Exam 1
What type of ossification is involved in mandible, hip, limb and clavicle development? A. Intramembranous, endochondral, endochondral, intramembranous B. endochondral, endochondral, Intramembranous, endochondral C. Intramembranous, Intramembranous, endochondral, endochondral D. Intramembranous, endochondral, Intramembranous, endochondral
A. Intramembranous, endochondral, endochondral, intramembranous
Which of the following is an example of a long bone?A. Parietal B. Patella C. Radius D. Sphenoid E. Carpal
C. Radius
Insula
Gustatory cortex is located inside
Dorsal
Relating to the back side of the body; toward the back.
This structure prevents microorganisms from entering the body.
Skin
Butterfly shaped bone(s)
Sphenoid
T/F: A flexible hinge is located where the myosin heads join the myosin tail
True
Elasticity
Ability of muscle to return to its original length and shape after contraction or extension
Are chemicals that bind toad stimulate the receptors in the olfactory cilia A. Umami B. Odorants C. Tastants D. Glutamate
B. Odorants
Spongy bone gets replaced by compact bone
Bone remodeling phase
This body structure acts to store calcium
Bones
Which cranial nerve innervates muscles that help with facial expression?
Facial
Structurally, joints are classified as: fibrous joint, cartilaginous joint and synovial joint. Match their definitions below. Fibrous Joint Cartilaginous Joint Synovial Joint
Fibrous Joint --> Connected by fibrous connective tissue Cartilaginous Joint --> Connected by cartilage Synovial Joint --> Connected by both
Name of clot near site of injury
Fracture hematoma
Posterior bone of the hard palate
Palatine
Zygomatic process
Temporal
Diaphysis
The elongated shaft/body of a long bone
Body releases calcium when calcium blood levels are too:
Low
Lines much of the respiratory tract.
Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
Inspection
Visualization of a person and its body parts; it is the first step in a physical exam
Superior and middle nasal conchae formed from its projections
Ethmoid
Consists on average of 25 to 30 layers of flattened dead keratinocytes
Stratum corneum
Presence of darkly staining protein granules called keratohyalin
Stratum granulosum
Creates cavities that will house important organs
Protection of internal organs
This compound, present in cartilage, makes the cartilage resilient by trapping water
Proteoglycans
Columnar
Rectangular cells
These fibers are present in red bone marrow
Reticular fibers
Cheek bone
Zygomatic
The vertebrae is _______ to the sternum
Posterior
Ventral
Relating to the belly side of the body; toward the belly.
Damage to the optic nerve impedes what kind of primary function?
Sensory
When trapped in lacunae, osteoblasts become _________
Osteocytes
Contractile Proteins
- Generate force during contraction - Myosin and actin
Formation of skin patches
Vitiligo
Anterior bone of the hard palate
Maxillae
CN X
Vagus Nerve
Ultrasound
Sound waves that have ultrasonic frequency that bounce back to receiver
Separates the parietal bone from the temporal bone on each side of the skull
Squamous suture
Cuboidal
Square cells
These cells are involved in interstitial growth:
Chondrocytes
Facial Bones
Lacrimal, maxilla, zygomatic, palatine
Epigastric region
Left liver lobe, gallbladder, pancreas, and part of stomach
Always forms surface layers and is not covered by another tissue, except within blood vessels
Epithelial tissue
Crista galli
Ethmoid
Optic Nerve
Sensory
Movement of urine through the urinary tract.
Smooth muscle tissue
The dermis in made up of these cell layers. (place them in order, with the first one being closer to the surface)
Papillary and reticular
Calcium homeostasis is regulated by:
Parathyroid hormone, vitamin D, and calcitonin
Damaged or lost superficial epithelial cells are replaced by deeper dividing cells.
Regeneration
Large amount of extracellular material separates cells that are usually widely scattered
Connective tissue
The glial cells that destroy microorganisms in the CNS are: A. Microglia B. Satellite cells C. Oligodendrocytes D. Ependymal cells E. Astrocytes
A. Microglia
The epimysium, endomysium and perimysium come together at the end of a skeletal muscle to form a: A. Tendon B. Sarcomere C. Thin filaments D. Thick filaments
A. Tendon
Vertebrae
Irregular
This tissue membrane lines the cavities of freely movable joints.
Synovial membrane
Changes shape as the tissue stretches
Transitional epithelium
Taste and smell are referred to as the ______ senses A. Chemical B. Physical C. Biological D. Specific E. Electrical
A. Chemical
The spinal cord tapers at a conical tip called the: A. Conus medullaris B. Cauda equina C. Meninge D. Filum terminale
A. Conus medullaris
Where in your body can you find nerve cells? (pick best answer) A. Everywhere B. Brain C. Spinal cord D. Epidermis
A. Everywhere
The type of cartilage that covers the epiphysis of long bones is called:
Articular cartilage
Arrange the following layers in order from the outside to the inside of the brain. 1. Epicranial aponeurosis 2. Arachnoid mater 3. Scalp 4. Cranium 5. Dura mater 6. Periosteum 7. Pia mater A. 6, 4, 5, 2, 7, 3, 1 B. 3, 1, 6, 4, 5, 2, 7 C. 1, 3, 4, 6, 5, 7, 2 D. 3, 4, 6, 1, 5, 7, 2
B. 3, 1, 6, 4, 5, 2, 7
Inferior
Below or lower in position; toward feet. (not used in reference to limbs)
A muscle that aids in chewing without moving the mandible is: A. Levator anguli oris B. Temporalis C. Mentalis D. Zygomaticus E. Buccinator
E. Buccinator
Hyperplasia
Enlargement of organ or tissue due to increase cell reproduction rate
One end of the fracture bone is forcefully driven into the interior of the other
Impacted fracture
List all cells that you would find in each cell layer listed below. Stratum corneum
Just keratinocytes
Within the physiological processes of protection, this substance protects the body due to cellularity of keratinocytes
Keratin
Accessory Nerve
Motor
Is a second type of embryonic connective tissue
Mucous connective tissue
This tissue membrane has an underlying connective tissue known as lamina propria, that will help support the above, fragile epithelial layer.
Mucous membrane
This branch of CN V carries only sensory fibers and innervates the eye.
Ophthalmic
Which bony structure protects the pelvic cavity?
Pelvis
Right hypochondriac region
Right liver lobe
Central Sulcus
Separates the frontal from parietal lobes
Epiphyseal line
The area of bone where the epiphyseal plate used to be between the diaphysis and epiphysis. Was cartilage, in maturity it's bone
Isometric Contraction
The tension generated is not enough to exceed the load, and the muscle does not change its length
Metaphysis
The widened portion of the diaphysis where bone is added during growth
T/F: A thin filament contains actin, troponin, and tropomyosin
True
Head
Usually rounded articular projection supported on the neck of a bone
Presence of mostly dead chondrocytes
Zone of calcified cartilage
Organ Level
2 or more different types of tissues are organized into structures that have specific functions and usually have recognizable shapes.
Which two bone features compose the condyle of the humerus? A. Capitulum and trochlea B. Medial and lateral epycondyles C. Radial and ulnar notches D. Radial and ulnar heads E. Olecranon and trochlea notch
A. Capitulum and trochlea
Tissue that connects muscle to bone. A. Tendon B. Mesentery C. Thymus D. Ligament E. Tissue
A. Tendon
Separates the frontal bone from the parietal bones
Coronal suture
T Tubules
Invaginations of the sarcolemma; filled with extracellular fluid
List all cells that you would find in each cell layer listed below. Stratum lucidum
Keratinocytes only
(Upper Limb Articulations) What bone forms the pelvic girdle?
Os coxa
Gross Anatomy
Structures that can be examined without using a microscope.
Histology
Microscopic structure of tissues.
Lordosis
Cervical and lumbar
Lamella
Concentric sheets of bone in osteons
Sarcolema
Plasma membrane of a muscle fiber
Which cavities are located within the abdominopelvic cavity?
