulary more than doubles during this period.

The treatment-of-choice for Agoraphobia is ordinarily: Select one: a. systematic desensitization. b. covert sensitization. c. exposure with response prevention. d. EMDR.

exposure with response prevention. For Agoraphobia and many other Anxiety Disorders, exposure with response prevention (ERP) alone or in conjunction with other interventions is the treatment-of-choice.

cost-benefit analysis

involves determining the relative costs and benefits of a particular treatment in monetary terms.

According to Piaget, the source of motivation for cognitive development is: Select one: a. elaboration. b. social acceptance. c. equilibration. d. the semiotic function.

Piaget proposed that the motivation for cognitive development comes from a drive toward cognitive balance, or equilibrium. Answer C is correct: Development occurs when a state of disequilibrium brought on by a discrepancy between the person's current understanding of the world (repertoire of schemas) and reality is resolved through the processes of assimilation and accommodation. The correct answer is: equilibration.

Which of the following would increase the power of a statistical test? a. increasing the sample size b. decreasing the size of alpha c. using a nonparametric statistical test d. decreasing the effect size

Power refers to the ability to reject the null hypothesis when it is false. Answer A is correct: A large sample size is always desirable since it reduces the effects of error and thereby makes it easier to detect the effects of an independent variable on the dependent variable. Increasing (not decreasing) alpha increases power. Effect size refers to the effects of the independent variable on the dependent variable. Increasing the effect size (by, for example, making the treatment groups as different as possible or administering the independent variable for a sufficiently long period of time) increases power.

Contact Hypothesis (Allport, 1954)

Regular interaction between members of different groups can reduce prejudice, provided that it occurs under favorable conditions The contact hypothesis was proposed by Allport as a method for reducing hostility and prejudice between members of majority and minority groups.

the relationship between reliability and validity

Reliability and validity are concepts used to evaluate the quality of research. They indicate how well a method, technique or test measures something. Reliability is about the consistency of a measure, validity is about the accuracy of a measure.

A mother has been giving her 3-year-old son a hug whenever he says "please" following a request. She decides to stop reinforcing her son in this way. Right after she stops hugging her son, she can expect that the frequency with which he says "please" will: Select one: a. quickly decrease. b. slowly decrease. c. temporarily increase. d. stay the same.

Removal of reinforcement following a behavior ordinarily leads to a gradual extinction of that behavior. However, the termination of the behavior is not immediate. Answer C is correct: When reinforcement for a previously reinforced response is removed, there is often a temporary "extinction burst" (increase in the response) before it begins to decrease. The correct answer is: temporarily increase.

Identical elements theory of transfer

Thorndike's contention that the extent to which learning transfers from one situation to another is determined by the similarity between the two situations.

law of effect

Thorndike's principle that behaviors followed by favorable consequences become more likely, and that behaviors followed by unfavorable consequences become less likely

situational sampling

a sampling technique in which behavior is observed in a variety of settings Situational sampling involves observing a behavior in multiple settings.

multiple regression

an associative forecasting method with more than one independent variable

To compare the impact of two or more interventions on patients' duration and quality of life, you would conduct which of the following types of cost analysis? Select one: a. cost-utility b. cost-effectiveness c. cost-minimization d. cost-benefit

cost-utility Answer A is correct: A cost-utility analysis is conducted to compare the effects of two or more treatments on duration and quality of life.

George Kelly's (1955) personal construct theory focuses on the role of "personal constructs," which Kelly describes as: Select one: a. bipolar dimensions of meaning. b. "primordial images." c. misinterpretations of reality. d. manifestations of the person's "style of life."

bipolar dimensions of meaning. As defined by Kelly, personal constructs are mental templates that consist of a characteristic or other phenomenon and its perceived opposite (e.g., outgoing-shy, interesting-boring).

enuresis

involuntary urination

REM Sleep Behavior Disorder

is characterized by repeated episodes of arousal during REM sleep that are often accompanied by complex motor behavior or vocalizations that are consistent with the content of a dream.

Child abuse and neglect are most associated with which of the following attachment patterns? Select one: a. disorganized or disoriented b. distant or disengaged c. insecure or avoidant d. insecure or ambivalent

disorganized or disoriented Children who have been maltreated often exhibit disorganized, contradictory behaviors in the presence of their caregivers - e.g., they might reach out for the caregiver while backing away. Answer A is correct: Mary Main, a student of Ainsworth, found that about 80% of maltreated children exhibit a disorganized/disoriented attachment pattern. The correct answer is: disorganized or disoriented

Acetylcholine (ACh)

enables muscle action, learning, and memory Acetylcholine is the chief neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system, the part of the autonomic nervous system (a branch of the peripheral nervous system) that contracts smooth muscles, dilates blood vessels, increases bodily secretions, and slows heart rate.

Loss of control of the fingers and hands is caused by damage to

lower cervical nerve (C6 to C8) or to a combination of damage to a lower cervical nerve and T1 (the first thoracic nerve).

A colleague tells you that she is designing a study to determine the correlates of job satisfaction. Based on your knowledge of the existing research on this issue, you tell her that job satisfaction has the strongest correlation with: Select one: a. productivity. b. turnover. c. absenteeism. d. motivation.

turnover. The research has found that the largest correlation is for job satisfaction and turnover, with the average reported coefficient being -.40. In contrast, the average reported correlation between job satisfaction and performance is only .14.

multiple hurdle model

process of arriving at a selection decision by eliminating some candidates at each stage of the selection process

dismantling strategy

repeated exposure to CS without the US is responsible for desensitization (administer different components to diff groups) What components are necessary, sufficient, and facilitative of therapeutic change?

Monocular cues

Monocular cues contribute to depth perception for objects at a distance and include the relative size of objects, the overlap of objects, and linear and atmospheric perspective.

law of contiguity

A law of association, according to which events that occur in close proximity to each other in time or space are readily associated with each other.

Polythetic Criteria

A list of diagnostic criteria in which only some symptoms, not all, need to be present in order for the disorder to be diagnosed

Narcolepsy

A sleep disorder characterized by uncontrollable sleep attacks. The sufferer may lapse directly into REM sleep, often at inopportune times. involves recurrent episodes within the same day of an irrepressible need to sleep.

Serotonin

Affects mood, hunger, sleep, and arousal

____________ refers to the percent of examinees who have the condition being assessed by a predictor who are identified by the predictor as having the condition. Select one: a. Specificity b. Sensitivity c. Positive predictive value d. Negative predictive value

Answer B is correct: Sensitivity refers to the probability that a predictor will correctly identify people with the disorder from the pool of people with the disorder. It is calculated using following formula: true positives or (true positives + false negatives). The correct answer is: Sensitivity

According to Kubler-Ross (1969), a person's initial reaction to learning that he or she has a life-threatening illness is most likely to be which of the following? Select one: a. anger b. depression c. bargaining d. denial

Answer D is correct: Kubler-Ross concluded that people experience five stages of grief when facing their own death or other important loss -- denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. The correct answer is: denial

Of the "Big Five" personality traits, which has been found to be most predictive of job performance across different jobs and job settings? Select one: a. openness to experience b. emotional stability c. agreeableness d. conscientiousness

Answer D is correct: Of the Big Five personality traits, conscientiousness has been found to be most predictive of performance across different jobs, job settings, and criterion measures. The correct answer is: conscientiousness

Graded desensitization

As its name implies, graded desensitization involves a gradual exposure to the feared stimulus. Flooding and implosive therapy both involve exposure to a high intensity stimulus.

The best conclusion that can be drawn from research on neurogenesis in the human brain is that: Select one: a. it does not occur in any area of the adult brain. b. it occurs in the hippocampus and possibly other areas of the brain. c. it occurs in the prefrontal cortex but not in other areas of the brain. d. it occurs throughout the brain until late adulthood.

Neurogenesis refers to the development of nerve cells (neurons) in the brain. Answer B is correct: Until relatively recently, it was believed that new neurons are not formed in the human brain following birth. However, research first on non-human mammals and then humans has found that neurogenesis in adulthood does occur. In humans, the most consistent evidence has been provided for adult neurogenesis in the hippocampus. The correct answer is: it occurs in the hippocampus and possibly other areas of the brain.

The body's circadian rhythms are controlled by the: Select one: a. suprachiasmatic nucleus. b. caudate nucleus. c. basal ganglia. d. hippocampus.

Circadian rhythms are bodily functions that fluctuate in a predictable way about every 24 hours. Answer A is correct: The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is part of the hypothalamus and acts as the body's "biological clock" and is responsible for many of the body's circadian rhythms. The correct answer is: suprachiasmatic nucleus.

ANCOVA (analysis of covariance)

Compares differences between and/or within groups while statistically controlling a variable used to statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable

In vivo exposure with response prevention (flooding) and implosive therapy are both based on: Select one: a. mediated generalization. b. graded desensitization. c. counterconditioning. d. classical extinction.

Flooding and implosive therapy both involve exposing an individual to the CS without the US. Answer D is correct: Classical extinction is used to extinguish (eliminate) a conditioned response and involves presenting the CS without the US.

Spearman-Brown formula

In psychometrics, a mathematical formula that predicts the degree to which the reliability of a test can be improved by adding more items. is used to estimate the effects of lengthening or shortening a test on its reliability.

A man is exhibiting synesthesia when he says that he: Select one: a. cannot perceive pain. b. cannot identify people by their physical appearance. c. experiences different musical notes as different colors. d. experiences blackouts whenever he hears certain words.

In the situation described in this question, the stimulation of one sensory modality triggers a sensation in another sensory modality. This is referred to as synesthesia. Answer C is correct: Experiencing sounds as colors is one type of synesthesia. The correct answer is: experiences different musical notes as different colors.

positive reinforcement

Increasing behaviors by presenting positive stimuli, such as food. A positive reinforcer is any stimulus that, when presented after a response, strengthens the response.

negative reinforcement

Increasing behaviors by stopping or reducing negative stimuli, such as shock. A negative reinforcer is any stimulus that, when removed after a response, strengthens the response. (Note: negative reinforcement is not punishment.)

learned helplessness model

Internal, stable, and global attributions for negative events is identified as a cause of depression

Kohlberg distinguished between three levels of moral development that each include two stages:

Level 1: Preconventional a child's sense of morality is externally controlled. Children accept and believe the rules of authority figures, such as parents and teachers. A child with pre-conventional morality has not yet adopted or internalized society's conventions regarding what is right or wrong, but instead focuses largely on external consequences that certain actions may bring. Stage 1: Obedience-and-Punishment Orientation Stage 1 focuses on the child's desire to obey rules and avoid being punished. For example, an action is perceived as morally wrong because the perpetrator is punished; the worse the punishment for the act is, the more "bad" the act is perceived to be. Stage 2: Instrumental Orientation Stage 2 expresses the "what's in it for me?" position, in which right behavior is defined by whatever the individual believes to be in their best interest. Stage two reasoning shows a limited interest in the needs of others, only to the point where it might further the individual's own interests. As a result, concern for others is not based on loyalty or intrinsic respect, but rather a "you scratch my back, and I'll scratch yours" mentality. An example would be when a child is asked by his parents to do a chore. The child asks "what's in it for me?" and the parents offer the child an incentive by giving him an allowance. Level 2: Conventional Throughout the conventional level, a child's sense of morality is tied to personal and societal relationships. Children continue to accept the rules of authority figures, but this is now due to their belief that this is necessary to ensure positive relationships and societal order. Adherence to rules and conventions is somewhat rigid during these stages, and a rule's appropriateness or fairness is seldom questioned. Stage 3: Good Boy, Nice Girl Orientation In stage 3, children want the approval of others and act in ways to avoid disapproval. Emphasis is placed on good behavior and people being "nice" to others. Stage 4: Law-and-Order Orientation In stage 4, the child blindly accepts rules and convention because of their importance in maintaining a functioning society. Rules are seen as being the same for everyone, and obeying rules by doing what one is "supposed" to do is seen as valuable and important. Moral reasoning in stage four is beyond the need for individual approval exhibited in stage three. If one person violates a law, perhaps everyone would—thus there is an obligation and a duty to uphold laws and rules. Most active members of society remain at stage four, where morality is still predominantly dictated by an outside force. Level 3: Postconventional Throughout the postconventional level, a person's sense of morality is defined in terms of more abstract principles and values. People now believe that some laws are unjust and should be changed or eliminated. This level is marked by a growing realization that individuals are separate entities from society and that individuals may disobey rules inconsistent with their own principles. Post-conventional moralists live by their own ethical principles—principles that typically include such basic human rights as life, liberty, and justice—and view rules as useful but changeable mechanisms, rather than absolute dictates that must be obeyed without question. Because post-conventional individuals elevate their own moral evaluation of a situation over social conventions, their behavior, especially at stage six, can sometimes be confused with that of those at the pre-conventional level. Some theorists have speculated that many people may never reach this level of abstract moral reasoning. Stage 5: Social-Contract Orientation In stage 5, the world is viewed as holding different opinions, rights, and values. Such perspectives should be mutually respected as unique to each person or community. Laws are regarded as social contracts rather than rigid edicts. Those that do not promote the general welfare should be changed when necessary to meet the greatest good for the greatest number of people. This is achieved through majority decision and inevitable compromise. Democratic government is theoretically based on stage five reasoning. Stage 6: Universal-Ethical-Principal Orientation In stage 6, moral reasoning is based on abstract reasoning using universal ethical principles. Generally, the chosen principles are abstract rather than concrete and focus on ideas such as equality, dignity, or respect. Laws are valid only insofar as they are grounded in justice, and a commitment to justice carries with it an obligation to disobey unjust laws. People choose the ethical principles they want to follow, and if they violate those principles, they feel guilty. In this way, the individual acts because it is morally right to do so (and not because he or she wants to avoid punishment), it is in their best interest, it is expected, it is legal, or it is previously agreed upon. Although Kohlberg insisted that stage six exists, he found it difficult to identify individuals who consistently operated at that level.

The kappa statistic for a test is .95. This means that the test has: Select one: a. adequate inter-rater reliability. b. adequate internal consistency reliability. c. inadequate intra-rater reliability. d. inadequate alternate forms reliability.

The kappa statistic (coefficient) is a measure of inter-rater reliability. Answer A is correct: The reliability coefficient ranges in value from 0 to +1.0. Therefore, a kappa statistic of .95 indicates a high degree of inter-rater reliability. The correct answer is: adequate inter-rater reliability.

In a scatterplot, a "slope bias" is indicative of which of the following? Select one: a. shrinkage b. criterion contamination c. measurement error d. differential validity

The term "slope" refers to the angle of the regression line, and slope bias occurs when a predictor has different validity coefficients for different groups, which produces regression lines with different angles. Answer D is correct: The term "differential validity" refers to different validity coefficients for different groups.

Thorndike's research with cats in puzzle boxes provided information about: Select one: a. trial-and-error learning. b. insight learning. c. generative learning. d. overlearning.

Thorndike was interested in the slow, trial-and-error nature of the cats' learning. Answer A is correct: He concluded that learning was not due to mental events but to connections that develop between stimuli and responses as the result of trial-and-error. The correct answer is: trial-and-error learning.

A test has a standard deviation of 12, a mean of 60, a reliability coefficient of .91, and a validity coefficient of .60. The test's standard error of measurement is equal to: Select one: a. 12 b. 9.6. c. 3.6. d. 2.8.

To calculate the standard error of measurement, you need to know the standard deviation of the test scores and the test's reliability coefficient. Answer C is correct: The standard deviation of the test scores is 12 and the reliability coefficient is .91. To calculate the standard error, you multiple the standard deviation times the square root of one minus the reliability coefficient: 1 minus .91 is .09; the square root of .09 is .3; .3 times 12 is 3.6.

If you are using a decision tree to determine which leadership style to adopt (e.g., autocratic, consultative, or group), you are relying on the work of: Select one: a. Vroom, Yetton, and Jago. b. Hersey and Blanchard. c. House. d. Fiedler.

Vroom, Yetton, and Jago Answer A is correct: The Vroom-Yetton-Jago normative model provides leaders with a decision tree that helps them choose the best leadership style for the situation.

global aphasia

When both production and understanding of language is damaged nonfluent output, disturbed repetition, abnormal comprehension.

Motivational interviewing combines the transtheoretical model of change with: Select one: a. psychoanalytic concepts. b. reality therapy. c. a behavioral approach. d. a client-centered approach.

a client-centered approach. Motivational interviewing is especially useful for individuals in the precontemplation and contemplation stages (the first two stages proposed by the transtheoretical model of change). It combines a client-centered approach (e.g., emphasizes the importance of empathy) with the transtheoretical model and the concept of self-efficacy. As its name implies, motivational interviewing focuses on a client's motivation to change.

Gestalt Psychology

a psychological approach that emphasizes that we often perceive the whole rather than the sum of the parts

The "Big Five" personality traits are...

agreeableness, openness to experience, extraversion, neuroticism, conscientiousness

chronic boundary disturbances

are of concern to Gestalt therapists

Split-half reliability and coefficient alpha

are types of internal consistency reliability

an unconditioned stimulus

automatically triggers a physiological reflex

Unconditional positive regard is a therapeutic technique used by...

client-centered therapists.

content validity

consistency between the test items or problems and the kinds of situations or problems that occur on the job

standard error of measurement

hypothetical estimate of variation in scores if testing were repeated

multiple cutoff

identifying the minimum passing level for each step in the selection process and eliminating job applicants who fail to meet each criteria

Marcia's Identity Statuses

identity diffusion, identity foreclosure, identity moratorium, identity achievement

Clarification

involves clarifying the client's feelings by restating his or her remarks in clearer terms.

Reflexology

is based on the assumption that areas in the hands and feet correspond to the glands, organs, and other parts of the body.

serial position effect

our tendency to recall best the last (a recency effect) and first items (a primacy effect) in a list

Acetylcholine (ACh)

A neurotransmitter that enables learning and memory and also triggers muscle contraction

test-retest reliability

Administering the same test to a single sample of examinees on two occasions would be the procedure for assessing test-retest reliability.

GABA

An inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain.

goal of client-centered therapy

Decrease incongruent between real and idealized self, and realize capacity for self-actualization Congruence between self and experience

Stage 8 Integrity vs. Despair (Late Adulthood)

Have I lived a full life? Those who feel proud of their accomplishments will feel a sense of integrity. Successfully completing this phase means looking back with few regrets and a general feeling of satisfaction. These individuals will attain wisdom, even when confronting death.

positive punishment example

If we give a rat in a Skinner box an electric shock every time it touches the lever, we are using THIS

Kuhlmann- Anderson Test- Eighth Edition

K-12 School learning ability The Kuhlman-Anderson is a group intelligence test for children in grades K through 12.

Anomia

Loss of the ability to name objects or retrieve names of people

Wilcoxon test

Test for difference. Related design, ordinal data. The Wilcoxon Matched-Pairs test is used to compare the ranks obtained from two correlated (matched) groups.

mesokurtic distribution

a larger proportion of scores are located in the middle of the distribution than they are in a normal (mesokurtic) distribution

Tourette's disorder (TD)

a condition characterized by multiple motor tics and one or more vocal tics

re-appraisal

changing one's emotional experience by changing the way one thinks about the emotion-eliciting stimulus Re-appraisal occurs when the person monitors the situation and, as necessary, alters his or her previous appraisals.

inadequate resolution of the splitting of self and object

object relations theorists

Mimesis

refers to joining a family system by mirroring (imitating) its style, tempo, and affect.

The progression of Alzheimer's disease can be described in terms of three stages...

1. Indifference or irritability and anomia are more characteristic of the first stage. 2. anterograde and retrograde amnesia, flat or labile mood, restlessness, and fluent aphasia. 3. Severely deteriorated intellectual functioning, apathy, and urinary and fecal incontinence are characteristic of the third stage.

Health Belief Model Constructs

1. Perceived susceptibility 2. Perceived severity 3. Perceived benefits 4. Perceived barriers 5. Cues to action 6. Self-efficacy

Transtheoretical Model of Change

1. Precontemplation 2. Contemplation 3. Preparation 4. Action 5. Maintenance

If a child has Schizophrenia, his or her biological sibling has a _____ percent chance of developing the disorder. Select one: a. 5 b. 10 c. 17 d. 48

10 The concordance rate for Schizophrenia for biological siblings is about 10%, which means that if one child has Schizophrenia, his or her biological sibling has a 10% chance of developing the disorder.

Sequential Analysis

A systematic presentation and examination of information or data regarding target behavior and its stimulus conditions in an ABC format. Typically follows ABC charting Sequential analysis is used to encode behavioral sequences and is useful for studying complex social behaviors.

Validity is best described as:

A test is valid to the degree that it measures what it was designed to measure. Answer B is correct: When a test is valid, it accurately measures the attribute(s) it was designed to measure.

Path-Goal Theory

A theory that states that it is the leader's job to assist followers in attaining their goals and to provide the necessary direction and/or support to ensure that their goals are compatible with the overall objectives of the group or organization. A style that focuses on helping workers achieve their own goals by achieving organizational goals

WRAT4

assesses basic learning problems in reading, spelling, math, and sentence comprehension -wide-range (tests ages 5-94) -blue/green forms of exam -DIQ score is used to compare scores to intelligence tests (WISC-IV) -high internal consistency reliability and criterion validity is a screening test for grade-level functioning in reading, spelling, and arithmetic.

Cognitive restructuring is a focus of

cognitive-behavioral therapy

halo bias

drawing a general impression about something or someone based on a single (typically good) characteristic The halo bias occurs when a person's status or performance on one dimension affects how a rater rates him or her on all other dimensions.

Cognitive Distortions: Overgeneralization

drawing sweeping conclusions based on only one incident or event and applying those conclusions to events that are unrelated to the original

Stage 5: Identity vs. Confusion (erikson)

during adolescence. encouragement through personal exploration results in feeling independent and control. fidelity is created when this stage is successful (the ability to live by society's standards and expectations) Our personal identity gives each of us an integrated and cohesive sense of self that endures through our lives. Our sense of personal identity is shaped by our experiences and interactions with others, and it is this identity that helps guide our actions, beliefs, and behaviors as we age.

four conditions for a claim of malpractice

1. Existence of a legal duty 2. Breach of that duty 3. Causal connection between the breach and injury 4. Measurable harm from the injury

Stage 2 of sleep cycle

20 minutes More relaxed than stage 1 Periodic appearance of sleep spindles Sleep talking

Cognitive Distortions: emotional reasoning

Emotional reasoning occurs when a person believes that things are a certain way because he or she feels they are that way (i.e., "I feel, therefore I am").

Methods used to encourage healthy behaviors as known as _______: Select one: a. Resilience b. Bismarck model c. Health promotion d. Evidence-based treatments

Health promotion

Norepinephrine (NE)

Mainly excitatory; involved in arousal and mood Together with adrenaline, norepinephrine increases heart rate and blood pumping from the heart. It also increases blood pressure and helps break down fat and increase blood sugar levels to provide more energy to the body.

Separation from her mother is likely to have the fewest negative consequences for a baby if it occurs when the baby is between ______ months of age. Select one: a. 0 and 3 b. 6 and 8 c. 9 and 12 d. 14 and 16

Signs of attachment to a caregiver are not apparent until about six months of age. Answer A is correct: Separation from the caregiver prior to six months of age (especially during the first three months) is less likely to have negative consequences than a separation that occurs after six months of age. The correct answer is: 0 and 3

The 31 pairs of spinal nerves are divided into five groups or regions. These are, from top to bottom:

cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.

validity coefficient

correlation coefficient between a test score (predictor) and a performance measure (criterion)

Berry et al.'s (1987) model of acculturation

describe acculturation status in terms of four categories: integration, assimilation, separation, and marginalization.

base rate

how common a characteristic or behavior is in the general population

The kappa statistic is a measure of...

inter-rater reliability

A person with Tourette's Disorder is MOST likely to also have which of the following? Select one: a. depressed mood b. an eating disorder c. aphasia and alcalulia d. obsessions and compulsions

obsessions and compulsions Many individuals with Tourette's Disorder have comorbid symptoms and conditions, with the most common comorbid symptoms being obsessions and compulsions.

fundamental attribution bias

people attribute another person's behavior to his or her personal characteristics rather than to situational factors The fundamental attribution bias is the tendency to overestimate dispositional causes and underestimate situational causes when making attributions about another person's behavior.

According to Holland, the optimal situation is for the job environment to match the person's: Select one: a. stated (explicit) goals. b. aptitude. c. personality. d. career concept.

personality. According to Holland, job satisfaction and productivity are best when the characteristics of the job match the individual's personality.

According to the multi-component model, working memory consists of a central executive and three subsystems

phonological loop, the part of working memory that holds and processes verbal and auditory information episodic buffer, A component of working memory where information in working memory interacts with information in long term memory (eg. relating information you are processing to a previous memory) visuo-spatial sketchpad, holds and works with information about what we see (slave to central executive)

Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory of Motivation

proposed that work satisfaction and dissatisfaction arise from two different factors - work satisfaction from so-called motivating factors and work dissatisfaction from so-called hygiene factors

somatic symptom disorder

psychological disorder in which the symptoms take a somatic (bodily) form without apparent physical cause is the presence of one or more somatic symptoms that cause distress or a significant disruption in daily life accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms. The DSM does not require symptoms to be linked to a desire to obtain an external reward.

Haptic

relating to the sense of touch The Haptic Intelligence Scale was designed for individuals ages 16 and older who are blind or partially sighted.

negative punisher

stimulus that weakens a response by removing a positive stimulus after a response

iconic

term that describes the memory of images

negative punishment

the removal of a stimulus to decrease the probability of a behavior's recurring

Research investigating the predictive validity of interest inventories suggests that they are LEAST accurate for predicting: Select one: a. job performance. b. job choice. c. job persistence. d. job satisfaction.

Although interest tests are not very good predictors of academic and occupational success, they are useful for predicting other outcomes. Answer A is correct: Of the outcomes listed in the answers, job performance is least related to interest test scores, probably because it is affected by a variety of factors including ability, experience, and motivation. The correct answer is: job performance.

At approximately ____ months of age, babies begin to show outward signs of jealousy, empathy, and embarrassment. Select one: a. 9 to 12 b. 12 to 18 c. 18 to 24 d. 24 to 30

Answer C is correct: Jealousy, empathy, and embarrassment are self-conscious emotions and are first apparent at about 18 to 24 months of age. The correct answer is: 18 to 24

Stage 6: Intimacy vs. Isolation (erikson)

-22 to 35 years -how do I love? -how do I want to be loved? -what do relationships mean to me? -romantic relationships and friendships -commitment Successful resolution of this stage results in the virtue known as love. It is marked by the ability to form lasting, meaningful relationships with other people.

According to the DSM-5, the 12-month prevalence rate for Bipolar I Disorder in the United States is _____ percent. Select one: a. 0.6 b. 1.8 c. 3.2 d. 5

0.6 The DSM-5 reports the 12-month prevalence rate for Bipolar I Disorder in the United States as 0.6% and the prevalence rate across 11 countries as ranging from 0.0% to 0.6%.

Within the Chin and Benne framework, the broad area of change management is divided into three "general strategies"

1) empirical-rational relies on providing employees with necessary information. 2) normative-reeducative is based on the assumption that peer pressure and sociocultural norms are potent forces of change. 3) power-coercive involves using power and legitimate authority to overcome resistance to change.

Expectancy theory links worker motivation to three factors...

1. Expectancy refers to the relationship between effort and performance. 2. Instrumentality refers to the belief that successful performance will lead to positive outcomes (rewards). 3. Valence refers to the desirability of outcomes (rewards).

Kubler-Ross's Five Stages of Grief

1. denial and isolation 2. anger 3. bargaining 4. depression 5. acceptance

major milestones in physical development

1. sit up, unsupported, by 6 months, 2. crawl on hands and knees by 8 and a half months, 3. stand, unassisted, by 10 and a half months, 4. walk, unassisted, by 12 months.

Erikson's Eight Stages of Psychosocial Development

1. trust versus mistrust (birth to 18 months) 2. Autonomy versus shame/doubt (18 months to 3 years) 3. Initiative versus guilt (3 to 6 years) 4. Industry versus inferiority (6 to 12 years) 5. Identity versus role confusion (adolescence) 6. Intimacy versus isolation (young adulthood) 7. Generativity versus stagnation (middle adulthood) 8. Ego integrity versus despair (late adulthood)

Stage 4 of Sleep cycle

12-15%, very deep sleep, rhythmic breathing, limited muscle activity, brain produces delta waves

Stage 1 of sleep cycle

5 minutes Slowed breathing, irregular brain waves, hallucinations, sensation of falling or floating

Stage 4: Industry vs. Inferiority (erikson)

5-11 years. Through social interactions, children begin to develop a sense of pride in their accomplishments and abilities. Children who are encouraged by parents and teachers will develop competence in one's skills. Successfully finding a balance at this stage of psychosocial development leads to the strength known as competence, in which children develop a belief in their abilities to handle the tasks set before them.

Howard et al. (1996) found that, after 26 sessions of therapy, approximately ___ percent of therapy patients showed measurable improvement in symptoms. Select one: a. 35 b. 55 c. 75 d. 95

75 The results of Howard et al.'s research indicated that, after 26 weeks of therapy, about 75% of patients exhibited measurable benefits. Howard and his colleagues found that, up to a point, the longer the duration of therapy, the better its effects. They referred to this as the dose-dependent effect.

For most children, babbling narrows to the sounds of the child's native language between _____ months of age. Select one: a. 3 and 6 b. 6 and 9 c. 9 and 14 d. 14 and 18

9 and 14 Beginning at six to eight weeks of age, infants produce simple "cooing" sounds that consist mainly of vowels and are usually emitted when the infant is happy and contented. This is followed, at about four months of age, by babbling, which involves the repetition of simple consonant and vowel sounds (e.g., "bi-bi-bi"). Early babbling includes sounds from all languages; but, between nine and 14 months of age, babies narrow their repertoire of sounds to those of their native language.

As an organizational psychologist, you would conduct a needs analysis in order to: Select one: a. evaluate the organizational outcomes of a training program. b. determine if employee training would resolve a company's production problems. c. determine if an employment procedure is having an adverse impact. d. compare the incremental validity of two or more selection procedures.

A needs analysis (assessment) is conducted in organizations to identify training needs. Answer B is correct: An initial goal of a needs analysis is to determine whether or not production problems are actually due to deficiencies on the part of workers and, therefore, whether or not training would be an effective solution to those problems. The correct answer is: determine if employee training would resolve a company's production problems.

Negative afterimages provide support for which of the following? Select one: a. trichromatic theory b. opponent-process theory c. gate control theory d. place theory

A negative afterimage involves seeing an image of an object in its complementary (opponent) color after staring at the object for a period of time and then looking at a neutral background. Answer B is correct: Opponent-process theory distinguishes between three types of bipolar receptors -- red-green, yellow-blue, and white-black. The presence of afterimages supports this theory.

Anosognosia

A patient's inability to realize that he or she is ill, which is caused by the illness itself. Anosognosia is a lack of ability to perceive the realities of one's own condition. It's a person's inability to accept that they have a condition that matches up with their symptoms or a formal diagnosis.

temporal lobe

A region of the cerebral cortex responsible for hearing and language.

parietal lobe

A region of the cerebral cortex whose functions include processing information about touch.

A child with a Specific Learning Disorder is most likely to also receive a diagnosis of: Select one: a. OCD. b. Enuresis. c. Intellectual Disability. d. ADHD.

ADHD. Individuals with Specific Learning Disorder typically have an IQ in the average to above-average range but have higher-than-normal rates of other problems and disorders, with the most frequent comorbid disorder being ADHD.

Reliability

Ability of a test to yield very similar scores for the same individual over repeated testings

According to Hays (2001), which of the following groups holds privilege? Select one: a. Individuals with disabilities b. Individuals with lower socioeconomic status c. Immigrants d. Males

According to Hays' acronym for understanding privilege, ADDRESSING, the following groups hold privilege: individuals between the ages of 30-60, individuals who do not have a disability, individuals who hold secular or Christian beliefs, individuals who claim Euro-American heritage, individuals who are middle or upper class, individuals who are heterosexual, individuals who are not of indigenous heritage, individuals who were born or grew up in the country where they live, and male individuals. The correct answer is: Males

Research comparing actuarial and clinical predictions indicates that: Select one: a. predictions based on actuarial approaches or on clinical judgment are about equally accurate. b. predictions based on clinical judgment are usually more accurate than predictions based on actuarial approaches. c. predictions based on actuarial approaches are usually more accurate than predictions based on clinical judgment. d. predictions based on actuarial approaches plus clinical judgment are no more accurate than predictions based on clinical judgment alone.

Actuarial (statistical) approaches are based on empirically validated relationships between test results and target criteria, while clinical judgment relies on the decision-maker's intuition, experience, and knowledge. Answer C is correct: The studies have consistently found that actuarial approaches lead to more accurate predictions than clinical judgment and that combining actuarial approaches and clinical judgment does not usually improve on actuarial approaches alone. The correct answer is: predictions based on actuarial approaches are usually more accurate than predictions based on clinical judgment.

Soon after losing his job, a 43-year-old man develops feelings of sadness and hopelessness. He has trouble even thinking about looking for another job and thinks his unemployment is already having an adverse effect on his marriage. The man's symptoms have lasted for ten days, and he has no previous history of a mental disorder. The most likely diagnosis is: Select one: a. Adjustment Disorder with depressed mood. b. Adjustment Disorder, unspecified. c. Major Depressive Disorder. d. Acute Stress Disorder.

Adjustment Disorder with depressed mood The man's symptoms suggest depression but do not meet the diagnostic criteria for Major Depressive Disorder. Also, the nature and duration of his symptoms and the fact that they were apparently the result of his job loss are most suggestive of Adjustment Disorder with depressed mood.

assessing alternate (equivalent) forms reliability

Administering two alternate forms of the test to a single sample of examinees is the procedure for assessing alternate (equivalent) forms reliability.

Children under the age of 9 often have trouble with memory tasks because of their: Select one: a. limited memory span. b. inconsistent use of rehearsal and other memory strategies. c. lack of understanding of the demands of the task. d. lack of ability to focus for an extended period on the task.

Age-related differences in memory are due, in large part, to differences in the use of memory strategies. Answer B is correct: The studies have found that, prior to age 9 or 10, children do not use rehearsal and other memory strategies consistently. The correct answer is: inconsistent use of rehearsal and other memory strategies.

substantia nigra

An area of the midbrain that is involved in motor control and contains a large concentration of dopamine-producing neurons

The K Scale of the MMPI-2 is treated as a(n): Select one: a. suppressor variable. b. control variable. c. extraneous variable. d. criterion variable.

An examinee's score on the K (Correction) Scale is used to correct his or her scores on certain clinical scales. Answer A is correct: The K Scale is considered to be a suppressor variable because scores correlate with defensiveness, education level, and socioeconomic status, which are unrelated to what is measured by the clinical scales but are likely to suppress scores on those scales. The correct answer is: suppressor variable.

A researcher correlates scores on two alternate forms of an achievement test and obtains a correlation coefficient of .80. This means that ___% of observed test score variability reflects true score variability. Select one: a. 80 b. 64 c. 36 d. 20

Answer A is correct: A reliability coefficient is interpreted directly as a measure of true score variability. The correct answer is: 80

When hired as an expert witness by the attorney for a plaintiff in a criminal case, a psychologist: Select one: a. may provide his or her services on the basis of contingent fees only if permitted to do so by the court. b. may provide his or her services on the basis of contingent fees only when doing so does not interfere with his or her objectivity. c. may provide his or her services on the basis of contingent fees as long the plaintiff consents to this arrangement. d. should ordinarily avoid providing his or her services on the basis of contingent fees.

Answer D is correct: This answer is most consistent with Paragraph 5.02, which states: "Forensic practitioners seek to avoid undue influence that might result from financial compensation or other gains. Because of the threat to impartiality presented by the acceptance of contingent fees and associated legal prohibitions, forensic practitioners strive to avoid providing professional services on the basis of contingent fees." The correct answer is: should ordinarily avoid providing his or her services on the basis of contingent fees.

A client you had been seeing in therapy for two months suddenly stopped coming to her sessions. You have been unable to contact her and she owes you for the last three sessions. You are thinking about using a collection agency to collect her outstanding fees. In terms of the requirements of the APA's Ethics Code, the use of a collection agency is: Select one: a. always unacceptable. b. acceptable only as a "last resort." c. acceptable as long as you discussed your policy with her at the beginning of therapy and she agreed to it. d. acceptable as long as you inform her of your intent and give her an opportunity to pay her outstanding fee before doing so.

Answer D is correct: This answer is most consistent with Standard 6.04(e), which states that, "if the recipient of services does not pay for services as agreed, and if psychologists intend to use collection agencies or legal measures to collect the fees, psychologists first inform the person that such measures will be taken and provide that person an opportunity to make prompt payment." The correct answer is: acceptable as long as you inform her of your intent and give her an opportunity to pay her outstanding fee before doing so.

Bandura's research on the effects of modeling for treating snake phobia found that which of the following was the most effective strategy? Select one: a. symbolic modeling b. participant modeling c. covert modeling d. vicarious modeling

Bandura found that participant modeling (observing a model followed by guided participation) was the most effective method for eliminating phobic reactions. participant modeling

According to Beck (1967, 1984), ideas or images that come without effort and that elicit an emotional reaction are: Select one: a. cognitive distortions. b. automatic thoughts. c. prototypes. d. schemata.

Beck distinguishes between automatic thoughts, cognitive distortions, and cognitive schemas. Answer B is correct: This is an accurate description of automatic thoughts, which occur automatically and elicit an emotional response.

A client's insurance company pays 75% of a client's therapy fee, while the client is required to pay the remaining 25%. The client asks you to bill the insurance company at a higher hourly rate so that he will not have to pay his 25% co-payment. If you do so, you will be acting: Select one: a. illegally and unethically. b. illegally but ethically. c. legally but unethically. d. legally and ethically.

Billing the insurance company at a higher rate so that the client does not have to make his co-payment would be insurance fraud (unless, of course, the insurance company has approved this arrangement which it is not likely to do). Answer A is correct: Misrepresentation of your fee to the insurance company represents fraud and is, therefore, both illegal and unethical. The correct answer is: illegally and unethically.

stage 1: trust vs. mistrust (erikson)

Birth-1 year. Based upon the trust and quality of care that the adults in a child's life provide to fulfill the child's needs: food, love, warmth, safety, and nurturing. During the first stage of psychosocial development, children develop a sense of trust when caregivers provide reliability, care, and affection. A lack of this will lead to mistrust.

Rescorla and Wagner (1972) contend that "blocking" occurs because: Select one: a. the second neutral stimulus does not provide new information about the US. b. one neutral stimulus is more salient than the other neutral stimulus. c. the new neutral stimulus is similar to the original CS. d. one of the neutral stimuli is "overshadowed" by the US.

Blocking occurs when a new neutral stimulus and an established CS are presented together prior to the US. Answer A is correct: According to Rescorla and Wagner, the new neutral stimulus does not elicit a CR when presented alone because it provides redundant information and, as a result, an association between that stimulus and the US is not made. The correct answer is: the second neutral stimulus does not provide new information about the US.

Blocking

Blocking reduces variation in your results. effects of some outside variables by bringing those variables into the experiment to form the blocks. Separate conclusions can be made from each block, making for more precise conclusions. methods for controlling an extraneous variable... a. an extraneous variable is "held constant." b. the effects of an extraneous variable are statistically removed. c. an extraneous variable is treated as an independent variable.

Training in the use of evidence-based treatments should include which of the following? Select one: a. Local and large-scale implementation b. Facilitating partnerships with community agencies and practitioners c. Neither A or B d. Both A and B

Both A and B

Research by Brown and Madan-Swain (1993) found that which of the following is true about treatments for childhood leukemia? Select one: a. Chemotherapy is associated with neurocognitive deficits but irradiation is not. b. Irradiation is associated with neurocognitive deficits but chemotherapy is not. c. Chemotherapy and irradiation are both associated with neurocognitive deficits. d. Neither chemotherapy nor irradiation is associated with neurocognitive deficits.

Chemotherapy and irradiation are both associated with neurocognitive deficits Brown and Madan-Swain's (1993) research found that intrathecal chemotherapy and CNS irradiation as treatments for leukemia were both associated with impaired neurocognitive functioning and an increased risk for a learning disability.

The notion of "collaborative empiricism" is associated with: Select one: a. Ellis. b. Beck. c. Adler. d. Perls.

Collaborative empiricism refers to the collaborative relationship between client and therapist that involves working together to gather data and test the logic of the client's thoughts and beliefs. Answer B is correct: Collaborative empiricism is a key strategy of Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy. When using this strategy, the therapist and client work together to gather evidence and test hypotheses about the client's beliefs. The correct answer is: Beck.

A 72-year-old man is prescribed lithium for Bipolar Disorder. In terms of side effects, the man can most likely expect which of the following? Select one: a. shuffling gait b. visual disturbances c. shortness of breath d. fine hand tremor

Common side effects of lithium include gastrointestinal symptoms, fine hand tremor and shakiness, fatigue, restlessness, polyuria, and polydipsia. Answer D is correct: Fine hand tremor is a common side effect of lithium, especially for older adults. The correct answer is: fine hand tremor

Conflict style

Complementary conflict style is when partners use different but mutually reinforcing behaviors symmetrical conflict style is when both people use the same tactics, parallel conflict style shifts between complementary and symmetrical patterns from one issue to another.