Abdominal and pelvic cavities
Occurs in patches on cell's membrane through adhesion molecules known as cadherins.
Desmosomes
These sensory receptors initiate signals that produce sensations of warmth, coolness, pain, tickling and itching
Free nerve endings
Lies at the intersection of the frontal, sagittal, and coronal sutures
Anterior fontanel
(Additional Structures) This bone feature on the tibia is a sharp ridge that is responsible for causing pain when shin is hit
Anterior tibial margin
Hypoglossal canal
Occipital
Hypertrophy
Tissue increase without cell division
Os coxa
Flat and irregular
Carpals
Short
Which cavity is not protected by a bony structure?
Abdominal cavity
CN VII
Facial Nerve
Derives from this embryonic layer
Mesodermal layer
Osteon
Functional unit of compact bone
Head
Projections on bones that form joints
Glossopharyngeal Nerve
Both or mixed
Deposition of new calcium and phosphorus for hardening of new bone
Bone remodeling phase
(Upper Limb Articulations) How many phalanges are there total in one hand?
14
Production of body movements
- Localized movements such as grasping a pencil, keyboarding, or raising your hand - Total body movements such as walking and running - Rely on the integrated functioning of skeletal muscles, bones, and joints
Choose ALL components that belong to the respiratory system. (multiple answers may apply) - Lungs - Bronchial tubes - Thyroid glands - Thymus - Pharynx - Trachea
- Lungs - Bronchial tubes - Pharynx - Trachea
function to: A. Secrete mucus B. Transduce chemical information into action potentials C. Help neutralize odors D. Produce olfactory cells
A. Secrete mucus
The mature cells of a cartilage are called:
Chondrocytes
__________ are found only in the peripheral nervous system. A. Ependymal cells B. Microglia C. Satellite cells D. Astrocytes E. Oligodendrocytes
C. Satellite cells
Characterized by having large amounts of nonliving matrix.
Connective tissue
This dermal layer is attached to the hypodermis
Reticular layer
(Lower Limb Articulations) The lateral femoral condyle articulates with which bone feature?
Lateral tibial condyle
These cells are part of the wandering cells of the dermis
Macrophages, eosinophils, neutrophils and mast cells
The flagellum is formed by this cytoskeleton component.
Microtubules
Cells located in this zone do not function in bone growth
Zone of resting cartilage
(UL V. LL Anatomy) The pectoral girdle is formed by _______bone(s). The pelvic girdle is formed by _______bone(s).
2;1
Which cranial nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression and several glands, and conducts gustatory impulses from the anterior part of the tongue? A. Trigeminal B. Facial C. Glossopharyngeal D. Hypoglossal
B. Facial
The cartilage model produced by chondroblasts during endochondral ossification will be the site for the future _________
Diaphysis
What are the types of connective tissue proper?
Loose, dense, and elastic
Meatus
Bone opening
The cells that produce cartilage matrix is:
Chondroblasts
An amphiarthrosis is defined as a: A. Joint that allows no motion B. Joint that is freely movable C. Joint with multiple axes of motion D. Joint that allows some motion
D. Joint that allows some motion
The main function of a fibrous joint is to: A. Provide stability between two bones B. Allow motion to occur between two bones C. Unite two bones with a synovial cavity D. Unite two bones with cartilageallow some motion while still E. Providing stability between two bones
A. Provide stability between two bones
Which organ can be found within the cranial cavity?
Brain
The crista galli is a bone feature found on which of the following bones? A. Frontal B. Cribriform plate C. Ethmoid D. Sphenoid E. Vomer
C. Ethmoid
The diaphragm is ______ to the stomach
Cranial
This physiological process in important to make our body aware of our environment
Cutaneous sensations
Which of the following makes up the greatest amount in terms of molecular composition of the human body? A. Hydrogen B. Carbohydrate C. Carbon D. Nitrogen E. Water
E. Water
Complete the following table relating to body membranes. Enter your answers in the areas left blank. SEROUS Tissue Type: _______________ Common Location(s): _______________ Functions (s): _______________
Tissue Type: Layer of simple squamous epithelium resting on a fine layer of connective tissue Common Location(s): Lines internal ventral body cavities and covers their organs Functions(s): Produces lubricating fluid that reduces friction
Clavicle
Long bone
Negative feedback system
A stimulus that is resisted through a physiological process that returns the body to homeostasis
This medication can be taken to block the synthesis of prostaglandins.
NSAIDs
Detects external and internal body changes and respond to those changes by generating action potential. nervous tissue
Nervous tissue
Forms hormones that will transmit signals for muscle contraction
Neural tissue
Forms the brain and spinal cord.
Neural tissue
Occipital Bone Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:
Occipital Bone - Axial - Unpaired
Ribs Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:
Ribs - Axial - Paired
Allows you to direct your eyeballs
Skeletal muscle tissue
This structure reduces the negative and harmful effects of ultraviolet light.
Skin
Which type of general sense receptor detects pressure changes in walls of blood vessels and in portions of the digestive, reproductive and urinary tracts? A. Mechanoreceptors B. Thermoreceptors C. Nociceptors D. Chemoreceptors
A. Mechanoreceptors
The matrix of the hyaline cartilage will be formed by these fibers:
Collagen
Dyaplasia
Cell growth within a tissue or organ that represents an abnormal cell type
CT Scan
Similar to X-ray, but processed by a computer
The sphenoid sinus is located in which bone? _______ Is this bone cranial or facial? _______
- Sphenoid - Cranial
Bone(s) that contain(s) the mandibular fossa
Temporal
The glial cell that helps to form cerebrospinal fluid is the: A. Oligodendrocytes B. Astrocyte C. Ependymal cell D. Microglia
C. Ependymal cell
Covers body surfaces, body cavities and ducts.
Epithelial tissue
T/F: The skin consists of the epidermis, the dermis and the hypodermis.
False
Forehead bone
Frontal
What are the two types of bone tissue?
Compact and spongy
Microglia
Function as phagocytes. They remove cellular debris formed during normal development of the nervous system phagocytize microbes and damaged
Found within red blood cells in blood vessels
Hemoglobin
Much of the lateral superior part of the skull
Parietal
Effector
Part of the body that responds to the motor neuron, usually muscle or gland.
Digital Subtraction Angiography
Similar to a CT scan with the addition of dye for contrast
The apical surface of this membrane is exposed to the external environment and is covered with dead, keratinized cells that help protect the body from desiccation and pathogens.
Cutaneous membrane
Which major organs are located within the abdominal cavity?
Digestive organs and glands
The lungs are ______ to the heart
Medial
This tissue membrane lines the joints of shoulder, elbow and knee.
Synovial membrane
Keratinocytes start to undergo apoptosis
Stratum granulosum
This process will be regulated by adjusting dermal blood flow.
Thermoregulation
Choose ALL components that belong to the muscular system. (multiple answers may apply) - Smooth muscle tissue - Joints - Skeletal muscle tissue - Bones - Tendons - Cartilage
- Skeletal muscle tissue - Tendons
Thermogenesis
- Used to maintain body temperature - Body shivers when you are cold
The number of dermal papillae are greater in this skin type
Thick skin
This cell junction separates the epithelial cells into an apical portion and a basal portion
Tight junctions
T/F: Arachnoid mater protects blood vessels that supply the brain
True
T/F: Fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers have a high intracellular glycogen level, which allows them to generate ATP by aerobic respiration
True
The breast is ______ to the dorsal
Ventral
Which cranial nerve's primary function is balance and equilibrium?
Vestibulocochlear
In this zone occurs the process of endochondral ossification
Zone of calcified cartilage
Below L1-L2, the vertebral canal is occupied by a bundle of spinal nerve roots called the: A. Filum terminale B. Sacral plexus C. Cauda equina D. Descending tracts E. Conus medullaris
C. Cauda equina
Mast cells main functions is to:
Cause vasodilation and loosen up the endothelial cells in the blood vessels
These cells are involved in appositional growth:
Chondroblasts
Tissue has significant networks of blood vessels
Connective tissue
This tissue membrane covers the outside of the body.
Cutaneous membrane
Which protein covers the active sites of the thin filaments, and therefore prevents muscle contaction? A. Troponin B. Actin C. Myosin D. Tropomyosin
D. Tropomyosin
The tissue that forms glands. epithelial tissue
Epithelial tissue
Palpation
Examination by pressing on the surface of the body to feel the organs or tissues underneath
Lateral
Farther from the midline.
In what order are the various types of skeletal muscle fibers recruited when you sprint to make it to the bus stop? First: Second: Third:
First: Slow Oxidative fibers Second: Fast Oxidative Glycolytic fibers Third: Fast Glycolytic fibers
This plasma membrane extension is responsible for propelling spermatozoa in humans.
Flagellum
Ribs
Flat bone
Composed of parallel plates of compact bone enclosing a layer of spongy bone
Flat bones
Connexins form tiny fluid‐filled tunnels called connexons that connect neighboring cells allowing passage of ions and small molecules.
Gap junctions
Node of Ranvier
Gaps in the myelin sheath
The rib cage will serve as protection site for these organs
Heart and lungs
Motor
Information is conveyed from the CNS through cranial and spinal nerves of the PNS to effectors (muscles and glands). Stimulation of the effectors causes
This cytoskeleton component is not involved at all in formation of plasma membrane extensions, but instead is has an important function in formation of cell junctions.
Intermediate filaments
This cytoskeleton component is the main component of cell junctions, which will keep cells together.
Intermediate filaments
Broken ends of the bone protrude through the skin
Open fracture
Which major organs are located within the pelvic cavity?
Reproductive organs and urinary bladder
Shaft
Same as diaphysis
Medullary cavity
The space inside bone that houses bone marrow
T/F: The meningeal layer is the part of the dura mater that covers the brain and extends into the vertebral canal
True
Cortical bone
Type of bone tissue with few spaces. Harder/denser. Has osteons
Head of rib
Superior and inferior costal facets of thoracic vertebrae
Which of the following is NOT a function of synovial fluid? A. Nourishment for osteocytes B. Lubrication C. Shock absorption D. Nourishment for chondrocytes
A. Nourishment for osteocytes
Without adequate calcium, blood has difficulty performing this process
Coagulation
T/F: Slow oxidative fibers generate ATP mainly by aerobic respiration
True
Initiation of inflammatory process with swelling
Reactive phase
Within the physiological processes of protection, the presence of these structures will secrete a substance that will prevent the skin from drying and also eliminate bacteria.
Sebaceous glands
Small amounts of waste products are excreted through:
Skin and glands
Which bony structure protects the cranial cavity?
Skull
Which of the bone features below is found in the sacrum? (choose ALL that apply) - Ala - Hiatus - Canal - Dens - Articular facet - Foramen - Spinous process
- Ala - Hiatus - Canal - Articular facet - Foramen
The ethmoid sinus is located in which bone? _______ Is this bone cranial or facial? _______
- Ethmoid - Cranial
From the answer choices below, check which are the cardinal signs of inflammation. (check ALL that apply) - Redness - Angiogenesis - Local heat - Vasodilation - Swelling - Pain
- Redness - Local heat - Swelling - Pain
Place the endochondral ossification events listed on RIGHT column in the order in which they occur. 1: 2: 3: 4: 5: 6: 7:
1: Development of cartilage model --> mesenchymal cells develop into chondroblasts, which form the cartilage model 2: Growth of cartilage model --> growth occurs by cell division of chondrocytes and formation of bone collar 3: Development of primary ossification center --> in diaphysis, bone tissue has replaced most of cartilage 4: Development of the medullary (marrow) cavity --> bone breakdown by osteoclasts forms the medullary cavity 5: Development of secondary ossification centers--> these occur in the epiphyses of the bone 6: Formation of epiphyseal plate between diaphysis and epiphyses 7: Closure of epiphyseal plate and formation of epiphyseal line
The following events are part of a negative-feedback mechanism. Place these events in the order that they occur. (1) blood pressure increases. (2) control center compares actual blood pressure to the blood pressure set point. (3) heart beats faster. (4) receptors detect a decrease in blood pressure.
4,2,3,1,
Which bands remain unchanged
A band
Regeneration
Action or process of creating new cells
Gray Matter
Area of the brain and spinal cord comprised of neural cell bodies, dendrites, unmyelinated axons and neuroglia
Right lumbar region
Ascending colon and part of transverse colon
Temporal Lobe
Auditory and olfactory cortex are located here
The _____ suture separates the frontal and parietal bones of the skull. A. Lambdoidal B. Coronal C. Sagittal D. Squamosal
B. Coronal
Which of the following is a main characteristic of a skeletal muscle fiber? A. Presence of intercalated discs B. Multinucleated C. Smooth appearance D. Incredibly short
B. Multinucleated
Which cranial nerve has a direct attachment to the cerebrum? A. Optic B. Olfactory C. Vagus D. Facial E. Hypoglossal
B. Olfactory
Which of the following cells are in charge of bone resorption? A. Osteoblasts B. Osteoclasts C. Osteons D. Macrophages E. Osteocytes
B. Osteoclasts
Which structure binds to the active site of the thin filament to cause muscle contraction? A. Troponin B. The head of the myosin C. Tropomyosin D. The tail of the myosin
B. The head of the myosin
Fill in the blank below. Make sure to match the number on the questions, with the number on the answers. The central nervous system (CNS) consists of the __________(blank 1) located in the cranial cavity and __________(blank 2) located in the __________(blank 3) cavity. The CNS processes many different kinds of incoming sensory information. It is also the source of thoughts, emotions, and memories. Most signals that stimulate __________(blank 4) to contract and __________(blank 5) to secrete originate in the CNS. The __________(blank 6) system consists of all nervous tissue outside the CNS. A __________(blank 7) (general type) receptor is a structure that monitors changes in the external or internal environment.
Blank 1: Brain Blank 2: Spinal Cord Blank 3: Vertebral Blank 4: Muscles Blank 5: Glands Blank 6: Peripheral nervous Blank 7: Sensory
Shortest nerve of the body (number)
CN I
What are the types of supporting connective tissue?
Cartilage and bone
Developmental Biology
Complete developmental history of an individual from fertilization to death.
The Cell Body (Soma)
Contains most organelles , including the nucleus. control center of the neuron. Like dendrites, the cell body also serves as an input portion of neuron because
Myofibril
Contractile element of the skeletal muscle fiber; containing thick and thin filaments
The synovial joint between the atlas and axis is a: A. Ellipsoidal joint B. Ball-and-socket joint C. Hinge joint D. Pivot joint
D. Pivot joint
The bones are ______ to the skin
Deep
The surface of the papillary layer of the dermis has these fingerlike structures that projects into the bottom surface of the epidermis
Dermal papillae
Macrophages
Develop from monocytes and destroy bacteria and cell debris by phagocytosis
Tissue has no blood vessels
Epithelial tissue
Stratified
General epithelium with more than one cell layer
Embryology
In humans, the first eight weeks of development after fertilization of the egg.
Axon
Is a single long, thin process that extends from the cell body. It functions as the output portion of the neuron by generating action potentials and then
Chondrocytes are present inside these spaces that are called:
Lacunae
Endochondral ossification occurs in _________ bones
Long
This tissue membrane line the body cavities and hollow passageways that open to the external environment.