Four types of validity

Construct validity: Does the test measure the concept that it's intended to measure? Content validity: Is the test fully representative of what it aims to measure? Face validity: Does the content of the test appear to be suitable to its aims? Criterion validity: Do the results correspond to a different test of the same thing?

You administer a test to a group of examinees on April 1st and then re-administer the same test to the same group of examinees on May 1st. When you correlate the two sets of scores, you will have obtained a coefficient of: a. internal consistency. b. determination. c. equivalence. d. stability.

Correlating two sets of scores obtained by the same group of examinees produces a test-retest reliability coefficient. Answer D is correct: Test-retest reliability indicates the stability of scores over time, and the test-retest reliability coefficient is also known as the coefficient of stability. The correct answer is: stability.

criterion-related validity

Criterion validity (or criterion-related validity) measures how well one measure predicts an outcome for another measure. A test has this type of validity if it is useful for predicting performance or behavior in another situation (past, present, or future).

Cross's Black Racial Identity Development Model

Cross's Black Racial Identity Development Model involves five stages in growth toward a more authentic African-American identity. The stages include: pre-encounter (worldview and values are dominated by Euro-American determinants); encounter (previous worldview is challenged, more receptive to a new interpretation of identity and condition); immersion/emersion (denigrating of whites and initial idealization of African-Americans); internalization (conflicts between the old and new worldviews resolve, moving toward a non-racist perspective); internalization-commitment (translating internalized identity into activities that are meaningful to the group).

Retinal disparity helps explain: Select one: a. depth perception for objects that are far away. b. depth perception for objects that are close. c. the ability to see objects in the periphery of our vision. d. the ability to see objects directly in front of us.

Depth perception depends on a combination of binocular and monocular cues. Answer B is correct: Binocular cues are responsible for depth perception for objects at close distances and include convergence and retinal disparity.

The visual cues an infant uses to perceive depth arise in a predictable sequence. Which cue is the last to develop? Select one: a. binocular b. pictorial c. kinetic d. intermodal

Depth perception depends on sensitivity to kinetic (motion) cues, binocular cues, and pictorial cues. Answer B is correct: Sensitivity to pictorial cues (e.g., size, texture, shading) is the last to arise at about 5 months of age.

displaced aggression hypothesis

Displaced aggression refers to aggression that varies in either type or target from that actually preferred by the aggressor.

Down Syndrome is caused by: a. a dominant gene. b. two recessive genes. c. a chromosomal abnormality. d. an X-linked gene.

Down Syndrome is a chromosomal condition that is associated with an intellectual disability, specific facial features, and certain physical abnormalities (e.g., hypotonia, heart defects, and hearing impairment). Answer C is correct: Down syndrome is most often due to a failure of the 21st pair of chromosomes to split during meiosis, resulting in an extra chromosome 21. The correct answer is: a chromosomal abnormality.

Davidson and Parker's (2001) meta-analysis of the research indicated that the effectiveness of EMDR as a treatment for PTSD is attributable to which of the following? Select one: a. positive self-statements b. lateral eye movements c. in vivo counterconditioning d. exposure to feared stimuli in imagination

EMDR was originally developed as a treatment for PTSD but has since been applied to other disorders including panic attacks, depression, and substance use. Answer D is correct: Based on their meta-analysis of the research, Davidson and Parker concluded that "eye movements are unnecessary and that EMDR may be viewed as an imaginal exposure technique" (2001, p. 2).

A "scallop" in the cumulative recording is characteristic of which schedule of reinforcement? Select one: a. fixed interval b. fixed ratio c. variable interval d. variable ratio

Each intermittent schedule of reinforcement is associated with a different pattern of responding. Answer A is correct: On a fixed interval (FI) schedule, the subject stops responding once the reinforcement is delivered and then begins responding again toward the end of the interval. This produces a "scallop" in the cumulative recording. The correct answer is: fixed interval

Classical extinction occurs when: Select one: a. the CS is repeatedly presented alone. b. the US is repeatedly presented alone. c. the US and CS are presented simultaneously. d. the CS is presented after the US.

Extinction refers to the elimination of a conditioned response (CR). Answer A is correct: Extinction of a CR occurs when the conditioned stimulus (CS) is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus (US). The correct answer is: the CS is repeatedly presented alone.

EMDR (eye movement desensitization and reprocessing)

Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) therapy is an interactive psychotherapy technique used to relieve psychological stress. It is an effective treatment for trauma and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). During EMDR therapy sessions, you relive traumatic or triggering experiences in brief doses while the therapist directs your eye movements. EMDR is thought to be effective because recalling distressing events is often less emotionally upsetting when your attention is diverted. This allows you to be exposed to the memories or thoughts without having a strong psychological response. Over time, this technique is believed to lessen the impact that the memories or thoughts have on you.

factor loading

Factor loading is basically the correlation coefficient for the variable and factor. Factor loading shows the variance explained by the variable on that particular factor.

According to the APA's Ethics Code, psychologists should discuss fees and other financial arrangements with clients: Select one: a. during the initial phone contact. b. during the first therapy session. c. as early as is feasible. d. at the psychologist's discretion.

Fees and other financial arrangements are addressed in Standard 6.0 of the Ethics Code. Answer C is correct: This answer is the best one of those given because it contains the exact language of Standards 6.04 and 10.01, which both address the discussion of fees with clients. The correct answer is: as early as is feasible.

According to Fiedler's contingency model, low-LPC leaders perform most effectively in: Select one: a. unfavorable situations. b. moderately favorable situations. c. highly unfavorable situations only. d. highly unfavorable or highly favorable situations.

Fiedler's contingency model distinguishes between two type of leaders -- low-LPC and high-LPC. Answer D is correct: According to Fiedler, low-LPC (task-oriented) leaders are most effective in extreme situations -- i.e., in situations that are either very favorable or very unfavorable. In contrast, high-LPC (person-oriented) leaders are most effective in moderately favorable situations.

H.M. underwent a bilateral medial temporal lobectomy as treatment for severe epilepsy. Following the surgery, H.M. exhibited which of the following? Select one: a. expressive aphasia b. receptive aphasia c. impairments in recent long-term memory d. impairments in remote long-term memory

Following surgery, H.M. exhibited a number of memory impairments. Answer C is correct: Although H.M.'s short-term and remote long-term memory were intact, he was unable to form new long-term memories and had trouble remembering events that occurred a few years prior to the surgery. The correct answer is: impairments in recent long-term memory

Which of the following best defines the relationship between a predictor's reliability coefficient and its criterion-related validity coefficient? Select one: a. A test's validity coefficient cannot exceed its reliability coefficient. b. A test's validity coefficient cannot exceed the square root of its reliability coefficient. c. A test's validity coefficient cannot exceed the square of its reliability coefficient. d. A test's reliability coefficient cannot exceed its validity coefficient.

For the exam you want to know that reliability places a ceiling on validity and be familiar with the formula for the relationship between reliability and validity so that you can answer questions like this one on the exam. Answer B is correct: This answer describes the formula that defines the relationship between reliability and validity -- i.e., a test's validity coefficient cannot be greater than the square root of its reliability coefficient. The correct answer is: A test's validity coefficient cannot exceed the square root of its reliability coefficient.

Detouring

From structural family therapy, when two family members attempt to preserve their relationship by defining their conflict as a disagreement about a third person, keeping the focus on that person rather than themselves and their problem. is another rigid triad. It is occurring when parents avoid conflicts between them by focusing on a child.

A Gestalt therapist would interpret a client's transference as: Select one: a. a sign of progress. b. a manifestation of resistance. c. the client's fantasy. d. the result of "splitting."

Gestalt therapists consider a client's transferences to be counterproductive and respond to transference by helping the client recognize the difference between his or her "transference fantasy" and reality. Knowing that Gestalt therapists focus on the "here-and-now" (current functioning)

Groupthink is least likely to occur when: Select one: a. dissent among group members is encouraged. b. groups are highly cohesive. c. group members are allowed to determine group goals. d. the group leader is highly directive.

Groupthink refers to the suspension of critical thinking that may occur in highly cohesive groups. Answer A is correct: Groupthink is most likely to occur when the group leader is directive, and the group is highly cohesive. One way to alleviate groupthink is to appoint one or more members of the group to act as "devil's advocate" (i.e., to encourage dissent). The correct answer is: dissent among group members is encouraged.

Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model proposes that the most effective leadership style: Select one: a. depends on the favorableness of the situation. b. depends on the maturity of the worker. c. is one that allows workers to participate in all levels of decision-making. d. is one that focuses on helping workers achieve their own personal goals by achieving organizational goals.

Hersey and Blanchard's (1974) situational leadership model identifies four different leadership styles and proposes that the optimal one depends on certain characteristics of the worker. Answer B is correct: According to Hersey and Blanchard, the most effective leader is one who matches his or her style to the worker's job maturity, which is determined by the worker's motivation and ability.

procedure for assessing inter-rater reliability

Having a test that was administered to a single sample of examinees scored by two raters is the procedure for assessing inter-rater reliability.

higher-order conditioning (second-order conditioning)

Higher Order Conditioning (also known as Second Order Conditioning) is a classical conditioning term that refers to a situation in which a stimulus that was previously neutral (e.g., a light) is paired with a conditioned stimulus (e.g., a tone that has been conditioning with food to produce salivating) to produce the same conditioned response as the conditioned stimulus. Wow...if you understand how a neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus (conditioning), you understand higher order conditioning because this is really just extending the conditioning one more level... the conditioning is happening not by pairing the stimulus with something that naturally produces a response, but with something that has been conditioned to produce a response.

Hydrocephalus involves which of the following structures? Select one: a. cerebellum b. brain stem c. substantia nigra d. cerebral ventricles

Hydrocephalus is one of several disorders that have been linked to ventricular abnormalities. Answer D is correct: Hydrocephalus ("water head") is caused by a build-up of cerebrospinal fluid in the cerebral ventricles. cerebral ventricles

Which of the following best describes ADHD in adults? Select one: a. Hyperactivity becomes less prominent while impulsivity and inattention stay the same or become more prominent. b. Impulsivity becomes less prominent while hyperactivity and inattention stay the same or become more prominent. c. Inattention becomes less prominent while hyperactivity and impulsivity stay the same or become more prominent. d. Hyperactivity and impulsivity become less prominent while inattention stays the same or becomes more prominent.

Hyperactivity and impulsivity become less prominent while inattention stays the same or becomes more prominent. The symptoms of ADHD vary somewhat over the lifespan. Hyperactivity and impulsivity decrease over time, while inattention predominates the symptom profile during adulthood, with common signs of inattention including inconsistency in the ability to concentrate, difficulty maintaining routines, and an inability to prioritize and complete important tasks.

Zimbardo's (1972) prison study illustrated the impact of which of the following on behavior? Select one: a. psychopathology b. group conformity c. deindividuation d. social roles

In Zimbardo's (1972) prison study, students were randomly assigned to enact the role of either a prisoner or prison guard and were placed in an environment that simulated an actual prison. Answer D is correct: Zimbardo's (1972) prison study confirmed that people often alter their behaviors so that they are consistent with assigned roles: Even though students had been randomly assigned to the role of prisoner or guard, they quickly adopted behaviors consisted with their roles. The correct answer is: social roles

secondary process thinking

In psychoanalytic theory, the term for rational and conscious processes of ordinary thought. Secondary process thinking is used by the ego and involves rational thinking and planning. It is contrasted with primary process thinking, which is dominated by the instinctual needs of the id.

In vivo aversion therapy would be most effective as a treatment for which of the following? Select one: a. Specific Phobia b. Paraphilia c. PTSD d. Factitious Disorder

In vivo aversion therapy is used to eliminate a maladaptive behavior by pairing that behavior (or stimuli associated with it) with a stimulus that naturally elicits an undesirable response. Answer B is correct: In vivo aversion therapy is used to treat paraphilias, addictions, and self-injurious behaviors. The correct answer is: Paraphilia

Increasing the level of significance (alpha) from .01 to .05 will: Select one: a. increase the probability of making a Type I and a Type II error. b. not affect the probability of making a Type I or a Type II error. c. increase the probability of making a Type I error but decrease the probability of making a Type II error. d. decrease the probability of making a Type I error but increase the probability of making a Type II error.

Increasing the value of alpha makes it easier to reject the null hypothesis. Answer C is correct: Increasing the chance of rejecting the null hypothesis makes it easier to reject a true null hypothesis (Type I error) and, conversely, more difficult to retain a false null hypothesis (Type II error). The correct answer is: increase the probability of making a Type I error but decrease the probability of making a Type II error.

factitious disorder

Individuals with Factitious Disorder Imposed on Self falsify physical or psychological symptoms that are associated with their deception, present themselves to others as being ill or impaired, and engage in the deceptive behavior even in the absence of an obvious external reward for doing so.

A child with ADHD would most likely obtain the HIGHEST score on which of the following WISC-V subtests? Select one: a. Picture Span b. Arithmetic c. Information d. Coding

Information To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know which of the four subtests listed in the answers is least affected by the core symptoms of ADHD. Answer C is correct: Knowing that children with ADHD are likely to obtain the highest score on the Verbal Comprehension Index of the WISC-V and that, of the subtests listed in the answers, the Information subtest is the only one that contributes to the Verbal Comprehension Index score would have helped you identify it as the correct answer.

response-contingent positive reinforcement (RCPR),

Insufficient response-contingent positive reinforcement (RCPR), or pleasure obtained through interaction with the environment that increases the likelihood of rewarding behavior, has been hypothesized to directly contribute to the onset and persistence of depression symptoms

complementary communication

Interchange based on accepted differences in power.

Interval recording is most useful for: Select one: a. studying behaviors that have no fixed beginning or end. b. studying behaviors that have a long duration. c. obtaining a detailed narrative description of a behavior. d. identifying the antecedents and consequences of a behavior.

Interval recording is a method for sampling and recording the frequency of a behavior. Answer A is correct: Interval recording is a type of time sampling that involves recording whether or not a behavior occurred during each interval of time. It is useful for behaviors that have no clear beginning or end. The correct answer is: studying behaviors that have no fixed beginning or end.

An adult in his or her late 50s is most likely to exhibit an age-related decline on cognitive tasks involving: a. verbal memory. b. spatial orientation. c. processing speed. d. inductive reasoning.

Investigators interested in the impact of increasing age on cognitive abilities have determined that some abilities are more negatively affected than others. Answer C is correct: The effects of increasing age on the cognitive abilities listed in the answers were investigated by Schaie and colleagues in their Seattle Longitudinal Study. They found that only perceptual speed declined prior to age 60. The correct answer is: processing speed.

As defined by Murray Bowen, an "emotional triangle" serves which of the following functions? Select one: a. It alleviates "boundary disturbances" between family members. b. It increases differentiation among family members. c. It reduces anxiety and tension between family members. d. It helps the therapist "join" the family system.

It reduces anxiety and tension between family members. According to Bowen, when a two-person system such as a husband-wife or parent-child experiences instability or stress, it may form an emotional triangle by recruiting a third person into the system in order to increase stability and reduce tension and anxiety. Bowen considered an emotional triangle to be a basic building block in a family's emotional system.

Research conducted in the 1930s found that ablation of the anterior temporal lobes in male rhesus monkeys produced a variety of symptoms including hypersexuality, placidity, oral tendencies, and psychic blindness. This condition is known as __________ syndrome. Select one: a. Kluver-Bucy b. Gerstmann's c. Grave's d. Wernicke-Korsakoff

Kluver-Bucy The symptoms described in this question are characteristic of Kluver-Bucy syndrome.

A psychologist relying on Bandura's social learning theory would most likely recommend which of the following training approaches? Select one: a. train-then-place b. programmed instruction c. job rotation d. behavioral modeling

Knowing that Bandura's social learning theory emphasizes observational learning would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. Answer D is correct: Bandura proposed that people learn by watching others and, consequently, would agree that behavioral modeling is a useful training strategy. The correct answer is: behavioral modeling

Leiter-3

Leiter scale only measures nonverbal intelligence. Because of the exclusion of language, it can test children who cannot or will not provide a verbal response. This includes children with any of these features: Non native speaking, autism, traumatic brain injury, speech impairment, cognitively delayed and hearing problems. It spans ages 2 years, 0 months through 20 years, 11 months. Visualization and reasoning battery, and attention and memory battery. Subtests= scaled scores, composites= stand scores.

Long-term potentiation (LTP) is believed to underlie: Select one: a. the sleep or wake cycle. b. the experience of emotion. c. motor coordination. d. learning and memory.

Long-term potentiation refers to the greater responsivity of a postsynaptic neuron to low-intensity stimulation by a presynaptic neuron for a period of time after it has been barraged by high-frequency stimulation. Answer D is correct: Long-term potentiation has been observed in the hippocampus, which is involved in memory consolidation. The correct answer is: learning and memory.

Abnormal levels of melatonin have been linked to which of the following? Select one: a. Bipolar I Disorder b. Major Depressive Disorder with seasonal pattern c. Major Depressive Disorder with peripartum onset d. Cyclothymic Disorder

Major Depressive Disorder with seasonal pattern Melatonin is a hormone released by the pineal gland and is involved in the regulation of circadian rhythms. One explanation for Major Depressive Disorder with seasonal pattern (also known as seasonal affective disorder) is that it is related to elevated levels of melatonin.

To "inoculate" someone against a persuasive message, you would: a. warn the person that she is about to hear a message designed to change her beliefs. b. provide the person with information that supports her current beliefs. c. provide the person with strong arguments against her beliefs. d. provide the person with arguments against her beliefs and weak refutations of those arguments.

McGuire (1969) derived his notion of attitude inoculation from the use of inoculation in medicine. Answer D is correct: McGuire found that resistance to persuasion was significantly increased with individuals were provided with arguments against their own position and weak counterarguments prior to hearing the persuasive message. The correct answer is: provide the person with arguments against her beliefs and weak refutations of those arguments.

Locke's goal-setting theory makes which of the following predictions about production goals? Select one: a. General goals produce higher levels of performance than specific goals. b. Participation in goal-setting is critical for all employees. c. Moderately difficult goals produce higher levels of performance than very difficult goals. d. Assigned goals are always less effective than self-set goals.

Moderately difficult goals produce higher levels of performance than very difficult goals. Goal-setting theory predicts that employees are motivated to achieve production goals when they have consciously accepted them and when certain other conditions are met. Answer C is correct: Moderately difficult goals (i.e., those with about a 50% chance of being accomplished) produce the highest levels of performance.

According to Moscovici (1985), group members espousing the minority position are most likely to change the opinion of the majority when: Select one: a. members supporting the minority position have accumulated "idiosyncrasy credits." b. members supporting the minority position are consistent in expressing their opinions without being dogmatic. c. the number of people representing the minority opinion is only slightly less than the number of people representing the majority position. d. the minority leader is viewed by group members as having legitimate power.

Moscovici contends that, to influence others, people holding a minority position must use different strategies than those who agree with the majority position. Answer B is correct: Moscovici argues that, to change the opinion of the majority, the minority must present its position in a firm, consistent manner without appearing to be rigid or dogmatic. The correct answer is: members supporting the minority position are consistent in expressing their opinions without being dogmatic.

Epinephrine

Neurotransmitter secreted by the adrenal medulla in response to stress. Also known as adrenaline. Epinephrine, more commonly known as adrenaline, is a hormone secreted by the medulla of the adrenal glands. Strong emotions such as fear or anger cause epinephrine to be released into the bloodstream, which causes an increase in heart rate, muscle strength, blood pressure, and sugar metabolism.

Which of the following individuals is at highest risk for a stress-related illness? Select one: a. the company vice president b. a file clerk who does the filing for several departments c. an assembly-line worker whose work is machine-paced d. an administrative assistant who has two bosses

Not surprisingly, the research has found that some jobs are consistently associated with higher levels of stress than other jobs are. Answer C is correct: The research has found that a lack of control over the pace of one's work is one of the greatest contributors to job-related stress. The correct answer is: an assembly-line worker whose work is machine-paced

"Confabulation" on the Rorschach Inkblot Test is most suggestive of: Select one: a. brain damage. b. giftedness. c. sociopathy. d. an invalid record.

On the Rorschach, confabulation refers to overgeneralizing from a part of an inkblot to the whole. Answer A is correct: Confabulation is most associated with brain damage, emotional disturbance, and intellectual disability. The correct answer is: brain damage. Confabulation is a type of memory error in which gaps in a person's memory are unconsciously filled with fabricated, misinterpreted, or distorted information. When someone confabulates, they are confusing things they have imagined with real memories. A person who is confabulating is not lying.

Regional cerebral blood flow (rCBF) serves as an index of neural activity when using which of the following techniques? Select one: a. EEG b. PET c. CT d. MRI

PET Answer B is correct: Positron-emission tomography (PET) is a functional brain imaging technique that provides information on the functional activities of the brain (e.g., regional cerebral blood flow). CT and MRI are both structural techniques that provide information on the physical structure (rather than activity) of the brain.

Which of the following is useful for preventing the severe intellectual disability that can accompany phenylketonuria (PKU)? Select one: a. a special diet b. environmental stimulation c. surgery d. an antibiotic drug

PKU is a recessive gene disorder in which the enzyme that processes the amino acid phenylalanine is missing. Answer A is correct: The treatment for PKU is a diet that is low in phenylalanine beginning in the first few weeks of life. The correct answer is: a special diet

medulla oblongata

Part of the brainstem that controls vital life-sustaining functions such as heartbeat, breathing, blood pressure, and digestion.

If you are developing an intervention to reduce aggressiveness in children and you are basing it on the work of G. R. Patterson and his colleagues (1992), a primary component of the intervention will be: Select one: a. training parents in child management skills. b. empathy training for the children. c. solution-focused therapy for the parents. d. group therapy for the children and the parents.

Patterson et al.'s family interaction model proposes that children learn aggressive behaviors from their parents who use harsh discipline and reward their children's aggressiveness with approval and attention. Answer A is correct: The intervention developed by Patterson and his colleagues for aggressive children focuses on the parents and, in particular, on their child management skills. The correct answer is: training parents in child management skills.

stage 3: initiative vs. guilt (erikson)

Preschool years. Children begin to assert their power and control over the world through directing play and other social interactions. When an ideal balance of individual initiative and a willingness to work with others is achieved, the ego quality known as purpose emerges.

In most situations, the "holder of the privilege" is the: Select one: a. client. b. therapist. c. client and therapist jointly. d. court.

Privilege is a legal requirement that prohibits (with some exceptions) confidential client information from being disclosed in legal proceedings. Answer A is correct: In most circumstances, the client is the holder of the privilege, which means that only the client can determine when confidential information may be disclosed in court, a deposition, or other legal proceeding. See the Ethics and Professional Issues chapter in the written study materials for additional information on privilege. The correct answer is: client.

Three types of organizational justice

Procedural justice--fairness in implementation Distributive justice--fairness in outcomes Interactional justice--how people feel about the quality of interactions

A process consultant is most likely to focus on which of the following? Select one: a. communication, decision-making, and conflict b. technological change c. selection and other employment procedures d. worker motivation and satisfaction

Process consultation is a type of OD intervention that focuses on helping members of a work group understand the processes (behaviors) that are undermining their interactions with one another. Answer A is correct: Process consultants observe group members in action and help them identify and rectify problems related to communication patterns, decision-making, conflict resolutions, etc. The correct answer is: communication, decision-making, and conflict

Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD)

Psychological disorder characterized by a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and emotions, and of marked impulsivity beginning by early adulthood and present in a variety of contexts. The essential features of Borderline Personality Disorder are a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affect and marked impulsivity

somatic symptom disorder

Psychological disorder in which the symptoms take a bodily form without apparent physical cause.

psychological reactance

Psychological reactance is the tendency to resist being influenced by another person when that person's request is perceived as a threat to personal freedom. the theory that people react against threats to their freedom by asserting themselves and perceiving the threatened freedom as more attractive

brief psychotic disorder

Psychotic disturbance involving delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech or behavior but lasting less than 1 month; often occurs in reaction to a stressor. A diagnosis of Brief Psychotic Disorder requires the presence of characteristic psychotic symptoms for no more than one month.

REM sleep

Rapid eye movement sleep, a recurring sleep stage during which vivid dreams commonly occur. Also known as paradoxical sleep, because the muscles are relaxed (except for minor twitches) but other body systems are active.

Raven's Progressive Matrices is a measure of: Select one: a. psychomotor ability. b. simultaneous and sequential processing. c. "successful intelligence." d. Spearman's "g."

Raven's Progressive Matrices requires the examinee to solve problems involving abstract figures and designs by indicating which of several alternatives complete a given matrix. Answer D is correct: Raven's Progressive Matrices was designed to be a nonverbal measure of general intelligence (g). The correct answer is: Spearman's "g." The Raven's Progressive Matrices is administered as a nonverbal group test. It is typically a 60-item test used in measuring abstract reasoning and regarded as a non-verbal estimate of fluid intelligence.

Heterogeneity of team members is: Select one: a. best when the task is simple. b. associated with greater creativity and better decision-making. c. associated with reduced quality and quantity of productivity on various types of tasks. d. effective only when the task is additive.

Research on the impact of team heterogeneity has provided mixed results and its effects seem to be related to several factors. Answer B is correct: Although group heterogeneity can create problems (e.g., lower cohesiveness), it has also been found to be associated with increased creativity and better decision-making.

response cost (negative punishment)

Response cost is the removal of a positive reinforcer contingent on the occurrence of a behavior and results in a decrease in the future frequency of the behavior One common situation in which a response cost is used to decrease undesired behavior is in a token economy behavior change system.

A 28-year-old male client presents with hallucinations and bizarre delusions. His parents report that his symptoms were not preceded by an unusual or stressful event and that he has had these symptoms for about six weeks. Your tentative diagnosis is: Select one: a. Schizophrenia. b. Schizophreniform Disorder. c. Brief Psychotic Disorder. d. Schizoaffective Disorder.

Schizophreniform Disorder. The symptoms of Schizophreniform Disorder are similar to those of Schizophrenia, except that the duration of symptoms is between one and six months.

Rosenhan's research involving "pseudopatients" who were admitted to psychiatric hospitals: Select one: a. confirmed that participation in a research study alters the behaviors of research participants. b. demonstrated that labeling a person changes the person's behavior. c. showed that the environment influences how a person's behavior is interpreted. d. showed that "central traits" have a greater impact than other traits on impression formation.

Rosenhan's (1973) pseudopatient study confirmed that impression formation is affected by the context in which it occurs. Answer C is correct: Individuals (confederates) who were admitted to a psychiatric hospital as the result of their claim of hearing voices were subsequently judged by the staff (and, to a lesser degree, by fellow patients) as being schizophrenic even though they had stopped faking symptoms and acted normally when interacting with staff and patients. Rosenhan concluded that these results demonstrated the impact of the social environment on impression formation. The correct answer is: showed that the environment influences how a person's behavior is interpreted.

Bateson and his colleagues (1956) described double-bind communication as...

Schizophrenia Bateson et al. (1956) identified double-bind communication as an etiological factor in the development of Schizophrenia in a family member. Double-bind communication involves receipt of contradictory messages (often one verbal and one nonverbal) with an inability to comment on those messages.

Magical thinking, depression, ideas of reference, paranoia, discomfort in social situations, and inappropriate affect are most characteristic of which of the following disorders? Select one: a. Schizoaffective Personality Disorder b. Schizoid Personality Disorder c. Schizotypal Personality Disorder d. Borderline Personality Disorder

Schizotypal Personality Disorder Answer C is correct: Schizotypal Personality Disorder is diagnosed in the presence of pervasive social and interpersonal deficits and eccentricities in cognition, perception, and behavior.

A national survey finds that, while most people are in favor of integration in the workplace, the majority also oppose affirmative action. This finding is best explained by which of the following? a. illusory correlation b. contact hypothesis c. symbolic racism d. scapegoat theory

Sears and his colleagues (e.g., Sears, 1988) have proposed that traditional blatant forms of racism have been replaced by more subtle forms. Answer C is correct: Symbolic racism is characterized by a tendency to support equality as an abstract principle while opposing concrete methods for achieving it.

Serotonin

Serotonin is the key hormone that stabilizes our mood, feelings of well-being, and happiness. This hormone impacts your entire body. It enables brain cells and other nervous system cells to communicate with each other. Serotonin also helps with sleeping, eating, and digestion. Low levels of serotonin in the brain may cause depression, anxiety, and sleep trouble. Many doctors will prescribe a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) to treat depression. They're the most commonly prescribed type of antidepressant.

The levels-of-processing model distinguishes between three levels...

Shallow Processing 1. Structural processing (appearance) which is when we encode only the physical qualities of something. E.g. the typeface of a word or how the letters look. 2. Phonemic processing - which is when we encode its sound. Shallow processing only involves maintenance rehearsal (repetition to help us hold something in the STM) and leads to fairly short-term retention of information. This is the only type of rehearsal to take place within the multi-store model. Deep Processing 3. Semantic processing, which happens when we encode the meaning of a word and relate it to similar words with similar meaning. Deep processing involves elaboration rehearsal which involves a more meaningful analysis (e.g. images, thinking, associations etc.) of information and leads to better recall. For example, giving words a meaning or linking them with previous knowledge.

Alpha waves are replaced by theta waves during ________ sleep. Select one: a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 d. stage 4

Sleep is divided into five stages on the basis of the EEG pattern: Stages 1 through 4 and REM. Answer A is correct: Immediately before falling asleep a person is in a state of drowsiness that is characterized by alpha waves. Then, during stage 1 sleep, alpha waves are replaced by theta waves.

The first use of meta-analysis to evaluate the effectiveness of psychotherapy is attributed to: Select one: a. Jacobson and Christensen. b. Eysenck. c. Smith and Glass. d. Howard and colleagues

Smith and Glass. It was not until the 1970s that the term "meta-analysis" was introduced by Smith and Glass who also refined the technique and were the first to apply it to psychotherapy outcome studies. It was not until the 1970s that the term "meta-analysis" was introduced by Smith and Glass who also refined the technique and were the first to apply it to psychotherapy outcome studies.

Dr. Terry Tawlk includes two testimonials in a brochure describing his weekend communications workshop for couples. The first is from a colleague and states, "Communication is a key to a happy marriage and Dr. Tawlk is one of the leading experts on communication. If you feel you can't talk to your partner, I'd recommend Dr. Tawlk's workshop. It's likely to have a positive effect on your relationship." The second testimonial is from a former workshop participant who said Dr. Tawlk could use an excerpt from a letter she sent him following the workshop that she and her husband attended. It states, "It worked! I can now tell my husband what I need without it turning into a major argument!" Which of the following is true about the testimonials included in Dr. Tawlk's brochure? Select one: a. They are both unethical since testimonials are prohibited under any circumstances. b. The testimonial from the colleague is unethical but the testimonial from the former client is acceptable. c. The testimonial from the former client is unethical but the testimonial from the colleague is acceptable. d. The testimonials do not seem to violate the provisions of the Ethics Code and are acceptable.

Standard 5.05 of the Ethics Code does not prohibit the use of testimonials but prohibits psychologists from soliciting them from "current therapy clients or patients or other persons who ... are vulnerable to undue influence." Answer D is correct: The testimonials described in this question do not violate the provisions of Standard 5.05. In addition, they do not appear to be false, deceptive, or misleading and, therefore, do not violate other requirements of the Ethics Code. The correct answer is: The testimonials do not seem to violate the provisions of the Ethics Code and are acceptable.

norm-referenced tests

Tests where a student's performance is compared with a norm group, or a representative sampling students similar to the student. A person's score on a norm-referenced test describes how the student did in relation to the norm group. Tests results are reported in such formats as standard scores or percentiles. test is useful for comparing the performance of an examinee to individuals in the norm group.

cingulate gyrus

The cingulate gyrus is the curved fold covering the corpus callosum. A component of the limbic system, it is involved in processing emotions and behavior regulation. It also helps to regulate autonomic motor function.

A score of 24 or higher on the Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) suggests which of the following? Select one: a. normal functioning b. depression c. delirium d. dementia or psychosis

The MMSE consists of 11 items designed to assess six aspects of cognitive functioning in older adults: orientation, registration, attention and calculation, recall, language, and visual construction. Answer A is correct: Scores on the MMSE range from 0 to 30, with higher scores indicating better cognitive functioning. A score above 23 suggests normal cognitive functioning. The correct answer is: normal functioning

content validity

The degree to which the content of a test is representative of the domain it's supposed to cover.

mammillary bodies

The primary function associated with the mammillary bodies is recollective memory. Memory information begins within the hippocampus. The mammillary bodies are part of the hypothalamus and are involved in learning and memory. Damage can result in anterograde amnesia.

Which of the following structures is part of the hindbrain? Select one: a. reticular formation b. hypothalamus c. medulla oblongata d. cingulate cortex

The hindbrain is located behind the midbrain. Answer C is correct: The hindbrain consists of the medulla (which is also known as the medulla oblongata), the pons, and the cerebellum. Hindbrain, also called rhombencephalon, region of the developing vertebrate brain that is composed of the medulla oblongata, the pons, and the cerebellum. The hindbrain coordinates functions that are fundamental to survival, including respiratory rhythm, motor activity, sleep, and wakefulness.

Which of the following is NOT a healthcare approach? Select one: a. The private model b. The identity development model c. The Bismarck model d. The Beveridge model

The identity development model

Berkowitz's (1971) version of the frustration-aggression hypothesis proposes that frustration creates a readiness for aggression but that the expression of aggression also requires which of the following? Select one: a. an expectation that aggression will be reinforced b. the belief that aggression is effective c. high levels of physiological arousal d. the presence of an aggressive cue

The original frustration-aggression hypothesis has been modified to include other factors. Answer D is correct: Research by Berkowitz and colleagues found that frustration was more likely to lead to aggression in the presence of a gun or other aggressive cue. The correct answer is: the presence of an aggressive cue

The primary purpose of the state and provincial licensing boards is to: Select one: a. protect the profession of psychology. b. protect the public. c. define ethical standards of conduct. d. define standards of care.

The primary purpose of the licensing boards is to protect the public. Answer B is correct: To achieve this goal, the boards establish minimum standards of competence for psychologists including degree, supervision, and examination requirements. The correct answer is: protect the public.

suprachiasmatic nucleus

The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is a bilateral structure located in the anterior part of the hypothalamus. It is the central pacemaker of the circadian timing system and regulates most circadian rhythms in the body The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is also part of the hypothalamus and mediates the sleep-wake cycle and other circadian rhythms.

Lesions to the right (non-dominant) hemisphere would most likely produce: Select one: a. ataxia. b. coma. c. catastrophic reactions. d. indifference or euphoria.

The two hemispheres play somewhat different roles in the regulation of emotion. Answer D is correct: Areas in the right hemisphere mediate negative emotions, and damage to these areas can produce indifference, apathy, or undue cheerfulness.

Telepsychology is generally defined as: Select one: a. The use of the telephone, text, e-mail, chats, interactive tele-video conferencing technologies, or VR for treatment of mental health disorders b. Watching a psychologist on television c. A video-chat session with a therapist who lives in another state d. Texting an anonymous crisis hotline

The use of the telephone, text, e-mail, chats, interactive tele-video conferencing technologies, or VR for treatment of mental health disorders

MMPI-2: Validity Indexes

The validity scales in all versions of the MMPI-2 (MMPI-2 and RF) contain three basic types of validity measures: those that were designed to detect non-responding or inconsistent responding (CNS, VRIN, TRIN), those designed to detect when clients are over reporting or exaggerating the prevalence or severity of psychological symptoms (F, Fb, Fp, FBS), and those designed to detect when test-takers are under-reporting or downplaying psychological symptoms (L, K, S). A new addition to the validity scales for the MMPI-2-RF includes an over reporting scale of somatic symptoms (Fs) as well as revised versions of the validity scales of the MMPI-2 (VRIN-r, TRIN-r, F-r, Fp-r, FBS-r, L-r, and K-r).

A psychologist sets up a private practice in a lower middle-class urban neighborhood. After several months, he realizes that his lack of clients is due primarily to the fact that most of the residents of the neighborhood cannot afford his hourly fee. He therefore decides that he will include in future advertisements a statement indicating that his services are provided on a "sliding scale." This practice is: Select one: a. clearly unethical since sliding scale fees are prohibited by ethical guidelines. b. clearly unethical since including information on fees in advertisements is prohibited by ethical guidelines. c. clearly unethical since advertising professional services is prohibited by ethical guidelines. d. in accord with ethical guidelines.

This question addresses two issues - advertising and fees. Answer D is correct: Sliding scale fees are ethically acceptable as long as fee arrangements are made clear from the onset of treatment and the fee policy is fair and non-exploitative. Advertising one's professional services and fee policy are also acceptable. The correct answer is: in accord with ethical guidelines.

A test developer uses a sample of 50 current employees to identify items for and then validate a new selection test (predictor). When she correlates scores on the test with scores on a measure of job performance (criterion) for this sample, she obtains a criterion-related validity coefficient of .63. When the test developer administers the test and the measure of job performance to a new sample of 50 employees, she will most likely obtain a validity coefficient that is: Select one: a. greater than .63. b. less than .63. c. about .63. d. negative in value.

This question is asking about "shrinkage," which occurs when a test is cross-validated on another sample. Answer B is correct: The validity coefficient tends to "shrink" (be smaller) on the second sample because the test was tailor-made for the initial sample and the chance factors that contributed to the validity coefficient in the initial sample will not all be present in the second sample. The correct answer is: less than .63.

"Vicarious liability" is most likely to be a concern when a psychologist is acting in the role of: Select one: a. supervisor. b. advocate. c. faculty member. d. radio talk show host.

Under certain circumstances, supervisors may be legally responsible for the actions of their supervisees. Answer A is correct: The determination of vicarious liability ordinarily rests on the disparity in training and experience between the supervisor and supervisee and the level of responsibility the supervisor has for the supervisee's actions. The correct answer is: supervisor.

Research by Werner and Smith (1982) found that a high-risk baby is least likely to suffer long-term negative consequences if: Select one: a. he or she has a higher-than-average IQ. b. his or her mother doesn't work outside the home. c. he or she has a large family. d. he or she is socially responsive.

Werner and Smith's (1982) identified several protective factors for high risk infants and children. These are described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials. Answer D is correct: An easy temperament was found to be one of the protective factors for high-risk children -- i.e., those who had good responsivity and communication skills at an early age had better outcomes. The correct answer is: he or she is socially responsive.

Acute Stress Disorder (ASD)

a disorder resulting from exposure to a major stressor, with symptoms of anxiety, dissociation, recurring nightmares, sleep disturbances, problems in concentration, and moments in which people seem to "relive" the event in dreams and flashbacks for as long as 1 month following the event requires exposure to actual or threatened death, severe injury, or sexual violation and at least nine symptoms from any one of five categories (intrusion, negative mood, dissociative symptoms, avoidance symptoms, arousal symptoms).

path analysis

a form of multivariate analysis in which the causal relationships among variables are presented in a graphic format Path analysis is a causal modeling technique that is an extension of multiple regression and is used to test a theory about the causal relationships among a set of variables.

The initial identification of the personality traits that are included in the "Big Five" was based on which of the following? Select one: a. empirical criterion keying b. the "logical content" method c. a lexical approach d. item response theory

a lexical approach The Big Five personality traits are extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, neuroticism, and openness to experience. Answer C is correct: Identification of these traits was based on an atheoretical lexical approach that assumes that all socially relevant personality characteristics are encoded in language.

Lewinsohn's (1974) behavioral model attributes depression to: Select one: a. internal, stable, and global attributions for negative life events. b. inadequate stimulus discrimination. c. emotion dysregulation. d. a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement.

a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement. Lewinsohn's theory is based on the principles of operant conditioning and attributes depression to low rates of response-contingent reinforcement.

elaborative rehearsal

a method of transferring information from STM into LTM by making that information meaningful in some way

sympathetic nervous system

a set of nerves that prepares the body for action in challenging or threatening situations

conduction aphasia

a speech disorder characterized by the inability to repeat words with intact spontaneous speech production and comprehension; usually due to injury to the arcuate fasciculus fluent output, impaired repetition, intact comprehension.

correlation coefficient

a statistical measure of the extent to which two factors vary together, and thus of how well either factor predicts the other Correlation coefficients are used to measure how strong a relationship is between two variables. There are several types of correlation coefficient, but the most popular is Pearson's. Pearson's correlation (also called Pearson's R) is a correlation coefficient commonly used in linear regression. If you're starting out in statistics, you'll probably learn about Pearson's R first. In fact, when anyone refers to the correlation coefficient, they are usually talking about Pearson's.

multiple regression analysis

a statistical technique which analyzes the linear relationship between a dependent variable and multiple independent variables by estimating coefficients for the equation for a straight line

Differential Validity

a test is valid for one group, but less or totally invalid for another

suppressor variable

a test variable that prevents a genuine relationship from appearing at the zero-order level

Instrumentation

a threat to internal validity when there are inconsistencies in data collection

As described by Gerald Caplan, "theme interference" is: Select one: a. a barrier to primary prevention. b. a type of transference. c. a contributor to family dysfunction. d. a hindrance to positive health behavior.

a type of transference Caplan described theme interference as a type of transference that occurs when a past unresolved conflict related to a particular type of client or situation interferes with a consultant's ability to remain objective in a current situation.