Mucous membrane
Myelin Sheath
Multilayered covering composed of lipids and proteins
CN III
Oculomotor Nerve
CN II
Optic Nerve
Differentiation
Process by which unspecialized cells develop into specialized cells
The hip is ______ to the knee
Proximal
Formation of blood clot near injury site
Reactive phase
Metabolism
Refers to all chemical reactions occurring in the body
Tuberosity
Rough projection
Foramen
Rounded opening through which blood vessels, nerves, or ligaments pass
Separates right and left parietal bones
Sagittal suture
This tissue membrane forms the mesenteries that suspend many digestive organs
Serous membrane
Patella
Sesamoid bone
Forms the lining of the stomach and small intestine.
Simple columnar epithelium
Functions in secretion and absorption
Simple cuboidal and columnar epithelium
Lines the esophagus and forms the skin epidermis. stratified squamous epithelium
Stratified squamous epithelium
Within the physiological processes of protection, the presence of these structures will secrete a substance that will prevent the growth of microbes due to its acidity.
Sweat glands
Controlling the activity of the glands leads to:
Temperature regulation
Central canal
The space in the center of the osteon to allow blood flow into bone tissue
(Additional Structures) What structure is the patella encased in and formed inside of?
Quadriceps femoris tendon
Debris removal from injury site by neutrophils, macrophages and osteoclasts
Reactive phase
Myoglobin
Red, oxygen binding protein that is only found in the muscle; stores oxygen until it is needed by mitochondria for ATP
Occipital Lobe
Related to perception of visual stimuli
Cranial
Relating to the skull or head; towards the head.
Fibroblasts invade site of injury to produce collagen fibers
Reparative phase
Fibrocartilage converted into spongy bone
Reparative phase
Striated appearance
Skeletal and cardiac muscle tissues
Which abdominopelvic regions are in contact with the diaphragm? (check ALL that apply) - Epigastric - Left hypochondriac - Left upper - Right upper - Right hypochondriac
- Epigastric - Left hypochondriac - Right hypochondriac
Regulatory Proteins
- Help switch contraction process on and off - Tropomyosin and troponin
The sciatic nerve eventually branches into which nerves? A. Tibial and fibular nerves B. Common fibular and tibial nerves C. Deep and superficial fibular nerves D. Obturator and femoral nerves
A. Tibial and fibular nerves
CN XI
Accessory Nerve
Dendrites
Are short, highly branched processes that extend from the cell body. Receive signals from other neurons or from stimuli in the environment, serving as main
This tissue lacks blood vessels and the cells receive their nutrients through diffusion from blood vessels present in the connective tissue.
Avascularity
One way the spinal cord promotes homeostasis is by propagating action potentials along tracts. The name of a tract often indicates its position in the white matter and where it begins and ends. Using this knowledge, select the location, the beginning and end of each tract and the function. Dorsal columns - location in white column ___________(anterior, posterior, ventrolateral, dorsolateral); beginning _________(spinal cord, thalamus, cerebral cortex, cerebellum ) ; ends __________(cerebellum, cerebral cortex, thalamus, spinal cord) ; function_______(motor, sensory). fill in the blanks with one of the answer choices in the parenthesis.
- Posterior - Spinal Cord - Thalamus - Sensory
Stabilizing body positions
- Postural muscles contract continuously when you are awake - Help maintain body positions, such as standing or sitting
Choose ALL functions that belong to the respiratory system. (multiple answers may apply) - Plays role in immune response - Transports nutrients throughout the body - Production of sound from air passage through glottis - Transfers oxygen from inhaled air to blood and carbon dioxide from blood to exhaled air - Regulates body activities by releasing hormones - Helps regulate acid-base balance of body fluids
- Production of sound from air passage through glottis - Transfers oxygen from inhaled air to blood and carbon dioxide from blood to exhaled air - Helps regulate acid-base balance of body fluids
These structures present in the dermis are essential for the survival of the epidermis
Blood vessels
Changes in skin color can tell you a lot about an individual. Of the characteristics listed below, what colored skin would you expect to see on individuals that present these conditions or situations. Here are the color options: blue, brown, orange, red. Indicates an increased number of blood cells carrying insufficient oxygen content:
Blue
Serves as framework for supporting soft tissues
Body support
Facial Nerve
Both or mixed
Which of the following steps happens first regarding a muscle contracting? A. Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium B. Calcium binds to troponin C. A motor neuron releases acetylcholine D. Action potential travels down the transverse tubule E. Calcium binds to tropomyosin
C. A motor neuron releases acetylcholine
The elongated region of a neuron that is surrounded by neuroglial cells and myelin sheathing is the _____. A. Dendrite B. Nissil bodies C. Axon D. Intercalated disc
C. Axon
The diaphragm separates which two cavities? A. Abdominal and pelvic B. Pleural and thoracic C. Thoracic and abdominal D. Pleural and pericardial
C. Thoracic and abdominal
Choose ALL components that belong to the integumentary system. (multiple answers may apply) - Ureters - Sweat glands - Nails - Hair - Skin - Tonsils
- Sweat glands - Nails - Hair - Skin
Proximal
Closer to the attachment of a limb to the trunk; closer to the origin of a structure.
May be located internally as it covers organs, or externally as it covers the entire body. It also forms glands that will help in secretion.
Covers Body Surfaces
Coxal Bone Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:
Coxal Bone - Appendicular - Paired
Which cavities are located dorsally within the body?
Cranial and vertebral cavities
One way the spinal cord promotes homeostasis is by propagating action potentials along tracts. The name of a tract often indicates its position in the white matter and where it begins and ends. Using this knowledge, select the location, the beginning and end of each tract and the function. Ventral Spinocerebellar tract - location in white column ___________(anterior, posterior, ventrolateral, dorsolateral); beginning _________(spinal cord, thalamus, cerebral cortex, cerebellum ) ; ends __________(cerebellum, cerebral cortex, thalamus, spinal cord) ; function_______(motor, sensory). fill in the blanks with one of the answer choices in the parenthesis.
- Ventrolateral - Spinal Cord - Cerebellum - Sensory
Which of the following describes titin's roles in muscle contraction? A. Accounts for muscle's excitability B. Allows the actin to recoil and stretch C. Helps to hold the actin myofilaments in position D. Anchors thick filaments to Z disc and M line
D. Anchors thick filaments to Z disc and M line
Which of the following structures connects the third and fourth ventricles? A. Septum pellucidum B. Lateral ventricles C. Interventricular foramen D. Aqueduct of the midbrain
D. Aqueduct of the midbrain
When the membrane potential of a cell membrane becomes more positive than the resting potential, one can say that the membrane has become: A. Superpolarized B. Hypopolarized C. Hyperpolarized D. Depolarized
D. Depolarized
Which muscle extends the torso? A. Psoas major B. External oblique C. Splenius capitis D. Spinalis
D. Spinalis
Cells provide physical support to the olfactory receptor cells and help detoxify chemicals that come in contact with the olfactory epithelium A. Olfactory receptor B. Mitral C. Basal D. Supporting
D. Supporting
Place the layers of thick epidermis on RIGHT column in order in which they appear, starting with the most superficial layer. 1 (top): 2: 3: 4: 5 (bottom):
1 (top): Stratum corneum 2: Stratum lucidum 3: Stratum granulosum 4: Stratum spinosum 5 (bottom): Stratum basale
Cells of this tissue may absorb and/or secrete substances.
Epithelial tissue
T/F: Lateral ventricles communicate with each other by the centrum pellucidum
False
Femur Bone Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:
Femur Bone - Appendicular - Paired
Infraorbital foramen
Maxilla
Hard palate
Maxillae and palatines
Percussion
Method of tapping body parts to determine size, consistency and borders of body organs
The microvilli is formed by this cytoskeleton component.
Microfilament
Umbilical region
Most of transverse colon and jejunum
Cells of this tissue shorten to exert force.
Muscular tissue
Composed of specialized cells that function in contraction and is able to generate force.
Muscular tissue
Bone(s) that contain(s) the foramen magnum
Occipital
Neurons that have a single axon and a single dendrite are A. Tripolar B. Bipolar C. Multipolar D. Pseudo-unipolar
B. Bipolar
This is the longest nerve; it innervates the digestive system (number).
CN X
Right iliac region
Cecum and appendix
The lumbar region is ______ to the abdomen
Dorsal
Carcinoma
Epithelial cells
T/F: To initiate muscle contraction, Ca2+ binds to tropomyosin
False
What are the types of cartilage?
Hyaline, elastic, and fibrocartilage
Provides natural sunscreen
Melanin
Large numbers of _________ are found in the periosteum, which develops compact bone.
Osteoblasts
The blood vessels that supply nutrients to the chondrocytes are present in the: _________ and not in the _________
Perichondrium, matrix
Once the perichondrium starts to form bone, it is known as _________
Periosteum
Uneven distribution of organelles within the cell due to the presence of an apical surface (faces exterior of body) and a basal surface (attached to adjacent tissue).
Polarity
T/F: The skin is made of stratified squamous epithelium
True
bone 2 _______ and suture that unites this bone to the left parietal bone is the _______ suture.
- Frontal bone - Coronal
The linea aspera is a bone feature of which bone? A. Femur B. Tibia C. Fibula D. Fibia E. Tibula
A. Femur
A term that means nearer to the attached end of a limb is said to be: A. Proximal B. Distal C. Lateral D. Superficial E. Medial
A. Proximal
(Lower Limb Articulations) Femoral head articulates with which bone feature?
Acetabulum
Organismal Level
All the system are structurally integrated and function cooperatively to constitute the total organism.
The olfactory nerves exit the cranium through the: A. Optic foramen B. Olfactory bulbs C. Cribriform plate D. Nasal conchae
C. Cribriform plate
What are the types of fluid connective tissue?
Blood and lymph
Temperature control occurs by controlling:
Blood flow
The cranial bones will serve as protection site for this organ
Brain
Nerve involved in hearing (number)
CN VIII
Found predominantly in the stratum corneum
Carotene
Metaplasia
Change in cell type with an organ or tissue due to environmental changes
Protects and supports the body and its organs.
Connective tissue
Sarcoma
Connective tissue
Which two bones/bone features come together to form the nasal septum? A. Ethmoid bone and sphenoid bone B. Crista galli and perpendicular plate C. Ethmoid bone and perpendicular plate D. Perpendicular plate and vomer E. Nasal bone and vomer bone
D. Perpendicular plate and vomer
The superior trunk originates from the branches of which cervical nerve? A. C3-C5 B. C1-C5 C. C5-T1 D. C5-C8 E. C5 and C6
E. C5 and C6
Muscles attached to bones pull bones
Facilitates movement
This cell junction allows electrical and metabolic coupling of adjacent epithelial cells
Gap junctions
This cytoskeleton component uses tubulin as their primary protein.
Microtubules
These cytoskeleton components are involved in cell division
Microtubules and microfilaments
Left lumbar region
Part of transverse colon and descending colon
This layer of the dermis in located on the bottom layer and it is the thickest of the dermal layers
Reticular
Fossa
Shallow depression
Forms thin serous membranes; a single layer of flattened cells.
Simple squamous epithelium
T/F: The main component of the thin filament is the protein actin
True
Choose ALL components that belong to the skeletal system. (multiple answers may apply) - Penis - Joints - Bones - Tendons - Associated cartilages - Trachea
- Joints - Bones - Associated cartilages
Choose ALL components that belong to the digestive system. (multiple answers may apply) - Tonsils - Liver - Pharynx - Gallbladder - Esophagus
- Liver - Pharynx - Gallbladder - Esophagus
Bundles of axons of olfactory receptor cells form the right and left ________(trigeminal, facial, optic, olfactory) nerves, which is cranial nerve_________(CNI, CNX, CNII, CNIII) fill in the blanks with one of the answer choices found in the parenthesis.
- Olfactory - CNI
Which of the following is a main characteristic of a skeletal muscle fiber? A. Presence of intercalated discs B. Incredibly long C. Single nucleated D. Branching appearance
B. Incredibly long
The gastrocnemius acts to do the following: A. Dorsiflex the ankle and flex the knee B. Extend and adduct the femur C. Dorsiflex the ankle and extend the knee D. Plantar flex the ankle and flex the knee
D. Plantar flex the ankle and flex the knee
When contracted, the soleus assists in the action of ____________ of the foot, while the tibialis anterior assists in the action of ______________ of the foot. A. Inversion, Eversion B. Dorsiflexion, Plantar flexion C. Retraction, Protraction D. Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion
D. Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion
Which of the following connective tissue layers is covers all the others? A. Perimysium B. Endomysium C. Epimysium D. Hypomysium E. Sarcolemma
C. Epimysium
Which of the following separates the motor information from sensory information? A. Occipitoparietal sulcus B. Temporoparietal sulcus C. Lateral sulcus D. Central sulcus
D. Central sulcus
Which of the following are parts of neurons? A. Dendrite, medulla and myelin sheath B. Brain, spinal cord, and vertebral column C. Sensory and motor dendrites D. Dendrite, axon, and cell body
D. Dendrite, axon, and cell body
Where would the cell body of the pseudounipolar neuron be located? A. Spinal cord B. Thalamus C. Cerebrum D. Dorsal root ganglion E. Skin
D. Dorsal root ganglion
Which statement defines extensibility? A. The ability of a muscle to rebound toward its original length after a contraction B. Ability to respond to stimulation C. The ability to shorten actively and exert a pull or tension D. The ability to continue to contract over a range of resting lengths
D. The ability to continue to contract over a range of resting lengths
What happens when the stereocilia tilts on top of the kinocilium? A. The hair cell is inactivated and therefore inhibiting the sensory nerve ending from sending a signal B. The hair cell is stimulated but an impulse cannot be sent C. The hair cell in inactivated D. The hair cell is stimulated and therefore the sensory nerve ending is stimulated sending the impulse
D. The hair cell is stimulated and therefore the sensory nerve ending is stimulated sending the impulse
Where are your water receptors located? A. Cheeks B. Pharynx C. Uvula D. Tongue E. Larynx
D. Tongue
Which of the following muscles is named for its shape A. Pectoralis major B. Adductor pollicis C. Vastus lateralis D. Trapezius E. Pectoralis minor
D. Trapezius
Which of these is NOT a region of the spinal cord? A. Cervical B. Sacral C. Thoracic D. Lumbar E. Pelvic
E. Pelvic
Specialized cells that line blood vessels
Endothelium
T/F: Fast glycolytic fibers are intermediate in diameter and have a high resistance to fatigue
False
Supraorbital foramen
Frontal
Frontal Bone Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:
Frontal Bone - Axial - Unpaired
What is the name of the condition in which the canal of Schlemm is blocked?
Glaucoma
(Upper Limb Articulations) What bone feature and bone articulates with the humeral head?