In feminist therapy, if a client says she feels that the therapist is in a position of power over her, the therapist is most likely to: Select one: a. provide empathic support. b. use the power differential to therapeutic advantage. c. acknowledge the inherent power differential. d. reassure the client that the relationship is egalitarian.

acknowledge the inherent power differential A feminist therapist's first reaction to concerns about the power differential is to acknowledge it and then to work toward minimizing it. A concern for feminist therapists is the power differential that is inherent in the therapist-client relationship.

accommodation

adapting our current understandings (schemas) to incorporate new information

reliability coefficient

an index of reliability, a proportion that indicates the ratio between the true score variance on a test and the total variance Various kinds of reliability coefficients, with values ranging between 0.00 (much error) and 1.00 (no error), are usually used to indicate the amount of error in the scores." For example, measurements of people's height and weight are often extremely reliable. As a general rule, a reliability of 0.80 or higher is desirable for instructor-made tests. The higher the reliability estimated for the test, the more confident one may feel that the discriminations between students scoring at different score levels on the test are, in fact, stable differences.

Shaping

an operant conditioning procedure in which reinforcers guide behavior toward closer and closer approximations of the desired behavior

negative reinforcer

an unpleasant stimulus whose removal leads to an increase in the probability that a preceding response will be repeated in the future

Lewis and his colleagues identified four types of intraindividual conflict:

approach-approach, It occurs when a person has to choose between two positive and equally attractive alternatives. For example, choosing between promotion in the organization or a new job with another firm. avoidance-avoidance, It occurs when a person has to choose between two negative and equally unattractive alternatives. For example, to make a choice between accepting a job transfer to another town or have the employment terminated. approach-avoidance, It occurs when a person has to choose between something that has both positive and negative results. For example, accepting or not accepting a job with a higher pay but with increased responsibilities that demand a lot of personal time. double approach-avoidance, a complex conflict situation arising when a person is confronted with two goals or options that each have significant attractive and unattractive features.

As described by Jung, __________ are universal, generationally transmitted images that structure how people perceive their experiences. Select one: a. psychic schemata b. basic mistakes c. polarities d. archetypes

archetypes Jung described archetypes as "primordial images" that emerge in the form of dreams and visions and cause people to experience and understand certain phenomena in a universal way. Jung's archetypes are elements of the collective unconscious and include the anima and animus, the shadow, and the self.

A solution-focused therapist is working with a husband and wife whose conversations frequently escalate to bitter fights. The therapist will most likely: Select one: a. reduce tension during therapy sessions by having the husband and wife talk directly to her rather than to each other. b. instruct the couple to take a ten-minute "time-out" whenever they begin to argue at home. c. ask the couple if they can remember a time when they were able to talk for an extended period without arguing. d. instruct the couple to argue with each other for at least one hour each evening.

ask the couple if they can remember a time when they were able to talk for an extended period without arguing. The therapist is asking the couple to identify an exception to their problematic behavior, which is one of the techniques used by solution-focused therapists to identify solutions.

During the initial session with an American Indian family, a White therapist would be best advised to: Select one: a. refer the family to an American Indian therapist. b. ensure that she establishes a "value free" environment. c. assess each family member's level of acculturation before developing a treatment plan. d. treat the family like any other family unless she sees reason to do otherwise.

assess each family member's level of acculturation before developing a treatment plan. An initial step when working with clients from culturally diverse groups is to identify the client's stage of racial or ethnic identity development, degree of acculturation, and worldview.

The diagnosis of Bipolar II Disorder requires...

at least one major depressive episode and one hypomanic episode.

The goals of Gestalt therapy include helping the client recognize and satisfy needs and accept polarities that exist within his or her personality. A psychologist using a Gestalt approach would consider the key to achieving these goals to be which of the following? Select one: a. congruence b. awareness c. unconditional positive regard d. cognitive restructuring

awareness According to Gestalt principles, awareness of thoughts, emotions, behaviors, etc. in the "here-and-now" is sufficient to cause desired changes. According to Gestalt theory, a well-functioning person is able to see the entirety of his or her immediate experience (i.e., the "gestalt").

A structural family therapist would most likely use which of the following techniques when working with a family consisting of a mother and father who constantly argue, a teenage son who is overly dependent on his mother, and a 9-year-old daughter who has asthma and other physical symptoms? Select one: a. pointing out and discussing the origins of dysfunctional transactions between family members when they occur b. helping the parents understand how unresolved family-of-origin issues are impacting their relationships with each other and their children c. becoming therapeutically "triangled" into the spousal dyad to reduce tension and increase stability d. blending with the family by adopting its language, behaviors, and style

blending with the family by adopting its language, behaviors, and style A distinctive feature of Minuchin's structural family therapy is its use of "joining."

Non-REM Sleep Arousal Disorder and Nightmare disorder

both involve awakening during sleep with autonomic arousal, but episodes associated with Nightmare Disorder usually occur later in the night during REM sleep. In addition, a person with Nightmare Disorder recalls having a dream that involved a threat to his or her survival or security.

Quadriplegia (loss of functioning in the arms and legs) results from damage at the

cervical level

six bases of power identified by French and Raven:

coercive, Coercive power uses the threat of force to gain compliance from another. Force may include physical, social, emotional, political, or economic means. Coercion is not always recognized by the target of influence.[7] This type of power is based upon the idea of coercion. expert, Expert power is based on what one knows, experience, and special skills or talents.[7] Expertise can be demonstrated by reputation, credentials certifying expertise, and actions. referent, A person has referent power when he or she is admired, liked, or respected by other people and or or is viewed as a role model. legitimate, Legitimate power comes from an elected, selected, or appointed position of authority and may be underpinned by social norms.[4] This power which means the ability to administer to another certain feelings of obligation or the notion of responsibility.[10] "Rewarding and Punishing subordinates is generally seen as a legitimate part of the formal or appointed leadership role and most managerial positions in work organizations carry with them, some degree of expected reward and punishment."[12] This type of formal power relies on position in an authority hierarchy. informational, Informational is the ability of an agent of influence to bring about change through the resource of information.[2] Raven arguably believed that power as a potential influence logically meant that information was a form of influence and the social power base of Information Power was derived.[2] Informational influence results in cognition and acceptance by the target of influence.

identity achievement

commitment to values, beliefs, and goals following a period of exploration

t-test for independent samples

compares 2 means derived from unrelated samples The t-test for independent samples is used to compare means obtained from two independent groups (samples).

Sleep stages and EEG waves associated

complete cycle of stages lasts ~ 90 minutes Stage 1: theta waves Stage 2: theta waves, sleep spindles, and k complexes Stage 3 and 4: delta waves - slow wave sleep (associated with cognitive recovery, memory consolidation [declarative], and increased GH release) - predominates at the beginning of the night REM: predominates later in the night

Sleep and EEG waves associated

complete cycle of stages lasts ~ 90 minutes Stage 1: theta waves Stage 2: theta waves, sleep spindles, and k complexes Stage 3 and 4: delta waves - slow wave sleep (associated with cognitive recovery, memory consolidation [declarative], and increased GH release) - predominates at the beginning of the night REM: predominates later in the night

As described by Alfred Adler, a healthy style of life is characterized by: Select one: a. congruence between self and experience. b. awareness of one's thoughts, feelings, and actions in the here-and-now. c. confidence, optimism, and concern about the welfare of others. d. integration of conscious and unconscious elements of the psyche.

confidence, optimism, and concern about the welfare of others. Adler distinguished between a healthy and an unhealthy style of life and proposed that social interest is the factor that distinguishes between the two. A person with a healthy style of life is concerned about the welfare of others. Style of life is a key concept in Adler's individual psychology.

To gain "idiosyncrasy credits," you would: Select one: a. create and communicate a vision for organizational change. b. acquire skills beyond those needed to perform your job. c. consistently conform to group norms. d. help subordinates link personal goals to organizational goals.

consistently conform to group norms. For the exam, you want to have idiosyncrasy credits linked to conformity to group norms. Answer C is correct: Idiosyncrasy credits allow a group member to occasionally deviate from group norms. Methods for accumulating idiosyncrasy credits include having a history of conforming to group norms, being the group leader, and making outstanding contributions to the group.

During Kohlberg's postconventional stage, moral judgments are based on: Select one: a. democratically determined laws or universal ethical principles. b. rules and laws established by a legitimate authority. c. the direct consequences of the act. d. a desire to obtain social approval.

democratically determined laws or universal ethical principles. Answer A is correct: The postconventional level is the third (and final) level in Kohlberg's model and includes two substages -- Morality of Contract, Individual Rights, and Democratically Accepted Laws and Morality of Individual Principles of Conscience.

summative evaluation

determine if you have met learning objectives is conducted after a program or intervention has been developed and delivered to evaluate its effectiveness.

Eta is used to: a. determine the correlation for two variables that are both measured on a nominal scale. b. determine the correlation for two variables that have a nonlinear relationship. c. determine if the relationship between three or more variables is statistically significant. d. determine the degree of association between two or more continuous variables.

determine the correlation for two variables that have a nonlinear relationship.

Dr. Blitz has been seeing a client for four months. The client mentioned that he is very dissatisfied with the progress of therapy in the last two sessions. Dr. Blitz should: Select one: a. tell the client that he can't expect major changes in only four months. b. encourage the client to schedule more frequent sessions. c. help the client work through his resistance. d. discuss the matter with the client and provide him with referrals if he desires.

discuss the matter with the client and provide him with referrals if he desires. Answer D is correct: Standard 10.10(a) states that psychologists must terminate therapy when it is reasonably clear that the client is no longer benefiting from it. Even though four months is not a long duration for therapy in many situations, the client should not be pressured to continue.

Projection

disguising one's own threatening impulses by attributing them to others involves attributing a threatening impulse to another person.

Difficulties in phonological processing have been linked to: Select one: a. stuttering. b. Intellectual Disability. c. dyslexia. d. Tourette's Disorder.

dyslexia Phonological processing refers to the ability to process the phonological features of words (i.e., the ability to understand how sounds combine to form words). Problems in phonological processing have been linked to reading disabilities (e.g., dyslexia) and other learning disorders.

A therapy client says, "I feel useless and incompetent and, therefore, I must be a worthless, incompetent person." As described by Aaron Beck, this is an example of: Select one: a. selective abstraction. b. overgeneralization. c. personalization. d. emotional reasoning.

emotional reasoning. Answer D is correct: Emotional reasoning occurs when a person believes that things are a certain way because he or she feels they are that way (i.e., "I feel, therefore I am").

A 34-year-old woman is convinced that her boss is in love with her despite that fact that there is irrefutable evidence that her belief is false. The woman's belief is an example of which of the following? Select one: a. grandiose delusion b. erotomanic delusion c. idea of reference d. illusion

erotomanic delusion A person who believes that another person (usually of higher status) is in love with him or her despite incontrovertible evidence to the contrary is experiencing an erotomanic delusion.

identity moratorium

exploration without having reached commitment

Studies using the dismantling strategy suggest that which of the following is most responsible for the therapeutic benefits of systematic desensitization? Select one: a. counterconditioning b. exposure c. positive reinforcement d. blocking

exposure Answer B is correct: The dismantling strategy involves comparing the components of an intervention to determine which components are responsible for the intervention's effects. Research using this strategy has found that the key component of systematic desensitization is exposure to the feared stimulus (CS) without the US, which results in extinction of the CR.

incremental validity

extent to which a test contributes information beyond other more easily collected measures

When faced with a feared stimulus, a person with Specific Phobia, blood-injection-injury type will most likely: Select one: a. faint. b. fall asleep. c. scream. d. have a seizure.

faint. The blood-injection-injury type differs from other Specific Phobias in terms of the physical reaction to feared stimuli: For people with this type, feared stimuli produce an initial increase in heart rate and blood pressure that is immediately followed by a drop in both and, as a consequence, fainting.

Savin-Williams and Diamond (2000) compared the compared the sexual identity trajectories of male and female sexual minority youth in terms of the four milestones of male and female sexual minority youth and found that gay males had an earlier onset than lesbians for all milestones except: Select one: a. first same-sex attraction. b. self-labeling as a homosexual. c. first same-sex sexual contact. d. first disclosure of sexual orientation.

first disclosure of sexual orientation. These investigators found that adolescent males had an earlier onset for all milestones except first disclosure of sexual orientation to another person (i.e., the age at first disclosure was not significantly different for males and females).

needs analysis

form of program evaluation that occurs before a program begins and determines whether the program is needed

Hypnopompic hallucinations

hallucinations that occur when awakening from sleep; seen in narcolepsy

For a diagnosis of Schizophrenia, the DSM-5 requires the presence of two or more active phase symptoms for at least one month with at least one symptom being: Select one: a. hallucinations, delusions, or disorganized speech. b. hallucinations, delusions, or grossly disorganized behavior. c. anhedonia, avolition, or other negative symptom. d. depersonalization or derealization.

hallucinations, delusions, or disorganized speech. The diagnosis of Schizophrenia requires the presence of two or more active phase symptoms for at least one month and continuous signs of the disturbance for at least six months. It also requires at least one active phase symptom to be hallucinations, delusions, or disorganized speech.

The research suggests that a person with Anorexia Nervosa restricts his or her food intake to alleviate restlessness, anxiety, and obsessive thinking, which are caused by: Select one: a. higher-than-normal levels of serotonin. b. lower-than-normal levels of serotonin. c. higher-than-normal levels of dopamine. d. lower-than-normal levels of dopamine.

higher-than-normal levels of serotonin.

visuo-spatial sketchpad (Baddeley's Model)

holds and works with information about what we see (slave to central executive)

Bandura's notion of reciprocal determinism is useful for explaining: Select one: a. how a more desirable response can be used to replace an undesirable response. b. how the individual and his or her environment influence each other. c. how learning can occur without being manifested in performance. d. why a behavior is performed without being internally or externally reinforced.

how the individual and his or her environment influence each other.

Grave's Disease/ hyperthyroidism

hyperactivity, sensitivity to heat, weight loss, tachycardia, diarhea, expphthalumis( bulging eyes), nervousness, jittery, Grave's disease is another name for hyperthyroidism, which is caused by hypersecretion of thyroxin and is associated with an elevated body temperature, increased appetite with weight loss, emotional lability, and reduced attention span.

complex partial seizure

in epilepsy, a type of seizure that doesn't involve the entire brain and therefore can cause a wide variety of symptoms A complex partial seizure is a type of seizure that arises in one lobe of the brain, rather than the whole brain. The seizure affects people's awareness and may cause them to lose consciousness.

According to Carl Rogers, which of the following leads to disorganization of the self? Select one: a. chronic boundary disturbances b. incongruence between self and experience c. inadequate resolution of the splitting of self and object d. an inability to fulfill one's needs in a responsible way

incongruence between self and experience Rogers proposed that the self becomes disorganized when the individual experiences incongruence between self and experience, which occurs when he or she is exposed to conditions of worth. The self is a central concept in Rogers's person-centered therapy.

negative reinforcement

increasing the strength of a given response by removing or preventing a painful stimulus when the response occurs

Kohler's (1925) research with chimpanzees led to his description of which of the following? Select one: a. cognitive maps b. observational learning c. insight learning d. "superstitious" behavior

insight learning Kohler's research led him to conclude that learning can be the result of an "aha" experience. Answer C is correct: Kohler proposed that learning can be the result of insight (an "aha" experience) that reflects an internal cognitive restructuring of the environment that allows the organism to achieve its goals.

Psychomotor skills

integration of cognitive and motor activities Psychomotor learning is demonstrated by physical skills such as movement, coordination, manipulation, dexterity, grace, strength, speed—actions which demonstrate the fine or gross motor skills, such as use of precision instruments or tools, and walking.

A Freudian psychoanalyst is most likely to describe ___________ as explicitly connecting current behavior to unconscious processes. Select one: a. interpretation b. clarification c. confrontation d. working through

interpretation The goal of interpretation is to explicitly connect the client's current behavior to unconscious processes and is most effective when it addresses motives and conflicts close to the client's consciousness.

Platykurtic distribution

is flatter than the normal distribution -- i.e., scores are more evenly distributed throughout the distribution.

Self-in-relation theory is an approach to feminist object relations theory and differs from traditional object relations theory in: Select one: a. its denial of basic gender differences. b. its incorporation of biological factors into interpersonal explanations for gender differences. c. its explanation of gender differences in terms of same-gender versus opposite-gender influences in the mother-child relationship. d. its minimization of the mother's role in determining gender differences.

its explanation of gender differences in terms of same-gender versus opposite-gender influences in the mother-child relationship. According to this view, the mother's socialization practices differ, depending on the gender of her child. Specifically, girls are taught to stay connected (attached) to the mother, while boys are taught to separate. Feminist therapists have discussed how this difference contributes to gender differences in a variety of domains (e.g., achievement, moral development). Self-in-relation theorists (e.g., Okun, 1990) extend traditional object relations theory by emphasizing the differences in socialization that occur because of the same-gender versus opposite-gender relationship between mother and child.

When working with a middle-aged Asian couple who recently immigrated to the United States, a therapist is best advised to adopt the role of: Select one: a. knowledgeable expert. b. egalitarian collaborator. c. interested listener. d. friendly coach.

knowledgeable expert. Of the roles listed in the responses, this one best describes the most effective role for therapists working with Asian clients, especially those who are recent immigrants. Asian and Asian-American clients, especially those who have a strong ethnic identity or who have not assimilated into the dominant (mainstream) culture, generally prefer structured goal-oriented approaches to therapy.

One disadvantage of empirically derived Biographical Information Blanks (BIBs) is they may contain items that: Select one: a. lack face validity. b. contribute to differential validity. c. are difficult to administer and score. d. are useful for skilled and semi-skilled jobs only.

lack face validity Answer A is correct: A disadvantage of BIBs and other empirically derived forms is that their items often lack face validity -- i.e., even though they address information that has been linked to job performance, they may not "look like" they are clearly linked to performance. As a result, applicants may feel that the form is asking for irrelevant information and that their privacy is being invaded. BIBs are a type of empirically derived biodata form that consists of multiple-choice items that address information that has been linked to job performance. Because BIBs contain multiple-choice items, they are easy to administer and score. BIBs can be developed for many different types of jobs.

A Chinese American client tells you that he doesn't identify with either the Chinese or the White culture. In terms of Berry et al.'s (1987) model of acculturation, this client is best described as: Select one: a. separated. b. marginalized. c. alienated. d. encapsulated.

marginalized. According to Berry, a person is marginalized when he or she does not accept the characteristics of either culture (his or her own culture or the dominant culture). Berry and his colleagues describe acculturation status in terms of four categories: integration, assimilation, separation, and marginalization.

In comparison to repressed memories recalled without hypnosis, under hypnosis, you would be most likely to recall: Select one: a. more memories in general with more false memories. b. more memories in general with fewer false memories. c. fewer memories in general with more false memories. d. fewer memories in general with fewer false memories.

more memories in general with more false memories. The studies have found that hypnosis produces more memories but that many of these memories are inaccurate or confabulated. The results of research suggest that using hypnosis to help individuals recall repressed memories can have negative consequences.

the three methods for using scores on multiple predictors...

multiple cutoff, identifying the minimum passing level for each step in the selection process and eliminating job applicants who fail to meet each criteria multiple regression, an associative forecasting method with more than one independent variable multiple hurdle, process of arriving at a selection decision by eliminating some candidates at each stage of the selection process

Which of the following techniques would be most useful for combining test scores when superior performance on one test can compensate for poor performance on another test? Select one: a. multiple cutoff b. multiple regression c. multiple hurdle d. multidimensional scaling

multiple regression Answer B is correct: Multiple regression is a compensatory technique for combining test scores. When using this technique, a low score on one test can be offset (compensated for) by a high score on another tests. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the three methods for using scores on multiple predictors -- i.e., multiple cutoff, multiple regression, and multiple hurdle.

Which of the following groups has the highest rate of admission as inpatients to state and county psychiatric hospitals? Select one: a. married men b. never married men c. married women d. never married women

never married men The data indicate that never married men have the highest rate of admission

The four scales of measurement are:

nominal, A Nominal Scale is a measurement scale, in which numbers serve as "tags" or "labels" only, to identify or classify an object. A nominal scale measurement normally deals only with non-numeric (quantitative) variables or where numbers have no value. A nominal scale only divides variables into categories and provides no information about the order of those categories (e.g., gender, DSM diagnosis, place of birth). ordinal, An ordinal scale divides observations into categories and provides information on the order of those categories. Ranking people in terms of weight is an example of an ordinal scale. When people are ranked in terms of weight, you know that the person with a higher ranking weighs more than a person with a lower ranking but you don't know the actual difference in their weights. interval, An interval scale provides more information than an ordinal scale -- i.e., when using an interval scale, you know that the difference between scores of 40 and 45 is the same as the difference between scores of 80 and 85. However, because an interval scale does not have an absolute zero point, you can't conclude that 80 is twice as much as 40. ratio, The ratio scale provides the greatest information. Because it has an absolute zero point, you can conclude that one score is twice as much as another -- for example, that a person who weighs 100 pounds weighs twice as much as a person who weighs 50 pounds.

Research investigating the effectiveness of cognitive-behavioral therapy as a treatment for depression for older adults suggests that: Select one: a. older adults benefit from cognitive-behavioral therapy when its duration is brief (less than 12 sessions). b. older adults benefit from cognitive-behavioral therapy, especially when it is conducted at a slower pace. c. older adults benefit from cognitive-behavioral therapy only when their therapist is the same gender and similar in terms of age. d. older adults are not likely to benefit from cognitive-behavioral therapy.

older adults benefit from cognitive-behavioral therapy, especially when it is conducted at a slower pace. While older adults generally benefit from cognitive-behavioral therapy, its effects are maximized when it is modified to fit the needs of members of this population. One effective modification is to present therapy at a slower pace.

A psychology intern responds to her supervisor in the same way that a new client is responding to her (the intern) in therapy. This is referred to as: Select one: a. projective identification. b. the therapeutic double-bind. c. diagnostic overshadowing. d. parallel process.

parallel process Parallel process involves a combination of transference, countertransference, and projection in the client-supervisee-supervisor relationship and occurs when a supervisee (e.g., intern) replicates problems in the supervisor-supervisee relationship that are occurring in the supervisee-client relationship.

secondary appraisal

perceptions regarding our ability to cope with an event that follows primary appraisal is the person's evaluation of the resources he or she has to cope with the event.

phonemes vs. morphemes

phonemes- in language, the smallest distinctive sound unit. morphemes- in a language, the smallest unit that carries meaning; may be a word or part of a word (such as a prefix).

cingulate gyrus

plays role in expressing emotions via gestures and resolves mental conflict The cingulate gyrus is the curved fold covering the corpus callosum. A component of the limbic system, it is involved in processing emotions and behavior regulation. It also helps to regulate autonomic motor function The cingulate gyrus is part of the limbic system and is involved in the regulation of aggressive behavior and the coordination of sensory input with emotions, including emotional responses to pain.

A cigarette smoker says that she has decided to quit smoking in the next two weeks and that she plans to use nicotine gum to help her "kick the habit." According to the transtheoretical model, this person is in which of the following stages? Select one: a. preparation b. contemplation c. precontemplation d. action

preparation A person is in the preparation stage when he or she has a clear intent to take action within the next month.

An advantage of using treatment manuals in clinical practice is that they: Select one: a. ensure that the clinician incorporates effective nonspecific factors into an intervention. b. reduce the need for training and supervision in the selection and application of empirically supported treatments. c. make it easier for a clinician to adapt a treatment to the individual needs of a client. d. provide the clinician with concrete examples that illustrate the appropriate application of an intervention.

provide the clinician with concrete examples that illustrate the appropriate application of an intervention. Most current treatment manuals provide information on the delivery of empirically supported treatments and include concrete examples.

In Freudian psychoanalysis, turning an undesirable impulse into its opposite is referred to as: Select one: a. projection. b. reaction formation. c. secondary process. d. catharsis.

reaction formation. Turning an undesirable impulse into its opposite (e.g., hostility into kindness) is the definition of reaction formation, which is one of the defense mechanisms used by the ego to reduce anxiety.

According to Holland's RIASEC model, the social personality type is most dissimilar to which of the following types? Select one: a. conventional b. reflective c. realistic d. enterprising

realistic Holland's RIASEC model distinguishes between six vocational personality types, and his hexagon depicts the relationship between the six types: Types that are located next to each other in the hexagon are most similar in terms of characteristics, while those opposite one another are most dissimilar. Answer C is correct: The relationship between the six types (and their position in the hexagon) is indicated by the acronym RIASEC - realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional. The social type is opposite the realistic type in the hexagon, which indicates that it is most dissimilar to that type.

The DSM's use of polythetic criteria sets is useful for: Select one: a. recognizing the heterogeneity of symptoms for a particular diagnosis. b. identifying comorbid conditions. c. recognizing the impact of medical conditions on a mental disorder. d. prioritizing diagnoses.

recognizing the heterogeneity of symptoms for a particular diagnosis. A polythetic criteria set requires that an individual meet only a subset of the criteria for a given disorder to qualify for that diagnosis. Consequently, people with somewhat different symptoms can be assigned the same diagnosis.

factorial validity

refers to the extent to which a test has high correlations with factors it is expected to correlate with and low correlations with factors it is not expected to correlate with.

According to Cross's Black Racial Identity Development Model, an African American individual in the emersion substage of the immersion-emersion stage will exhibit which of the following? Select one: a. internal conflicts related to his or her attitudes toward Whites b. a lack of interest in race and racism c. rejection of all aspects of White culture d. adoption of a multicultural perspective

rejection of all aspects of White culture Race and racial identity have high salience during the immersion-emersion stage. A person in the immersion substage idealizes Blacks and Black culture and feels a great deal of rage toward Whites. A person in the emersion substage has less intense feelings but continues to reject all aspects of the White culture and begins to internalize a Black identity. The most recent version of Cross's model (Cross and Vandiver, 2001) distinguishes beween four stages of racial identity development: pre-encounter, encounter, immersion-emersion, and internalization. For information about this model, see the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.

As described by Vygotsky, __________ is a temporary aid provided by one person (the "teacher") to encourage, support, and assist a lesser-skilled person (the "learner") acquire a skill or solve a problem. Select one: a. scaffolding b. modeling c. cuing d. stimulus control

scaffolding Vygotsky believed that the acquisition of knowledge and behavior takes place as the result of interactions with others. Answer A is correct: Vygotsky referred to the temporary structure provided by others as scaffolding.

The Bender-Gestalt Test is commonly used as a: a. measure of personality. b. screening test for brain damage. c. measure of field dependence or independence. d. screening test for substance use.

screening test for brain damage. The Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test (Bender-Gestalt) is a brief measure of visual-motor integration that requires the examinee to copy geometric designs. Answer B is correct: The Bender-Gestalt is often used as a screening test for neuropsychological impairment.

Stage 3 of Sleep cycle

sections of delta waves, hard to wake up, wet bed & sleep walk in 3&4

Margaret Mahler traced adult psychopathology to problems related to which of the following? Select one: a. separation-individuation b. congruence between self and experience c. the "primary process" d. self-realization

separation-individuation Mahler described early development as involving several phases and subphases and traced psychopathology in adulthood to problems during the separation-individuation phase.

As defined in the APA's Ethics Code, a psychologist would be violating test security when he: Select one: a. shows a client the questions from a standardized test when discussing the results of the test with the client. b. discusses a client's responses to several test items to help the client understand why she received a low score. c. provides a client with the exact scale and subscale scores she obtained on a standardized test. d. engages in any of the activities described in the above answers.

shows a client the questions from a standardized test when discussing the results of the test with the client. Answer A is correct: Standard 9.11 defines "test materials" as manuals, instruments, protocols, and test questions and states that "psychologists make reasonable efforts to maintain the integrity and security of test materials and other assessment techniques." The Code also distinguishes between test materials and test data, which include raw and scaled scores, client responses to test items, and the psychologist's notes about the client's responses and behaviors during testing. In most circumstances, providing test data to a client is acceptable and does not represent a breach of test security.

During the first therapy session, a therapist asks a client to imagine that she wakes up the next morning and her problem has been solved. He then asks, "When this occurs, what will be the first sign that a miracle has happened?" Apparently, this therapist is a practitioner of: Select one: a. reality therapy. b. personal construct therapy. c. person-centered therapy. d. solution-focused therapy.

solution-focused therapy. The miracle question is used by solution-focused therapists to help clients envision their lives without the presenting problem and identify ways for resolving that problem. The therapist in this question has posed the "miracle question."

Which of the following is most likely to be an accurate description of the relationship between two sisters, ages 14 and 16? Select one: a. emotionally intense b. somewhat distant but egalitarian c. conflictual and resentful d. competitive and aggressive

somewhat distant but egalitarian Answer B is correct: In adolescence, siblings spend less time together, their relationship becomes less emotionally intense and more distant, and the friction between them usually declines as they begin to view one another as equals.

According to Carstensen's (1993) socioemotional selectivity theory, most older adults prefer social relationships: Select one: a. with people of their own social status. b. with people who have had similar life experiences. c. that provide them with emotional intimacy. d. that provide them with opportunities for new experiences.

that provide them with emotional intimacy. An assumption underlying Carstensen's theory is that social goals have two primary functions -- the acquisition of knowledge and the regulation of emotion. Answer C is correct: Socioemotional selectivity theory predicts that social goals correspond to perceptions of time left in life as being limited or unlimited. According to this theory, older adults perceive time as limited and, consequently, tend to prefer emotionally close social relationships.

The Health Belief Model (Becker, 1974) emphasizes which of the following? Select one: a. the individual's locus of control. b. the individual's level of "hardiness." c. the individual's tendency toward optimistic thinking. d. the individual's readiness to take action.

the individual's readiness to take action. The individual's readiness to take a particular action is one of the factors identified by the Health Belief Model and is affected by the person's perceived susceptibility to an illness and perceived severity of that illness.

The standard error of the mean (SEM) decreases as: a. the population standard deviation increases and the sample size increases. b. the population standard deviation increases and the sample size decreases. c. the population standard deviation decreases and the sample size decreases. d. the population standard deviation decreases and the sample size increases.

the population standard deviation decreases and the sample size increases. Answer D is correct: The standard error of the mean is equal to the population standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size. Plugging numbers into this formula proves that the standard error decreases in size as the population standard deviation (numerator) decreases and or the sample size (denominator) increases.

Loss of control of the trunk area is caused by damage at the

thoracic level (especially T1 through T8).

A program designed to improve the interpersonal skills of residents of a retirement community would be classified as a "primary prevention" when it is offered: Select one: a. to residents who have been identified by staff as being socially isolated. b. to residents who are currently being treated for depression. c. to residents who obtain low scores on a measure of interpersonal functioning. d. to all residents who want to participate.

to all residents who want to participate. When a program is offered to all members of a group or population rather than to specific individuals (e.g., to all residents of a retirement community), it is a primary prevention.

The techniques of consciousness raising, social liberation, dramatic relief, self-reevaluation, and reinforcement management are most associated with which of the following? Select one: a. interpersonal therapy b. reality therapy c. transtheoretical model d. personal construct theory

transtheoretical model The transtheoretical model identifies 10 empirically supported strategies that include those listed in this question and proposes that an intervention is most effective when it matches the strategies used to the client's stage of change.

The DSM-5 diagnosis of Persistent Depressive Disorder requires a duration of symptoms of at least ________ in adults and ________ in children and adolescents. Select one: a. three years; one year b. three years; eighteen months c. two years; one year d. one year; six months

two years; one year Persistent Depressive Disorder is also known as Dysthymia and is characterized by the presence of a depressed mood on most days for at least two years in adults and one year in children and adolescents.

Stage 7: Generativity vs. Stagnation (erikson)

(40 - 65) - Marriage/Parenthood - Working cooperatively and productively becomes most important rather than independent goals Successful resolution of this stage results in the virtue known as love. It is marked by the ability to form lasting, meaningful relationships with other people.

Cognitive Distortions: Personalization

- Personalization: Thinking that everything people do or say is some kind of reaction to us. We also compare ourselves to others trying to determine who is smarter, better looking, etc.

reaction formation (defense mechanism)

- Preventing unacceptable thoughts or behaviors from being expressed by exaggerating opposite thoughts or types of behaviors. EX: Jane hates nursing. She attended nursing school to please her parents. During career day, she speaks to prospective students about the excellence of nursing as a career.

Stage 2: Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt

18 months to 3 years; exploration and independent either enforced or not by caregiver "can I do it?" Children who successfully complete this stage feel secure and confident, while those who do not are left with a sense of inadequacy and self-doubt. Erikson believed that achieving a balance between autonomy and shame and doubt would lead to will, which is the belief that children can act with intention, within reason and limits.

It is not until the age of ___ that most children understand that, when the "bad guy" is shot on television, he is not really dead. Select one: a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 10

7 Some investigators interested in the impact of television on children have attempted to determine when children become able to distinguish fact from fantasy. Answer C is correct: The studies have found that it is not until about age seven that children understand that TV characters are actors who are playing roles.

Overcorrection

A behavior change tactic based on positive punishment in which, contingent on the problem behavior, the learner is required to engage in effortful behavior directly or logically related to fixing the damage caused by the behavior

Hawthorne effect

A change in a subject's behavior caused simply by the awareness of being studied

episodic buffer

A component of working memory where information in working memory interacts with information in long term memory (eg. relating information you are processing to a previous memory)

A person is exhibiting a ____________ when she tends to pay more attention to messages and experiences that support her view on a controversial issue while ignoring those that discredit her view. Select one: a. cognitive consistency bias b. confirmation bias c. halo bias d. self-serving bias

A confirmation bias (Silverman, 1992) is the tendency to believe and pay attention to experiences that support our views and ignore experiences that discredit them.

canonical correlation

A correlational technique used when there are two or more X and two or more Y. (Example: The correlation between (age and sex) and (income and life satisfaction) Canonical correlation is the appropriate technique when two or more predictors will be used to predict status on two or more continuous criteria.

limbic system

A doughnut-shaped system of neural structures at the border of the brainstem and cerebral hemispheres; associated with emotions such as fear and aggression and drives such as those for food and sex. Includes the hippocampus, amygdala, and hypothalamus.

implosive therapy

A method for decreasing anxiety by exposing the client to an imaginary anxiety stimulus. The method is risky because overexposure can actually increase anxiety.

Hypothalamus

A neural structure lying below the thalamus; it directs several maintenance activities (eating, drinking, body temperature), helps govern the endocrine system via the pituitary gland, and is linked to emotion and reward.

Serotonin

A neurotransmitter that affects hunger,sleep, arousal, and mood. Low levels of serotonin in the brain may cause depression, anxiety, and sleep trouble.

Premack Principle

A principle that states that making the opportunity to engage in a high-probability behavior contingent on the occurrence of a low-frequency behavior will function as reinforcement for the low-frequency behavior. is a type of positive reinforcement that involves using a high frequency behavior as a reinforcer for a low frequency behavior.

A realistic job preview is most important for: Select one: a. retaining employees. b. maximizing transfer of training. c. attracting talented job applicants. d. reducing selection biases.

A realistic job preview involves providing job applicants with accurate information about the job and the organization. Answer A is correct: Research on realistic job previews has confirmed that they help reduce turnover which, in turn, reduces costs related to selection and training. The correct answer is: retaining employees.

frontal lobe

A region of the cerebral cortex that has specialized areas for movement, abstract thinking, planning, memory, and judgement

One-way ANOVA

A statistical test used to analyze data from an experimental design with one independent variable that has three or more groups (levels). The one-way ANOVA is used to compare means obtained from two or more independent groups.

A psychologist is subpoenaed to testify at a deposition about a current therapy client. This means that the psychologist: Select one: a. must testify about the client as requested. b. must appear at the deposition as requested. c. must provide the requested documents. d. can expect to receive a court order within 60 days.

A subpoena is a legal document that requests the recipient to appear and testify at legal proceeding. Answer B is correct: As noted by R. I. Simon (Clinical psychiatry and the law, Washington, DC, American Psychiatric Publishing, 2003), a subpoena by itself is not "proper legal compulsion" and only requires the psychologist to appear at a deposition or trial, not to testify. After receiving a subpoena, a psychologist should determine if the client has signed a release; if not, the psychologist should assert the privilege rather than provide the information requested in the subpoena when he/she appears at the deposition. The correct answer is: must appear at the deposition as requested.

dialectical behavior therapy (DBT)

A treatment often used for borderline personality disorder that incorporates both cognitive-behavioral and mindfulness elements. help people increase their emotional and cognitive regulation by learning about the triggers that lead to reactive states and helping to assess which coping skills to apply in the sequence of events, thoughts, feelings, and behaviors to help avoid undesired reactions.

_____________ is based on the premise that illness is due to a blockage of vital life energy. Select one: a. Acupuncture b. Reflexology c. Curanderismo d. Hypnosis

Acupuncture Acupuncture is based on the assumption that the body contains a vital life energy (qi) and that blockage of this energy causes illness.

Ella G. was involved in a serious car accident three weeks ago in which her best friend was killed. Since the accident, Ella has experienced a loss of positive feelings toward friends and family members, increased irritability, flashbacks of the accident, an inability to remember what happened in the days following the accident, nightmares about the accident, and derealization. She has been avoiding the intersection where the accident occurred, doesn't like to talk about the accident, and has been having trouble concentrating and sleeping. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Ella is which of the following? Select one: a. Brief Psychotic Disorder b. Adjustment Disorder c. PTSD d. Acute Stress Disorder

Acute Stress Disorder The cause, nature, and duration of Ella's symptoms meet the diagnostic criteria for Acute Stress Disorder. Although the woman's symptoms are characteristic of PTSD, their duration is not: A diagnosis of PTSD requires a duration of symptoms for more than one month.

Which of the following are key functions of supervision? Select one: a. Administration b. Teaching c. Helping d. All of the above

All of the above

During a "critical period": Select one: a. a behavior changes in the direction of more advanced development regardless of environmental events. b. a particular aspect of development is most sensitive to environmental circumstances. c. an organism is unable to respond effectively to the demands of the environment. d. an organism experiences a severe setback (crisis) in normal development.

Although several critical periods have been found for certain aspects of physical development in humans, there is less certainty about their existence for other types of development. Answer B is correct: Critical periods were originally described by ethologists who found that an organism must be exposed to certain environmental events during specific periods of time for a behavior to develop. As an example, in geese, the critical period for imprinting is two to three days after birth. The correct answer is: a particular aspect of development is most sensitive to environmental circumstances.

Factorial ANOVA

An Analysis of Variance used when there are two or more independent variables. When there are two, the ANOVA is called a Two-Way ANOVA, three independent variables would use a Three-Way ANOVA, etc. (Def. from allpsych.com)

Eta Coefficient

An Eta Coefficient test is a method for determining the strength of association between a categorical variable (e.g., sex, occupation, ethnicity), typically the independent variable and a scale- or interval-level variable (e.g., income, weight, test score), typically the dependent variable.

Multi-store model

An explanation of memory based on three separate memory stores, and how information is transferred between these stores. The three main stores are the sensory memory, short-term memory (STM) and long-term memory (LTM). The sensory stores are constantly receiving information but most of this receives no attention and remains in the sensory register for a very brief period. The STM store has a duration of up to 30 seconds, has a capacity of 7+/-2 chunks and mainly encodes information acoustically. Information is lost through displacement or decay. Maintenance rehearsal is the process of verbally or mentally repeating information, which allows the duration of short-term memory to be extended beyond 30 seconds. An example of maintenance rehearsal would be remembering a phone number only long enough to make the phone call. The LTM has unlimited capacity and duration and encodes information semantically. Information can be recalled from LTM back into the STM when it is needed. If the information is given meaning (elaborative rehearsal) it is passed on to the LTM.

Quantitative genetic methods are used to determine the ________ of genetic and environmental dynamics, while molecular genetic methods are used to classify ________ responsible for genetic influence. a. net effect; certain genes b. difference; methods c. animal models; complex traits d. research; mutations

Answer A is correct: Quantitative genetic methods are used when the goal is to determine the net effect of genetic and environmental dynamics on differences in intricate traits. Molecular genetic methods identify which specific genes are responsible for genetic influence. The correct answer is: net effect; certain genes

The atypical neuroleptic clozapine (Clozaril): Select one: a. has a slower (longer) onset of therapeutic effects than the traditional neuroleptics do. b. is less effective than the traditional neuroleptics for negative symptoms. c. is more likely than the traditional neuroleptics to produce tardive dyskinesia. d. does not produce anticholinergic side effects.

Answer A is correct: A disadvantage of Clozapine and other atypical neuroleptics is that they have a slower onset of therapeutic effects than the traditional neuroleptics.

A supervisor attempts to increase his influence by being sensitive to the needs of his subordinates and by acting as a role model. This supervisor is relying on which of the bases of power identified by French and Raven (1959)? Select one: a. referent b. legitimate c. expert d. charismatic

Answer A is correct: A person has referent power when he or she is admired, liked, or respected by other people and or or is viewed as a role model. The correct answer is: referent

For a newly developed test of cognitive flexibility, coefficient alpha is .55. Which of the following would be useful for increasing the size of this coefficient? Select one: a. adding more items that are similar in terms of content and quality b. adding more items that are similar in terms of quality but different in terms of content c. reducing the heterogeneity of the tryout sample d. using a true or false format for the items rather than a multiple-choice format

Answer A is correct: A test's reliability is increased when the test is lengthened by adding items of similar content and quality, the range of scores is unrestricted (i.e., the tryout sample heterogeneity is maximized), and the ability to choose the correct answer by guessing is reduced. The correct answer is: adding more items that are similar in terms of content and quality

Selye's "general adaptation syndrome" (GAS) involves which of the following phases? Select one: a. alarm, resistance, exhaustion b. denial, alarm, resolution c. alarm, resistance, resolution d. dissociation, realization, acceptance

Answer A is correct: According to Selye, the response to stress is basically the same regardless of the nature of the stress and involves three stages -- alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. The correct answer is: alarm, resistance, exhaustion

According to Herbert Simon, decision-making in organizations is often affected by: Select one: a. bounded rationality. b. groupthink. c. idiosyncrasy. d. social loafing.

Answer A is correct: According to Simon, decision-makers are sometimes less than totally rational due to limitations related to abilities, time, and resources. He referred to this type of decision-making as bounded rationality. The correct answer is: bounded rationality. Simon (1979) distinguished between two types of individual decision-making -- rational-economic and bounded rationality. Knowing the names of these types would have enabled you to identify the correct answer to this question.

A thiamine deficiency is associated with which of the following? Select one: a. Alcohol-Induced Major Neurocognitive Disorder. b. Alcohol Withdrawal Delirium. c. Alcohol Idiosyncratic Intoxication. d. Alcohol-Induced Sleep Disorder.

Answer A is correct: Alcohol-Induced Major Neurocognitive Disorder is also known as Korsakoff Syndrome when its symptoms include anterograde and retrograde amnesia and confabulation. It is believed to be due to a thiamine deficiency.

According to classical test theory, total variability in obtained test scores is composed of: Select one: a. true score variability plus random error b. true score variability plus systematic error c. a combination of communality and specificity d. a combination of specificity and error

Answer A is correct: As defined by classical test theory, total variability in test scores is due to a combination of true score variability plus measurement (random) error - i.e., X = T + E. The correct answer is: true score variability plus random error

A 9-year-old is irritable, aggressive, dependent, and low in achievement orientation and self-esteem and has a limited sense of responsibility. Based on this information, you can conclude that his parents are: Select one: a. authoritarian. b. authoritative. c. permissive. d. platitudinous.

Answer A is correct: Authoritarian exhibit a high level of demandingness and a low level of warmth. Their offspring are often irritable, aggressive, and dependent and have a limited sense of responsibility and low levels of self-esteem and academic achievement. The correct answer is: authoritarian.

Two weeks ago, Amy A., age 17, suddenly began experiencing weakness in both legs and a loss of balance, which causes her to fall down when she tries to walk. Amy hasn't been able to go to school because of her symptoms and says she thinks they started after she had an argument with her best friend. A thorough physical examination has not found a medical explanation for her symptoms, and the symptoms are not compatible with any known neurological or medical condition. The most likely diagnosis for Amy is: Select one: a. Conversion Disorder. b. Somatic Symptom Disorder. c. Body Dysmorphic Disorder. d. Acute Stress Disorder.

Answer A is correct: Conversion Disorder involves one or more symptoms involving motor or sensory functioning that are incompatible with recognized neurological or medical conditions and cannot be better explained by a medical or other mental disorder. The incompatibility of Amy's symptoms with any known medical or neurological conditions is more characteristic of Conversion Disorder than Somatic Symptom Disorder.

Early signs of Neurocognitive Disorder due to HIV infection are most likely to be: Select one: a. forgetfulness and impaired concentration. b. focal neurological signs. c. emotional over-reactivity and psychomotor agitation. d. vertigo and tinnitus.

Answer A is correct: Early signs of Neurocognitive Disorder due to HIV infection include forgetfulness (e.g., difficulty keep track of daily activities), impaired concentration, impaired judgment, psychomotor slowing, and irritability.

According to Erikson, a desirable outcome of the final stage of psychosocial development is which of the following? Select one: a. wisdom b. individuation c. generativity d. commitment

Answer A is correct: Erikson's final psychosocial crisis is "ego integrity versus despair," and a positive outcome of this crisis is the development of wisdom and a sense of integrity. The correct answer is: wisdom

Frame-of-reference training is used to: Select one: a. improve the ability of raters to assign accurate performance ratings to employees. b. improve the ability of employers to make accurate selection decisions. c. help employers make decisions about comparable worth. d. help managers adapt their leadership style to the demands of the situation.

Answer A is correct: Frame-of-reference (FOR) training is a type of rater training that is used to increase rater accuracy by helping raters recognize what constitutes effective and ineffective job performance. The correct answer is: improve the ability of raters to assign accurate performance ratings to employees.

In a negatively skewed distribution of scores: Select one: a. the median is greater than the mean. b. the median is less than the mean. c. the mean is greater than the mode. d. the median is greater than the mode.

Answer A is correct: In a negatively skewed distribution, most scores are "piled up" in the positive tail while a relatively few scores are in the negative tail. Because the mean is more sensitive to the magnitude of all scores, it is affected more by the low scores in the negative tail and is lower in value than the median or the mode. Therefore, the median is greater than the mean in a negatively skewed distribution.

The rates of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder are: Select one: a. higher for males in childhood but about equal for males and females in adulthood. b. higher for females in childhood but about equal for males and females in adulthood. c. about equal for males and females throughout the lifespan. d. higher for females throughout the lifespan.

Answer A is correct: In adults, the rate of OCD is about equal for males and females. However, because the average age of onset is earlier for males, the rate for males is higher during childhood.

A middle-aged man exhibits slurred speech, a lack of coordination, and tremors. If his symptoms are due to brain damage, the most likely location of the damage is the: Select one: a. hippocampus. b. cerebellum. c. parietal lobe. d. medulla.

Answer B is correct: The cerebellum is important for coordination, posture, and balance, and damage can result in ataxia which involves the symptoms listed in this question.

A psychologist evaluates the effects of a 15-month training program on the conservation skills of preoperational children by administering a measure of conservation to the same group of children before and at the end of training. The psychologist finds that significantly more children are able to conserve after the program than before the program. The biggest threat to this study's internal validity is: Select one: a. maturation. b. history. c. instrumentation. d. statistical regression.

Answer A is correct: In the situation described in this question, any change in ability to conserve could be due to normal development (maturation) over the 15-month period rather than to the effects of the training program. The correct answer is: maturation.

Lazarus's (1991) cognitive appraisal theory describes ____________ as involving an evaluation of a situation as irrelevant, positive-benign, or stressful. Select one: a. primary appraisal b. secondary appraisal c. tertiary appraisal d. re-appraisal

Answer A is correct: Primary appraisal is the individual's initial appraisal of an event as irrelevant, positive-benign, or stressful with regard to his or her own well-being.

Pope and Vetter (1992) found that psychotherapists encountered ethical dilemmas related to which of the following most frequently in their work? Select one: a. confidentiality b. multiple relationships c. competence d. financial arrangements

Answer A is correct: Results of the the survey found that confidentiality was the most frequently encountered "ethically troubling issue" by respondents. The correct answer is: confidentiality

In high school, Stuart S. took Spanish for four years and, as a result, became a pretty good speaker of Spanish. During his first year of college, Stuart took French and, at the end of the year, he found that he had trouble remembering many Spanish words. This is best explained by which of the following? Select one: a. retroactive interference b. proactive interference c. anterograde decay d. retrograde decay

Answer A is correct: Retroactive interference occurs when something learned in the present interferes with the ability to recall something learned in the past. retroactive interference

__________ assessments are used when organizational development is desired, and _________ assessments collect individual data. Select one: a. Self; personnel b. Personnel; self c. Goal; self d. Process; personnel

Answer A is correct: Self-assessments are utilized to direct organizational development, and are most effective when stakeholders are involved. Personnel assessments collect individual data, which may include records, biographical data, test results, and work samples. The correct answer is: Self; personnel

According to __________, sensation is an exponential function of stimulus intensity. Select one: a. Steven's Power Law b. Weber's Law c. Fechner's Law d. Thorndike's Law of Effect

Answer A is correct: Stevens's investigations into sensation and perception led to his description of sensation as an exponential function of stimulus intensity.

A T-score of 100 or higher on the MMPI-2's F Scale suggests: Select one: a. an invalid profile. b. an absence of significant pathology. c. an attempt to "fake good." d. brain pathology.

Answer A is correct: The F (Frequency) Scale is used to assess the validity of the entire MMPI profile and a score of 100 or higher suggests that the test results are invalid. The correct answer is: an invalid profile.

An examinee's score on the optional General Ability Index (GAI) on the WAIS-IV is derived from his or her scores on which of the following? Select one: a. Verbal Comprehension and Perceptual Reasoning b. Verbal Comprehension and Working Memory c. Processing Speed and Perceptual Reasoning d. Working Memory and Processing Speed

Answer A is correct: The GAI score is useful when the examiner wants to derive a summary score that minimizes the impact of working memory and processing speed, which are both affected by a number of clinical conditions. It is derived from scores on the three Verbal Comprehension subtests and three Perceptual Reasoning subtests. The correct answer is: Verbal Comprehension and Perceptual Reasoning

You have been seeing 11-year-old Debbie in therapy for conduct problems at school for the past three months. Both of her parents are pleased with Debbie's progress in therapy but are now getting a divorce and Debbie's mother asks you to conduct a child custody evaluation of Debbie for the custody hearing. You should: Select one: a. refer Debbie to another psychologist for the evaluation. b. request that the judge decide if you should perform the evaluation. c. perform the evaluation if you are able to obtain consent from both parents. d. perform the evaluation since you are the best person to do so since you have been working with Debbie.

Answer A is correct: The Guidelines state that psychologists must avoid multiple relationships. For example, they should avoid an evaluative role in custody cases when they have already established a therapeutic relationship with the child and/or the child's parent(s). The correct answer is: refer Debbie to another psychologist for the evaluation.

To assess the internal consistency reliability of a test that contains 50 items that are each scored as either "correct" or "incorrect," you would use which of the following? Select one: a. KR-20 b. Spearman-Brown c. kappa statistic d. coefficient of concordance

Answer A is correct: The Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 (KR-20) is a measure of internal consistency reliability that can be used when test items are scored dichotomously (correct or incorrect). Internal consistency reliability is a way to gauge how well a test or survey is actually measuring what you want it to measure.

Which of the following is an example of a psychologist's obligations with regard to the Tarasoff decision? Select one: a. A psychologist has a duty to warn or protect a therapy client's neighbor when the client says he is planning to murder the neighbor. b. A psychologist has a duty to protect a therapy client when the client says he is planning to kill himself and has a plan for doing so. c. A psychologist has a duty to protect a therapy client when the client says his wife has been threatening to kill him and he thinks her last threat was "really serious." d. A psychologist has a duty to inform the authorities when a therapy client says he "put someone in the hospital" in a physical fight at a local bar last weekend.

Answer A is correct: The Tarasoff decision established a psychologist's duty to warn or protect an identifiable third party who is at risk for serious injury from a therapy client. The correct answer is: A psychologist has a duty to warn or protect a therapy client's neighbor when the client says he is planning to murder the neighbor.

To confirm a diagnosis of Intellectual Disability for a six-year-old child, you would administer the SB5 and which of the following? Select one: a. Vineland-II b. Fagan Test c. WRAT4 d. KABC-II

Answer A is correct: The Vineland-II evaluates adaptive functioning in three domains -- communication, daily living skills, and socialization. A diagnosis of Intellectual Disability requires deficits in intellectual functions (e.g., reasoning, problem solving, abstract thinking) that are confirmed by a clinical assessment and individualized, standardized intelligence testing; deficits in adaptive functioning that result in a failure to meet community standards of personal independence and social responsibility and impair functioning across multiple environments in one or more activities of daily life (e.g., communication, social participation, independent living); and the onset of intellectual and adaptive functioning deficits during the developmental period.

To determine the degree of association between gender and attitude toward abortion when the attitude measure represents an interval scale, you would use which of the following correlation coefficients? Select one: a. point biserial b. Pearson r c. phi coefficient d. contingency coefficient

Answer A is correct: The point biserial coefficient is the appropriate coefficient when one variable represents a true dichotomy and the other is measured on an interval or ratio (continuous) scale.

As a treatment for the unpleasant symptoms associated with menopause, hormone replacement therapy (HRT) ordinarily targets which of the following? Select one: a. estrogen only or estrogen plus progesterone b. estrogen only or estrogen plus testosterone c. estrogen plus androstenedione d. progesterone plus androstenedione

Answer A is correct: There are two major types of HRT -- estrogen only or estrogen plus progesterone. (Although testosterone is sometimes included, this is relatively rare and done only when estrogen and progesterone have not adequately alleviated symptoms.) The correct answer is: estrogen only or estrogen plus progesterone Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is prescribed as a treatment for hot flashes, night sweats, vaginal dryness, and other undesirable symptoms associated with menopause.

Which of the following best describes a psychologist's ethical requirements with regard to the use of computer-assisted psychological test scoring and interpretation services? Select one: a. These services are acceptable but the psychologist is responsible for their appropriate application and use. b. These services are acceptable and the publisher is responsible for ensuring they provide accurate information. c. These services are acceptable only when the interpretations are based on objective data. d. These services are acceptable only in the "most unusual circumstances."

Answer A is correct: This Standard states: "(b) Psychologists select scoring and interpretation services (including automated services) on the basis of the validity of the program and procedures as well as on other appropriate considerations.... (c) Psychologists retain responsibility for the appropriate application, interpretation, and use of assessment instruments, whether they score and interpret such tests themselves or use automated or other services." The correct answer is: These services are acceptable, but the psychologist is responsible for their appropriate application and use.

Dina received a percentile rank of 48 on a test, while her twin brother, Dino, received a percentile rank of 98. Their teacher realizes she made an error in scoring their tests and adds four points to Dina's and Dino's raw scores. (The other students' tests were scored correctly.) When she recalculates Dina's and Dino's percentile ranks, the teacher will find that: a. Dina's percentile rank will change by more points than Dino's. b. Dino's percentile rank will change by more points than Dina's. c. Dina's and Dino's percentile ranks will change by the same number of points. d. Dina and Dino's percentile ranks will not change.

Answer A is correct: This general rule means that Dina's percentile rank (which is near the middle of the distribution) will be affected more by the four-point addition to her raw score than Dino's percentile rank (which is extremely high) The correct answer is: Dina's percentile rank will change by more points than Dino's. percentile ranks maximize differences in the middle of the raw score distribution and minimize differences at the extremes.

"Grandma's rule" -- e.g., "You must eat your string beans before you can go outside to play" -- is most similar to which of the following techniques? Select one: a. Premack Principle b. escape conditioning c. response cost d. negative practice

Answer A is correct: Use of a high-frequency behavior (going out to play) to reinforce a low-frequency behavior (eating string beans) to increase the low-frequency behavior is referred to as the Premack Principle. The correct answer is: Premack Principle

A teacher uses verbal reprimands whenever students in his class misbehave in order to reduce their misbehavior. If the reprimands have the desired effect, they are acting as which of the following? Select one: a. positive punishment b. negative punishment c. positive reinforcement d. negative reinforcement

Answer A is correct: Verbal reprimands are used to reduce an undesirable behavior and involve applying a stimulus following that behavior -- i.e., they are a form of positive punishment.

Vestibule training is: Select one: a. useful when errors that might occur during on-the-job training would be too costly or dangerous. b. useful for training newly hired employees who lack basic educational skills. c. useful for determining which job best fits a job applicant's abilities. d. useful when employees are being considered for promotion into managerial-level positions.

Answer A is correct: Vestibule training is an off-the-job technique that uses a physical simulation of the job environment and equipment and is useful when on-the-job training would be too costly or dangerous. The correct answer is: useful when errors that might occur during on-the-job training would be too costly or dangerous.

For an achievement test item that has an item discrimination index (D) of +1.0, you would expect: Select one: a. high achievers to be more likely than low achievers to answer the item correctly. b. low achievers to be more likely than high achievers to answer the item correctly. c. moderate achievers to be more likely than high and low achievers to answer the item correctly. d. low and high achievers to be equally likely to answer the item correctly.

Answer A is correct: When all examinees in the upper-scoring group and none in the lower-scoring group answered the item correctly, D is equal to +1.0. The correct answer is: high achievers to be more likely than low achievers to answer the item correctly. The item discrimination index is calculated by subtracting the percent of examinees in the lower-scoring group who answered the item correctly from the percent of examinees in the upper-scoring group who answered the item correctly and ranges in value from -1.0 to +1.0.

For a client to bring a claim of malpractice against his or her therapist, which of the following conditions is NOT necessary? Select one: a. The therapist must have had a professional relationship with the client that established a legal duty of care. b. The harm or injury experienced by the client must be due to deliberate action or inaction on the part of the therapist. c. There is a demonstrable standard of care that the therapist has breached. d. The therapist's breach of duty within the standard of care was the proximate cause of the harm or injury.

Answer B is correct: "Deliberate action or inaction on the part of the therapist" is not one of the four conditions for a claim of malpractice.

In a leptokurtic distribution: Select one: a. scores are distributed more evenly throughout the distribution than they are in a normal (mesokurtic) distribution. b. a larger proportion of scores are located in the middle of the distribution than they are in a normal (mesokurtic) distribution. c. most scores are in the negative side of the distribution and the tail is extended on the positive side. d. most scores are in the positive side of the distribution and the tail is extended on the negative side.

Answer B is correct: A leptokurtic distribution is more "peaked" than the normal distribution -- i.e., more scores are located in the middle of the distribution.

The HR director where you work is reluctant to use the selection test you've developed because its validity coefficient is only .35. Your best argument for using this test is that: Select one: a. the selection ratio is 1:10. b. the selection ratio is 1:50. c. the base rate is .20. d. the base rate is .95.

Answer B is correct: A predictor with a low validity coefficient can improve decision-making accuracy when the selection ratio is low (e.g., 1:50) and the base rate is moderate (around .50). The correct answer is: the selection ratio is 1:50.

Zelda Z. obtains a score of 41 on a test that has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 6. If all of the scores in the distribution are transformed so that the test now has a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 12, Zelda's score in the new distribution would be: Select one: a. 91 b. 82 c. 41 d. 20.5.

Answer B is correct: A score of 82 is 1-1/2 standard deviations below the mean of the new distribution and, therefore, equivalent to a score of 41 in the original distribution. The correct answer is: 82 To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to recognize that Zelda's original score was 1-1/2 standard deviations below the mean.

A stroke involving the middle cerebral artery and affecting the dominant (left) hemisphere is most likely to cause which of the following? Select one: a. contralateral visual field loss and visual agnosia b. contralateral hemianesthesia and aphasia c. contralateral hemiplegia and impaired judgment and insight d. contralateral visual field loss and memory impairment

Answer B is correct: A stroke involving the middle cerebral artery may produce contralateral hemiplegia and hemianesthesia, contralateral visual field loss, and, when the dominant hemisphere is affected, aphasia. The correct answer is: contralateral hemianesthesia and aphasia aphasia: loss of ability to understand or express speech, caused by brain damage.

Kohlberg's cognitive-developmental theory identifies which of the following as the initial stage of gender-role acquisition? Select one: a. gender affirmation b. gender identity c. gender constancy d. gender stability

Answer B is correct: According to Kohlberg (1969), gender identity is the first stage in the acquisition of gender-role behaviors and occurs at about age 2 to 3. It is followed by gender stability (age 4) and then gender constancy (ages 6 to 7). Kohlberg's cognitive-developmental model identifies three stages of gender-role acquisition - gender identity, gender stability, and gender constancy.

A shift in perspective from "time from birth" to "time until death" usually occurs between the ages of: Select one: a. 30 and 35. b. 40 and 45. c. 50 and 55. d. 60 and 65.

Answer B is correct: According to Levinson (1978), changes that occur during the "mid-life crisis" (typically between the ages of 40 and 45) are often tied to a mental change in the perception of time. The terms used in this question were originally used by Neugarten (1968). The correct answer is: 40 and 45.

Research evaluating the effects of imipramine as a treatment for Enuresis suggests that it is: Select one: a. more effective than the bell-and-pad. b. less effective than the bell-and-pad in terms of long-term effects. c. about equally effective as the bell-and-pad in terms of both short- and long-term effects. d. ineffective in terms of both short- and long-term effects.

Answer B is correct: Although imipramine has good short-term effects for Enuresis, it does not have good long-term effects.

Meta-analyses conducted in the past 10 to 20 years suggest that, across jobs and organizations, the best predictor of job performance is: Select one: a. biodata. b. general mental ability tests. c. interest tests. d. structured interviews.

Answer B is correct: Although the research is far from consistent, the meta-analyses of the research suggest that general mental (cognitive) ability tests outperform most other predictors across jobs and organizations. The correct answer is: general mental ability tests.

In comparison to the tricyclics, fluoxetine and other SSRIs: Select one: a. are more likely to cause cognitive impairment. b. are less cardiotoxic. c. have a slower onset of therapeutic effects. d. all of the above.

Answer B is correct: An important advantage of the SSRIs is that they are less cardiotoxic than the tricyclics. SSRIS are less likely to cause cognitive impairment The SSRIs have a slightly more rapid onset of therapeutic effects, although both can produce an improvement in symptoms within two to four weeks.

The slope (steepness) of an item characteristic curve indicates the item's: Select one: a. difficulty level. b. discrimination. c. reliability. d. validity.

Answer B is correct: An item's ability to discriminate between high and low achievers is indicated by the slope of the item characteristic curve -- the steeper the slope, the greater the discrimination. The correct answer is: discrimination. The various item response theory models provide item characteristic curves that provide information on one, two, or three parameters -- i.e., difficulty level, discrimination, and probability of guessing correctly.

Orgasmic reconditioning is used to treat which of the following? Select one: a. Erectile Disorder b. Genito-Pelvic Pain or Penetration Disorder c. Paraphilic Disorders d. Gender Dysphoria

Answer C is correct: Orgasmic reconditioning is used to treat Paraphilic Disorders and involves redirecting sexual arousal to more acceptable sources of stimulation by having the individual replace an unacceptable sexual fantasy with a more acceptable one while masturbating. The correct answer is: Paraphilic Disorders

Aronson and Mills (1959) examined the effects of severity of initiation into an uninteresting group on subsequent attitudes toward the group. Results of their study indicated that, in comparison to women who underwent a mild initiation, women who underwent a severe initiation as a precondition of group membership: a. rated the group as less interesting and enjoyable. b. rated the group as more interesting and enjoyable. c. were more likely to drop out of the group at the end of the initiation. d. were more likely to say they disliked fellow group members.

Answer B is correct: As predicted by cognitive dissonance theory, when women underwent a difficult initiation to get into a dull group, they experienced dissonance, which they attempted to resolve by deciding that the group was interesting and enjoyable. The correct answer is: rated the group as more interesting and enjoyable.

A psychologist is using Linehan's dialectical behavior therapy to treat a patient with Borderline Personality Disorder. The essential components of her intervention will be: Select one: a. individual inpatient therapy and the token economy. b. individual outpatient therapy and group skills training. c. family therapy and psychotropic medication. d. residential treatment and a self-help group.

Answer B is correct: Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) includes three components - group skills training that focuses on the acquisition of social skills; individual outpatient therapy that targets motivational issues and the strengthening of social skills; and telephone consultations that help the client apply new skills to situations outside therapy. Other techniques may also be used, but these three make up the core of DBT. The correct answer is: individual outpatient therapy and group skills training.

Dissociative Amnesia is most associated with: Select one: a. a loss of memory for events from the distant past. b. an inability to recall personal information. c. an inability to form new sensory memories. d. an inability to attach emotions to memories.

Answer B is correct: Dissociative Amnesia differs from amnesias that have a physiological cause in terms of the nature of the memory loss. Specifically, Dissociative Amnesia is characterized by a loss of memory for personal (biographical) information.

As described by Marcia (1987), an adolescent experiencing "foreclosure" will be most likely to say which of the following about her career goals? Select one: a. I don't know what I want to do when I graduate from high school. b. My dad thinks it's a good idea if I go to medical school and become a doctor like him, so that's what I'm planning to do. c. My dad wants me to be a doctor but I want to be an actress. d. I've given this a lot of thought, and I've decided I want to be a teacher.

Answer B is correct: Foreclosure occurs when the individual has accepted a career goal or other aspect of identity that has been recommended by a significant other (often a parent).

A young woman says that she always feels cold, is frequently depressed and has trouble concentrating, is lethargic and has lost interest in sex, and has gained weight even though she doesn't eat much. These symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following endocrine disorders? Select one: a. diabetes insipidus b. hypothyroidism c. hypoglycemia d. Grave's disease

Answer B is correct: Hypothyroidism is caused by hyposecretion of thyroxine and is associated with the symptoms listed in this question.

Sandy S. is considering filing a claim of sexual harassment against her boss, Bertrand B., because he frequently comments on her physical appearance by telling her how "great she looks" and often tells her that, "if I weren't your boss, I'd be chasing after you." Sandy decides to tell Bertrand that she finds his comments offensive and, when she does so, he apologizes and says he'll stop if that's what she wants. This situation: Select one: a. does not represent a legal claim for sexual harassment because Bertrand's comments are not sufficiently severe to be considered abusive. b. does not represent a legal claim for sexual harassment as long as Bertrand actually stops making offensive comments. c. represents a legal claim for sexual harassment because Sandy found Bertrand's behavior to be offensive. d. represents a legal claim for sexual harassment because a "reasonable woman" would find Bertrand's behavior to be offensive.

Answer B is correct: If the comments are not severe and the harasser stops when asked to do so, it is unlikely that they would be found sufficient for a legal claim of sexual harassment. Sexual harassment laws and policies vary somewhat from jurisdiction to jurisdiction but Bertrand's comments are likely to be grounds for a sexual harassment suit if he continues to make them. If Bertrand does not stop making offensive comments when asked to do so, the court might use the "reasonable woman" standard to determine if the comments represent sexual harassment.

For children with ADHD, an academic achievement test has a mean of 40 and a standard deviation of 8. Assuming that the distribution of scores is normally shaped, you can conclude that 16% of these children obtained scores below a score of: Select one: a. 24 b. 32 c. 40 d. 48

Answer B is correct: In a normal distribution the score that is one standard deviation below the mean divides the distribution so that 16% of cases fall below that score and the remaining 84% fall above it. In this distribution, a score of 32 is one standard deviation below the mean. The correct answer is: 32

The intentional production of symptoms for the purpose of obtaining an external reward is characteristic of which of the following? Select one: a. Factitious Disorder b. Malingering c. Somatic Symptom Disorder d. Illness Anxiety Disorder

Answer B is correct: Malingering is characterized by an intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms for the purpose of obtaining an external reward such as avoiding work, receiving financial compensation, or obtaining drugs.

According to Marlatt and Gordon (1985), relapse for an individual with an alcohol addiction is LEAST likely when: Select one: a. he or she is provided with an intervention that incorporates a 12-step program. b. he or she is encouraged to view relapse as the result of external, controllable factors. c. his or her denial is consistently and directly challenged. d. he or she is in the "action" stage of change.

Answer B is correct: Marlatt and Gordon's (1985) relapse prevention therapy focuses on identifying circumstances that increase the individual's risk for relapse and implementing strategies that will help him or her deal more effectively with those circumstances. According to Marlatt and Gordon, the potential for future relapse is reduced when the individual views lapses as resulting from specific, external, and controllable factors.

Most infants can be expected to take their first steps alone at about ____ months of age. Select one: a. 9 b. 12 c. 15 d. 18

Answer B is correct: Most babies take their first steps alone at 10 to 12 months of age. The correct answer is: 12

When faced with an approach-avoidance conflict: a. the closer we get to the goal, the stronger our desire to approach it. b. the closer we get to the goal, the stronger our desire to avoid it. c. regardless of our proximity to the goal, the desire to approach the goal is equal to the desire to avoid it. d. the closer we get to the goal, the more similar the intensity of our desires to approach and avoid it.

Answer B is correct: One of the reasons why an approach-avoidance conflict is difficult to resolve is because, the closer we get to the goal, the stronger the avoidance motive and, conversely, the farther we get from the goal, the stronger the approach motive. This causes us to waiver during the decision-making process. The correct answer is: the closer we get to the goal, the stronger our desire to avoid it.

An organizational psychologist with a Ph.D. wants to become a clinical psychologist. According to APA guidelines, he must: Select one: a. complete appropriate coursework. b. complete appropriate coursework and clinical supervision. c. obtain supervision from a licensed psychologist. d. obtain a Ph.D. or Psy.D. in clinical psychology from an accredited school.

Answer B is correct: Section 1.7 states that "psychologists who change or add a specialty meet the same requirements with respect to subject matter and professional skills that apply to doctoral education, training, and experience in the new specialty." In other words, the psychologist would have to complete relevant courses and requirements for supervised practice. The correct answer is: complete appropriate coursework and clinical supervision.

Pro bono services are ________ by the APA's Ethics Code. Select one: a. required b. encouraged c. prohibited d. not addressed

Answer B is correct: Since the General Principles are aspirational (rather than mandatory), an implication of the above requirement is that pro bono services are encouraged or recommended -- but not required -- by the Ethics Code. Although the term "pro bono" is not used in the Ethics Code, General Principal B (Fidelity and Responsibility) states that psychologists "strive to contribute a portion of their professional time for little or no compensation or personal advantage."

Dr. Samantha Stern is a psychologist who assists with hiring and promotion decisions at a mental health clinic. She recommends that one of the psychologists NOT be considered for promotion because of an unresolved charge of sexual harassment against him. Dr. Stern's recommendation is: Select one: a. consistent with the provisions of the Ethics Code. b. a violation of the provisions of the Ethics Code. c. ethical as long as the clinic considers the psychologist if he is acquitted of the charge. d. not addressed by the Ethics Code.

Answer B is correct: Standard 1.08 states: "Psychologists do not deny persons employment, advancement, admission to academic or other programs, tenure, or promotion, based solely upon their having made or their being the subject of an ethics complaint." The correct answer is: a violation of the provisions of the Ethics Code.

While treating a client, you decide that you want to consult with a colleague to discuss a specific aspect of the case that is giving you trouble. According to the Ethics Code: Select one: a. you must obtain a release from the client before talking to a consultant. b. you must obtain a release from the client only if you will be revealing the client's identity to the consultant. c. you do not have to obtain a release from the client as long as he or she has already signed a general waiver of confidentiality. d. you do not have to obtain a release from the client under any circumstances since the consultant is "clearly connected" with the case.

Answer B is correct: Standard 4.06 states that, "when consulting with colleagues ... psychologists do not disclose confidential information that reasonably could lead to the identification of a client or patient ... unless they have obtained the prior consent of the person." It is not, however, necessary to obtain a consent when the client's identity will not be revealed. The correct answer is: you must obtain a release from the client only if you will be revealing the client's identity to the consultant.

A graduate student designed and conducted a research project for her dissertation and subsequently wrote a journal article describing the study and its results. The original idea for the study was derived from the work of the student's faculty advisor who also provided the facilities for the student's research and provided the student with some guidance while she conducted her study. The faculty advisor wants to be listed as first author on the article. In this situation: Select one: a. the student should be listed as the sole author. b. the student should be listed as the first author and the advisor as the second author. c. it is up to the advisor to determine authorship credit. d. it is up to the journal to determine authorship credit.

Answer B is correct: Standard 8.12 states that publication credits "accurately reflect the relative scientific or professional contributions of the individuals involved, regardless of their relative status.... Except under exceptional circumstances, a student is listed as principal author on any multiple-authored article that is substantially based on the student's doctoral dissertation." While the student should be listed as first author, the advisor's contribution appears to be sufficient to warrant being listed as the second author. The correct answer is: the student should be listed as the first author and the advisor as the second author.

Symptoms of __________ are similar to those associated with a moderate to severe case of the flu (e.g., muscle pain and cramps, diarrhea, chills, sneezing, lethargy). Select one: a. Opioid Intoxication b. Opioid Withdrawal c. Cocaine Intoxication d. Cocaine Withdrawal

Answer B is correct: Symptoms of Opioid Withdrawal are uncomfortable but usually not life-threatening and are similar to those associated with a bad cold or the flu. The correct answer is: Opioid Withdrawal

Following a head injury, a women exhibits dressing apraxia and tactile agnosia and doesn't comb the hair on the left side of her head. Which area of her brain has most likely been damaged? Select one: a. frontal lobe b. parietal lobe c. temporal lobe d. occipital lobe

Answer B is correct: Tactile agnosia, contralateral neglect, and some types of apraxia are caused by damage to certain areas of the parietal lobe. The correct answer is: parietal lobe

A change in facial expression can actually produce a change in affect. This is predicted by which of the following theories? Select one: a. Cannon-Bard b. James-Lange c. Schachter-Singer d. Seinfeld-Kramer

Answer B is correct: The James-Lange theory is a peripheralist theory that predicts that emotions represent perceptions of bodily reactions to sensory stimuli -- in other words, "I'm happy because I'm smiling." The correct answer is: James-Lange

For several years, a 26-year-old woman has exhibited cycles of overidealization and devaluation in interpersonal relationships, uncertainty about career plans, reckless driving, drug use, and frequent suicide attempts. The most likely diagnosis is: Select one: a. Histrionic Personality Disorder. b. Borderline Personality Disorder. c. Schizotypal Personality Disorder. d. Narcissistic Personality Disorder.

Answer B is correct: The essential feature of Borderline Personality Disorder is a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affect and marked impulsivity.

The results of a factor analysis indicate that Test A has a factor loading of .70 for Factor I and a factor loading of .20 for Factor II. Assuming that only two factors were extracted and that the factors are orthogonal, you can conclude that the communality for Test A scores is: Select one: a. 90%. b. 53%. c. 49%. d. 4%.

Answer B is correct: The factor loading for Factor I is .70 and the factor loading for Factor II is .20: .70 squared is 49% and .20 squared is 4%, so the communality is 49% plus 4%, which equals 53%. This means that the total amount of variability in Test A scores explained by the factor analysis is 53%. The correct answer is: 53%. Factor loadings are interpreted like correlation coefficients between two or more variables and are squared to obtain a measure of shared variability. When the factors are orthogonal (uncorrelated), the squared factor loadings can be added to obtain the communality.

Craik and Lockhart's (1972) levels-of-processing model: Select one: a. describes memory in terms of a "dual store." b. implies that elaborative rehearsal is more effective than maintenance rehearsal. c. focuses on the biological correlates of sensory, short-term, and long-term memory. d. implies that the duration of rehearsal is more important than the depth of rehearsal.

Answer B is correct: The levels-of-processing model distinguishes between three levels -- structural, phonemic, and semantic. The deepest and most effective level is the semantic ("meaning") level, and elaborative rehearsal involves encoding information at the semantic level. The correct answer is: implies that elaborative rehearsal is more effective than maintenance rehearsal.

A developmental psychologist investigating the influence of Bronfenbrenner's mesosystem on child development will focus on: Select one: a. factors that affect prenatal development. b. interactions between home and school. c. relationships between family members. d. cultural influences.

Answer B is correct: The mesosystem is comprised of interactions between components of the child's microsystem and includes interactions between home and school. The correct answer is: interactions between home and school.

A research participant remembers a list of unrelated words by envisioning each item in a different location in her living room while memorizing and then recalling the list (e.g., one item on the TV, one under the coffee table, one on the chair). This is referred to as: Select one: a. the keyword method. b. the method of loci. c. the serial position effect. d. elaborative rehearsal.

Answer B is correct: The method of loci ("method of places") is a mnemonic device that makes use of visual imagery. The correct answer is: the method of loci.

The standard error of estimate is used to: a. estimate the difference between an examinee's obtained test score and his or her true test score. b. estimate the difference between an examinee's predicted criterion score and his or her true criterion score. c. determine the maximum a predictor's validity coefficient can be given the reliabilities of the predictor and the criterion. d. predict the probability that an examinee will obtain a particular score on one or more predictors.

Answer B is correct: The standard error of estimate is used to estimate the range within which an examinee's true criterion score is likely to fall given his or her predicted score on the criterion. The correct answer is: estimate the difference between an examinee's predicted criterion score and his or her true criterion score.

Therapeutic drug monitoring relies on measuring specific drugs to maintain a concentration in the patient's bloodstream for what purpose? a. Prevent individuals with substance use disorders from overdosing on illicit substances b. Optimize dosage regimens c. Reduce undesired side-effects of medications d. Identify chromosomal abnormalities that may be affected by specific drugs

Answer B is correct: Therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) operates on the assumption that there is a connection between the concentration of a drug in a patient's bloodstream and the therapeutic effects that patient experiences. Answers A and C may occur as a result of TDM, but it is not the main goal. Identifying chromosomal abnormalities (Answer D) would occur through genetic testing, not TDM. The correct answer is: Optimize dosage regimens

A psychologist obtains a statistically significant F-ratio for the interaction between two independent variables (IVs). This means that: Select one: a. the effects of one IV are significant across all levels of the second IV. b. the effects of one IV are contingent on the level of the second IV. c. the main effects of both IVs are statistically significant. d. the effects of the two IVs are statistically significant only when they are considered jointly.

Answer B is correct: This answer is another way of saying that the effects of one IV are different at different levels of the other IV, which is the definition of an interaction. The correct answer is: the effects of one IV are contingent on the level of the second IV. The F ratio is the ratio of two mean square values. If the null hypothesis is true, you expect F to have a value close to 1.0 most of the time. A large F ratio means that the variation among group means is more than you'd expect to see by chance. The F-statistic is the test statistic for F-tests. In general, an F-statistic is a ratio of two quantities that are expected to be roughly equal under the null hypothesis, which produces an F-statistic of approximately 1. ... In order to reject the null hypothesis that the group means are equal, we need a high F-value.

Tiedeman and O'Hara's approach to career development: Select one: a. emphasizes the importance of a good personality or work environment match. b. views career development as an aspect of ego identity development. c. links career outcomes to Maslow's need hierarchy theory. d. uses the Life Career Rainbow to depict the interaction between life roles and life stages.

Answer B is correct: Tiedeman and O'Hara link career identity development to Erikson's stages of ego identity (personality) development. views career development as an aspect of ego identity development.

Schizophrenia

a group of severe disorders characterized by disorganized and delusional thinking, disturbed perceptions, and inappropriate emotions and actions A diagnosis of Schizophrenia requires the presence of characteristic psychotic symptoms, impaired functioning, and the presence of symptoms for at least six months.

Ninety adults are randomly assigned to one of three groups and the average IQ score of each group is calculated. If a one-way ANOVA is used to compare the mean IQ scores of the three groups, you would expect the resulting F-ratio to be: Select one: a. equal to 0. b. equal to 1.0. c. greater than 100. d. equal to -1.0

Answer B is correct: When there are no treatment effects (which would be the case in the situation described in this question), the numerator and denominator should both be measures of error and the F-ratio will simply be error divided by error, which should equal a value very close to 1.0. The correct answer is: equal to 1.0. The F-ratio is calculated by dividing a measure of variability due to error plus treatment (mean square between) by a measure of variability due to error only (mean square within).

With regard to the reduction of racial or ethnic discrimination, Gordon Allport (1954) concluded that: Select one: a. folkways must always precede stateways. b. stateways must always precede folkways. c. it is not always necessary for folkways to precede stateways. d. it is necessary for folkways and stateways to change simultaneously.

Answer C is correct. As defined by Allport (1954), folkways are personal attitudes and beliefs, while stateways are laws. Allport concluded that stateways can effectively precede folkways. In other words, he believed that laws prohibiting discrimination can be effective even when they do not reflect public consensus. it is not always necessary for folkways to precede stateways.

Drugs that block the activity of __________ produce dry mouth, blurred vision, postural hypotension, urinary retention, and tachycardia. Select one: a. 5-HT b. glycine c. ACh d. glutamate

Answer C is correct: ACh (acetylcholine) is one of the neurotransmitters classified as "cholinergic." Drugs that block ACh activity produce anticholinergic effects.

Research using the "strange situation" found that, after being left by her mother with a stranger, a baby exhibiting insecure or avoidant attachment: Select one: a. becomes highly distressed. b. acts confused and disoriented. c. ignores her mother when she returns. d. clings to her mother when she returns.

Answer C is correct: An insecure or avoidant infant shows little distress when separated from his or her mother and will avoid or ignore her when she returns. The correct answer is: ignores her mother when she returns.

You are asked by an attorney to evaluate the woman he is representing in a custody case and then recommend that she be granted custody in court. As an ethical psychologist, you should: Select one: a. evaluate the woman only if you can do a thorough assessment before making a recommendation on her behalf. b. evaluate the woman only if you can do a thorough assessment and then make a recommendation on her behalf only if the results indicate that she is a good parent. c. evaluate the woman and testify about the results but do not make specific recommendations about custody without evaluating the husband and children. d. refuse to make a recommendation about which parent should be granted custody under any circumstances.