Glenoid fossa of scapula
Epiphyseal plates are made of _________
Hyaline cartilage
Where will the secretions from the paranasal sinuses drain? _______
Lateral wall of nasal cavity
These cytoskeleton components are responsible for the formation of plasma membrane extensions
Microtubules and microfilaments
Special categories are given to diarthroses (synovial joints), based on motion. Define the words below briefly. Monaxial Biaxial Triaxial
Monaxial -->Also known as uniaxial. Allow motion around a single axis Biaxial --> Permit movement in 2 axes Triaxial --> Also known as multiaxial. Permits movement in 3 axis
Left iliac region
Part of descending colon and sigmoid colon
Although all synovial joints share many characteristics in common, the shapes of the articulating surfaces vary; thus, many types of movements are possible. In most joint movements, one bone remains in a fixed position while the other moves around an axis. Synovial joints are divided into six special classification based on type of movement: plane, hinge, pivot, condyloid, saddle, and ball-and-socket. Assign one of the three types of motion for each special classification. Plane Joint Pivot & Hinge Joints Saddle & Condyloid Joints Ball-and-Socket Joint
Plane Joint --> Biaxial & Triaxial Pivot & Hinge Joints --> Monoaxial/uniaxial Saddle & Condyloid Joints-->Biaxial Ball-and-Socket Joint --> Triaxial
Scapula Bone Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:
Scapula Bone - Appendicular - Paired
Concerned with locomotion of the body as a whole
Skeletal muscle tissue
Epiphysis
The ends of the long bone that have articulations with other bones
Why are paranasal sinuses so susceptible to infections? _______
They are prone to accumulate mucous
Of the vetebrae bone features below, choose the ones that are standard features, which means that it belongs to ALL vertebrae (cervical, thoracic and lumbar). (choose ALL that apply) - Costal facets - Sacral foramen - Dens - Intervertebral foramen - Articular facets - Transverse foramen - Transverse process - Vertebral foramen - Spinous process
- Articular facets - Transverse process - Vertebral foramen
Unmyelinated Axons
Axons in the CNS and PNS that do not have or have little myelin sheath
The limbic system: A. Has recently evolved B. Is associated with basic survival instincts of nutrition, memory, and reproduction C. Controls voluntary movements of the arms and legs D. Is a memory area in the midbrain E. Includes the brainstem
B. Is associated with basic survival instincts of nutrition, memory, and reproduction
What are the three ossicles? Place them in order from the outer most to the inner most A. Malleus, stapes, incus B. Malleus, incus, stapes C. Stapes, incus, malleus D. Incus, stapes, malleus
B. Malleus, incus, stapes
Layer nearest to the epiphysis
Zone of resting cartilage
__________ (sensory, motor)input travels along these tracts toward the brain, and _________ (motor, sensory) output travels from the brain along these tracts toward skeletal muscles and other effector tissues. fill in the blanks with one of the answer choices in the parenthesis
- Sensory - Motor
This cell junction holds epithelial cells to the basal lamina.
hemidesmosome
This adhesion molecule holds the epithelial cells to the basal lamina.
integrins
This cytoskeleton component is responsible for cell shape maintenance
intermediate filaments
Superior
Above or higher in position; toward the head. (not used in reference to limbs)
This medication can be taken to block histamine response.
Antihistamines
Earwax helps protect WHICH structure of the ear? A. Cochlea B. Tympanic membrane C. Auditory ossicles D. Internal acoustic meatus E. External auditory canal
B. Tympanic membrane
An epithelium is connected to underlying connective tissue by: A. Basal lamina B. Synovial membrane C. Sterocillia D. Fibrous cartilage E. Canaliculi
A. Basal lamina
Forms mucous, serous, and epidermal membranes. epithelial tissue
Epithelial tissue
Ethmoid
Pneumatized bone
Kyphosis
Thoracic and sacral
Leukemia
White blood cells
Temporal process
Zygomatic
Check the organs that belong to the integumentary system. (more than one all can apply) - Joints - Glands - Hair - Skin - Nails
- Glands - Hair - Skin - Nails
Storing and moving substances
- Sustained contraction of a ring-like smooth muscle called sphincter - Propelling food down the digestive tract
Choose ALL components that belong to the endocrine system. (multiple answers may apply) - Thymus - Hypothalamus - Adrenal Glands - Sweat Glands - Spleen - Gonads - Pancreas
- Thymus - Hypothalamus - Adrenal Glands - Gonads - Pancreas
Indicate the functions of the following three regions of the ear: 1. External Ear 2. Middle Ear 3. Inner Ear With its corresponding functions --> - Conveys sound vibrations to the oval window - Houses the receptors for hearing and equilibrium - Collects sound waves and channels them inwards
1. External ear: Collects sound waves and channels them inwards. 2. Middle ear: Conveys sound vibrations to the oval window. 3. Inner ear: Houses the receptors for hearing and equilibrium.
The dermis has this many cell layers in thin skin
2
(UL V. LL Anatomy) The elbow joint is formed by _______(number) bones; The knee is formed by _______(number) bones.
3;2
(UL V. LL Anatomy) There are _______(number) carpals and _______(number) tarsals in one side of the body.
8;7
The motor (efferent) division of the peripheral nervous system is a division of the CNS A. Detects presence of food in the stomach B. Transmits impulses from the CNS to effectors, such as skeletal muscle C. Has nerve cell bodies located in ganglia near the spinal cord and brain D. Detects a stimulus
B. Transmits impulses from the CNS to effectors, such as skeletal muscle
Having a matrix is a characteristic of which type of tissue? A. Cardiac B. Neural C. Connective D. Epithelial E. Muscular
C. Connective
Which of the following cells stimulate local inflammation? A. Fixed macrophages B. Mesenchymal cells C. Mast cells D. Lymphocytes
C. Mast cells
Match the type of vertebrae on the left with the correct number of vertebrae on the right. Cervical: Thoracic: Lumbar: Sacral: Coccyx:
Cervical: 7 Thoracic: 12 Lumbar: 5 Sacral: 5 fused Coccyx: 3-5 fused
Bone is splintered, crushed or broken into pieces at impact site
Communicated fracture
Which of the following tissues is made up of cells that conduct impulses? A. Epithelium B. Connective C. Muscle D. Nervous
D. Nervous
Simple
General epithelium with 1 layer
Lacrimal Bone Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:
Lacrimal Bone - Axial - Paired
This cytoskeleton component uses actin as their primary protein. microfilaments
Microfilaments
Calcitonin stimulates the activity of:
Osteoblasts
Abnormal lateral curvature of the spine
Scoliosis
Multinucleated
Skeletal muscle tissue
The vertebral canal will serve as protection site for this structure
Spinal cord
(Additional Structures) The most medial portion of the clavicle is called the
Sternal end
Organ system that captures oxygen from the atmosphere. A. Nervous B. Cardiovascular C. Circulatory D. Lymphatic E. Respiratory
E. Respiratory
Suture structure _______ and function _______
Fibrous joint Synarthrosis
A 43- year old male presents with a racing heartbeat and severe constipation. Which cranial nerve has been affected?
Vagus
CN VI
Abducens Nerve
What bone makes up the superior portion of the lateral side of the cranium A. Occipital bone B. Parietal bone C. Frontal bone D. Temporal bone E. Zygomatic bone
B. Parietal bone
Latent Period
Brief delay that occurs between application of the stimulus and the beginning of contraction. During this time, the events of excitation-contraction coupling occur. In addition, Ca2+ ions are released from the endoplasmic reticulum
Contraction Period
Ca2+ binds to troponin, myosin-binding sites on actin are exposed, and myosin cross bridges form. Peak tension also develops in the muscle fiber
Relaxation Period
Ca2+ is actively transported back into the SR, myosin-binding sites are covered by tropomyosin, myosin heads detach from actin, and tension in the muscle fiber decreases
Cranial Bones
Frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid
The __________ (gray matter, white matter)of the spinal cord receives and integrates incoming and outgoing information. fill in the blanks with one of the answer choices in the parenthesis
Gray Matter
Spinous Process
Projections for ligament and tendon attachment
Vomer Bone Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:
Vomer Bone - Axial - Unpaired
Invasion of osteoblasts and capillaries from diaphysis
Zone of calcified cartilage
Forman
Bone opening
Vagus Nerve
Both or mixed
Transitional
Changes from a rounded cell shape to an oval shape
The bones will provide an attachment point for these structures
Muscle tendons
This nerve moves the head and shoulders and innervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.