Answer C is correct: Any conclusions or recommendations about custody must be based on adequate information, which means that all parties should be evaluated before a recommendation is made. You could, however, evaluate the woman only and provide a summary of your results without making specific recommendations. The correct answer is: evaluate the woman and testify about the results but do not make specific recommendations about custody without evaluating the husband and children.

A researcher investigating the chemical correlates of memory would be most likely to find that administration of which of the following would improve memory consolidation in older adults? Select one: a. LGN b. THC c. RNA d. GABA

Answer C is correct: As noted above, there is evidence that RNA is associated with memory consolidation. Older adults with severe memory impairments have been found to exhibit a significant improvement in memory consolidation following administration of yeast RNA (Cameron, 1958). Although this research result has not always been replicated in humans, it has been consistently found in animals.

Sam has always been very fond of bowling. However, his new girlfriend, Sally, hates bowling. According to _________, in this situation, Sam will be motivated to change his feelings about bowling. Select one: a. social judgment theory b. equity theory c. balance theory d. the emotion-in-relationship model

Answer C is correct: Balance theory predicts that people prefer to have consistent cognitions and will be motivated to change a cognition in order to reduce the disequilibrium they feel when they experience inconsistency. It also focuses on the relationships between three entities -- the person, another person, and a third person, object, event, or activity. The correct answer is: balance theory

Research on bilingualism suggests that it: a. has detrimental effects on several aspects of children's cognitive functioning, especially during the elementary school years. b. has detrimental effects on several aspects of children's cognitive functioning that persist into adulthood. c. has beneficial effects on children's cognitive flexibility and metalinguistic awareness in the elementary school years but that these effects may not persist into adolescence. d. has no demonstrable effect on cognitive functioning in childhood or adolescence.

Answer C is correct: Bilingualism has been found to have benefits in terms of divergent thinking (including cognitive flexibility) and metalinguistic awareness. However, there is some evidence that these benefits may be temporary and that, in adolescence and adulthood, bilinguals are indistinguishable from monolinguals.

To ascertain if the test you have developed is valid as a screening test for determining whether a person has an anxiety or affective disorder, you would be most interested in evaluating the test's: Select one: a. content validity. b. external validity. c. concurrent validity. d. differential validity.

Answer C is correct: Concurrent validity is a type of criterion-related validity. It is used to establish validity when the purpose of the test is to estimate current status on a criterion. In this case, the criterion would be some method of diagnosis that is known to be accurate. Concurrent validity measures how well a new test compares to a well-established test. It can also refer to the practice of concurrently testing two groups at the same time, or asking two different groups of people to take the same test. Advantages: It is a fast way to validate your data.

Eigenvalues are associated with: Select one: a. internal consistency reliability. b. criterion-referenced interpretation. c. the multitrait-multimethod matrix. d. principal components analysis.

Answer D is correct: Eigenvalues can be calculated for each component "extracted" in a principal component analysis. An eigenvalue indicates the total amount of variability in a set of tests or other variables that is explained by an identified component or factor.

Consensual observer drift tends to: Select one: a. increase the probability of answering a test item correctly by chance alone. b. decrease the probability of answering a test item correctly by chance alone. c. produce an overestimate of a test's inter-rater reliability. d. produce an underestimate of a test's inter-rater reliability.

Answer C is correct: Consensual observer drift makes the ratings of different raters more similar, which artificially increases inter-rater reliability. The correct answer is: produce an overestimate of a test's inter-rater reliability. Consensual observer drift occurs when two or more observers working together influence each other's ratings on a behavioral rating scale so that they assign ratings in a similar idiosyncratic way.

A test's content validity is established primarily by which of the following? Select one: a. conducting a factor analysis b. assessing the test's convergent and divergent validity c. having subject matter experts systematically review the test's items d. testing hypotheses about the attribute(s) measured by the test

Answer C is correct: Content validity refers to the degree to which test items are an adequate sample of the content domain and is determined primarily by the judgment of subject matter experts. The methods listed in the other answers are used to establish a test's construct validity. The correct answer is: having subject matter experts systematically review the test's items

Research on goal-setting theory has found that, when workers participate in setting their own performance goals, the goals tend to be __________ goals set by the supervisor alone. Select one: a. easier than b. similar to c. more difficult than d. qualitatively different from

Answer C is correct: Contrary to what might be expected, workers tend to set more difficult goals for themselves than their supervisors would set for them. The correct answer is: more difficult than

Dr. Angela Angst is using a repeated measures design to compare the effects of different techniques for reducing free-floating anxiety. To control potential carryover effects, Dr. Angst should use which of the following? Select one: a. an unobtrusive measure b. blocking c. counterbalancing d. a cross-sequential design

Answer C is correct: Counterbalancing controls carryover effects by presenting the different levels of the independent variable to different participants in a different order. The correct answer is: counterbalancing Carryover effects occur when being exposed to one level of the independent variable affects how a participant reacts to another level of that variable. It is a potential threat to the validity of repeated measures designs in which each participant is exposed to more than one level of the independent variable.

Spinal cord injury at the sacral level will cause: Select one: a. loss of control of the fingers and hands. b. loss of functioning in the arms and legs. c. loss of functioning in the hips and legs. d. poor trunk control.

Answer C is correct: Damage at the sacral level causes a loss of functioning in the hips and legs. Knowing that the sacral nerves are near the bottom of the spinal cord would have helped you recognize this as the correct response. The 31 pairs of spinal nerves are divided into five groups or regions. These are, from top to bottom: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.

A high school counselor uses a battery of tests to help high school juniors and seniors choose a college major. Which of the following multivariate techniques would be most helpful in this situation? Select one: a. multiple regression b. path analysis c. discriminant function analysis d. canonical correlation

Answer C is correct: Discriminant function analysis is used to predict or estimate a person's status on a single nominal criterion from two or more predictors.

In comparison to young children, older adults: a. are more likely to begin the sleep period with REM sleep. b. spend a greater proportion of the sleep period in Stage 4 sleep. c. spend a smaller proportion of the sleep period in REM sleep. d. all of the above.

Answer C is correct: During the first two to three months of life, infants begin a sleep period with REM sleep, which then gradually changes to NREM sleep. This sequence subsequently reverses. In addition, total sleep time, stage 4 sleep, and REM sleep all decrease from childhood to adulthood. The correct answer is: spend a smaller proportion of the sleep period in REM sleep.

To serve as an expert witness in a court case, you: Select one: a. must have the consent of the person you will be testifying about. b. must testify only with regard to what you have personally observed. c. must be qualified by the court to offer opinions and conclusions. d. must be qualified by the attorneys for the plaintiff and defendant to offer opinions and conclusions.

Answer C is correct: Expert witnesses are qualified by the court to offer opinions and conclusions. The correct answer is: must be qualified by the court to offer opinions and conclusions. An expert witness is allowed to draw conclusions from available data, even if the data were not personally observed or obtained.

The optimal item difficulty index (p) for items included in a true or false test is: Select one: a. .25. b. .50. c. .75. d. 1

Answer C is correct: For true or false items, the probability of obtaining a correct answer by chance alone is .50. Therefore, the optimal difficulty level for true or false items is .75, which is halfway between 1.0 and .50. The correct answer is: .75. One factor that affects the optimal difficulty level of an item is the likelihood that an examinee can choose the correct answer by guessing, with the preferred level being halfway between 100% and the level of success expected by chance alone.

When conducting a factor analysis, you would choose an oblique rotation of the factors if: Select one: a. you are assessing the construct validity of a test designed to measure a single trait. b. you believe that each test included in the analysis measures a different construct. c. you believe the constructs measured by the tests included in the analysis are correlated. d. you want to determine if a test has an adequate level of incremental validity.

Answer C is correct: In factor analysis, orthogonal means uncorrelated, while oblique means correlated. Therefore, you would conduct an oblique rotation if you believe the test you are validating measures constructs that correlate with the constructs measured by the other tests you've included in the analysis. The correct answer is: you believe the constructs measured by the tests included in the analysis are correlated.

covert sensitization therapy

a milder form of aversion therapy in which graphic imagery is used to create unpleasant associations with specific stimuli An aversion therapy that reduces unwanted behaviors by repeated, imagined associations with an unpleasant consequence.

Agonist

a molecule that increases a neurotransmitter's action An agonist produces effects similar to those produced by a neurotransmitter.

You have been hired as a research assistant for a study investigating the effectiveness of various forms of therapy for Social Anxiety Disorder. The procedures and methods used in the study are ethically sound; however, your supervisor is not informing participants that they can withdraw from the study at any time if they desire to do so. Your best course of action would be to: Select one: a. quit your job. b. inform the participants yourself of their right to withdraw. c. discuss the possible ethical violation with the supervisor. d. do nothing since this is an acceptable practice.

Answer C is correct: In most circumstances, it is necessary to obtain an informed consent from research participants and one requirements for an informed consent is letting potential participants know that they can withdraw from the study at any time. Discussing this issue with the supervisor is consistent with Standard 1.04 (Informal Resolution of Ethical Violations) and would be the best initial course of action. The correct answer is: discuss the possible ethical violation with the supervisor.

Which of the following predicts that instituting a law that raises the minimum drinking age for purchasing alcohol from 18 to 21 will increase underage drinking among college students? Select one: a. the inoculation model b. cognitive dissonance theory c. psychological reactance theory d. the deindividuation model

Answer C is correct: In the situation described in this question, it is predicted that college students will do the opposite of what is required by law -- i.e., they will do the opposite of what is desired in a situation in which their personal freedom is being thwarted. This is referred to as psychological reactance. The correct answer is: psychological reactance theory

Which of the following will have the greatest impact on employees' perceptions of interactional justice at work? Select one: a. Employees receive the organizational outcomes they believe they deserve. b. Employees participate in decisions related to organizational outcomes. c. Employees are treated with respect and consideration by supervisors. d. Employees are allowed to evaluate each other's performance.

Answer C is correct: Interactional justice refers to how people feel about the quality and content of person-to-person interactions, including interactions with supervisors.

At least eight times in the past month, Mark has experienced a sudden arousal from sleep that starts with a loud scream and is accompanied by signs of autonomic arousal. When his partner tries to comfort him during these episodes, Mark does not respond and, in the morning, does not remember what happened. Assuming that Mark's episodes usually happen in the first third of the night during stage 3 or 4 sleep, the most likely diagnosis is which of the following? Select one: a. Narcolepsy b. Nightmare Disorder c. Non-REM Sleep Arousal Disorder d. REM Sleep Behavior Disorder

Answer C is correct: Mark's symptoms (sudden arousal from sleep that starts with a loud scream and is accompanied by autonomic arousal) and the fact that his arousal from sleep occurs during stage 3 or 4 sleep are consistent with a diagnosis of Non-REM Sleep Arousal Disorder, sleep terror type.

Moffitt (1993) attributes the adolescence-limited type of antisocial behavior to which of the following? Select one: a. a "psychopathic constitution" b. observational learning c. a "maturity gap" d. neuropsychological impairment

Answer C is correct: Moffitt describes the adolescence-limited type of antisocial behavior as a temporary form of antisocial behavior that reflects a "maturity gap" between the adolescent's biological maturity and lack of opportunities for adult privileges and rewards.

Your new clients are a family that consists of a husband, wife, and two adolescent girls. They began therapy because one of the girls has started using drugs and the other has signs of an eating disorder. You realize during the first session that you and the parents belong to the same country club. You should: Select one: a. terminate therapy with this family and provide them with referrals. b. ask the parents to decide if they want to continue therapy with you. c. consider the situation to determine if you can maintain your objectivity with this family. d. continue seeing the family and join a different country club.

Answer C is correct: Multiple relationships are addressed in several Standards of the Ethics Code, including Standard 3.05, which prohibits multiple relationships that "could be reasonably expected to impair the psychologist's objectivity, competence, or effectiveness ... otherwise risks exploitation or harm to the person." In this case, you would want to determine if the parents' membership in the country club is likely to have an adverse effect on your effectiveness before proceeding with treatment. The correct answer is: consider the situation to determine if you can maintain your objectivity with this family.

Dr. Everett Ernest, a licensed psychologist, has recently started a practice in a small town. He learns from a mutual friend that Dr. Cathy Chatty (also a psychologist) has been revealing confidential information about some of her clients to members of the community. Dr. Ernest should: Select one: a. contact the clients to let them know what he has heard. b. obtain consents from the clients and file a complaint with the Ethics Committee. c. consult with a colleague about the situation. d. do nothing since the information about Dr. Chatty is hearsay.

Answer C is correct: Of the answers given, this is the best one. If Dr. Ernest felt comfortable with discussing the issue with Dr. Chatty, that would probably be the best course of action. Since this is not given as an alternative, consulting with a colleague is the best answer. Ethical guidelines require psychologists to take some action in situations in which a fellow professional is believed to have acted unethically. However, a psychologist can choose from several alternatives when doing so.

The __________ proposes that aggressive impulses "build up" inside an individual and must be released and that such release reduces the risk for future aggression. a. displaced aggression hypothesis b. contact hypothesis c. catharsis hypothesis d. deindividual model

Answer C is correct: One implication of the catharsis hypothesis is that watching someone else engage in violence (e.g., watching a violent TV show) will lead to catharsis, which will then reduce the risk of aggressive behavior in the future. The catharsis hypothesis has not been well-supported by the research.

A child is most likely to exhibit behavioral and psychological problems following the divorce of his parents if: Select one: a. he lives with his father rather than his mother. b. his parents have joint custody. c. his parents frequently argue in front of him. d. his mother adopts an authoritative parenting style.

Answer C is correct: One of the more consistent findings of the research is that children have fewer problems when their parents are able to control their anger and keep fights in front of the children to a minimum. The correct answer is: his parents frequently argue in front of him.

Which of the following scores is NOT a norm-referenced score? Select one: a. percentile rank b. T-score c. pass or fail d. grade-equivalent scores

Answer C is correct: Pass or fail is a criterion-referenced score. It indicates whether a person has or has not mastered the test content and does not measure performance in terms of other examinees. A "pass" score obtained by one examinee does not indicate how many other examinees passed or failed. When using norm-referenced interpretation, an examinee's score indicates how well he or she did on the test relative to examinees in the norm group.

According to Piaget, centration, or the tendency to focus on only one aspect of a situation or object while ignoring all others, is characteristic of the _________ stage. Select one: a. preconventional b. conventional c. preoperational d. concrete operational

Answer C is correct: Piaget described centration as characteristic of the preoperational stage and as one of the reasons why young children cannot conserve. The correct answer is: preoperational centration, or the tendency to focus on only one aspect of a situation or object while ignoring all others

Lead poisoning is associated with which of the following disorders? Select one: a. Tourette's Disorder b. Rumination Disorder c. Pica d. Enuresis

Answer C is correct: Pica involves persistent eating of nonnutritive substances (e.g., lead-based paint) for at least one month, with the eating behavior being inappropriate for the individual's developmental level and not being part of a culturally supported practice.

A test's specificity refers to the number of __________ that were identified by the test. Select one: a. true positives b. false positives c. true negatives d. false negatives

Answer C is correct: Specificity refers to the identification of true negatives (percent of cases in the validation sample who do not have the disorder and were accurately classified by the test as not having the disorder).

Which of the following accurately describes the requirements of the APA's Ethics Code with regard to informed consents? Select one: a. An informed consent must be in writing. b. An informed consent must be in writing and signed by the client. c. A written or oral consent must be documented. d. An oral consent is never acceptable.

Answer C is correct: Standard 3.10(d) states that "psychologists appropriately document written or oral consent, permission, and assent." The correct answer is: A written or oral consent must be documented.

Your former client, Caleb Cash, has failed to pay the balance of an unpaid bill. Although you have given Caleb numerous opportunities to respond to your written requests for payment and have informed him of your intention to turn this matter over to a collection agency, he has not made any attempt to resolve this matter. One day, you receive a call from another therapist who is currently working with Caleb. She asks you to forward a copy of Caleb's records and faxes you a copy of a signed release from Caleb. According to the APA's Ethics Code, you: Select one: a. must comply with the therapist's request since Caleb has signed a release. b. may withhold Caleb's records until he pays his outstanding bill. c. may withhold Caleb's records as long as they are not needed for emergency treatment. d. should explain the situation to the therapist and ask her to tell Caleb to contact you.

Answer C is correct: Standard 6.03 states that "psychologists may not withhold records under their control that are requested and needed for client's or patient's emergency treatment solely because payment has not been received." The correct answer is: may withhold Caleb's records as long as they are not needed for emergency treatment.

Which of the following best describes the requirements of the APA's Ethics Code for bartering? Select one: a. Bartering for goods (but not services) is acceptable. b. Bartering for services (but not goods) is acceptable. c. Bartering for goods or services may be acceptable under certain conditions. d. Bartering for goods or services is prohibited in all circumstances.

Answer C is correct: Standard 6.05 states that "psychologists may barter only if (1) it is not clinically contraindicated, and (2) the resulting arrangement is not exploitative." The correct answer is: Bartering for goods or services may be acceptable under certain conditions.

You have made an arrangement with another psychologist to exchange a nominal payment of $25.00 for referrals to each other. In terms of the requirements of the APA's Ethics Code, this is: Select one: a. ethical since the Ethics Code does not prohibit referral fees. b. ethical as long as the clients are informed of this practice at the outset of therapy. c. unethical if the payment of $25.00 is based on the referral only. d. unethical if the payment for the referral represents more than 25% of the fee paid by the client.

Answer C is correct: Standard 6.07 states: "When psychologists pay, receive payment from, or divide fees with another professional ... the payment to each is based on the services provided (clinical, consultative, administrative, or other) and is not based on the referral itself." The correct answer is: unethical if the payment of $25.00 is based on the referral only.

Dr. Betty Black's ad for her seminar on relaxation techniques invites the public to "come and hear an in-depth lecture on techniques to help reduce the stress of daily living." The advertised cost for her two-hour seminar is $35.00. While preparing her lecture the night before the presentation, Dr. Black decides it would be valuable to demonstrate her techniques with the group. She decides that, instead of lecturing for the full two hours, she will have attendees divide into groups for the second hour to experiment with the techniques. With regard to the requirements of the APA's Ethics Code, this is: Select one: a. ethical if she allows participants to leave after the lecture portion of the seminar. b. ethical if the demonstration is well executed and educational. c. unethical since she advertised the seminar as a "lecture." d. unethical because she plans to spend one hour lecturing when the most beneficial part will probably be the experiential portion.

Answer C is correct: Standard 7.02 requires psychologists to "take reasonable steps to ensure that there is a current and accurate description of the program content." Altering the program content on the night before its presentation would violate this requirement. The correct answer is: unethical since she advertised the seminar as a "lecture."

Damage to which of the following would most likely result in impairments in the organization and coordination of voluntary motor responses? Select one: a. mammillary bodies b. suprachiasmatic nucleus c. cingulate gyrus d. basal ganglia

Answer D is correct: The basal ganglia include the caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus, and substantia nigra. These structures play an important role in planning, organizing, and coordinating voluntary movement. Answer A is incorrect: The mammillary bodies are part of the hypothalamus and are involved in learning and memory. Damage can result in anterograde amnesia.

Dr. Billie Bloom requires students in his introductory psychology class to participate in a university-sponsored research project as a requirement for the course. This is: Select one: a. unethical under any circumstances. b. ethical as long as the research exposes students to "minimum risk." c. ethical as long as students are given a choice of completing an alternative assignment. d. ethical as long as students are made aware of this requirement before they enroll in his class.

Answer C is correct: Standard 8.04(b) states that, "when research participation is a course requirement or an opportunity for extra credit, the prospective participant is given the choice of equitable alternative activities." The correct answer is: ethical as long as students are given a choice of completing an alternative assignment.

Stanford-Binet and Wechsler IQ scores are: Select one: a. percentile ranks. b. ipsative scores. c. standard scores. d. stanine scores.

Answer C is correct: Stanford-Binet and Wechsler IQ scores are standard scores that indicate an examinee's performance in terms of standard deviations from the mean obtained by examinees in the norm group. The correct answer is: standard scores. Standard scores report an examinee's performance in terms of standard deviations from the mean.

Cognitive preparation, skills acquisition, and application and follow-through are the three overlapping phases of which of the following strategies? Select one: a. problem-solving therapy b. attribution retraining c. stress inoculation d. self-instructional training

Answer C is correct: Stress inoculation was designed to help people deal effectively with stress by enhancing their coping skills. It consists of the three phases listed in this question (cognitive preparation, skills acquisition, and application and follow-through). The correct answer is: stress inoculation

As conceptualized in Baddeley and Hitch's (1974) multi-component model, the ________ is responsible for directing attention to relevant sensory information. Select one: a. cognitive sketchpad b. sensory coding system c. central executive d. episodic buffer

Answer C is correct: The central executive is the primary component of working memory and acts as an "attentional control system." According to the multi-component model, working memory consists of a central executive and three subsystems -- the phonological loop, the visuospatial sketchpad, and the episodic buffer.

A supervisor's ratings are affected by a "halo bias." This means that the supervisor rates: Select one: a. all employees identical to the way she rates the first employee. b. all employees on the basis of their physical attractiveness. c. each employee the same on all dimensions of job performance. d. each employee very high on all dimensions of job performance.

Answer C is correct: The halo bias (effect) occurs when a rater's rating of an individual on one dimension of performance influences how he or she rates the individual on other unrelated dimensions.

A mother finds that, when she yells at her son, the boy stops picking on his little sister for a brief period of time. Over time, the mother finds that she has to yell more and more frequently at the boy to get him to leave his sister alone. The boy is influencing his mother's behavior (yelling) through: Select one: a. negative punishment. b. positive punishment. c. negative reinforcement. d. positive reinforcement.

Answer C is correct: The mother's yelling is increasing, which means that it is being reinforced; and it is being reinforced by the removal of her son's undesirable behavior, which means that it is being negatively reinforced.

In a scatterplot constructed from data collected in a concurrent validity study, the number of "false negatives" is likely to increase if: a. the predictor and criterion cutoff scores are both raised. b. the predictor and criterion cutoff scores are both lowered. c. the predictor cutoff score is raised and or or the criterion cutoff score is lowered. d. the predictor cutoff score is lowered and or or the criterion cutoff score is raised.

Answer C is correct: The number of false negatives increases as the predictor cutoff score is raised (moved to the right in a scatterplot) and when the criterion cutoff score is lowered (moved toward the bottom of the scatterplot). The correct answer is: the predictor cutoff score is raised and or or the criterion cutoff score is lowered.

To be able to conclude that one research participant has twice as much of a characteristic than another participant, your measure of that characteristic must produce scores that represent which scale of measurement? Select one: a. ordinal b. interval c. ratio d. nominal

Answer C is correct: The ratio scale provides the greatest information. Because it has an absolute zero point, you can conclude that one score is twice as much as another -- for example, that a person who weighs 100 pounds weighs twice as much as a person who weighs 50 pounds.

Studies examining the impact of heredity on IQ have correlated the IQs of children and their siblings and/or parents. These studies suggest that the correlation for biological siblings reared together is about: Select one: a. .10 to .15. b. .25 to .30. c. .40 to .45. d. .55 to .60.

Answer C is correct: The reported correlations vary somewhat from study to study but, of the ranges given, a range of .40 to .45 is closest to the correlations reported for biological siblings reared together. The correct answer is: .40 to .45.

Research by Sherif et al. (1961) suggests that, to decrease hostility between groups of junior high school students, you would be best advised to: Select one: a. increase opportunities for social contact under pleasant conditions. b. have a respected member of the community speak to the students about the benefits of cooperation. c. assign the students goals that can be achieved only through intergroup cooperation. d. have each group select a representative to discuss ways to reduce hostility.

Answer C is correct: The results of the Robber's Cave study found that the most effective way for reducing intergroup hostility was to introduce superordinate goals that could be accomplished only through intergroup cooperation. The correct answer is: assign the students goals that can be achieved only through intergroup cooperation.

When using the technique known as blocking: Select one: a. an extraneous variable is "held constant." b. the effects of an extraneous variable are statistically removed. c. an extraneous variable is treated as an independent variable. d. an extraneous variable is treated as a dependent variable.

Answer C is correct: This answer describes blocking which allows a researcher to evaluate the main and interaction effects of the extraneous variable. Answers A, B, and C all describe methods for controlling an extraneous variable but only one describes the method known as blocking.

Dopamine

a neurotransmitter that regulates motor behavior, motivation, pleasure, and emotional arousal

During a court-ordered evaluation of a defendant to determine her competence to stand trial, she reveals information to you that confirms her guilt. As an ethical psychologist, you should: Select one: a. use your discretion in determining what to include in your evaluation report. b. include information about the defendant's confession in the report since privilege is waived in this situation. c. include only information relevant to the defendant's competence in the evaluation report. d. not provide the court with any information obtained in the evaluation without a release from the defendant.

Answer C is correct: This answer is most consistent Paragraph 10.01 of the Specialty Guidelines. It states: "Forensic examiners seek to assist the trier of fact to understand evidence or determine a fact in issue, and they provide information that is most relevant to the psycholegal issue. In reports and testimony forensic practitioners typically provide information about examinees' functional abilities, capacities, knowledge, and beliefs, and address their opinions and recommendations to the identified psycholegal issues." The correct answer is: include only information relevant to the defendant's competence in the evaluation report.

Which of the following best describes the provisions of the Ethics Code with regard to sexual relationships with students? a. The Code prohibits relationships with current or former students under any circumstances. b. The Code prohibits relationships with current students but permits relationships with past students. c. The Code prohibits relationships with students over whom a psychologist has or is likely to have evaluative authority. d. The Code prohibits relationships with current or past students who are vulnerable to undue influence.

Answer C is correct: This answer is most consistent with the actual language of Standard 7.07, which states: "Psychologists do not engage in sexual relationships with students or supervisees who are in their department, agency, or training center or over whom psychologists have or are likely to have evaluative authority." The correct answer is: The Code prohibits relationships with students over whom a psychologist has or is likely to have evaluative authority.

The tendency to overestimate the role of dispositional factors when inferring the cause of another person's behavior is referred to as the: a. self-serving bias. b. actor-observer effect. c. fundamental attribution bias. d. self-perception bias.

Answer C is correct: This question describes the fundamental attribution bias which is the tendency to attribute the behavior of others to dispositional factors. The correct answer is: fundamental attribution bias.

An operant technique in which all opportunities for positive reinforcement are made unavailable for a specified period of time following the performance of an undesirable behavior in order to reduce that behavior is known as: Select one: a. response cost. b. overcorrection. c. time-out. d. classical extinction.

Answer C is correct: Time-out is also known as "time-out from positive reinforcement" and involves removing all reinforcement for a specified period of time following a behavior in order to decrease or eliminate that behavior. The correct answer is: time-out.

Difficulty repeating words, phrases, or sentences uttered by another person is characteristic of all of the following types of aphasia except: Select one: a. Broca's aphasia. b. Wernicke's aphasia. c. transcortical aphasia. d. conduction aphasia.

Answer C is correct: Transcortical aphasia is distinguished from the other types of aphasia by an unimpaired ability to repeat words, phrases, or sentences spoken by another person. Transcortical Motor Aphasia is a type of non-fluent aphasia. This means that speech is halting with a lot of starts and stops. People with TMA typically have good repetition skills, especially compared to spontaneous speech. For instance, a person with TMA might be able to repeat a long sentence.

A researcher will use trend analysis to analyze the data she has collected in a research study when: Select one: a. the research design is quasi-experimental. b. the dependent variables are correlated. c. the independent variable is quantitative. d. the research design is longitudinal.

Answer C is correct: Trend analysis is a type of analysis of variance that can be used when the independent variable is quantitative. It allows the researcher to determine whether there is a significant linear or nonlinear effect of the independent variable on the dependent variable. The correct answer is: the independent variable is quantitative. Trend analysis is a statistical procedure performed to evaluate hypothesized linear and nonlinear relationships between two quantitative variables. Typically, it is implemented either as an analysis of variance (ANOVA) for quantitative variables or as a regression analysis. Examples of Quantitative Variables / Numeric Variables: High school Grade Point Average (e.g. 4.0, 3.2, 2.1). Number of pets owned (e.g. 1, 2, 4). Bank account balance (e.g. $100, $987, $-42. Number of stars in a galaxy (e.g. 100, 2301, 1 trillion) . Average number of lottery tickets sold (e.g. 25, 2,789, 2 million).

In Watson's research, Little Albert's fear of white fur and cotton was the result of: Select one: a. spontaneous recovery. b. higher-order conditioning. c. stimulus generalization. d. experimental neurosis.

Answer C is correct: Watson used classical conditioning to establish a fear reaction in Little Albert to a white rat. Subsequently, Albert exhibited a great deal of stimulus generalization -- i.e., he also exhibited a fear response to other white furry objects. The correct answer is: stimulus generalization.

Sensory memory: a. holds a very small amount of sensory data for a brief period. b. holds a very small amount of sensory data for a long period. c. holds a large amount of sensory data for a brief period. d. holds a large amount of sensory data for a long period.

Answer C is correct: While sensory memory seems to be able to hold a large amount of incoming sensory information, it does so for no more than a few seconds. The correct answer is: holds a large amount of sensory data for a brief period.

To determine a test's internal consistency reliability by calculating coefficient alpha, you would: a. administer the test to a single sample of examinees two times. b. administer two alternate forms of the test to a single sample of examinees. c. administer the test to a single sample of examinees and have the tests scored by two raters. d. administer the test to a single sample of examinees one time.

Answer D is correct: Determining internal consistency reliability with coefficient alpha involves administering the test once to a single sample of examinees and using the formula to determine the degree of inter-item consistency. Cronbach's alpha is a measure of internal consistency, that is, how closely related a set of items are as a group. It is considered to be a measure of scale reliability.

Dr. Cecelia Cooper, a licensed psychologist, is planning a longitudinal study to identify environmental contributors to drug abuse. Her study will involve interviewing drug and non-drug users and their families several times over a five-year period and will require that she maintain participants' names, addresses, and phone numbers in her files. Dr. Cooper is concerned about the confidentiality of her participants, especially if she is ever called to testify about any of them in court. Dr. Cooper: Select one: a. need not be concerned about confidentiality since it will be both legal and ethical for her to refuse to testify about the participants in court. b. should not be concerned about confidentiality since the participants' privilege will be waived in this situation. c. should inform her participants of the possible limits of confidentiality as part of the informed consent process. d. should always obtain an informed consent from a participant prior to testifying about him or her in court. Feedback

Answer C is correct: stress the importance of informing research participants of potential limits to confidentiality during the informed consent process.

For a DSM-5 diagnosis of Delirium, a person must exhibit ___________ plus at least one other disturbance in cognition. Select one: a. an impairment in executive functioning b. profound retrograde amnesia c. aphasia or other language disorder d. a disturbance in attention and awareness

Answer D is correct: A diagnosis of Delirium requires a disturbance in attention and awareness and at least one additional disturbance in cognition - e.g., impaired memory, disorientation, impaired language, deficits in visuospatial ability, or perceptual distortions. The correct answer is: a disturbance in attention and awareness

Your newly developed measure of integrity correlates highly with a well-known and widely used measure of integrity. This correlation provides evidence of your measure's ________ validity. Select one: a. incremental b. internal c. discriminant d. convergent

Answer D is correct: A high correlation between a new and an established measure of the same construct provides evidence of the new measure's convergent validity (which, in turn, provides evidence of its construct validity). In this situation, one measure of a specific construct correlates highly with another measure of the same construct.

Part of your job at a mental health clinic is to administer intelligence, personality, and other tests to child, adolescent, and adult clients. To reduce your workload, you train an employee of the clinic to administer many of the tests and to write interpretive reports. The employee is one semester away from a B.A. in psychology and has already been accepted into a Psy.D. program for the following year. Which of the following is true about this situation? Select one: a. You are acting ethically since it is up to you to decide if the employee is sufficiently competent to administer tests and interpret their results. b. You are acting ethically as long as you supervise the employee's work. c. You are acting unethically because only people who have completed some graduate-level work should administer psychological tests. d. You are acting unethically because the employee is not qualified to interpret many commonly-used psychological tests.

Answer D is correct: A person who is working on a B.A. in psychology may be qualified to administer some psychological tests but is clearly not qualified to interpret their results. Although it is true that it is up to the psychologist to decide when an employee is qualified to administer tests, in this case, this employee is clearly not qualified to interpret them. The correct answer is: You are acting unethically because the employee is not qualified to interpret many commonly-used psychological tests.

Young adults who receive which of the following diagnoses are most likely to no longer meet the diagnostic criteria for the disorder when they reach middle-age? Select one: a. Schizotypal Personality Disorder b. Paranoid Personality Disorder c. Avoidant Personality Disorder d. Antisocial Personality Disorder

Answer D is correct: Although Antisocial Personality Disorder is chronic, its symptoms usually become less evident and pervasive in adulthood beginning in middle-age.

Early memory impairment associated with Neurocognitive Disorder due to Alzheimer's disease has been most consistently linked to a loss of neurons that secrete __________, especially in the hippocampus and certain areas of the cortex. Select one: a. GABA b. norepinephrine c. serotonin d. acetylcholine

Answer D is correct: Although Neurocognitive Disorder due to Alzheimer's disease has been linked to several neurotransmitter abnormalities, a loss of cells that secrete acetylcholine (ACh) has been most consistently linked to early memory loss. The correct answer is: acetylcholine

A(n) __________ does not produce a response on its own but interferes with or prevents the action of a neurotransmitter. Select one: a. agonist b. inverse agonist c. partial agonist d. antagonist

Answer D is correct: An antagonist produces no activity in a nerve cell on its own but, instead, reduces or blocks the effects of a neurotransmitter or agonist.

As defined by Piaget, assimilation involves: a. engaging in repetitive or stereotyped actions. b. shifting from one stage of development to the next. c. adjusting existing knowledge to better "fit" new information or experiences. d. incorporating new information into existing knowledge.

Answer D is correct: Assimilation involves incorporating new information or experiences into existing cognitive schemas.

Based on his investigation of the relationship between affiliation and anxiety, Schachter (1959) concluded that which of the following best accounted for the desire of high-anxiety research participants to wait with other high-anxiety participants? a. demand characteristics b. evaluation apprehension c. relief from discomfort d. social comparison

Answer D is correct: Because high-anxiety participants preferred to wait with others for a study to begin only when the others were also highly anxious, Schachter concluded that the desire to affiliate is best explained by social comparison -- i.e., the participant's desire to evaluate his or her own anxiety by comparing it to the anxiety of another participant. The correct answer is: social comparison Schachter's (1959) "misery loves miserable company" study

A chimpanzee pushes a button to turn on a tone. Once the tone sounds, the chimpanzee pulls a lever to turn on a green light. Once the green light is on, the chimpanzee slides a door open to obtain a treat. Which of the following techniques was used to teach this sequence of behaviors to the chimpanzee? Select one: a. forward conditioning b. differential reinforcement c. shaping d. chaining

Answer D is correct: Chaining is used to establish a complex sequence of behaviors (i.e., a "behavioral chain") like the one described in this question. The correct answer is: chaining

As applied to research design, "external validity" refers to which of the following? Select one: a. accuracy b. control c. significance d. generalizability

Answer D is correct: External validity refers to the researcher's ability to generalize research findings beyond the specific time, setting, and participants involved in the research study. The correct answer is: generalizability. Both internal and external validity are concerns in the design of research. Internal validity refers to the extent to which it can be assumed that the changes in the dependent variable are caused by the independent variable. External validity refers to the extent to which the results of a research study can be generalized.

The research suggests that sex therapy is most effective for which of the following sexual dysfunctions? Select one: a. Male Erectile Disorder b. Orgasmic Disorder c. Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder d. Premature Ejaculation

Answer D is correct: Most forms of sex therapy are based on the work of Masters and Johnson; and their research and research by others has found sex therapy to be most effective for Premature Ejaculation and Vaginismus (Genito-Pelvic Pain or Penetration Disorder in DSM-5). The correct answer is: Premature Ejaculation

Which data collection method would involve compiling data about the client from several different sources? Select one: a. Self-report b. Direct observation c. Structured interview d. Multi-informant report

Answer D is correct: Multi-Informant reports involve collecting data from several different sources, such as a client's medical history or speaking with the client's family and friends. This format allows for a large amount of information to be gathered, but contrary information about the client may be gathered due to the number of sources. The correct answer is: Multi-informant report

Which of the following methods for evaluating reliability is most appropriate for speed tests? Select one: a. split-half b. coefficient alpha c. kappa statistic d. coefficient of equivalence

Answer D is correct: Of the methods for evaluating reliability, the coefficient of equivalence (also known as alternative or equivalent forms reliability) is most appropriate for speed tests.

Tyrone and Tyree are 9-year-old twins. Their mother has worked as a bank teller since they were two years old. In comparison to children whose mothers do not work outside the home, you would expect Tyrone and Tyree to: Select one: a. be less securely attached to their mother. b. have higher levels of performance on cognitive tests. c. exhibit delays in the development of gender constancy. d. have fewer gender-role stereotypes.

Answer D is correct: One of the more consistent findings about maternal employment is that the children of working mothers have more flexible ideas about what behaviors are acceptable for males and females. have fewer gender-role stereotypes. Maternal employment has been associated with positive outcomes for cognitive development for boys from low-SES families but possibly negative outcomes for boys from higher-SES families.

Dr. Paula Pang is hired to perform a court-ordered evaluation of a defendant in a criminal case. After describing the purpose of the evaluation to the defendant, he says that he is not willing to cooperate. According to the APA's Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology, Dr. Pang should: Select one: a. remind the defendant that he has no choice since the evaluation is court-ordered. b. refuse to conduct the evaluation unless she obtains a signed consent from the defendant's attorney. c. obtain as much information from the defendant as possible and, in her report, explain why it is incomplete. d. postpone the evaluation and inform the defendant that he should discuss this matter with his attorney.

Answer D is correct: Paragraphs 6.03.02 of the Specialty Guidelines states: "If the examinee is ordered by the court to participate, the forensic practitioner can conduct the examination over the objection, and without the consent, of the examinee.... If the examinee declines to proceed after being notified of the nature and purpose of the forensic examination, the forensic practitioner may consider a variety of options including postponing the examination, advising the examinee to contact his or her attorney, and notifying the retaining party about the examinee's unwillingness to proceed." The correct answer is: postpone the evaluation and inform the defendant that he should discuss this matter with his attorney.

The term "privilege" is: Select one: a. a general term referring to the right to privacy. b. an ethical term referring to an obligation not to reveal confidential information. c. the legal equivalent of the ethical concept of confidentiality. d. a legal term referring to the protection of confidential information in legal proceedings.

Answer D is correct: Privilege is a legal concept that protects a client's confidentiality in the context of a legal proceeding. The correct answer is: a legal term referring to the protection of confidential information in legal proceedings.

An organizational psychologist will most likely apply the concept of "identical elements" originally proposed by Thorndike and Woodworth (1901) to which of the following? Select one: a. job redesign b. employee selection c. criterion development d. employee training

Answer D is correct: Research on Thorndike and Woodworth's theory has supported the importance of providing identical elements for transfer of training. (Note that knowing that Thorndike conducted research in the area of learning may have helped you choose the correct response to this question even if you were unfamiliar with the notion of identical elements.) The correct answer is: employee training

A(n) ________ seizure affects movement and sensation on one side of the body without a loss of consciousness. Select one: a. absence b. clonic c. complex partial d. simple partial

Answer D is correct: Simple partial seizures affect one side of the body (at least initially) and do not involve a loss of consciousness. The correct answer is: simple partial

Dr. Rita Ryan is a psychotherapist in a small town. She receives a phone call from a man she was sexually involved with several years ago. The relationship lasted for only four months and ended amicably. The man is now married and is having problems unrelated to his relationship with Dr. Ryan. He has called to see if he can begin seeing her in therapy. Dr. Ryan should: Select one: a. see the man in therapy only if she determines that their past relationship will not impair her objectivity. b. see the man only if their relationship ended more than two years ago and she determines that it will not impair her objectivity. c. see the man but discuss the potential for conflicts with him before beginning treatment. d. refer the man to a colleague.

Answer D is correct: Standard 10.07 states that "psychologists do not accept as therapy clients or patients persons with whom they have engaged in sexual intimacies." There is no time limit on this prohibition. The correct answer is: refer the man to a colleague.

You have been seeing Alonzo Alvarez in therapy for over six months and believe he is no longer benefiting from his sessions with you. However, when you discuss the possibility of ending therapy, he says he's very happy with the progress he is making and wants to continue. As an ethical psychologist, you: Select one: a. agree to continue seeing Alonzo since he is satisfied with the progress of therapy. b. agree to continue seeing Alonzo for a specified period of time but, at the end of that period, insist on ending therapy. c. explain to Alonzo that these are normal reactions to the end of therapy and set a date for termination. d. see if additional goals for treatment can be identified but, if not, set a date for termination and provide Alonzo with referrals if appropriate.

Answer D is correct: Standard 10.10 states that "psychologists terminate therapy when it becomes reasonably clear that the client or patient no longer needs the service, is not likely to benefit, or is being harmed by continued service.... Except where precluded by the actions of clients or patients or third-party payors, prior to termination psychologists provide pretermination counseling and suggest alternative service providers as appropriate." The correct answer is: see if additional goals for treatment can be identified but, if not, set a date for termination and provide Alonzo with referrals if appropriate.

When attempting to expand your private practice, it is important to keep in mind that in-person solicitation of business: Select one: a. is unethical in all circumstances. b. is unethical only when the solicitation includes misleading or coercive information. c. is ethical only when the person being solicited is not receiving similar services from another professional. d. may be ethical if the person being solicited is not susceptible to undue influence.

Answer D is correct: Standard 5.06 states that "psychologists do not engage, directly or through agents, in uninvited in-person solicitation of business from actual or potential therapy clients or patients or other persons who because of their particular circumstances are vulnerable to undue influence. However, this does not preclude (1) attempting to implement appropriate collateral contacts for the purpose of benefiting an already engaged therapy client or patient or (2) providing disaster or community outreach services." Of the answers given, this one is most consistent with Standard 5.06. The correct answer is: may be ethical if the person being solicited is not susceptible to undue influence.

According to Donald Super, job satisfaction, stability, and success depend on the extent to which a job matches the individual's: Select one: a. need structure. b. knowledge and skills. c. career concept. d. self-concept.

Answer D is correct: Super identified the self-concept as being the result of inherited aptitudes, physical makeup, and social learning experiences and proposed that job satisfaction, stability, and success depend on the extent to which the job matches the individual's self-concept. The correct answer is: self-concept.

According to the Central Limit Theorem, the shape of the sampling distribution of means: Select one: a. is always normal. b. is normal only when the population distribution of scores is normal. c. approaches normal as the number of samples increases regardless of the shape of the population distribution of scores. d. approaches normal as the size of the samples increases regardless of the shape of the population distribution of scores.

Answer D is correct: The Central Limit Theorem predicts that the sampling distribution increasingly approaches normal as the sample size (not the number of samples) increases. The correct answer is: approaches normal as the size of the samples increases regardless of the shape of the population distribution of scores.

Which of the following best describes the requirements of the APA's Ethics Code with regard to the use of animals in research? a. Animals should never be used as research subjects. b. Animals may be used as research subjects only when an alternative procedure is unavailable and the goal of the study is justified by its prospective value. c. Animals may be used as research subjects only when the procedures used will not cause them pain or stress. d. Animals may be used as research subjects when they will be subjected to pain or stress but only when an alternative procedure is not available and the goal of the study is justified by its prospective value.

Answer D is correct: The Ethics Code permits the use of animals in research under certain conditions, and this answer best describes those conditions. The correct answer is: Animals may be used as research subjects when they will be subjected to pain or stress but only when an alternative procedure is not available, and the goal of the study is justified by its prospective value.

To estimate the effects of lengthening a 50-item test to 100 items on the test's reliability, you would use which of the following? Select one: a. eta b. KR-20 c. kappa coefficient d. Spearman-Brown formula

Answer D is correct: The Spearman-Brown prophecy formula is used to estimate the effects of lengthening or shortening a test on its reliability coefficient. The correct answer is: Spearman-Brown formula

An adult with mild Alzheimer's dementia is likely to obtain the LOWEST score on which of the following WAIS-IV Indexes? Select one: a. Verbal Comprehension b. Perceptual Reasoning c. Working Memory d. Processing Speed

Answer D is correct: The Technical Manual for the WAIS-IV reports the following mean index scores for patients with mild Alzheimer's dementia: Verbal Comprehension = 86.2; Perceptual Reasoning = 85.8; Working Memory = 84.3; and Processing Speed = 76.6. The correct answer is: Processing Speed

Which of the following is a 12-minute, 50-item test of general cognitive ability for adults? Select one: a. Leiter-3 b. Kuhlmann-Anderson c. Haptic d. Wonderlic

Answer D is correct: The Wonderlic Personnel Test-Revised is a 12-minute, 50-item test of general mental ability for adults that is used by employers to assist with hiring decisions.

The ________ plays a key role in the attachment of emotions to memory. Select one: a. substantia nigra b. thalamus c. medulla oblongata d. amygdala

Answer D is correct: The amygdala is part of the limbic system. It integrates, coordinates, and directs emotional activities, attaches emotions to memories, and is involved in the recall of emotionally charged experiences. The correct answer is: amygdala

Damage to which of the following would most likely result in impairments in the organization and coordination of voluntary motor responses? Select one: a. mammillary bodies b. suprachiasmatic nucleus c. cingulate gyrus d. basal ganglia

Answer D is correct: The basal ganglia include the caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus, and substantia nigra. These structures play an important role in planning, organizing, and coordinating voluntary movement.

A psychologist conducting research on the effects of the graveyard shift is most likely to find that adverse consequences are lowest among workers who: Select one: a. are unmarried and living alone. b. are unhappily married. c. work the graveyard shift for only two out of every three weeks. d. voluntarily choose to work the graveyard shift.

Answer D is correct: The research has found that the negative outcomes associated with the graveyard shift are usually alleviated when the worker has voluntarily chosen that shift. The correct answer is: voluntarily choose to work the graveyard shift. Companies that operate 24 hours a day ordinarily divide the day into three shifts -- regular, swing, and graveyard.

Which of the following best describes changes in memory that are associated with normal aging? Select one: a. Short-term memory is most adversely affected by increasing age due to a reduced storage capacity. b. Long-term memory is most adversely affected by increasing age due to a reduced storage capacity. c. Remote long-term memory is most adversely affected by increasing age due to inadequate retrieval cues. d. Recent long-term memory is most advesely affected by increasing age due to inadequate encoding strategies.

Answer D is correct: The studies have found that the greatest age-related impairment is in recent long-term (secondary) memory and that this is due, in large part, to reduced use of effective encoding strategies. The correct answer is: Recent long-term memory is most adversely affected by increasing age due to inadequate encoding strategies.

During the initial stages of a behavior change intervention, verbal or nonverbal prompts may be needed to evoke the desired behavior. However, after the behavior is established, the prompts should be gradually removed. The gradual removal of prompts is referred to as: Select one: a. blocking. b. shaping. c. thinning. d. fading.

Answer D is correct: The term "fading" is used to describe the gradual removal of a prompt. The correct answer is: fading.

The two hemispheres play somewhat different roles in the regulation of emotion.

Areas in the right hemisphere mediate negative emotions, and damage to these areas can produce indifference, apathy, or undue cheerfulness. Areas in the left hemisphere govern happiness and other positive emotions, and damage to these areas can produce severe depression, anxiety, or other catastrophic reactions.

Herek (1992) attributes violence against gays and lesbians to: a. heterosexism. b. homophobia. c. symbolic racism. d. intergroup prejudice.

As defined by Herek, heterosexism is an "ideological system that denies, denigrates, and stigmatizes among nonheterosexual forms of behavior, identity, relationships, or community" (1992, p. 150). Answer A is correct: According to Herek, violence against gays and lesbians is the result of a combination of psychological (individual) and cultural heterosexism.

According to Schein (1992), organizational culture can be described in terms of three levels. The deepest level consists of basic underlying assumptions that can serve as: Select one: a. driving forces. b. implicit organizational norms. c. cognitive defense mechanisms. d. cognitive archetypes.

As described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials, Schein (1992) distinguished between three levels of organizational culture -- observable artifacts, espoused values and beliefs, and basic underlying assumptions. Answer C is correct: According to Schein, underlying assumptions are taken-for-granted beliefs and emotions that can act as cognitive defense mechanisms. The correct answer is: cognitive defense mechanisms.

cost minimization

As its name implies, a cost-minimization analysis is conducted to determine the least costly option among several options.

You would conduct a functional behavioral assessment to: Select one: a. identify an examinee's strengths and weaknesses with regard to a specific content domain. b. identify the antecedents and consequences that control or maintain a specific behavior. c. determine the expectations of others (e.g., parents or teachers) regarding a child's performance. d. determine the knowledge and skills required to perform a job or task successfully.

As its name implies, a functional behavioral assessment (FBA) is conducted to identify the functions of a behavior. Answer B is correct: An FBA is conducted to identify the environmental factors (antecedents and consequences) that control the target behavior. The correct answer is: identify the antecedents and consequences that control or maintain a specific behavior.

Equity theory predicts that a person's satisfaction in a close personal relationship is related to the person's: Select one: a. perceptions of his or her reward or cost ratio and the ratio of the other person. b. perceptions of the relative utility of the relationship. c. comparisons between his or her current relationship and past relationships. d. comparisons between his or her own relationship and the relationships of others.

As its name suggests, equity theory predicts that we are satisfied with relationships that we perceive to be equitable. Answer A is correct: According to this theory, we evaluate equity by comparing our input or outcome (reward or cost) ratio to the ratio of the other person. The correct answer is: perceptions of his or her reward or cost ratio and the ratio of the other person.

Self-verification theory predicts that a husband who has low self-esteem and is overweight and chronically depressed will prefer his wife to: Select one: a. not comment on his abilities, weight, and mood. b. make neutral comments about his abilities, weight, and mood. c. confirm his negative self-evaluations. d. challenge his negative self-evaluations.

As its name suggests, self-verification theory predicts that people who have positive self-concepts prefer to interact with others who confirm those self-concepts and vice versa. Answer C is correct: Self-verification theory proposes that we seek information that is consistent with our self-evaluations. The correct answer is: confirm his negative self-evaluations.

Gate control theory is useful for: Select one: a. identifying methods for controlling pain. b. explaining color vision. c. understanding why it is difficult to acquire a second language. d. understanding the mechanisms underlying depth perception.

As long as you have gate control theory associated with pain, it would have been easy to identify the correct answer to this question. Answer A is correct: According to gate control theory, stimulation of certain nerves in the skin or brain can inhibit the transmission of pain messages in other nerves. The correct answer is: identifying methods for controlling pain.

You recently evaluated the defendant in a murder trial at the request of her attorney. The purpose of the evaluation was to support the defendant's claim that she was insane at the time she committed the crime. The case received a great deal of public attention and you would now like to write a book about it and include information about the results of your evaluation. According to the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology: Select one: a. you may do so only with the consent of the defendant or the defendant's legal representative. b. you may do so as long as the information you include in your book is in the public record or, if not, as long as you have obtained the consent of the defendant. c. you may do so only with the consent of the court. d. you may not do so under any circumstances.

Because you conducted an evaluation of the defendant for the purpose of her defense, you may use information obtained from that evaluation for other purposes only under certain conditions. Answer B is correct: This situation is addressed in Paragraphs 8.04 and 11.07 of the Specialty Guidelines. Paragraph 11.07 states: "Forensic practitioners strive to address particular legal proceedings in publications or communications only to the extent that the information relied upon is part of a public record, or when consent for that use has been properly obtained from any party holding any relevant privilege." The correct answer is: you may do so as long as the information you include in your book is in the public record or, if not, as long as you have obtained the consent of the defendant.

Anita A., age 16, is brought to therapy by her mother who says the girl has recently become "another person." She says that Anita used to be friendly and cooperative and popular at school. However, for the last few weeks, Anita has been constantly irritable, is not doing her homework and has failed several tests, and has been getting very little sleep. When the therapist interviews Anita, her speech is loud and rapid and she is easily distracted. He learns that she has started drinking alcohol nearly every day and has engaged in high-risk sexual behavior. The most likely diagnosis for Anita is: Select one: a. Conduct Disorder. b. ADHD. c. Bipolar II Disorder. d. Bipolar I Disorder.

Bipolar I Disorder. The nature and sudden onset of Anita's symptoms (e.g., irritability, substance use, school truancy and failure, and loud, rapid speech) are consistent with a manic episode. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis for Anita is Bipolar I Disorder.

The most common cause of cerebral palsy is: Select one: a. a congenital endocrine dysfunction. b. brain damage during fetal development. c. nutritional deficiencies immediately following birth. d. early exposure to a teratogen that affects the body's muscles.

Cerebral palsy includes a number of neurological disorders that permanently impair the ability to control voluntary muscle movements. In many cases, the exact cause is unknown. Answer B is correct: Cerebral palsy is the result of brain damage, and, in the majority of cases, the damage occurs prior to birth. One cause of the damage is a lack of oxygen (asphyxia) prior to birth or during the birth process. Other possible causes include exposure to infections, head injury, intracranial hemorrhage, and genetic mutations. The correct answer is: brain damage during fetal development.

Differential Validity

Confirmation that the selection tool accurately predicts the performance of all possible employee subgroups, including white males, women, visible minorities, persons with disabilities, and Aboriginal people. A test has differential validity when it has different validity coefficients for different groups.

construct validity

Construct validity is the extent to which the measurements used, often questionnaires, actually test the hypothesis or theory they are measuring. Construct validity should demonstrate that scores on a particular test do predict the theoretical trait it says it does.

When using covert sensitization: Select one: a. the CS and US are presented in imagination. b. the CS and US are presented simultaneously. c. the least anxiety-arousing stimuli are presented first. d. the most anxiety-arousing stimuli are presented first.

Covert sensitization is a type of aversive counterconditioning. Answer A is correct: When using covert sensitization, the CS and US are presented in imagination rather than in vivo (reality). The correct answer is: the CS and US are presented in imagination.

Curriculum-based measures are useful for: Select one: a. monitoring a student's progress to evaluate instructional effectiveness. b. assessing a student's mastery of the curriculum in high school to predict his or her performance in college. c. determining what strategies a student is using to solve complex academic problems. d. ensuring that test items are tailored to the abilities of the individual student.

Curriculum-based measures are standardized tests that are used to evaluate a student's performance on items or tasks that are closely linked to the current curriculum. Answer A is correct: A primary use of curriculum-based measures is to evaluate a student's progress in order to determine if instruction needs to be modified. The correct answer is: monitoring a student's progress to evaluate instructional effectiveness.

According to Dawis and Lofquist's (1984) Theory of Work Adjustment, job satisfaction depends most on which of the following? Select one: a. the match between the worker's self-concept and the roles and responsibilities required by the job. b. the match between the worker's stage of career development and the demands of the job. c. the degree to which the characteristics of the job correspond to the worker's needs and values. d. the degree to which the supervisor matches his or her leadership style to the worker's job maturity.

Dawis and Lofquist's (1984) Theory of Work Adjustment is a person-environment fit theory of career development that provides a model for conceptualizing the interactions between a worker and his or her job. Answer C is correct: According to this theory, a worker's satisfaction is one of the factors that contribute to job tenure and other job outcomes, and it depends on the degree to which the job fulfills or matches the worker's needs and values. The correct answer is: the degree to which the characteristics of the job correspond to the worker's needs and values.

schizotypal personality disorder

Person has several traits that causes interpersonal problems, including inappropriate affect, paranoid/magical thinking, off beliefs is characterized by pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits involving acute discomfort with and reduced capacity for close relationships and eccentricities in cognition, perception, and behavior.

Differential reinforcement is best conceptualized as which of the following? a. a combination of punishment and positive reinforcement b. a combination of extinction and positive reinforcement c. a straightforward application of positive reinforcement d. a straightforward application of negative reinforcement

Differential reinforcement involves reinforcing all behaviors except the target behavior. Answer B is correct: When using differential reinforcement, the individual receives positive reinforcement for desirable behaviors while the target behavior is ignored. In other words, desirable behaviors are positively reinforced while the target behavior is extinguished. An example of differential reinforcement is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. The correct answer is: a combination of extinction and positive reinforcement Differential Reinforcement is the implementation of reinforcing only the appropriate response (or behavior you wish to increase) and applying extinction to all other responses. Extinction is the discontinuing of a reinforcement of a previously reinforced behavior.

Classical extinction

Disappearance of a conditioned response through disassociation of the conditioned and unconditioned response In classical conditioning, extinction occurs when the conditioned stimulus is applied repeatedly without being paired with the unconditioned stimulus. Over time, the learned behavior occurs less often and eventually stops altogether, and conditioned stimulus returns to neural.

discriminative stimulus

Discriminative stimulus is a term used in classical conditioning as a part of the process known as operant conditioning. A discriminative stimulus is a type of stimulus that is used consistently to gain a specific response and that increases the possibility that the desired response will occur.

In response to your concerns about the potential consequences of his recent risk-taking behaviors, a 16-year-old says, "Don't worry, that can't happen to me." According to Elkind, this is a manifestation of which of the following? Select one: a. egocentrism b. internal locus of control c. foreclosure d. bootstrapping

Elkind (1984) extended Piaget's work on cognitive development by identifying specific characteristics of adolescent egocentrism. Answer A is correct: The adolescent described in this question is exhibiting the personal fable, which Elkind described as one of several manifestations of adolescent egocentrism. It is characterized by a sense of invulnerability (e.g, "Nothing bad can happen to me.") The correct answer is: egocentrism

In which of the following types of research studies do participants act as their own "controls"? Select one: a. cross-sectional b. factorial c. analogue d. single-subject

For participants to act as their own controls, each participant would have to participate in both treatment and no-treatment groups. Answer D is correct: All single-subject designs include at least one baseline (no treatment) phase and one treatment phase. Consequently, when using a single-subject design, a participant acts as his or her own no-treatment control (i.e., the participant's status on the dependent variable is compared before and after the treatment is applied). The correct answer is: single-subject

Hippocampus

Hippocampus is a complex brain structure embedded deep into temporal lobe. It has a major role in learning and memory. It is a plastic and vulnerable structure that gets damaged by a variety of stimuli. Studies have shown that it also gets affected in a variety of neurological and psychiatric disorders.

On the Self-Directed Search (SDS), the artistic theme is most similar to which of the following themes? Select one: a. enterprising b. realistic c. conventional d. investigative

Holland's model of career choice provides the framework fo the SDS and distinguishes between six personality or occupational types that are arranged in a hexagon in the following order -- realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, conventional ("RIASEC"). Answer D is correct: The artistic theme is adjacent to the investigative theme in the hexagon, which indicates they share some characteristics. The correct answer is: investigative

A measure of crystallized intelligence would include items that assess which of the following? Select one: a. short-term memory b. general knowledge c. ability to solve novel problems d. processing speed

Horn and Cattell (1966) proposed that general intelligence (g) consists of two factors -- crystallized intelligence and fluid intelligence. Answer B is correct: As described by Horn and Cattell, crystallized intelligence includes acquired skills and knowledge and is affected by educational and cultural experiences.

Research on symptoms associated with Parkinson's disease suggests that depression: a. is a very rare symptom that occurs in less than 10% of patients. b. is part of a patient's reaction to the disease and most often develops shortly after the diagnosis is confirmed. c. may be endogenous to the disease rather than just a reaction to it. d. is a late-occuring symptom that signals the onset of dementia.

In about 20% of individuals with Parkinson's disease, depression precedes motor symptoms; and up to 50% experience prominent depressive symptoms at some time during their illness. Answer C is correct: The fact that some patients with this disorder experience depression as an initial symptoms suggests that it may be endogenous to the disorder (i.e, is part of the pathology of the disease and not just a reaction to it.)

Factor analyses have indicated that psychomotor skills: Select one: a. are highly interdependent. b. depend primarily on strength and speed. c. are highly independent. d. are reflective of "g."

In contrast to intelligence, psychomotor ability does not seem to have an underlying "g" factor. Answer C is correct: The research has confirmed that the various psychomotor skills are relatively independent and that there is no underlying "general psychomotor factor." The correct answer is: are highly independent. Psychomotor learning is demonstrated by physical skills such as movement, coordination, manipulation, dexterity, grace, strength, speed—actions which demonstrate the fine or gross motor skills, such as use of precision instruments or tools, and walking.

Festinger and Carlsmith (1959) offered participants in a dull experiment either $1.00 or $20.00 to tell potential participants that the experiment was very interesting and were subsequently asked to evaluate the experiment. The results of the study:

In the Festinger and Carlsmith study, the $1.00 participants were more likely than the $20.00 participants to say they had actually enjoyed the dull experiment. Answer A is correct: This result was consistent with cognitive dissonance theory (which predicts that we change a cognition or behavior to reduce dissonance) and with self-perception theory (which predicts that we evaluate our internal state by looking at our external behavior). The correct answer is: were consistent with the predictions of both cognitive dissonance theory and self-perception theory.

Content appropriateness, taxonomic level, and extraneous abilities are factors that are considered when evaluating: Select one: a. a test's factorial validity. b. a test's incremental validity. c. the relevance of test items. d. the adequacy of the "actual criterion."

In the context of test construction, relevance refers to the extent to which test items contribute to achieving the goals of testing. Answer C is correct: Content appropriateness, taxonomic level, and extraneous abilities are three factors that may be considered when determining the relevance of test items.

positively and negatively skewed distributions

In the curve of a distribution, the data on the right side of the curve may taper differently from the data on the left side. These taperings are known as "tails." Negative skew refers to a longer or fatter tail on the left side of the distribution, while positive skew refers to a longer or fatter tail on the right.

The statement, "You fell because you tripped, but I fell because I was pushed" BEST illustrates which of the following? Select one: a. self-perception bias b. actor-observer effect c. fundamental attribution bias d. low self-monitoring

In the situation described in the question, you are attributing your own behavior to a situational factor but the behavior of another person to a dispositional factor. Answer B is correct: The tendency to attribute the behaviors of others to dispositional factors and our own behaviors to situational factors is referred to as the actor-observer effect. The correct answer is: actor-observer effect

Dr. Daniel Daggett presents Stimulus A along with a loud noise so that, eventually, a participant in his study reacts with a startle reaction whenever Stimulus A is presented alone. Dr. Daggett then pairs Stimulus B with Stimulus A so that Stimulus B also elicits a startle reaction when presented alone. This procedure is an example of: Select one: a. stimulus generalization. b. higher-order conditioning. c. response generalization. d. shaping.

In this situation, a conditioned (neutral) stimulus is paired with an unconditioned stimulus so that the former eventually elicits a conditioned response. Then a second conditioned (neutral) stimulus is paired with the original conditioned stimulus so that it also elicits the conditioned response. Answer B is correct: This procedure is referred to as higher-order conditioning and, in the second step, involves treating the original conditioned stimulus like an unconditioned stimulus when is paired with the second conditioned stimulus. The correct answer is: higher-order conditioning.

A couple who recently moved to the United States from Mexico brings their 9-year-old son for assessment to determine if he meets the diagnostic criteria for ADHD. The child speaks very little English, but his mother speaks both Spanish and English fluently. You do not speak Spanish and are unable to find an interpreter for the boy. You should: Select one: a. refuse to conduct the assessment and provide the family with appropriate referrals. b. conduct the assessment using only informal measures that do not depend on language. c. conduct the assessment but explain the limitations of the results in your report. d. conduct the assessment with the mother acting as the interpreter.

In this situation, you are not qualified to conduct the assessment since you cannot communicate directly with the child in Spanish and are unable to find an interpreter. Answer A is correct: This issue is addressed directly and indirectly in several APA documents. For example, the Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations states that, when the linguistic skills of the psychologist do not match those of the client, the psychologist obtains an appropriate translator or refers the client to another professional. The Guidelines also state that, when translation is necessary, psychologists do not retain the services of a translator who has a dual role with the individual in order to avoid jeopardizing the validity of the assessment.

To assess the effects of a stimulus control procedure on eating behaviors, Dr. Barry Buvette obtains a sample of 20 overweight females and 20 overweight males and determines their average daily caloric intake and satisfaction with their food consumption during the seven days before and seven days after training in the procedure. The dependent variable(s) in this study is or are: Select one: a. stimulus control procedure. b. stimulus control procedure and gender. c. caloric intake. d. caloric intake and satisfaction with food consumption.

In this study, the researcher is investigating the effects of the self-control procedure and gender on caloric intake and satisfaction with food consumption. Answer D is correct: This study has two dependent variables -- caloric intake and satisfaction with food intake.

Separation-Individuation Phase

Infant breaks out of its "autistic shell" and begins to connect with her environment and the people in it. Separation: development of limits and to the differentiation in her mind between herself and the mother, whereas individuation refers to the development of her ego, sense of identity, and cognitive abilities.

A domain-referenced test would be most useful for: a. determining how much an examinee knows about statistics compared to other examinees. b. determining how well an examinee has mastered a unit on inferential statistics. c. determining whether or not test items are a representative sample of the information taught in a statistics class. d. determining an examinee's aptitude for statistics.

Knowing that domain-referenced tests are also known as content-referenced tests may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. Answer B is correct: Domain-referenced tests are interpreted in terms of how much the examinee has learned or can do.

norepinephrine and epinephrine

Produced in the adrenal medulla. Associated with wakefulness and alertness. Released during fight or flight. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are very similar neurotransmitters and hormones. While epinephrine has slightly more of an effect on your heart, norepinephrine has more of an effect on your blood vessels. Both play a role in your body's natural fight-or-flight response to stress and have important medical uses as well.

Which of the following is most likely to be useful for treating Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder? Select one: a. a drug that blocks the reuptake of serotonin b. a drug that increases cholinergic activity c. a drug that blocks the release of GABA d. a drug that increases the availability of cortisol

Knowing that the SSRIs have been found effective for treating OCD would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. Answer A is correct: The SSRIs block the reuptake of serotonin at nerve synapses and have been found to be effective for treating a number of disorders including OCD. The correct answer is: a drug that blocks the reuptake of serotonin

An adult with damage to his hippocampus can be expected to: Select one: a. experience episodes of unprovoked aggressiveness and rage. b. forget events that occur after the accident that caused the damage. c. have trouble falling asleep at night. d. exhibit "pseudodepression."

Knowing that the hippocampus is involved in learning and memory would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. Answer B is correct: The hippocampus is responsible for memory consolidation, and damage produces impairments in the ability to transfer information from short- to long-term memory. The correct answer is: forget events that occur after the accident that caused the damage.

Curanderismo

Latino folk medicine, a form of holistic health care and healing. is based on the assumption that illness arises from natural and supernatural forces.

Theory Y managers

Managers who assume that engaging in effortful behavior is natural to human beings; they recognize that people seek out responsibility and that motivation can come from allowing employees to suggest creative and meaningful solutions.

The technique known as "overcorrection" consists of: Select one: a. education, behavioral rehearsal, and generalization. b. positive punishment, positive practice, and generalization. c. restitution, positive practice, and physical guidance. d. restitution, behavioral rehearsal, and differential reinforcement.

Overcorrection is usually classified as a type of positive punishment and involves applying a penalty following an undesirable behavior in order to eliminate it. Answer C is correct: Overcorrection consists of two phases -- restitution and positive practice. In addition, it may also require physically guiding the individual through the corrective behaviors. The correct answer is: restitution, positive practice, and physical guidance.

Four parenting styles

Parents using the authoritarian ("rigid ruler") approach are low in support and high in demandingness. These parents expect and demand obedience because they are "in charge" and they do not provide any explanations for their orders.[4] Parents also provide well-ordered and structured environments with clearly stated rules. Children reared in environments using the authoritarian approach are more likely to be obedient and proficient, but score lower in happiness, social competence, and self-esteem. authoritative, This kind of parenting style has been described as authoritative.[2] Parents who use this style are supportive and show interest in their kids' activities but are not overbearing and allow children to make constructive mistakes. This "tender teacher" approach deemed the most optimal parenting style to use in western cultures. Children whose parents use the authoritative style are generally happy, capable, and successful.[3] permissive, Parents who are high in support and low in demandingness are likely using the permissive-also called the indulgent-style. Their children tend to rank low in happiness and self-regulation, and are more likely to have problems with authority. Parents using this approach are lenient, do not expect their children to adhere to boundaries or rules, and avoid confrontation rejecting-neglecting Children reared by parents who are low in both support and demandingness tend to rank lowest across all life domains, lack self-control, have low self-esteem, and are less competent than their peers. Parents using the uninvolved (or sometimes referred to as indifferent or neglectful) approach are neglectful or rejecting of their children and do not provide most, if any, necessary parenting responsibilities.

When using path analysis, you are: a. employing two or more predictors to estimate status on a single continuous criterion. b. employing two or more predictors to predict status on a single nominal criterion. c. confirming a model involving one-way causal flow between a set of observed variables. d. developing a model involving one- and two-way causal flow between a set of observed variables and latent traits.

Path analysis is a causal modeling technique that is used to test the veracity of a causal theory or model. Answer C is correct: One restriction when using path analysis is that the paths must all involve a one-way causal flow.

From the perspective of Herzberg's two-factor theory, the relationship between pay and motivation is best described by which of the following? Select one: a. Pay acts as a motivator only after safety needs have been met. b. Pay acts as a motivator only when intrinsic motivation is low. c. Pay acts as a motivator only for jobs that cannot be "enriched." d. Pay does not act as a motivator.

Pay does not act as a motivator. Answer D is correct: Herzberg's two-factor theory identifies pay as a hygiene factor. Like other hygiene factors, pay leads to dissatisfaction when it is perceived to be inadequate but produces a state of neutrality when it is adequate. To increase motivation (and satisfaction), motivator factors must be provided by the job.

Murray's personality theory

People are distinguished by the needs that motivate their behavior Murray was a founder of personality psychology who emphasized "personology" or the study of lives in his most influential book, Explorations in Personality (1938). He was also a pioneer in personality assessment, and co-inventor of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT). American psychologist Henry Murray (1893-1988) developed a theory of personality that was organized in terms of motives, presses, and needs. Murray described needs as a "potentiality or readiness to respond in a certain way under certain given circumstances."

low- versus high-context communication

People within high-context cultures tend to be more aware and observant of facial expressions, body language, changes in tone, and other aspects of communication that are not directly spoken. People in low-context cultures communicate in a more direct way, with explicitly speaking what they want to communicate.

Dopamine

a neurotransmitter that regulates motor behavior, motivation, pleasure, and emotional arousal When dopamine is released in large amounts, it creates feelings of pleasure and reward, which motivates you to repeat a specific behavior.

A person with deficits in prospective memory will have trouble: Select one: a. remembering a future meeting with a co-worker. b. remembering what she did on her last birthday. c. recalling how to play the violin after not doing so for several years. d. recalling the information needed to answer this question.

Prospective memory refers to the ability to remember to perform an action in the future. Answer A is correct: A person with deficits in prospective memory would have trouble remembering a future meeting or appointment.

You receive a letter from the Ethics Committee asking for information about a former client who has filed a complaint against her current therapist. You stopped seeing the client over seven years ago. You should: Select one: a. cooperate with the Committee's request by sending it a copy of the client's file. b. cooperate with the Committee's request by sending it the information you believe is relevant to the case. c. cooperate with the Committee's request by sending it the information you believe is relevant to the case after confirming the client has signed a release. d. inform the Committee that the information you have about the client is seven years old and that you're ethically obligated not to forward it to them.

Psychologists must cooperate fully with requests from the Ethics Committee. Answer C is correct: This issue is addressed in Standard 1.06 of the Ethics Code, which notes that, when responding to a request for information from the Ethics Committee, psychologists must "address any confidentiality issues." Therefore, this answer is most consistent with the requirements of the Ethics Code. The correct answer is: cooperate with the Committee's request by sending it the information you believe is relevant to the case after confirming the client has signed a release.

The diagnosis of Reactive Attachment Disorder requires: Select one: a. evidence of self-injurious behavior. b. an onset of at least some symptoms prior to two years of age. c. a persistence of symptoms for at least two months. d. evidence that symptoms are due to extreme insufficient care.

Reactive Attachment Disorder is characterized by a consistent pattern of inhibited and emotionally withdrawn behavior toward adult caregivers. The diagnosis is assigned only if there is evidence that symptoms are related to exposure to a pattern of extreme insufficient care. For the diagnosis, the onset of symptoms must be prior to five years of age

an inability to fulfill one's needs in a responsible way

Reality therapists consider an inability to fulfill one's needs in a responsible way as the cause of a "failure identity."

For many patients with mild traumatic brain injury, the greatest amount of recovery occurs during the first ________ following the injury. Select one: a. 3 weeks b. 3 months c. 6 months d. 9 months

Recovery from a mild traumatic brain injury (TBI) depends on several factors and, therefore, varies from person to person. However, some generalizations can be made. Answer B is correct: For the majority of individuals with mild TBI, the greatest amount of recovery occurs during the first three months following the injury. The correct answer is: 3 months

Which of the following best describes the results of research on the consequences of early physical maturation for adolescents? Select one: a. Boys benefit more from early physical maturation than girls do. b. Girls benefit more from early physical maturation than boys do. c. Boys and girls both have positive (but not negative) consequences of early physical maturation. d. Boys and girls both have negative (but not positive) consequences of early physical maturation.

Research comparing on-time, early, and late physical maturation in adolescence has found that their effects differ for boys and girls. Answer A is correct: The studies have found that early physical maturation is associated with both positive and negative consequences for boys but with mostly negative consequences for girls. The correct answer is: Boys benefit more from early physical maturation than girls do.

Biofeedback is more effective than relaxation training for which of the following? Select one: a. lower back pain b. hypertension c. insomnia d. Raynaud's disease

Researchers have compared the effectiveness of biofeedback and relaxation training for a number of disorders including those listed in the answers to this question. Answer D is correct: As noted in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials, the research has found relaxation training to be as effective or more effective than biofeedback for lower back pain, hypertension, and insomnia. However, thermal biofeedback is more effective for Raynaud's disease. The correct answer is: Raynaud's disease

Rutter (1985) studied the risk and protective factors that are associated with child psychopathology. His research found that which of the following places a child at greatest risk for behavioral problems? Select one: a. chronic health problems during infancy and abusive father b. early enrollment in daycare and paternal alcoholism c. paternal psychopathology and emphasis on traditional gender roles d. severe marital discord and maternal psychopathology

Rutter identified six factors that are most predictive of child psychopathology. Answer D is correct: The six risk factors identified by Rutter are severe marital discord, low SES, large family size or over crowdedness, parental criminality, maternal psychopathology, and placement of a child outside the home. severe marital discord and maternal psychopathology

Investigators have found that newborns exhibit three types of cries -- the hungry (basic) cry, the angry cry, and the pain cry. They have also found that, by _____ months of age, most infants begin to emit a "fussy" or irregular cry. Select one: a. 1 to 2 b. 3 to 4 c. 5 to 6 d. 7

The "fussy" cry varies in intensity, is less rhythmical than the other cries, and seems to function as a demand for a particular object or action. Answer A is correct: It is only during the first month of life that crying is purely physiological; i.e., is linked to hunger, anger, or pain. After that, the infant cries in response to environmental stimuli. The correct answer is: 1 to 2

suprachiasmatic nucleus

a pair of cell clusters in the hypothalamus that controls circadian rhythm

Raynaud's disease

a peripheral arterial occlusive disease in which intermittent attacks are triggered by cold or stress

You have been seeing Sal Smythe in individual therapy for several months, and the work-related issues he originally sought therapy for are nearly resolved. During your current session with Sal, he mentions that his 14-year-old son has been getting into trouble in school lately and asks if you would be willing to see the boy in individual therapy. You should: Select one: a. agree to see his son in therapy if you have experience working with adolescents. b. agree to see his son in therapy only after discussing issues related to confidentiality with Sal and his son. c. agree to see his son in therapy only after determining that the boy's problems are unrelated to Sal's issues. d. tell Sal that you cannot see his son in therapy and provide him with several referrals.

Seeing your client's son in therapy would constitute a multiple relationship unless doing so is for the purpose of continuing to work with Sal on his issues. Answer D is correct: In most circumstances, you would want to avoid seeing the family members of a client you are seeing in individual therapy since doing so would represent a multiple relationship. No information is given in this question or the answers to suggest that this situation represents an exception to this general rule. The correct answer is: tell Sal that you cannot see his son in therapy and provide him with several referrals.

The correlation coefficient for Test A and Test B is -.40. This means that ___% of variability in Test A scores is shared in common with Test B scores. a. 16 b. 40 c. 60 d. 84

Shared variability is one way to interpret the correlation coefficient for two variables. Answer A is correct: A measure of shared variability is obtained by squaring the correlation coefficient: -.40 squared is .16. Therefore, 16% of variability in Test A scores is shared with (or accounted for by) variability in Test B scores. The correct answer is: 16

Sherif (1935) used the autokinetic effect to study: Select one: a. attitude inoculation. b. psychological reactance. c. conformity to group norms. d. bases of social power.

Sherif was among the first researchers to study factors that affect willingness to conform to group norms. Answer C is correct: Sherif used an ambiguous stimulus (the autokinetic effect) to study conformity to group norms. The correct answer is: conformity to group norms. Method: Sherif used a lab experiment to study conformity. ... Sherif said that this showed that people would always tend to conform. Rather than make individual judgments they tend to come to a group agreement.

Sherif and Hovland's (1961) social judgment theory predicts that a person's "latitude of rejection" is largest when the person: Select one: a. has high ego-involvement with the target issue. b. has an external locus of control. c. is unfamiliar with the target issue. d. is in a good mood.

Social judgment theory distinguishes between three categories of judgment that influence how we evaluate persuasive messages -- a latitude of acceptance, a latitude of non-commitment, and a latitude of rejection. Answer A is correct: According to this theory, the magnitude of the three categories is affected by the person's level of ego-involvement with the target issue. Not surprisingly, when a person has high ego-involvement, he or she is less likely to be persuaded (i.e., his or her latitude of rejection is large). The correct answer is: has high ego-involvement with the target issue.

Social loafing is most likely to occur when: Select one: a. the group is small and the task is additive. b. the group is large and the task is compensatory. c. the group is large and the task is additive. d. the group is small and the task is disjunctive.

Social loafing occurs when a person exerts less effort as a group member than he or she would have exerted if working alone. Answer C is correct: Social loafing is most likely to occur when the group is large and the task is additive, probably because this situation allows the person to conceal his or her actual contribution to the group. The correct answer is: the group is large and the task is additive.

A practitioner of Beck's cognitive therapy uses __________ questions to help clients identify and correct their logical errors and biases. Select one: a. Socratic b. exception c. circular d. scaling

Socratic Socratic questioning (dialogue) involves asking questions designed to help the client identify and replace maladaptive beliefs. Answer A is correct: Examples of Socratic questions include "Is there any evidence for this belief?" and "What are the advantages and disadvantages of thinking this way?"

A split-brain patient is staring straight ahead when the word "headband" is flashed directly in front of her. The woman will most likely report seeing which of the following? Select one: a. headband b. head c. band d. bandhead

Split-brain patients are individuals whose corpus callosums have been severed as a treatment for epilepsy. Answer C is correct: Because her corpus callosum has been severed, the woman will only be able to verbally state what was directly perceived by her left hemisphere, which is what was in the right visual field of both eyes -- i.e., the word "band." (Since most people are left-hemisphere dominant for language, you can assume that this would be the most likely outcome.) The correct answer is: band

Studies comparing children of lesbian and heterosexual mothers suggests that children of lesbian mothers: Select one: a. are more likely to have problems related to gender role identity and behavior. b. are more likely to be homosexual themselves. c. are more susceptible to psychosocial problems. d. are comparable in adjustment to children of heterosexual mothers.

Studies investigating the effects of parental sexual orientation on children's adjustment have found that the nature of the parent-child relationship is more important than a parent's sexual orientation. Answer D is correct: The studies have found that children of homosexual and heterosexual parents are fairly indistinguishable in terms of psychosocial adjustment, gender identity development, and sexual orientation. The correct answer is: are comparable in adjustment to children of heterosexual mothers.

"Testing the limits" is ordinarily done: a. as an alternative to administering the test using standardized procedures. b. before the test is administered using standardized procedures. c. after the test has been administered using standardized procedures. d. whenever an examinee makes an unexpected or unusual response.

Testing the limits is a type of dynamic assessment that involves providing the examinee with cues, prompts, or suggestions in order to obtain additional information about the examinee. Answer C is correct: Testing the limits is ordinarily done after standard administration of the test in order to maintain the test's psychometric integrity. The correct answer is: after the test has been administered using standardized procedures.

Use of a selection test produces a hiring rate of 55% for applicants from racial or ethnic minority groups and a hiring rate of 75% for applicants from the majority group. Based on these figures, you can use the 80% rule to determine which of the following? Select one: a. whether the test has differential validity b. whether the test is producing too many false negatives c. whether race or ethnicity is a "business necessity" d. whether the test is having an adverse impact

The 80% rule is described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials and, for the exam, you want to know what it is and how to use it. Answer D is correct: The 80% rule is used to determine if use of a selection test or other employment procedure results in discrimination against members of a minority group (i.e., whether it is having an adverse impact). The correct answer is: whether the test is having an adverse impact

Your new client is a 37-year-old woman whose symptoms meet the diagnostic criteria for Major Depressive Disorder. After your third session with her, she tells you that she was in treatment with another psychologist but terminated therapy six weeks ago after the psychologist made sexual advances toward her. She does not want you to discuss this matter with anyone. The best course of action in this situation would be to: Select one: a. inform the client of the limits of confidentiality in this situation and report the unethical behavior. b. inform the client of the limits of confidentiality in this situation and contact the other psychologist. c. discuss the client's options with her and maintain her confidentiality unless she signs a release. d. tell the woman that the psychologist's behavior was unethical and suggest that she file a complaint against him.

The APA's Ethics Code requires psychologists to take action when they learn of an ethical violation by another psychologist but only after considering the client's confidentiality. Answer C is correct: This answer is most consistent with the requirements of the Ethics Code and also addresses the best interests of the client -- i.e., it is often in the best interests of a client to allow him or her to determine what action should be taken. In addition, Answers A and B can be eliminated because they do not take client confidentiality into consideration, and Answer D is not the best answer because it imposes your preference on the client rather than allowing the client to make her own decision. The correct answer is: discuss the client's options with her and maintain her confidentiality unless she signs a release.