Accessory
What are the cells that are surrounding the neuron collectively called? A. Ground substance B. Introns C. Glial cells D. Smooth muscle tissue
C. Glial cells
Necrosis
Cell death due to disease, injury or lack of blood supply
Paranasal sinuses are fully formed by birth. (true/false) _______
False
Crest
Projections for ligament and tendon attachment
CN V
Trigeminal Nerve
This zone will become the new diaphysis
Zone of calcified cartilage
This cell junction might use either cadherins or integrins to hold epithelial cells in place
Adherns junction
The nerve branching off of C5 can belong to both the _________ and ________ plexuses. A. Cervical; brachial B. Brachial; lumbar C. Cervical; thoracic D. Cervical; phrenic E. Lumbar; sacral
A. Cervical; brachial
Responsiveness
Ability to detect and respond to changes occurring outside and inside the body
Removal of minerals and collagen fibers from bone by osteoclasts
Bone resorption
Exaggeration of thoracic curvature
Hyperkyphosis
Structural Proteins
- Keep thick and thin filaments in proper alignment - Titin and dystrophin
Growth
Refers to an increase in overall body size due to an increase in the number and/or size of cells
Found in the walls of stomach, uterus, and arteries
Smooth muscle tissue
Located in the walls of hollow internal organs
Smooth muscle tissue
This is another word for swelling
Edema
This process will activate the first pain receptors in inflamed tissue.
Edema?
T/F: You can only taste certain things such as salty, sweet, umami, bitter, or sour in specific places on your tongue
False
This plasma membrane extension is responsible for cell locomotion (movement).
Flagellum
The cilia are formed by this cytoskeleton component.
Microtubules
Myeloma
Myeloid tissue or blood cells
The protective layer that covers the cartilage is called:
Perichondrium
Present of pockets
Pneumatized bones
Line
Projections for ligament and tendon attachment
Propels substances (e.g., mucus) across its surface.
Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
Changes in skin color can tell you a lot about an individual. Of the characteristics listed below, what colored skin would you expect to see on individuals that present these conditions or situations. Here are the color options: blue, brown, orange, red. Is a result of blood vessels in the dermis and a function of the thickness of epidermis:
Red
Develop inside tendons
Sesamoid bones
Which area of the brain was damaged? Anita is a professional dancer. Lately she has had trouble coordinating her movements
Cerebellum
The reticular layer has bundles of this thick fiber to help the skin resist stretching
Collagen fibers
T/F: Choroid plexus is only present in ventricles 3 and 4
False
What purpose do they serve in the skull? _______
Allows for skull to increase in size without changing its weight
_________________(Blank 1) is the standard, initial response of the body to injury. Whether biological, chemical, physical, or radiation burns, all injuries lead to the same sequence of physiological events. Inflammation limits the extent of injury, partially or fully eliminates the cause of injury, and initiates repair and regeneration of damaged tissue. _________________(Blank 2), or accidental cell death, causes inflammation. _________________(Blank 3) is programmed cell death, a normal step-by-step process that destroys cells no longer needed by the body. By mechanisms still under investigation, apoptosis does not initiate the inflammatory response. Acute inflammation resolves over time by the healing of tissue. If inflammation persists, it becomes chronic and leads to diseased conditions. Arthritis and tuberculosis are examples of chronic inflammation. The suffix "-itis" denotes inflammation of a specific organ or type, for example, _________________(blank 4) is the inflammation of the peritoneum, and _________________(blank 5) refers to the inflammation of the meninges, the tough membranes that surround the central nervous system The four cardinal signs of inflammation—(blank 6) —were first recorded in antiquity. Cornelius Celsus is credited with documenting these signs during the days of the Roman Empire, as early as the first century AD. A fifth sign, _________________(blank 7), may also accompany inflammation. Upon tissue injury, damaged cells release inflammatory chemical signals that evoke local _________________(blank 8), the widening of the blood vessels. _________________(Blank 9) blood flow results in apparent redness and heat. In response to injury, mast cells present in tissue degranulate, releasing the potent vasodilator _________________(blank 10). Increased blood flow and inflammatory mediators recruit _________________(blank 11) cells to the site of inflammation. The _________________(blank 12) lining the local blood vessel becomes "leaky" under the influence of histamine and other inflammatory mediators allowing neutrophils, macrophages, and fluid to move from the blood into the interstitial tissue spaces. The excess liquid in tissue causes swelling, more properly called _________________(blank 13). The swollen tissues squeezing pain receptors cause the sensation of pain. Prostaglandins released from injured cells also activate pain neurons. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) reduce pain because they inhibit the synthesis of _________________(blank 14). High levels of NSAIDs reduce inflammation. Antihistamines decrease allergies by blocking histamine receptors and as a result the histamine response.
Blank 1: Inflammation Blank 2: Necrosis Blank 3: Apoptosis Blank 4: Peritonitis Blank 5: Meningitis Blank 6: Redness, swelling, pain, and local heart Blank 7: Loss of function Blank 8: Vasodilation Blank 9: Increased Blank 10: Histamine Blank 11: White blood Blank 12: Endothelium Blank 13: Edema Blank 14: Prostaglandins
Displays intercalated discs
Cardiac muscle tissue
T/F: Troponin is a protein that consists of three globular subunits—one that binds to tropomyosin, one that binds to myosin, and one that has binding sites for calcium ions (Ca2+)
False
Bone(s) connected by the coronal suture
Frontal and parietal
Integrating Center
Gray matter within the brain stem or spinal cord that processes the incoming sensory information.
Sulcus
Groove along a bone surface that accomodates a blood vessel, nerve, or tendon
Which organ(s) are located within the pericardial cavity?
Heart
Sectional Anatomy
Internal structure and relationships of the body through the use of sections.
A branch of the trigeminal nerve that innervates the muscles of mastication
Mandibular
Paranasal sinuses are lined with mucous membranes that are continuous with the lining of which structure? _______
Nasal cavity
Anterior
Near to or at the front of the body.
Occurs at an angle that is not 90 degrees
Oblique fracture
This nerve takes sensory information directly to the brain without having to pass through the thalamus
Olfactory
Movement of bone and/or skin
Skeletal muscle tissue
Voluntary controlled
Skeletal muscle tissue
Single nucleus in each cell
Smooth and cardiac muscle tissues
Forms tough pads for shock absorption in the:
Soles of feet and palms
Lies at the junctions between the squamous and coronal sutures
Sphenoid fontanel
Which structure can be found within the vertebral cavity?
Spinal cord
Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
Storage center for calcium in relaxed muscle
Stores substances that contributes to bone strength
Stores and releases minerals
Presence of lipids in yellow bone marrow
Stores and releases triglycerides
Functions in protection
Stratified and transitional epithelia
Also referred to as stratum germinativum
Stratum basale
Composed of a single row of cuboidal or columnar keratinocytes
Stratum basale
Arranged in 8-10 cell layers of keratinocytes.
Stratum spinosum
Coordinating skeletal muscle movements and maintaining equilibrium are two of several important functions of the: A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum C. Diencephalon D. Mesencephalon
B. Cerebellum
Many cells are tightly packed together with little or no extracellular matrix.
Epithelial tissue
T/F: Dura mater is the toughest out the 3 meninges and contours every gyrus of cerebral cortex
False
Formation of fibrocartilaginous callus
Reparative phase
Spinous Process
Sharp, slender projection
During intramembranous ossification, the trabeculae will fuse to form compact _________ bone.
Spongy
This zone contains large, maturing chondrocytes arranged in columns
Zone of hypertrophic cartilage
Aponeurosis: A. Attach muscle to muscle, only B. Consists of collagen fibers C. Consists of cartilage D. Attach muscle to bone, only
B. Consists of collagen fibers
Which cavity is contained within the mediastinum?