On the Beck Depression Inventory-II (BDI-II), a score between ____ suggests severe depression. Select one: a. 90 and 100 b. 70 and 89 c. 29 and 63 d. 39 and 50

The BDI-II consists of 21 items that are rated in severity on a 4-point scale ranging from 0 to 3. The higher an examinee's score, the more severe the depression. Answer C is correct: The total score on the BDI-II ranges from 0 to 63, with a score between 29 and 63 suggesting severe depression. The correct answer is: 29 and 63

When using the Critical Incident Technique, critical incidents are ordinarily identified by: Select one: a. the supervisor who observes an employee while he or she works. b. an employee who maintains a detailed job diary. c. a job analyst who administers a structured interview to supervisors. d. a supervisor who temporarily performs the job him or herself.

The Critical Incident Technique (CIT) is a method of performance appraisal. Answer A is correct: As originally described, the CIT involves having the supervisor observe an employee and record specific behaviors associated with effective and ineffective job performance. These behaviors (critical incidents) are then compiled into a checklist that is used to evaluate the performance of employees performing the same job. The correct answer is: the supervisor who observes an employee while he or she works.

The Examination for Professional Practice in Psychology (EPPP) is best described as: Select one: a. a way to protect the public from incompetent psychologists. b. a measure of basic knowledge of psychology. c. a predictor of job performance as a psychologist. d. a way of determining if psychologists need additional training before being licensed.

The EPPP is a requirement for licensure in the United States and Canada. Answer B is correct: As described by the ASPPB, the EPPP is designed "to evaluate the knowledge that should have been acquired by any candidate who is seeking licensure to practice psychology." It has not been validated as a predictor of actual job performance or as a method for determining the need for additional training. The correct answer is: a measure of basic knowledge of psychology.

You would use the Leiter-3 to assess: Select one: a. the cognitive abilities of a non-English speaking child or adolescent. b. the linguistic abilities of a child with a language disability. c. the functional skills of a child or adolescent with Intellectual Disability. d. the intelligence of an adolescent or adult who is blind or partially sighted.

The Leiter-3 was designed as a culture-fair measure of cognitive abilities for individuals ages 3 to 75+ years. Answer A is correct: Because the Leiter-3 can be administered without verbal instructions and does not require verbal responses, it would be useful for assessing the cognitive abilities of a non-English speaking child or adolescent. The correct answer is: the cognitive abilities of a non-English speaking child or adolescent.

A researcher would use a multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA) to analyze the data she collects in a study when: Select one: a. the study includes one or more independent variables and two or more dependent variables. b. the study includes three or more independent variables and a single dependent variable. c. she wants to statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable. d. she wants to statistically analyze the main and interaction effects of an extraneous variable.

The MANOVA is used when a study includes two or more dependent variables. Answer A is correct: When all dependent variables are measured on an interval or ratio scale, a researcher can use the MANOVA rather than separate ANOVAs to evaluate the effects of the independent variable on the dependent variables. Doing so helps reduce the experiment wise error rate.

Results of the recent National Survey on Drug Use and Health found that adolescents are MOST likely to say they have used which of the following in the past month? Select one: a. tobacco b. inhalants c. marijuana d. alcohol

The National Survey on Drug Use and Health (USDHHS, 2013) collects data on adolescent drug use. Answer D is correct: Consistent with previous surveys, the 2013 Survey found that alcohol is the most frequently used drug by adolescents.

The all-or-none principle applies to which of the following? Select one: a. neurotransmitter re-uptake b. action potential c. neurogenesis d. synaptogenesis

The neuron's action potential operates on the all-or-none principle. Answer B is correct: The all-or-none principle states that the magnitude of an action potential is independent of the intensity of the stimulation that produced it.

The PPVT-4 is the most recent version of the Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test, which was originally developed as a measure of: Select one: a. cognitive ability for individuals with Mental Retardation. b. receptive vocabulary for individuals with physical disabilities. c. nonverbal reasoning for non-English speakers. d. short- and long-term memory for individuals with traumatic brain injury.

The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (PPVT) presents the examinee with stimulus cards that contain four pictures. As each card is presented, the examiner says a word and the examinee responds by indicating the picture that best illustrates the meaning of the word. Answer B is correct: The PPVT was originally designed as a measure of receptive vocabulary for individuals with cerebral palsy and other physical disabilities but is now also used for other individuals including those with autism, ADHD, or a neurological impairment. The correct answer is: receptive vocabulary for individuals with physical disabilities.

The Strong Interest Inventory provides scores on all of the following except: Select one: a. Personal Styles Scales. b. Basic Interest Scales. c. General Occupational Themes. d. College Major Scales.

The Strong Interest Inventory provides scores on General Occupational Themes, Basic Interest Scales, Occupational Scales, and Personal Styles Scales. Answer D is correct: The Kuder Occupational Interest Survey (KOIS) provides scores on College Major Scales. The correct answer is: College Major Scales.

The Stroop Color-Word Association Test would be most useful for evaluating: Select one: a. impulse control and selective attention in a child with ADHD. b. processing speed and divided attention in a child with ADHD. c. implicit memory in an adult with Alzheimer's dementia. d. problem-solving ability in an adult with Alzheimer's dementia.

The Stroop Test assesses the degree to which the examinee can suppress a prepotent response in favor of an unusual one and is considered to be a measure of cognitive flexibility, response inhibition, and selective attention. Answer A is correct: Poor performance on the Stroop Test is associated with several disorders including ADHD, mania, depression, and Schizophrenia. The correct answer is: impulse control and selective attention in a child with ADHD.

Development of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) was based on which of the following? Select one: a. factor analysis b. empirical criterion keying c. Murray's personality theory d. Jung's personality theory

The TAT is a projective personality test that requires examinees to make up stories about pictures that include one or more human figures. Answer C is correct: The TAT was based on Murray's personality theory which emphasizes the individual's needs, values, and attitudes. The correct answer is: Murray's personality theory

The WISC-V provides scores on all of the following indexes except: Select one: a. Verbal Comprehension. b. Perceptual Organization. c. Working Memory. d. Processing Speed.

The WISC-V provides a Full Scale IQ score and scores on five indexes and numerous subtests. Answer B is correct: The WISC-V provides scores on the following indexes: Verbal Comprehension, Visual Spatial, Fluid Reasoning, Working Memory, and Processing Speed. The correct answer is: Perceptual Organization.

Helms's White Racial Identity development model

The White Racial Identity Model is broken into five stages, split into two groups: Abandonment of Racism and the Evolution of a non-racist identity. White individuals transition from understanding themselves as racial beings and the privilege associated with being white, to taking ownership of and abandoning racial privilege, and finally learning about other racial groups. In phase one, the abandonment of racism, white-identifying individuals have no consciousness of their race and privilege until they are met with a disruption related to race. This disruption then challenges the individual's ideas of whiteness and how they play a role in a racist society. Following this encounter, the individual then begins to understand the salience of race and its relevance to power. In this stage, a person moves through three other sub-stages: Contact, Disintegration, and Reintegration.

Acculturation

The adoption of cultural traits, such as language, by one group under the influence of another.

Dr. Terry Tas obtains SAT scores from a sample of 30 high school seniors following their participation in a workshop designed to improve SAT scores. The appropriate statistical test for comparing the mean score obtained by these students to the national mean is which of the following? Select one: a. t-test for a single sample b. t-test for independent samples c. one-way ANOVA d. Wilcoxon test

The analysis of the data collected in this study will involve comparing a sample mean to a known population mean. Answer A is correct: The different forms of the t-test are all used to compare two means, and the t-test for a single sample is used when a sample mean will be compared to a known population mean.

Personal Construct Theory

The approach to personality proposed by George Kelly that emphasizes the idea that people actively endeavor to construe or understand the world and construct their own theories about human behavior.

Cerebellum

The cerebellum is important for coordination, posture, and balance, and damage can result in ataxia which involves the symptoms listed in this question.

In their meta-analysis of the research, Baltes et al. (1999) found that the compressed workweek is most associated with which of the following? Select one: a. improved employee attitudes b. improved job performance c. increased tardiness d. increased organizational commitment

The compressed workweek decreases the number of days worked in a given week by increasing the number of hours worked per day. Answer A is correct: Baltes et al. found that the compressed workweek has the greatest impact on employee attitudes and is associated with improved overall job satisfaction and satisfaction with the work schedule. The correct answer is: improved employee attitudes

With regard to the effects of crowding, which of the following is true? Select one: a. Men are less likely than women to be stressed by crowded situations. b. Men are more likely than women to act aggressively in crowded situations. c. Men and women are equally likely to react negatively in crowded situations. d. Men and women react aggressively in crowded situations to about the same degree but manifest their reactions in different ways.

The correct answer is: Men are more likely than women to act aggressively in crowded situations. Research has found that the impact of crowding is affected by several factors including gender. Answer B is correct: The studies have found that, in general, men are more stressed than women by crowded situations and are more likely to react aggressively and in other negative ways.

Assuming a normal distribution, which of the following represents the highest score? Select one: a. a Z score of 1.5 b. a T score of 70 c. a WAIS Full Scale IQ score of 120 d. a percentile rank of 88

The correct answer is: a T score of 70 Answer B is correct: A T score of 70 is two standard deviations above the mean. Answer A is incorrect: A Z score of 1.5 is one and one-half standard deviations above the mean. Answer C is incorrect: A WAIS IQ score of 120 is slightly over one standard deviation above the mean. Answer D is incorrect: A percentile rank of 88 is slightly over one standard deviation above the mean.

Escape conditioning becomes avoidance conditioning when: Select one: a. a signal is provided that indicates that positive reinforcement will be withheld. b. a signal is provided that indicates that an aversive stimulus is about to be delivered. c. the target behavior is positively reinforced. d. the discriminative stimulus is removed.

The correct answer is: a signal is provided that indicates that an aversive stimulus is about to be delivered. Answer B is correct: Avoidance conditioning is more complex than escape conditioning and involves presenting a cue immediately before the aversive stimulus is applied so that the individual can avoid the aversive stimulus by engaging in the target behavior as soon as the cue is presented. The correct answer is: a signal is provided that indicates that an aversive stimulus is about to be delivered.

The chi-square test would NOT be the appropriate test for analyzing data collected from which of the following studies? Select one: a. a study conducted to determine if there is a difference in the number of males and females who either support, do not support, or have no opinion about gun legislation b. a study conducted to compare the number of males and females who say they prefer paper, plastic, or hemp bags for their groceries before and after they view a film on recycling c. a study conducted to determine if there is any difference in the proportion of people who have received a diagnosis of Bipolar Disorder - Mixed, Bipolar Disorder - Manic, or Bipolar Disorder - Depressed who have either one parent, both parents, or neither parent with an Affective Disorder d. a study conducted to compare the number of shoppers who say they prefer one of four different cleaning products

The correct answer is: a study conducted to compare the number of males and females who say they prefer paper, plastic, or hemp bags for their groceries before and after they view a film on recycling. The chi-square test is used when the data to be analyzed represent a nominal scale of measurement (i.e., the frequencies in each nominal category will be compared) and when certain assumptions are met. Answer B is correct: One of the assumptions for the chi-square test is independence of observations. In the study described in this answer, the preferences of each participant will be determined twice (before and after viewing the film) and, consequently, the assumption of independence is violated. The Chi-Square Test of Independence determines whether there is an association between categorical variables (i.e., whether the variables are independent or related). It is a nonparametric test. In statistics, nonparametric tests are methods of statistical analysis that do not require a distribution to meet the required assumptions to be analyzed (especially if the data is not normally distributed).

To evaluate the concurrent validity of a new selection test for computer programmers, you would: Select one: a. use factor analysis to determine if the test measures the abilities it was designed to measure. b. have subject matter experts review test items to ensure they are relevant to success as a computer programmer. c. administer the test to current computer programmers and correlate their test scores with recently assigned job performance ratings d. administer the test to applicants for computer programmer jobs, hire all applicants regardless of their scores on the test, and correlate their test scores with job performance ratings they receive six months later

The correct answer is: administer the test to current computer programmers and correlate their test scores with recently assigned job performance ratings Answer C is correct: Concurrent validity is a type of criterion-related validity and involves correlating scores on the predictor and criterion when both measures have been administered to examinees at about the same time.

Scores on an extraneous variable: Select one: a. correlate with scores on the dependent variable. b. correlate with scores on the independent variable. c. correlate with scores on the dependent and independent variables. d. do not correlate with scores on the dependent or independent variable.

The correct answer is: correlate with scores on the dependent variable. By definition, an extraneous variable correlates with (has a systematic effect) on the dependent variable. Answer A is correct: Extraneous variables are irrelevant to the purpose of a research study but confound its results because they correlate with the dependent variable, which makes it difficult to identify the effects of the independent variable on the dependent variable.

When determining a predictor's incremental validity, the positive hit rate is calculated by: Select one: a. dividing the number of true positives by the total number of positives. b. dividing the total number of positives by the number of people in the sample. c. dividing the base rate by the number of true positives. d. dividing the total number of positives by the base rate.

The correct answer is: dividing the number of true positives by the total number of positives. The positive hit rate is the proportion of people who would have been selected on the basis of their predictor scores and who are successful on the criterion. Answer A is correct: The positive hit rate is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the total number of positives. The result indicates the percent of positives who were actually successful on the criterion.

In a multitrait-multimethod matrix, a test's construct validity would by confirmed when: Select one: a. monotrait-monomethod coefficients are low and heterotrait-heteromethod coefficients are high. b. monotrait-heteromethod coefficients are high and heterotrait-monomethod coefficients are low. c. monotrait-monomethod coefficients are high and monotrait-heteromethod coefficients are low. d. heterotrait-monomethod coefficients and heterotrait-heteromethod coefficients are low.

The correct answer is: monotrait-heteromethod coefficients are high and heterotrait-monomethod coefficients are low. Answer B is correct: When monotrait-heteromethod (same trait-different methods) coefficients are large, this provides evidence of the test's convergent validity -- i.e., it shows that the test is measuring the trait it was designed to measure. Conversely, when heterotrait-monomethod (different traits-same method) coefficients are small, this provides evidence of the test's discriminant validity -- i.e., it shows that the test is not measuring a different trait.

histrionic personality disorder

a personality disorder characterized by excessive emotionality and preoccupation with being the center of attention; emotional shallowness; overly dramatic behavior is characterized by a pervasive pattern of emotionality and attention-seeking.

schizoid personality disorder

a personality disorder characterized by persistent avoidance of social relationships and little expression of emotion

The primary characteristic that distinguishes true experimental research from quasi-experimental research is that, in the former: Select one: a. participants are randomly selected from the population. b. participants are randomly assigned to treatment groups. c. the levels of the independent variable are systematically selected. d. a parametric statistical test can be used to analyze the data.

The correct answer is: participants are randomly assigned to treatment groups. Answer B is correct: For the exam, you want to be sure you understand the difference between random selection (sampling) and random assignment so that you can answer questions like this one. The "hallmark" of true experimental research is the ability to randomly assign participants to treatment groups, which helps ensure that groups do not differ in a systematic way at the beginning of the study.

A research participant is instructed to "think aloud" while solving complex geometry problems in order to identify the thought processes that underlie successful and unsuccessful problem-solving. The participant's verbalizations will be recorded and analyzed. This technique is known as: Select one: a. event sampling. b. protocol analysis. c. situational sampling. d. sequential analysis.

The correct answer is: protocol analysis. In this situation, information about the participant's cognitive processes is being obtained. Answer B is correct: Protocol analysis is also referred to as the "think aloud" exercise and is used to obtain information about cognitions associated with a particular type of problem or other phenomenon.

Cluster sampling involves: Select one: a. randomly selecting individuals from pre-defined groups in the population that are relevant to the research hypothesis. b. randomly selecting individuals who have been identified as belonging to the target groups. c. randomly selecting pre-existing groups of individuals from the population. d. randomly assigning pre-existing groups to different levels of the independent variable.

The correct answer is: randomly selecting pre-existing groups of individuals from the population. As its name suggests, cluster sampling involves selecting clusters (groups) of individuals from the population. Answer C is correct: When using cluster sampling, pre-existing groups are randomly selected from the population (e.g., schools, mental health clinics) and all individuals in each group or a random sample of participants in each group are included in the study.

Research investigating the effects of the "jigsaw method" in the classroom has demonstrated that it: Select one: a. increases aggression, especially toward the provocateur. b. reduces racial or ethnic stereotyping. c. increases intergroup competition. d. has a negative effect on academic achievement.

The correct answer is: reduces racial or ethnic stereotyping. The jigsaw method involves having teams of students work together to complete an assignment, with each member being assigned a different task or aspect of the assignment. Answer B is correct: The jigsaw method has been found to have a number of beneficial effects, including raising self-esteem, improving cooperation, and reducing racial or ethnic stereotyping. In terms of academic achievement, it tends to improve the performance of minority-group children and either increases or has no effect on the performance of majority-group children.

A child in Piaget's autonomous stage of moral development will base his judgment of whether an act is "right" or "wrong" primarily on: Select one: a. the consequences of the act for others. b. the consequences of the act for the actor. c. his sympathy for the actor. d. the actor's intentions.

The correct answer is: the actor's intentions. Piaget distinguishes between two stages of morality -- heteronomous and autonomous. Answer D is correct: Autonomous morality usually begins at about age 11 and is characterized by an emphasis on the actor's intentions. A child in the heteronomous stage judges the "rightness" or "wrongness" of an act on the basis of its consequences -- i.e., the more negative the consequences, the worse the act.

One criticism of multiaptitude test batteries is that they lack adequate differential validity, which means that: Select one: a. they are often less valid for members of minority groups than for members of the majority group. b. their subtests have similar levels of validity for predicting outcomes for different criterion groups. c. performance on their subtests is highly correlated with intelligence or other extraneous variable. d. performance on their subtests is affected by "floor" and "ceiling" effects.

The correct answer is: their subtests have similar levels of validity for predicting outcomes for different criterion groups. Answer B is correct: Multiaptitude batteries are used to make placement decisions but their ability to do so is limited when each subtest has high validity coefficients for more than one criterion group -- i.e., when the subtests lack differential validity. (In the context of multiaptitude batteries, differential validity is a desirable characteristic.)

A person is most likely to be helped in an emergency situation when: Select one: a. there is a single bystander. b. there are several bystanders. c. there are several bystanders of the same gender. d. there are several bystanders of the opposite gender.

The correct answer is: there is a single bystander. Answer A is correct: The studies have found that, the greater the number of bystanders, the less likely that a victim will receive assistance.

The basic premise of the Zeigarnik effect is that: a. we tend to remember unfinished tasks better than finished ones. b. we tend to remember novel or unusual tasks better than familiar ones. c. we tend to remember difficult tasks better than easy ones. d. we tend to remember interesting tasks better than boring ones.

The correct answer is: we tend to remember unfinished tasks better than finished ones. Zeigarnik used Lewin's field theory to explain the consequences of unresolved tension. Answer A is correct: Zeigarnik found that our memory tends to be better for uncompleted tasks than for completed ones when tasks are performed under non stressful conditions, apparently because uncompleted tasks create "psychic tension."

The t-test for dependent samples is used to analyze the data collected in a study involving 36 participants who had been matched on an extraneous variable before being assigned to one of the two treatment groups. The degrees of freedom for this study are: a. 36 b. 35 c. 18 d. 17

The degrees of freedom for the t-test for dependent (correlated) samples is equal to N - 1, where N is the number of pairs of scores. Answer D is correct: In this study, there are 18 pairs of scores, so the degrees of freedom are (18 - 1), or 17. The correct answer is: 17

deindividuation model

The deindividuation model predicts that people may be more willing to act aggressively when acting as a group member than when acting alone because of the anonymity that the group provides.

When using Holland's Self-Directed Search, the degree of match between an examinee's expressed interests and measured interests is referred to as: Select one: a. commonness. b. consistency. c. coherence. d. congruence.

The detailed score report for Holland's Self-Directed Search (SDS) provides information on congruence, consistency, differentiation, commonness, and coherence. Answer D is correct: Congruence refers to the degree of match between a person's measured interests (three-letter Summary Code) and expressed interests (occupations indicated in the Daydreams Section of the SDS).

Overall, the best conclusion that can be drawn about the effects of examiner race on the performance of African American children on standard IQ tests is that: a. African American children score higher when the examiner is of the same race. b. African American children score higher when the examiner is White. c. there is a consistent negative effect of examiner race only on tests that focus on verbal abilities. d. there is no consistent effect of examiner race on the scores of African American children.

The effect of examiner race on the test performance of minority children continues to be a controversial topic, at least in part, because the research has not produced consistent results. Answer D is correct: The research on this issue has produced inconsistent results, with many studies finding no effect of matching or mismatching in terms of race or ethnicity and others finding either a positive or negative effect. The correct answer is: there is no consistent effect of examiner race on the scores of African American children.

Movie viewers are most likely to say they feel uncomfortable in a crowded movie theater when the movie is: Select one: a. a violent action film. b. a sexually arousing film. c. an amusing comedy. d. a boring documentary.

The effects of crowding depend on several factors including the nature of the situation in which it occurs. Answer D is correct: Research on crowding has found that people tend to be bothered most by crowding in unarousing, uninteresting situations (e.g., while watching a boring documentary). The correct answer is: a boring documentary.

According to the elaboration likelihood model, a person is most likely to rely on the "central route" for processing information when: Select one: a. he thinks the message is boring. b. everyone else in the group agrees with the message. c. the message is within his "latitude of acceptance." d. he is in a neutral or slightly negative mood.

The elaboration likelihood model proposes that persuasion can involve either a central or peripheral route and that each route is associated with different conditions and outcomes. Answer D is correct: According to this model, we are more likely to use the central route for processing a persuasive message when we are in a neutral or slightly negative mood but the peripheral route when we are in a positive mood. The correct answer is: he is in a neutral or slightly negative mood. The elaboration likelihood model is a theory of persuasion that suggests that there are two different ways people can be persuaded of something, depending on how invested they are in a topic. When people are strongly motivated and have time to think over a decision, persuasion occurs through the central route, in which they carefully weigh the pros and cons of a choice. However, when people are rushed or the decision is less important to them, they tend to be more easily persuaded by the peripheral route, that is, by features that are more tangential to the decision at hand.

Berscheid's (1983) emotion-in-relationship model proposes that strong positive emotions are LESS likely to be elicited during the later stages of an intimate relationship than in its initial stages because, in the later stages: Select one: a. each partner is more self-centered and less other-centered. b. each partner's behavior has become more predictable. c. each partner works harder to be sensitive to the other's needs. d. each partner tend to focus more on other relationships.

The emotion-in-relationship model predicts that emotion is aroused by unusual or unexpected events. Answer B is correct: Berscheid's model proposes that, in the later stages of a relationship, a partner is less likely to do something that is unexpected. For example, an extravagant birthday present is a pleasant surprise during the first and second year of a relationship but, by the 12th year, has become expected. The correct answer is: each partner's behavior has become more predictable.

The development of the secondary sex characteristics occurs when the __________ secretes chemicals that stimulate the pituitary gland which, in turn, releases the gonadotropic hormones. Select one: a. hypothalamus b. thalamus c. putamen d. substantia nigra

The hypothalamus is part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Answer A is correct: At puberty, an increase in gonadal hormones influences the emergence of the secondary sex characteristics, and this is mediated by activity in the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. The correct answer is: hypothalamus

conduction aphasia

The inability to conduct between listening and speaking is disrupted Conduction aphasia is a type of aphasia in which the main impairment is in the inability to repeat words or phrases. Other areas of language are less impaired (or not at all). It is also known as associative aphasia. A person with conduction aphasia can usually read, write, speak, and understand spoken messages.

The item difficulty index (p) ranges in value from: Select one: a. -1.0 to +1.0. b. -.50 to +.50. c. 0 to +1.0. d. 0 to 50.

The item difficulty index (p) indicates the proportion of examinees in the tryout sample who answered the item correctly. Answer C is correct: The item difficulty index ranges in value from 0 to +1.0, with 0 indicating that none of the examinees answered the item correctly and +1.0 indicating that all examinees answered the item correctly. The correct answer is: 0 to +1.0.

A 63-year-old college professor exhibits impairments in memory and other cognitive functions and a depressed mood. Which of the following suggests that his symptoms are more likely due to "pseudodementia" than to a major or mild Neurocognitive Disorder? Select one: a. The onset of the man's symptoms was insidious. b. The man exaggerates his cognitive deficits and seems overly concerned about them. c. The man has marked deficits in both recognition and recall memory. d. The man exhibits greater impairment in declarative memory than in procedural memory.

The man exaggerates his cognitive deficits and seems overly concerned about them The term pseudodementia is sometimes used to describe Major Depressive Disorder when it involves apathy and prominent cognitive symptoms (e.g., memory loss, impaired concentration, distractibility). A distinguishing feature is that people with pseudodementia are likely to exaggerate their cognitive problems, while those with a major or mild Neurocognitive Disorder tend to deny or minimize them. People with pseudodementia tend to have greater impairment in procedural than declarative memory.

As the result of a closed-head injury caused by a skateboard accident, a 19-year-old loses her ability to recall events that occurred during the two years prior to the injury. When her memories begin to return, she is most likely to recall which of the following first? a. the events that caused the accident b. the events that occurred several hours before the accident c. the fight she had with her boyfriend one month before the accident d. the trip she took with her family 18 months before the accident

The pattern of memory recovery following a traumatic brain injury is referred to as "shrinking retrograde amnesia." Answer D is correct: For TBI patients with retrograde amnesia, the most remote memories are the first to return. The correct answer is: the trip she took with her family 18 months before the accident

Damage to the prefrontal cortex is most likely to produce deficits in: Select one: a. visual processing. b. executive cognitive functions. c. the ability to comprehend speech. d. fine motor coordination.

The prefrontal cortex is located in the frontal lobe and is involved in a variety of complex behaviors. Answer B is correct: In addition to mediating higher-order (executive) cognitive functions, the prefrontal cortex is involved in emotion, memory, attention, and self-awareness. The correct answer is: executive cognitive functions.

Which of the following is true about the prevalence of Major Depressive Disorder in adolescents and adults? Select one: a. The rates for males and females are about equal. b. The rate for females is one and one-half to three times the rate for males. c. The rate for males is about one and one-half to three times the rate for females. d. The rate for females is four to five times the rate for males.

The rate for females is one and one-half to three times the rate for males. Prior to puberty, the rates of Major Depressive Disorder are about equal for males and females; but, beginning in adolescence, the rate for females becomes one and one-half to three times the rate for males.

Studies have found that, when older adults are asked to recall personal events from their lives, they often exhibit a "reminiscence bump." A recent explanation for this phenomenon is that it is due to which of the following? Select one: a. development of the object concept b. development of a personal sense of identity c. renewed egocentricism d. increasing prospective memory

The reminiscence bump is the tendency for older adults to have greater recall for events that occurred from about age 10 to 30. Answer B is correct: Several explanations have been offered for the reminiscence bump. A recent explanation is that it occurs because people develop a sense of identity during these years and events that occurred during this period are more easily recalled because they have been incorporated into the person's sense of self. The correct answer is: development of a personal sense of identity

Research on attraction suggests that competent, intelligent people are: Select one: a. liked more when they act in a consistently competent manner. b. liked more when they occasionally make a blunder. c. liked more when they hide their intelligence. d. not liked as much as less competent, less intelligent people.

The research has found that attraction to others is affected by a number of factors including perceptions of the other person's competence. Answer B is correct: The studies have confirmed that "to err is humanizing" -- i.e., people like competent people most if they occasionally make a small blunder. The correct answer is: liked more when they occasionally make a blunder.

The corpus callosum is: a. a highly convoluted structure located in the hindbrain. b. a midbrain structure that mediates vision. c. a bundle of fibers that connects Wernicke's and Broca's areas. d. a bundle of fibers that connects the right and left hemispheres.

The right and left hemispheres of the brain are connected by several bundles of fibers. Answer D is correct: The corpus callosum is the largest bundle of fibers that connects the two hemispheres and allows information sent directly to one hemisphere to be shared with the other hemisphere. The correct answer is: a bundle of fibers that connects the right and left hemispheres.

Studies on the "serial position effect" have provided information on: Select one: a. primacy and recency effects. b. retrograde and anterograde amnesia. c. echoic and iconic memory. d. proactive and retroactive interference.

The serial position effect is the tendency to recall items at the beginning and end of a list better than items in the middle of the list. Answer A is correct: Enhanced recall of items at the beginning of a list is referred to as the primacy effect, while enhanced recall of items at the end of a list is called the recency effect. The correct answer is: primacy and recency effects.

Sally Student receives a score of 450 on a college aptitude test that has a mean of 500 and standard error of measurement of 50. The 68% confidence interval for Sally's score is: Select one: a. 400 to 450. b. 400 to 500. c. 450 to 550. d. 350 to 550.

The standard error of measurement is used to construct a confidence interval around an obtained test score. The standard error of measurement (SEm) is a measure of how much measured test scores are spread around a "true" score. Answer B is correct: To construct the 68% confidence interval, one standard error of measurement is added to and subtracted from the obtained score. Since Sally obtained a score of 450 on the test, the 68% confidence interval for her score is 400 to 500.

Research by Lamb and Catanzaro (1998) on sexual misconduct by psychotherapists found that: Select one: a. therapists who had sex with their clients often had sexual relations in the past with their own therapist, a professor, or supervisor. b. therapists who had sex with their clients were more likely than those who did not to have been involved in nonsexual dual relationships with clients. c. therapists who had sex with their clients were, in general, less experienced and younger than those who did not. d. there were no consistent differences between therapists who did and did not have sex with their clients in terms of other dual relationships or sexual relations with their own therapist, professor, or supervisor.

The studies have found some differences in the characteristics of therapists who do and do not become sexually involved with clients. The results of this research are summarized in the Ethics and Professional Issues chapter of the written study materials. Answer B is correct: Lamb and Catanzaro (1998) looked specifically at sexual and nonsexual boundary violations of psychotherapists and found that those reporting sexual boundary violations were also more likely to report nonsexual boundary violations and to rate nonsexual boundary violations as less negative or problematic than those who did not report sexual boundary violations. The correct answer is: therapists who had sex with their clients were more likely than those who did not to have been involved in nonsexual dual relationships with clients.

Research on factors that influence attitude change has found that, when the communicator is mildly to moderately credible, attitude change is greatest when the level of discrepancy between the initial positions of the communicator and the recipient of the communication is: Select one: a. large. b. moderate. c. small. d. unpredictable.

The studies have found that attitude change is a function of both the initial level of discrepancy and the credibility of the communicator. Answer B is correct: Change in attitude is greatest when the initial level of discrepancy is in the moderate range, especially when the communicator is mildly to moderately credible. The correct answer is: moderate.

Following a stroke, a woman is unable to recognize the faces of her relatives and her two pet dogs as well as her own face in the mirror. This condition is referred to as: Select one: a. apraxia. b. psychic blindness. c. prosopagnosia. d. anosognosia.

The symptoms described in this question are caused by damage at the junction of the occipital, temporal, and parietal lobes. Answer C is correct: Prosopagnosia is the inability to recognize familiar faces.

Feelings of low personal accomplishment, cynicism, and emotional, physical, and mental exhaustion are symptoms of: Select one: a. work-family conflict. b. low organizational commitment. c. job burnout. d. overtraining.

The symptoms described in this question are characteristic of job burnout. Answer C is correct: Job burnout is caused by accumulated stress associated with overwork. Although its symptoms vary from person to person, most people experience the combination of symptoms listed in this question. The correct answer is: job burnout.

Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is often manifested in children as excessive worry about: Select one: a. relationships with friends and family members. b. injury and illness. c. the future. d. school or sports performance.

The symptoms of GAD are age-related, with children and adolescents most often worrying about performance in school and sports and about earthquakes, tornados, and other disasters.

The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS): Select one: a. are restricted primarily to behavioral problems. b. are restricted primarily to minor physical abnormalities. c. are reversible with the appropriate diet following birth. d. are largely irreversible.

The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome are related to the amount of alcohol consumed by the woman during her pregnancy. Answer D is correct: Fetal alcohol syndrome is the most severe form of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder. Its symptoms are, for the most part, irreversible and include facial deformities, intellectual disability, and hyperactivity. The correct answer is: are largely irreversible.

Wernicke's aphasia involves: a. fluent output, impaired repetition, intact comprehension. b. nonfluent output, disturbed repetition, abnormal comprehension. c. nonfluent output, poor repetition, intact comprehension. d. fluent output, impaired repetition, poor comprehension

The term "aphasia" refers to a loss of language functioning as the result of brain impairment. Answer D is correct: Fluent speech that is devoid of content, impaired repetition, and poor comprehension of written and spoken language are symptoms of Wernicke's aphasia.

Sexual dimorphism refers to: Select one: a. differences in sexual orientation. b. differences in the sexual response cycle. c. sex-related differences in physical appearance. d. sex-related differences in sex hormones.

The term "sexually dimorphic" was originally used by Darwin to describe species in which males and females look different and is now more generally used to refer to sex-related differences in physical appearance. Answer C is correct: Human males and females differ in terms of physical appearance in a number of ways, and recent studies have confirmed that differences are also apparent in certain structures of the brain including the corpus callosum, hippocampus, and SCN. The correct answer is: sex-related differences in physical appearance.

Echoic is to iconic as: Select one: a. procedural is to declarative. b. temporary is to permanent. c. external is to internal. d. auditory is to visual.

The terms echoic and iconic provide cues as to what they refer to -- i.e., "echo" suggests sound, while "icon" suggests an image. Answer D is correct: The terms echoic and iconic are used to describe sensory memories and refer, respectively, to memory for auditory stimuli and memory for visual stimuli. The correct answer is: auditory is to visual.

All sensory systems except __________ have connections through the thalamus. Select one: a. touch b. vision c. audition d. olfaction

The thalamus acts as a "relay station" for all of the senses except one. Answer D is correct: Of the senses, only olfaction is not part of the thalamic relay system. The correct answer is: olfaction

Cognitive Consistency Theory

The theory states that motivation is produced by inner conflict this is called cognitive dissonance Cognitive consistency theory predicts that behaviors that are inconsistent with an established attitude are susceptible to change.

Central Limit Theorem

The theory that, as sample size increases, the distribution of sample means of size n, randomly selected, approaches a normal distribution.

The Scholastic Assessment Test (SAT) appears to be LEAST accurate as a predictor for: Select one: a. examinees who score in the mid-range. b. examinees who score at the high or low end. c. examinees who score in the lower one-third. d. examinees who score in the upper one-third.

There is evidence that SAT scores are less accurate predictors of college GPA for certain examinees. Answer A is correct: The SAT and similar tests are better predictors of college success for examinees who score at the extremes than for those who score in the mid-range. The correct answer is: examinees who score in the mid-range.

norm-referenced scores

When using norm-referenced interpretation, an examinee's score indicates how well he or she did on the test relative to examinees in the norm group. A grade-equivalent score is a norm-referenced score. It allows a test user to compare an examinee's test performance to that of students in different grade levels. Percentile ranks are norm-referenced scores. A percentile rank indicates the percent of examinees in the norm group who obtained a lower score. A T-score is a type of standard score, and standard scores are norm-referenced scores that indicate how well an examinee did in terms of standard deviation units from the mean score of the norm group.

You want to start treating clients who believe they have been abducted by aliens, but you have never worked with members of this population before. Your best course of action would be to: Select one: a. start seeing these clients and consult with someone who is familiar with this population if you encounter any problems. b. start seeing these clients after establishing a consultative relationship with someone who is familiar with this population. c. take a continuing education course related to the treatment of members of this population before you begin seeing these clients. d. see these clients only in emergency situations or if no one else is available in the community to see them.

This issue is addressed by Standard 2.01 of the Ethics Code. Answer B is correct: Standard 2.01 requires psychologists to provide services only within the boundaries of their competence and to seek education, training, or supervision when necessary. When working with a new population, the best course of action is often obtaining consultation. The correct answer is: start seeing these clients after establishing a consultative relationship with someone who is familiar with this population.

A student who is chronically depressed is most likely to attribute the low score he received on his final exam to: Select one: a. his lack of ability. b. the lack of time he had to study. c. the difficulty of the exam items. d. the instructor's ineptitude.

This question is asking about the learned helplessness model of depression. Answer A is correct: The studies on learned helplessness have found that people who are depressed often attribute their failures to internal, stable, and global factors. The correct answer is: his lack of ability.

When a researcher compares the difference between two means to assess the effects of an independent variable on a dependent variable, she will have the most confidence in her decision to reject the null hypothesis if her results are statistically significant at the ___ level of significance. Select one: a. 0.5 b. 0.1 c. 0.05 d. 0.01

This question is asking about the researcher's confidence that she has not made a Type I error -- i.e., that she has not rejected a true null hypothesis. Answer D is correct: The smaller the level of significance (alpha), the more confident a researcher can be that she has not made a Type I error when, on the basis of the results of the study, she rejected the null hypothesis. In other words, the smaller the level of significance, the more likely the researcher has rejected a false (rather than true) null hypothesis. The correct answer is: 0.01

In one series of studies, Pavlov conditioned dogs to salivate in response to a black square but not in response to a light grey square. Subsequently, when the dogs were shown a medium grey square, they exhibited which of the following? Select one: a. overshadowing b. spontaneous recovery c. experimental neurosis d. learned helplessness

This question is describing trials that required dogs to make difficult discriminations. Answer C is correct: Pavlov found that difficult discriminations produced experimental neurosis -- i.e., uncharacteristic behaviors that included extreme restlessness, agitation, and unprovoked aggression. The correct answer is: experimental neurosis

Thomas and Chess (1977) proposed that maladjustment in children is traceable to: Select one: a. exposure to multiple risks during prenatal development and early infancy. b. a lack of "fit" between the child's temperament and the parents' caregiving behaviors. c. a combination of biochemical factors and environmental stressors. d. the parents' lack of knowledge about normal child development.

Thomas and Chess categorized infants on the basis of nine basic temperament qualities and linked these categories to future outcomes. Answer B is correct: These investigators found that a mismatch between an infant's temperament and the parents' caregiving behaviors was predictive of future behavioral problems. The correct answer is: a lack of "fit" between the child's temperament and the parents' caregiving behaviors.

A psychologist has received a subpoena duces tecum requesting that she testify in court about a former client and provide the court with records related to the client's treatment. The psychologist does not have a release from the client to do so. She should: Select one: a. appear in court and release the records as requested. b. appear in court but claim the privilege on behalf of the client. c. appear in court but release only those records she believes to be relevant to the case. d. refuse to appear in court until she obtains a release from the client.

When a psychologist receives a subpoena to appear at a legal proceeding, he or she must appear but should not provide information about the client without a release from the client or a court order. Answer B is correct: The appropriate action in this case is to appear as requested but, without a release from the client, to assert the privilege on the client's behalf. The correct answer is: appear in court but claim the privilege on behalf of the client.

It is generally agreed that, when treating a child for school refusal, the initial intervention should be to: Select one: a. begin family therapy. b. identify factors that are reinforcing nonattendance. c. temporarily remove the child from the school environment. d. get the child back to school as soon as possible.

When identifying an appropriate intervention for school refusal, it would be important to determine its cause. However, most experts agree that an initial intervention is to get the child back to school as soon as possible.

In the context of stimulus control, a positive discriminative stimulus: Select one: a. signals that a behavior will be reinforced. b. signals that the individual can choose between two or more reinforcers. c. is a type of primary reinforcer. d. is a type of secondary reinforcer.

When the occurrence of a behavior is affected by the presence of a discriminative stimulus, the behavior is said to be under stimulus control. Answer A is correct: A positive discriminative stimulus indicates that the behavior will be reinforced, while a negative discriminative stimulus indicates that it will not be reinforced. The correct answer is: signals that a behavior will be reinforced.

The Solomon four-group design is used to control which of the following threats to the validity of a research study? Select one: a. statistical regression b. pretest sensitization c. reactivity d. maturation

When using the Solomon four-group design, the pretest is treated as an additional independent variable so that its effects on the dependent variable can be statistically analyzed. Answer B is correct: When using the Solomon four-group design, the effects of administering a pretest on the study's internal and external validity can be identified. The correct answer is: pretest sensitization

Research by Duxbury and Higgins (1991) on work-family conflict found that: Select one: a. men and women experience more conflicts due to work (versus family) expectations. b. men and women experience more conflicts due to family (versus work) expectations. c. men experience more conflicts due to work expectations, while women experience more conflicts due to family expectations. d. men experience more conflicts due to family expectations, while women experience more conflicts due to work expectations.

Work-family conflict occurs when career and family role demands are incompatible. Answer C is correct: Duxbury and Higgins (1991) found that work-family conflict is more stressful for women and that women experience more conflicts as the result of family expectations while men experience more conflicts as the result of work expectations. The correct answer is: men experience more conflicts due to work expectations, while women experience more conflicts due to family expectations.

You have just completed a research study but have not yet published its results. A colleague of yours who is familiar with your study requests the data you have collected. Which of the following best describes the requirements of the APA's Ethics Code with regard to this situation? Select one: a. You are required to comply with the colleague's request only if her purpose in requesting the data is to re-analyze it. b. You are required to comply with the colleague's request only if she agrees to protect the confidentiality of the study's participants. c. You are not required to comply with the colleague's request since the results of the study have not yet been published. d. You are not required to comply with the colleague's request unless she has a "legitimate concern" about the accuracy the data.

You are not required to comply with the colleague's request since the results of the study have not yet been published. Answer C is correct: Standard 8.14 states the following: "After research results are published, psychologists do not withhold the data on which their conclusions are based from other competent professionals who seek to verify the substantive claims through reanalysis and who intend to use such data only for that purpose, provided that the confidentiality of the participants can be protected and unless legal rights concerning proprietary data preclude their release." Since you have not yet published your study, you are not obligated to comply with the colleague's request.

counterconditioning

a behavior therapy procedure that uses classical conditioning to evoke new responses to stimuli that are triggering unwanted behaviors; includes exposure therapies and aversive conditioning Counterconditioning entails presenting a US that is incompatible with the CS so that the current response (e.g., anxiety) is eventually replaced by the desired response (e.g., relaxation).

illness anxiety disorder

a disorder in which a person interprets normal physical sensations as symptoms of a disease Illness Anxiety Disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with having a serious illness, an absence of somatic symptoms or the presence of mild somatic symptoms, a high level of anxiety about one's health, and performance of excessive health-related behaviors or maladaptive avoidance of doctors and hospitals. The DSM does not require symptoms to be linked to a desire to obtain an external reward.

partial agonist

a drug that binds to a receptor and causes a response that is less than that caused by a full agonist produces an effect that is similar (but not identical) to the effect produced by a neurotransmitter or agonist.

Spearman's g factor

a general factor that represents intelligence General intelligence, also known as g factor, refers to a general mental ability that, according to Spearman, underlies multiple specific skills, including verbal, spatial, numerical and mechanical.

schizoaffective disorder

a psychological disorder characterized by the combination of mood and psychotic symptoms; in this disorder, both the symptoms of schizophrenia and a major depressive, manic, or mixed episode are experienced for at least one month is the appropriate diagnosis when the individual has a history of concurrent symptoms of Schizophrenia and a manic or major depressive episode with at least two weeks without prominent mood symptoms.

criterion contamination

a situation that occurs when an actual criterion includes information unrelated to the behavior one is trying to measure Criterion contamination occurs when a rater's knowledge of an individual's performance on the predictor affects how the rater rates the individual on the criterion.

Negative Discriminative Stimulus

a stimulus that signals that a response will not be followed by reinforcement

A hypnagogic hallucination is: Select one: a. a sense of detachment from oneself. b. a drug-induced sensory perception. c. a vivid dream that occurs just before waking up. d. a vivid dream-like sensation that occurs just before falling asleep.

a vivid dream-like sensation that occurs just before falling asleep. Hypnagogic hallucinations are vivid dreams that occur during the transition from an awake to a sleep state.

Gerstmann's syndrome is characterised by:

a) dysgraphia, finger agnosia, acalculia, and right-left disorientation b) responding to simple questions with absurd, approximate, or inappropriate answers c) strong oral tendencies, hypersexuality, lack of concentration, and alterations in appetite d) anterograde amnesia, confusion, and confabulation syndrome is due to damage to the left parietal lobe.

methods for controlling an extraneous variable...

a. an extraneous variable is "held constant." b. the effects of an extraneous variable are statistically removed. c. an extraneous variable is treated as an independent variable.

correlation coefficients to be familiar with...

a. point biserial The point biserial coefficient is the appropriate coefficient when one variable represents a true dichotomy and the other is measured on an interval or ratio (continuous) scale. b. Pearson r The Pearson r is the appropriate correlation coefficient when both variables are measured on an interval or ratio scale. c. phi coefficient The phi coefficient is used when both variables are true dichotomies. d. contingency coefficient The contingency coefficient is used to determine the degree of association between two nominal variables.

Memory loss associated with Alzheimer's dementia has been most consistently linked to abnormal levels of which of the following neurotransmitters? Select one: a. epinephrine b. norepinephrine c. serotonin d. acetylcholine

acetylcholine Answer D is correct: Acetylcholine (ACh) has been implicated in memory loss associated with Alzheimer's dementia. More specifically, degeneration of cholinergic (ACh) cells in the entorhinal cortex and other areas that communicate directly with the hippocampus has been linked to this disorder.

Many of the employees working on the assembly line at a large auto manufacturing plant have very low levels of job motivation and satisfaction. Their new supervisor, who is familiar with Herzberg's work, is most likely to recommend that: Select one: a. each employee's prepotent needs be identified. b. each employee's level of "job maturity" be identified. c. all employees be given bonuses that are clearly linked to job performance. d. all employees be given more individual responsibility and autonomy.

all employees be given more individual responsibility and autonomy. Herzberg's two-factor theory distinguishes between hygiene (job context) factors and motivator (job content) factors and predicts that these factors have different effects on job motivation and satisfaction. Answer D is correct: According to Herzberg, only motivator factors increase motivation and satisfaction, and motivator factors include opportunities for responsibility, autonomy, advancement, recognition, and achievement.

identity diffusion

an apathetic state characterized by lack of both exploration and commitment

measurement error

an error that occurs when there is a difference between the information desired by the researcher and the information provided by the measurement process

Medulla

an extension of the spinal cord into the skull that coordinates heart rate, circulation, and respiration

To reduce a client's cigarette smoking, the client is exposed to several treatment sessions in which stale cigarette smoke is blown into his face soon after he begins to smoke a cigarette and this continues until he stops smoking. Eventually, the client feels nauseous whenever he even thinks about smoking. In this situation, the stale cigarette smoke has acted as: Select one: a. a conditioned stimulus. b. an unconditioned stimulus. c. a negative punisher. d. a negative reinforcer.

an unconditioned stimulus. In this situation, two stimuli are being "paired" in order to change the response that is elicited by one of the stimuli. This procedures describes classical conditioning, would eliminates Answers C and D since punishers and reinforcers are associated with operant conditioning. Answer B is correct: The stale cigarette smoke naturally elicits nausea, so it is the unconditioned stimulus (US). Answer A is incorrect: The cigarette is the conditioned stimulus (CS) in this situation. By being paired with stale cigarette smoke, it eventually elicits nausea.

The progression of Alzheimer's disease can be described in terms of three stages. A person in the second (middle) stage of the disease is most likely to exhibit: Select one: a. retrograde amnesia for recent long-term events, indifference or irritability, and anomia. b. anterograde and retrograde amnesia, flat or labile mood, restlessness, and fluent aphasia. c. anterograde amnesia, indifference or sadness, and urinary incontinence. d. severely deteriorated intellectual functioning, apathy, and urinary and fecal incontinence.

anterograde and retrograde amnesia, flat or labile mood, restlessness, and fluent aphasia.

Research has supported Helms's (1995) prediction that White therapists whose attitudes and beliefs are consistent with the ________ status are most effective when working with clients from racial or ethnic minority groups. Select one: a. reintegration b. autonomy c. integrative awareness d. identity commitment

autonomy Knowing that autonomy is the last status in Helms's model would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. Research has confirmed that therapists of this status are most effective when working with clients from racial or ethnic minority groups.

Glasser's (1998) reality therapy identifies which of the following as the primary source of motivation? Select one: a. basic innate needs b. striving for superiority c. the drive to become an integrated "whole" d. unconscious conflicts

basic innate needs Glasser distinguished between five basic innate needs -- survival, love and belonging, power, freedom, and fun. A person's ability to satisfy these needs in a responsible way determines whether he or she develops a success identity or a failure identity.

After a therapy group has been together for several months, its members start criticizing the group leader for not disclosing any information about herself. Yalom, a well-known authority on group therapy, would most likely recommend to the therapist that she: Select one: a. explain to group members that self-disclosure on her part would be counterproductive. b. ask the members why they want her to disclose information about herself. c. begin to self-disclose information about herself in a responsible manner. d. recognize that this is a normal stage in group therapy and ignore the criticisms.

begin to self-disclose information about herself in a responsible manner. Yalom advocates some self-disclosure, pointing out that by self-disclosing, therapists act as role models and thereby facilitate interpersonal learning. He notes, however, that self-disclosure must be well-timed and made through a "filter of responsibility."

implosive therapy

behavioral therapy a type of counterconditioning that has the client imagine the most anxiety inducing thing first, in the hopes that they will realize that their fear is irrational

Thorndike's Law of Effect

behaviors followed by favorable consequences become more likely, and behaviors followed by unfavorable consequences become less likely

In the context of performance assessment, "critical incidents" are best described as: Select one: a. factors that contribute to rater biases. b. behaviors that increase the risk for accidents and or errors. c. behaviors that clearly contribute to successful and unsuccessful job performance. d. compensatory factors that are used to establish wages and salaries.

behaviors that clearly contribute to successful and unsuccessful job performance. Critical incidents are descriptions of specific behaviors that are associated with good and poor job performance. The use of critical incidents in performance appraisals helps decrease rater biases. Answer C is correct: As noted above, critical incidents are descriptions of specific job behaviors that define successful and unsuccessful job performance. When used in performance appraisal instruments, critical incidents are the "anchors" in a graphic rating scale or the statements included in a checklist.

concordance rate for Schizophrenia for...

biological siblings is about 10% fraternal twins is about 17% identical twins is about 48% for a child who has one grandparent with Schizophrenia is about 5%.

A problem with using percent agreement as a measure of inter-rater reliability is that it doesn't take into account the effects of: Select one: a. sample heterogeneity. b. test length. c. chance agreement among raters. d. inter-item inconsistency.

chance agreement among raters. Inter-rater reliability can be assessed using percent agreement or by calculating the kappa statistic. Answer C is correct: A disadvantage of percent agreement is that it doesn't take into account the amount of agreement that could have occurred among raters by chance alone, which can provide an inflated estimate of the measure's reliability. The kappa statistic is more accurate because it adjusts the reliability coefficient for the effects of chance agreement.

fluent aphasia

characteristic of receptive aphasia where speech produces functional output regarding articulation, but lacks content and is typically dysprosodic using neologistic jargon

narcissistic personality disorder

characterized by a grandiose sense of self-importance, a preoccupation with fantasies of success or power, and a need for constant attention or admiration involves a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy.

inverse agonist

chemical substance that produces effects opposite those of a particular neurotransmitter produces an effect opposite to the effect produced by a neurotransmitter or an agonist.

Freudian psychoanalysis consists of a combination of...

confrontation, clarification, interpretation, and working through. The goal of interpretation is to explicitly connect the client's current behavior to unconscious processes and is most effective when it addresses motives and conflicts close to the client's consciousness. Clarification involves clarifying the client's feelings by restating his or her remarks in clearer terms. Confrontation involves making statements that help the client see his or her behavior in a new way. Working through is the final stage of psychoanalysis and allows the client to gradually incorporate new insights into his or her personality.

Holland's Self-Directed Search (SDS) provides information on...

congruence, Congruence refers to the degree of match between a person's measured interests (three-letter Summary Code) and expressed interests (occupations indicated in the Daydreams Section of the SDS). consistency, Consistency refers to the distance between the examinee's first two code letters in the RIASEC hexagon. When the first two code letters are adjacent in the hexagon, the individual's consistency is high. differentiation, commonness, indicates the frequency with which an examinee's Summary Code occurred in the standardization sample (i.e., the percent of people in the sample who obtained the same code). coherence, is the degree to which an individual's vocational/career interests belong to the same Holland category.

Dr. Stan Sanchez is not getting along with his neighbor and finds that he has little patience and tends to get angry easily with therapy clients who resemble the man. To be consistent with the requirements of the APA's Ethics Code, Dr. Sanchez should: Select one: a. refer clients who resemble his neighbor to another therapist. b. inform clients who resemble his neighbor about his current situation and discuss their options with them. c. consult with another professional to determine the best course of action. d. monitor his behavior for signs of impaired objectivity and performance.

consult with another professional to determine the best course of action. Answer C is correct: Standard 2.06 states that, when psychologists become aware that "personal problems may interfere with their performing work-related duties adequately, they take appropriate measures, such as obtaining professional consultation or assistance." Monitoring his activity would not be sufficient since Dr. Martin is already aware that his problem with his neighbor is having an adverse impact on his effectiveness with some of his clients.

Harlow and Zimmerman's (1959) study of attachment in rhesus monkeys indicated that _______________ is the critical variable in mother-infant attachment. Select one: a. contact comfort b. feeding c. drive reduction d. infant temperament

contact comfort Harlow and Zimmerman compared the role of contact comfort and feeding on attachment in infant rhesus monkeys. Answer A is correct: The results of their research indicated that contact (tactile) comfort was more important than feeding for the development of attachment. Their research was subsequently applied to attachment in human infants.

Research on teacher feedback suggests that teachers: Select one: a. no longer treat boys and girls differently. b. criticize boys more and help girls more. c. criticize girls more and help boys more. d. criticize and help boys more than girls.

criticize and help boys more than girls. The research has consistently found that teachers tend to respond differently to boys and girls. Answer D is correct: The studies have shown that teachers continue to not only provide more feedback to boys and criticize boys more often but also provide different types of feedback and criticism to boys and girls.

An interviewer unintentionally nods whenever research participants answer his questions in ways that confirm the study's research hypothesis. The interviewer's behavior is best described as an example of which of the following? Select one: a. demand characteristics b. Hawthorne effect c. halo effect d. instrumentation

demand characteristics Answer A is correct: In the situation described in this question, the interviewer's expectancies are acting as a source of demand characteristics -- i.e., the interviewer is giving information to participants that lets them know what behavior is expected of them. Experimenter expectancy is the term used to describe the ways in which an experimenter may bias the result of a research study.

Dr. Lisa Lopez has been treating Glenn G. for depression for three weeks. During their most recent session, Glenn disclosed that he has also been seeing another therapist for several months. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Lopez should: Select one: a. tell Glenn he cannot continue seeing him in therapy since he is receiving services from another professional. b. tell Glenn that he will need to decide which therapist he wishes to continue seeing with the next few weeks. c. discuss this issue with Glenn and consult with the other therapist after getting Glenn's approval to do so. d. continue therapy with Glenn since he has not expressed a desire to stop.

discuss this issue with Glenn and consult with the other therapist after getting Glenn's approval to do so. Answer C is correct: This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 10.04. Dr. Lopez should discuss the issue with Glenn, determine if there is a duplication of services (e.g., Glenn may be seeing a behavioral therapist who is helping him stop smoking), and, if appropriate, consult with the other therapist after obtaining Glenn's permission to do so. Of course, if the two therapists are providing duplicate services, Glenn will have to eventually choose between them, but that is not the best initial action.

Carl Rogers proposed that a person may attempt to relieve anxiety by relying on which of the following? Select one: a. secondary process thinking b. distortion or denial c. introjection d. accommodation or assimilation

distortion or denial According to Rogers, a person may attempt to alleviate anxiety by distorting or denying experiences that produced the incongruence that caused the anxiety. Rogers proposed that incongruence between self and experience produces unpleasant physical sensations that are subjectively experienced as anxiety.

In an organization, a formative evaluation is conducted: Select one: a. prior to developing a training program to determine what it should include. b. during the development of a training program to identify ways to improve it. c. to evaluate the outcomes of an existing training program on employees' job performance. d. to determine whether a training program has had a substantial impact on organizational goals.

during the development of a training program to identify ways to improve it. In the evaluation literature, a distinction is made between formative and summative evaluation. Answer B is correct: As its name suggests, a formative evaluation is conducted while a training program or other intervention is being "formed" (developed) and is used to determine if it needs to be modified in order to meet its goals.

In most African American families, male-female relationships are: Select one: a. matriarchical. b. patriarchical. c. egalitarian. d. anarchic.

egalitarian Roles within African American families are often flexible and relationships between men and women tend to be egalitarian Contrary to a widely-accepted stereotype, African American families are not usually matriarchal.

Kuder Occupational Interest Survey (KOIS)

empirical criterion keying, high school jrs & srs 4 scales: occupational scales (109); College major scales (40); Vocational Interest Estimates (ten similar to Holland); Dependability Indices (validity)

Schizophrenia has been linked to several structural brain abnormalities with the most consistent finding being: Select one: a. larger-than-normal prefrontal lobes. b. an enlarged hippocampus. c. enlarged ventricles. d. smaller-than-normal ARAS.

enlarged ventricles. Schizophrenia has been linked to a number of structural and functional brain abnormalities. Of the structural abnormalities, enlarged ventricles have been most frequently found.

Fagan Test

evaluates an infant's ability to process information The Fagan Test assesses an infant's selective attention to novel stimuli.

Damage to the prefrontal cortex is most likely to produce deficits in: Select one: a. visual processing. b. executive cognitive functions. c. the ability to comprehend speech. d. fine motor coordination.

executive cognitive functions. The prefrontal cortex is located in the frontal lobe and is involved in a variety of complex behaviors. Answer B is correct: In addition to mediating higher-order (executive) cognitive functions, the prefrontal cortex is involved in emotion, memory, attention, and self-awareness.

Solomon four-group design

experimental design in which the experimental and control groups are studied with and without a pretest

Flooding/exposure therapy

exposure to anxiety-provoking stimulus until extinction takes place

incremental validity

extent to which a test contributes information beyond other more easily collected measures refers to the degree to which a test improves decision-making accuracy.

external validity

extent to which we can generalize findings to real-world settings

A transformational leader is most likely to use which of the following to motivate employees? Select one: a. monetary rewards b. brainstorming c. framing d. norming

framing Transformational leaders are able to recognize the need for change, create a vision that guides that change, and accomplish the change effectively. Answer C is correct: Transformational leaders use framing to motivate employees, which involves describing an organization's goals and activities in ways that make them meaningful to employees.

In a token economy, the tokens are: Select one: a. back-up reinforcers. b. generalized secondary reinforcers. c. discriminative stimuli. d. unconditioned stimuli.

generalized secondary reinforcers A token economy is a structured environment in which desirable behaviors are reinforced with tokens that can be exchanged for desired items, activities, etc. Answer B is correct: Tokens are generalized secondary reinforcers that have value only because they can be exchanged for primary reinforcers.

Research on the outcomes of parental divorce for children has identified a "sleeper effect," which refers to the tendency of: Select one: a. boys to show a decrease in negative outcomes as they reach adolescence. b. girls to show an increase in negative outcomes as they reach adolescence. c. boys and girls to show a decrease in negative outcomes as they reach early adulthood. d. boys and girls who show the most severe outcomes immediately after the divorce to show an increase in negative outcomes over time and vice versa.

girls to show an increase in negative outcomes as they reach adolescence. Answer B is correct: In the context of the effects of divorce on children, the term "sleeper effect" refers to the tendency of girls who do not initially show significant negative effects of the divorce to develop a number of problems in adolescence, including increased noncompliance and conflict with their mothers, antisocial behaviors, decreased self-esteem, and difficulties related to sexual behavior.

Which of the following is an example of consultee-centered case consultation? Select one: a. helping a teacher recognize the early signs of drug abuse in high school students. b. helping a therapist develop a treatment plan for a client with a disorder the therapist is unfamiliar with. c. helping company managers identify methods for improving their ability to design effective employee training programs. d. helping a school administrator identify ways to improve the effectiveness of a current teacher training program.

helping a teacher recognize the early signs of drug abuse in high school students. In consultee-centered case consultation, the focus is on the skills, knowledge, and objectivity of the consultee, and the goal is to improve the consultee's functioning so that he or she can work more effectively with members of a target group or population in the future.

When hired to settle a dispute between members of an organization, a mediator: Select one: a. cannot offer specific solutions to the problem. b. has the authority to impose a solution to the problem. c. helps disputants identify alternative solutions to the problem. d. offers several alternative solutions that disputants must choose from.

helps disputants identify alternative solutions to the problem. Mediation is one of several methods for resolving conflict in an organization and involves having a neutral third party use various strategies to facilitate voluntary agreement between the disputants. Answer C is correct: Although a mediator can offer alternative solutions to the problem, he or she has no formal power and cannot impose a solution on the disputants.

A friend says, "Every time I plan a vacation, there's always a crisis at home or work so that I can't go." Assuming that this is not really true, your friend's statement best illustrates which of the following? Select one: a. psychological reactance b. deindividuation c. fundamental attribution bias d. illusory correlation

illusory correlation Answer D is correct: The illusory correlation is the tendency to believe that two unrelated events are related.

Which of the following treatments combines exposure to a feared stimulus with a psychodynamic interpretation of the fear? Select one: a. overcorrection b. implosive therapy c. covert sensitization d. flooding

implosive therapy Answer B is correct: Implosive therapy combines classical extinction with psychodynamic interpretation. It is often used to treat phobias and to eliminate self-reinforcing behaviors.

conditioned stimulus (CS)

in classical conditioning, an originally irrelevant stimulus that, after association with an unconditioned stimulus (US), comes to trigger a conditioned response.

psychic blindness

inability to recognize emotional importance of events or objects is an inability to recognize the meaning or significance of objects or events.

Sue and Sue (2003) describe "worldview" as consisting of two dimensions - locus of control and locus of responsibility. Within this framework, the culture of the White middle-class in the United States is best described as reflecting an: Select one: a. internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility. b. internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility. c. external locus of control and external locus of responsibility. d. external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility.

internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility. According to Sue and Sue, the dominant culture in the United States (i.e., the culture of the White middle-class) exemplifies the IC-IR philosophy through it emphasis on individualism, independence, and self-reliance.

From the perspective of the reformulated version of the learned helplessness model, depression results when a person attributes negative events to: Select one: a. external, stable, and global factors. b. external, unstable, and specific factors. c. internal, unstable, and specific factors. d. internal, stable, and global factors.

internal, stable, and global factors Answer D is correct: According to the reformulated version, people who are depressed tend to blame themselves for negative events, believe that negative events will always happen to them, and think that negativity will affect all aspects of their lives -- i.e., they make internal, stable, and global attributions. Abramson et al.'s (1978) reformulated version of the learned helplessness model added attributions for negative events to the original model.

Unresolved grief, interpersonal role disputes, role transitions, and interpersonal deficits are the primary targets of:

interpersonal therapy. The interventions used in interpersonal therapy address one or more of four problem areas unresolved grief, interpersonal role disputes, role transitions, interpersonal deficits.

Confrontation

involves making statements that help the client see his or her behavior in a new way.

KABC-II (Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children, Second Edition)

is a measure of cognitive ability for children ages 3 through 18

kappa statistic (also known as the kappa coefficient)

is a measure of inter-rater reliability. Inter-rater reliability is the extent to which two or more raters (or observers, coders, examiners) agree.

Graves disease

is another name for hyperthyroidism Graves' disease is an immune system disorder that results in the overproduction of thyroid hormones (hyperthyroidism). Symptoms of Graves' disease may include bulging eyes, weight loss, and a fast metabolism. Hyperthyroidism due to Graves' disease is treatable with medicine. But if left untreated, Graves' disease can cause osteoporosis, heart problems, and problems getting pregnant and during pregnancy.

working through

is the final stage of psychoanalysis and allows the client to gradually incorporate new insights into his or her personality.

Apraxia

is the inability to perform skilled motor movements in the absence of impaired motor functioning.

A manager with a "Theory X" management philosophy would be most likely to say that her role as a manager: Select one: a. is to help employees identify and achieve their common goals and objectives. b. is to direct and control employees in order to achieve organizational goals. c. varies, depending on factors related to the organizational climate. d. varies, depending on the likelihood that employees will resist changes in policies and procedures.

is to direct and control employees in order to achieve organizational goals. As defined by McGregor, a Theory X manager believes that employees don't like to work and, therefore, must be closely supervised and provided with incentives for good performance.

Depth perception depends on sensitivity to...

kinetic (motion) cues, binocular cues, and pictorial cues binocular cues arises at about 2 to 4 months of age Sensitivity to kinetic cues arises at about 1 to 3 months of age. Sensitivity to pictorial cues (e.g., size, texture, shading) is the last to arise at about 5 months of age.

Tolman used the notion of "cognitive maps" as support for which of the following? Select one: a. the law of effect b. insight learning c. latent learning d. observational learning

latent learning Answer C is correct: Tolman's notion of cognitive maps was derived from his research in which rats were allowed to explore a maze without being reinforced for doing so. The results indicated that the animals had learned something about the maze -- i.e., they had formed cognitive maps. This led Tolman to conclude that learning can occur without apparent changes or improvements in behavior, and he referred to this as latent learning.

According to the __________, the relative frequency of responding to an alternative corresponds to the frequency of reinforcement for responding to that alternative. Select one: a. law of effect b. matching law c. law of contiguity d. Premack Principle

matching law Although this sentence is difficult to "translate," it is basically saying that the frequency of responding matches the frequency of reinforcement. Answer B is correct: The statement in the question defines the matching law (Herrnstein, 1970), which states that the frequency of responding to two or more alternatives (e.g., pressing two or more levers) matches the frequency of being reinforced for doing so.

When assessing the impact of gender on preference for three different study methods (written materials, workshop, combination of written materials and workshop), you would use which of the following statistical tests to analyze the data you collect from 100 psychologists who have just started preparing for the licensing exam? Select one: a. single-sample chi-square test b. multiple-sample chi-square test c. Mann-Whitney U test d. t-test for independent samples

multiple-sample chi-square test The study described in this question has one independent variable (gender) and one dependent variable (study preference), and the dependent variable is measured on a nominal scale. Answer B is correct: The chi-square test is the appropriate test when the data to be analyzed represent a nominal scale; and, when the study includes more than one variable, the multiple-sample chi-square test is the appropriate test. (A useful way to distinguish between the single-sample and multiple-sample chi-square tests is to substitute the word "variable" for "sample" in their names -- and keep in mind that, when you count the variables, you count the independent and dependent variables.)

A process consultant initially: Select one: a. observes workers as they interact. b. meets with individual disputants. c. develops an action plan. d. administers an employee survey.

observes workers as they interact. Answer A is correct: As its name implies, process consultation involves looking at "processes" -- i.e., at interactions between workers. The correct answer is: observes workers as they interact.

Scapegoating

occurs when family members blame one member (often the "identified patient") for the family's problem.

proactive interference

occurs when something learned in the past interferes with the ability to learn or recall something learned in the present

Cholinergic

parasympathetic

transtheoretical model distinguishes between six stages of change

precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance, and termination

primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention

primary = before have it Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it ever occurs. This is done by preventing exposures to hazards that cause disease or injury, altering unhealthy or unsafe behaviours that can lead to disease or injury, and increasing resistance to disease or injury should exposure occur. When a program is offered to all members of a group or population rather than to specific individuals (e.g., to all residents of a retirement community), it is a primary prevention. secondary = asymptomatic but you have it Secondary prevention aims to reduce the impact of a disease or injury that has already occurred. This is done by detecting and treating disease or injury as soon as possible to halt or slow its progress, encouraging personal strategies to prevent reinjury or recurrence, and implementing programs to return people to their original health and function to prevent long-term problems. tertiary = reduce complications once symptomatic or long term effects (chemo, etc.) Tertiary prevention aims to soften the impact of an ongoing illness or injury that has lasting effects. This is done by helping people manage long-term, often-complex health problems and injuries (e.g. chronic diseases, permanent impairments) in order to improve as much as possible their ability to function, their quality of life and their life expectancy. vocational rehabilitation programs to retrain workers for new jobs when they have recovered as much as possible.

cingulate cortex

primary cortical component of the limbic system, involved in emotional and cognitive processing

For Carl Jung, transference involves: Select one: a. a lack of individuation and self-realization. b. projection of the personal and collective unconscious. c. a distortion that the therapist will identify as a fantasy. d. a symbolic manifestation of "disowned" parts of the self.

projection of the personal and collective unconscious. For Jung, the unconscious consists of both personal and collective elements and transferences consist of both of these elements. Like Freud, Jung considered transference to be an unconscious process in which feelings the client originally directed toward others are now being projected onto the therapist.

Dr. Marla Martin is asked to provide crisis intervention services to community members who were recently affected by a tornado that destroyed their homes. Dr. Martin does not have experience providing assistance to people who have been traumatized by a natural disaster, but there is no one else in the area who has experience and is available to see these individuals. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Martin should: Select one: a. provide services only if she is supervised by another professional who has experience with victims of a natural disaster. b. provide services to these individuals but use only interventions that she has experience using. c. provide services to these individuals but stop when the crisis has ended or other services become available. d. refuse to provide the services.

provide services to these individuals but stop when the crisis has ended or other services become available. Answer C is correct: Standard 2.02 states: "In emergencies, when psychologists provide services to individuals for whom other mental health services are not available and for which psychologists have not obtained the necessary training, psychologists may provide such services in order to ensure the services are not denied. The services are discontinued as soon as the emergency has ended or appropriate services are available."

Holland's model of career choice

provides the framework fo the SDS and distinguishes between six personality or occupational types that are arranged in a hexagon in the following order... realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, conventional ("RIASEC").

Intermodal sensitivity

refers to the ability to combine information from different sensory modalities

During a family therapy session, the therapist tells the wife that her husband's constant criticism of her and the children is actually an expression of his love for them. This is an example of which of the following? Select one: a. restraining b. reframing c. prescribing d. positioning

reframing Reframing involves describing a problematic behavior in a way so that it can be viewed as positive or functional which, in turn, fosters a different response to that behavior.

discriminant validity

scores on the measure are not related to other measures that are theoretically different (also known as divergent validity) refers to the extent to which a test does not correlate with measures of different constructs

A prevention program involves identifying children who exhibit early signs of emotional disturbance so they can be provided with special assistance from teacher's aides and other paraprofessionals. This is an example of: Select one: a. primary intervention. b. secondary prevention. c. tertiary prevention. d. developmental intervention.

secondary prevention. Secondary preventions entail the early identification of at-risk individuals who have not yet developed a full-blown disturbance and providing them with an appropriate intervention

A researcher designs a study to investigate college students' expectations regarding their ability to master a new skill, achieve a particular goal, or produce a particular outcome. Apparently, this researcher is interested in which of the following phenomena? Select one: a. locus of control b. need for achievement c. self-actualization d. self-efficacy

self-efficacy Answer D is correct: Bandura used the term self-efficacy to refer to an individual's beliefs or expectations regarding his or her ability to perform specific behaviors. For example, a person has high self-efficacy beliefs when she believes that she has the knowledge or skills necessary to successfully complete a particular task. Of the phenomena listed in the answers, self-efficacy best describes the researcher's interest.

Rehm's self-control therapy focuses on which of the following? Select one: a. self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement b. self-esteem, self-determination, and self-evaluation c. self-monitoring, self-management, and self-actualization d. self-evaluation, self-determination, and self-acceptance

self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement Rehm's self-control therapy is based on the assumption that deficits in three aspects of self-control can increase a person's vulnerability to depression. Answer A is correct: Self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement are the three targets of self-control therapy.

parietal lobe function

somatic sensory processing portion of the cerebral cortex lying at the top of the head and toward the rear; receives sensory input for touch and body position The parietal lobe contains the somatosensory cortex and is involved in pressure, temperature, pain, proprioception, and gustation.

During an argument, a husband and wife keep trying to outdo one another in terms of insults. This is one of the possible outcomes of: Select one: a. high-context communication. b. low-context communication. c. complementary communication. d. symmetrical communication.

symmetrical communication In symmetrical communication, the communicators have equal status. A possible negative outcome of this type of communication is that it may escalate into a "one-upsmanship" game.

keyword method

system of associating new words or concepts with similar-sounding cue words and images

halo effect

tendency of an interviewer to allow positive characteristics of a client to influence the assessments of the client's behavior and statements

Echoic

term that describes memory of sounds

positive punishment

the administration of a stimulus to decrease the probability of a behavior's recurring

Thalamus

the brain's sensory switchboard, located on top of the brainstem; it directs messages to the sensory receiving areas in the cortex and transmits replies to the cerebellum and medulla The thalamus is believed to both process sensory information as well as relay it—each of the primary sensory relay areas receives strong feedback connections from the cerebral cortex. The thalamus plays a major role in regulating arousal, the level of awareness, and activity.

When using the DSM-5, severity of a child's Intellectual Disability is determined by considering which of the following? Select one: a. the child's score on an individual standardized intelligence test b. the child's adaptive functioning in conceptual, social, and practical domains c. the etiology of the child's disability d. the discrepancy between the child's cognitive and adaptive functioning

the child's adaptive functioning in conceptual, social, and practical domains The DSM-5 distinguishes between four levels of severity for Intellectual Disability - mild, moderate, severe, and profound. An individual's level of severity is based on his or her adaptive functioning in conceptual, social, and practical domains.

According to Irvin Yalom, in group therapy, increased willingness to self-disclose by group members is the result of: Select one: a. the development of cohesiveness. b. the development of realistic expectations. c. a by-product of transference. d. the therapist's authority.

the development of cohesiveness Yalom attributed increased participation, self-disclosure, adherence to group norms, etc. to be due to the development of group cohesiveness. Yalom describes the first few months of a therapy group as involving three stages. In the third stage, members begin to develop trust and a sense of unity and are increasingly willing to self-disclose.

criterion contamination

the extent to which performance appraisals contain elements that detract from the accurate assessment of job effectiveness

Deindividuation

the loss of self-awareness and self-restraint occurring in group situations that foster arousal and anonymity Deindividuation refers to the state of anonymity that a person experiences as a member of a group and has been linked to an increased willingness to engage in antisocial behavior.

"Criterion contamination" is a concern when: Select one: a. items on the measure of performance are dichotomously scored. b. the performance measure will be scored by more than one rater. c. rating categories are not mutually exclusive. d. the measure of performance is subjectively scored.

the measure of performance is subjectively scored. Answer D is correct: Subjectively scored criterion measures are susceptible to biases, including criterion contamination. When criterion contamination occurs, the criterion may not be providing accurate information. Criterion contamination occurs when a rater's knowledge of a ratee's performance on a predictor biases his or her ratings of the ratee on the criterion.

Fechner's Law

the observation that the strength of a sensation is proportional to the logarithm of physical stimulus intensity The law states that the change in a stimulus that will be just noticeable is a constant ratio of the original stimulus.

Event sampling

the observer records all instances of a particular behavior during a specified time period Event sampling is a type of behavioral sampling that involves observing and recording information about a behavior when it occurs (e.g., observing a conflict between group therapy members).

phonological loop

the part of working memory that holds and processes verbal and auditory information

Weber's Law

the principle that, to be perceived as different, two stimuli must differ by a constant minimum percentage (rather than a constant amount) Weber's Law states that, the more intense the stimulus, the greater the increase in stimulus intensity needed for the increase to produce a just noticeable difference in stimulus intensity.

Catharsis

the process of releasing, and thereby providing relief from, strong or repressed emotions. is a release of emotions that results from the recall of unconscious material

object relations theory

the psychodynamic theory that views the desire for relationships as the key motivating force in human behavior

Rumination Disorder

the regurgitation of recently eaten food into the mouth followed by either rechewing, reswallowing, or spitting it out is characterized by repeated regurgitation of food that is not attributable to a medical condition and does not occur exclusively during the course of another eating disorder.

For an advocate of expectancy theory, "instrumentality" refers to: Select one: a. the relationship between effort and performance. b. the desirability of outcomes. c. the relationship between performance and outcomes. d. social norms related to performance.

the relationship between performance and outcomes. Expectancy theory links worker motivation to three factors -- expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. Answer C is correct: Instrumentality refers to the belief that successful performance will lead to positive outcomes (rewards).

negative punishment (omission training)

the removal of a pleasant stimulus following an undesired response to decrease the likelihood that the behavior will reoccur

escape conditioning (negative reinforcement)

the removal of certain stimuli immediately after the occurrence of a behavior will increase the likelihood of that behavior Escape conditioning is a form of aversive conditioning. The word aversive refers to stimuli that are avoided. Generally, those stimuli are unpleasant or painful. Escape conditioning occurs when an aversive stimulus is presented and an animal responds by leaving the stimulus situation.

statistical regression

the statistical tendency for extreme scores or extreme behavior to be followed by others that are less extreme and closer to average

self-serving bias

the tendency for people to take personal credit for success but blame failure on external factors A self-serving bias occurs when a person attributes positive outcomes to internal (dispositional) factors and negative outcomes to external (situational) factors.

stimulus generalization

the tendency to respond to a stimulus that is only similar to the original conditioned stimulus with the conditioned response

The primary issue in the case of Larry P. v. Riles was: a. the use of intelligence tests as job selection techniques. b. the use of different cutoff scores for males and females on a placement test. c. the use of intelligence tests to evaluate African American children for EMR classes. d. the use of standard achievement tests to diagnose learning disorders in minority students.

the use of intelligence tests to evaluate African American children for EMR classes. The case of Larry P. was brought by plaintiffs on behalf of African American children who were disproportionately enrolled in EMR classes in the San Francisco school system. Answer C is correct: The judge in this case concluded that IQ tests, which were the primary tool for placing children in EMR classes, were biased against African American children and could no longer be used to make placement decisions about them.

trichromatic theory

theory of color vision that proposes three types of cones: red, blue, and green

Reality Therapy

treatment that emphasizes personal responsibility for actions and their consequences Reality therapy is a form of counseling that views behaviors as choices. It states that psychological symptoms occur not because of mental illness, but due to people irresponsibly choosing behaviors to fulfill their needs.

interpersonal therapy (IPT)

treatment that strengthens social skills and targets interpersonal problems, conflicts, and life transitions

A family therapist has been seeing a mother, father, and their two children in therapy for three months. Two days after a therapy session, the father calls the therapist to talk about a conflict he is having with his wife and tries to get the therapist to side with him. The next day, the wife calls the therapist and tries to get him to see things from her point of view. From the perspective of structural family therapy, this situation can be considered an example of: Select one: a. scapegoating. b. mimesis. c. triangulation. d. detouring.

triangulation Triangulation is one of the rigid triads identified by Minuchin. Though originally defined as involving parents and a child, triangulation can also refer to any triad in which two parties attempt to involve a third party in their conflict and demand the third party's loyalty.

Which of the following is an example of a morpheme? Select one: a. un b. th c. di-di d. cuh

un Answer A is correct: Morphemes are the smallest unit of sound that has meaning and include words such as "do" and "go" and prefixes and suffixes such as "ful," "un," and "ing." Phonemes are the smallest unit of sound understood in a language and include b, v, and th.

A 40-year-old therapist becomes attracted to a 38-year-old client and soon realizes that the feelings are mutual. They discuss the situation and agree to terminate therapy and begin dating immediately. This is: Select one: a. ethical since they terminated therapy before beginning to date. b. ethical since the client is an adult and voluntarily agreed to stop therapy. c. unethical because the therapist began dating a former client immediately after terminating therapy. d. unethical unless the therapist and client received counseling related to this issue when they began dating.

unethical because the therapist began dating a former client immediately after terminating therapy. Answer C is correct: Standard 10.08 prohibits psychologists from becoming sexually involved with former therapy clients within two years of terminating the professional relationship and, even then, the relationship may be acceptable only in "the most unusual circumstances."

Based on his review of the psychotherapy outcome studies, Hans Eysenck (1952) concluded that: Select one: a. treated and untreated patients show very little improvement in symptoms. b. treated and untreated patients both show improvement but are indistinguishable in terms of amount of improvement. c. treated patients are consistently "better off" than untreated patients in terms of symptom improvement. d. untreated patients are often "better off" than treated patients in terms of symptom improvement.

untreated patients are often "better off" than treated patients in terms of symptom improvement. Eysenck found that 72% of untreated neurotic adults improved, while only 66% of those receiving eclectic therapy and 44% of those receiving psychoanalytic psychotherapy showed a substantial decrease in symptoms.

Cost-effectiveness analysis

used to compare the costs and benefits of different treatments in terms of specific non monetary outcomes (e.g., symptom severity, premature dropout rate) to identify the treatment that produces the best outcomes at the least cost.

The best prognosis for Autism Spectrum Disorder is associated with: Select one: a. an early onset of symptoms. b. a precipitating factor. c. verbal communication skills by age 6. d. normal adaptive functioning.

verbal communication skills by age 6. The prognosis for Autism Spectrum Disorder is generally poor, although certain characteristics have been linked to a better prognosis including the acquisition of verbal communication skills by age 5 or 6, an IQ of 70 or higher, and a later onset of symptoms.

A client you have been seeing in therapy for seven weeks tells you that her ex-husband is threatening to kill you because he blames you for her unwillingness to get back together with him. From your conversations with the client, you know that the man has a history of violent behavior and that his threat against you must be taken seriously. As an ethical psychologist: Select one: a. you must continue seeing the client and should contact the police to obtain protection only with the client's consent to do so. b. you must continue seeing the client but may contact the police to obtain protection with or without the client's consent to do so. c. you may terminate therapy with the client and may contact the police to obtain protection with or without the client's consent to do so. d. you may terminate therapy with the client but should contact the police to obtain protection only with the client's consent to do so.

you may terminate therapy with the client and may contact the police to obtain protection with or without the client's consent to do so. Answer C is correct: Standard 10.10(b) states that "psychologists may terminate therapy when threatened or otherwise endangered by the client or patient or another person with whom the client or patient has a relationship." In addition, prohibitions against breaching client confidentiality do not apply if the psychologist needs to contact the police or others to obtain protection for him or herself