Pericardial cavity
The bones that form the pectoral girdle are the: A. Clavicle and scapula B. Ilium, ischium, pubis C. Scapula and humerus D. Humerus, radius, ulna E. Clavicle and sternum
A. Clavicle and scapula
Which of the following is a main characteristic of a skeletal muscle fiber? A. Singule nucleated B. Incredibly long C. Branching D. Appearance presence of intercalated discs
B. Incredibly long
Broken ends of the bone do not protrude through the skin
Closed fracture
The axon of the Purkinje cells are located in the: A. Purkinje cell layer B. Axonic layer C. Molecular layer D. Granular cell layer
D. Granular cell layer
Choose the best answer below with regards to the characteristics of the dermis. This cell is the predominant fixed cell of the dermis
Fibroblasts
Auscultation
Listening to sounds of the body during a physical examination using a stethoscope
Torn blood vessels cross the fracture line
Reactive phase
_________ Ossification centers appear in the epiphyses of a long bone.
Secondary
Glycogen
Serves as storage form of glucose; can be broken down and used to synthesize ATP
The frontal sinus is located in which bone? _______ Is this bone cranial or facial? _______
- Frontal - Cranial
Check all answers that describe the ossicles. (select all that apply) - Made up of four bones, which are the tympanic, malleus, incus and stapes - Smallest bones in the body - Part of the axial skeleton - Located in the inner ear - Helps with hearing
- Smallest bones in the body - Part of the axial skeleton - Helps with hearing
Osteoprogenitor cells
Bone stem cells *Become osteoblasts
Unilateral paralysis is the paralysis of one side of the tongue. In order to test this, a doctor may ask a patient to stick their tongue out. If there is nerve damage, the tongue will point toward the side that is paralyzed. The function of which nerve (number) is being tested?
CN XII
This plasma membrane extension is responsible for moving the oocyte from the fallopian tube into the uterus.
Cilia
The length of the resting sarcomere is: A. Longer than the length of a contracted sarcomere B. Shorter than the length of a contracted sarcomere. C. The same length as a contracted sarcomere D. The same length as the muscle fiber E. The same length as the myofibril
D. The same length as the muscle fiber
(Additional Structures) This rough spot on the lateral side of the humerus is a muscle attachment for a major muscle in the shoulder
Deltoid tuberosity
There are two joints between the thoracic vertebrae and ribs. Which of the following pairs of bone features articulate with one another to form one of these joints? A. Spinous process; rib head B. Costal facet on the transverse process; rib head C. Costal facet of the centrum; rib head D. Spinous process; rib tubercle E. Costal facet on the centrum; rib tubercle
C. Costal facet of the centrum; rib head
Produce mucus that moistens the surface of olfactory epithelium and dissolves odorants so that transduction can occur A. Mitral cells B. Glomeruli C. Olfactory glands D. Olfactory bulbs
C. Olfactory glands
The outside lining of bone that helps it attach to fascia and circulatory components is the: A. Perimetrium B. Endosteum C. Endometrium D. Periosteum E. Connective tissue
D. Periosteum
The posterior cord gives rise to which nerves? A. Radial and ulnar B. Axillary and median C. Musculocutaneous and median D. Radial and axillary E. Median and ulnar
D. Radial and axillary
Sensory Neuron
Depolarization triggers one or more action potentials in the axon of a sensory neuron that propagate along the axon into the CNS.
Caudal
Relating to tail; at or near tail or posterior part of body.
The Nervous System Performs Sensory, Integrative, and Motor Functions. Match each function below. Sensory
Sensory receptors detect external or internal stimuli. This information is then conveyed through cranial and spinal nerves of the PNS into the brain and spinal
T/F: The hypodermis consists of adipose and areolar connective tissues.
True
Cells located in this zone anchor the epiphyseal plate to the epiphysis.
Zone of resting cartilage
Special epithelial tissues that produce secretions are called: A. Glands B. Membranes C. Pits D. Endothelium E. Fascia
A. Glands
What is the primary function of skeletal muscles in the human body? A. Help with digestion B. Pump blood through the body C. Move bones and joints D. Protect internal organs
C. Move bones and joints
Osteoblast
Cell that deposits/builds bone *Transform into osteocytes
The largest muscle of the upper back is the: A. Pectoralis major B. Rhomboid major C. Latissimus dorsi D. Levator scapulae E. Trapezius
E. Trapezius
T/F: Fast oxidative- glycolytic fibers are fast-twitch fibers adapted for intense movements of short duration like weight lifting or throwing a ball
False
Exaggeration of lumbar curvature
Hyperlordosis
This cell is the first one that is recruited as a response to the inflammatory process.
Mast cells
(Lower Limb Articulations) This bone feature is located on the distal portion of the tibia and articulates with the talus to form part of the ankle joint.
Medial malleolus
Positive feedback loop
Results in a change in the body's status, rather than a return to homeostasis
Rib tubercle
Transverse costal facets of thoracic vertebrae
Neurotransmitters are found in: A. The axon hillock B. Attached directly to the post-synaptic membrane C. The dendrites D. The synaptic cleft E. The neuronal cell bodies
D. The synaptic cleft
Anne has pale skin and goes to the beach. Instead of getting a tan, her skin gets red. Why does that happen? A. She produces less melanocytes B. She produces more melanocytes C. She has increased blood supply to her skin D. She produces more melanin E. She produces less melanin
E. She produces less melanin
Trigeminal Nerve
Both or mixed
Place the layers of thin epidermis on RIGHT column in order in which they appear, starting with the most superficial layer. 1 (top): 2: 3: 4 (bottom):
1 (top): Stratum corneum 2: Stratum granulosum 3: Stratum spinosum 4 (bottom): Stratum basale
Facet
Smooth, flat articular surface
This tissue membrane lines the cavities that do not open to the outside.
Serous membrane
T/F: Skeletal muscle fibers that have a high myoglobin content are termed red muscle fibers
True
This physiological component is due to the high numbers of blood vessels present in the dermis
Blood reservoir
T/F: Myosin functions as a motor protein in all three types of muscle tissue
True
(Upper Limb Articulations) The ulnar notch is on the _______(distal/proximal) portion of the _______(bone) and articulates with the _______(bone feature).
Distal; radius; ulnar head
Live, rounded cells with an abundance of tonofilaments, that shrink when prepared for microscopic examination
Stratum spinosum
Collagen fibers
Strong, flexible bundles of protein collagen, the most abundant protein in your body
T/F: Sebum is an oily mixture of lipids, cholesterol, and cell fragments.
True
The chest is ______ to the dorsal
Anterior
Choose ALL components that belong to the reproductive system. (multiple answers may apply) - Penis - Uterus - Gonads - Ductus deferns - Seminal vesicles - Tendons - Epididymis - Prostate - Uterine tubes - Vagina
- Penis - Uterus - Gonads - Ductus deferns - Seminal vesicles - Epididymis - Prostate - Uterine tubes - Vagina
Atrophy
Decrease in tissue mass due to lack of use or nutritional abnormalities
Pyramidal Cells
Large neurons that allow the conscious control of the skeletal muscle movement
Presence of this nerve cell:
Pacinian corpuscle
Tubercle
Projections for ligament and tendon attachment
Sacrum Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:
Sacrum - Axial - Unpaired
Also known as striated muscle
Skeletal and cardiac muscle tissues
This process will be regulated by the liberation of sweat
Thermoregulation
Which band is narrowed as the thin filaments slide inward for contraction
I band
This mineral is the most abundant in bones
Calcium
Allows for organ movements within the body.
Muscular tissue
Bones that have greater length than width
Long bones
Controls blood pressure
Smooth muscle tissue
Which of the following is a fold of dura mater between the right and left cerebral hemispheres? A. Falx cerebri B. Longitudinal fissure C. Tentorium cerebelli D. Falx cerebelli
A. Falx cerebri
The outer covering of bone is known as: A. Periosteum B. Endosteum C. Perimysium D. Pericardium
A. Periosteum
What is represented as a single muscle cell? A. Skeletal muscle B. Muscle fiber C. Sarcomere D. Muscle fascicle
B. Muscle fiber
The phrenic nerve ______________. A. Is an integral part of the reflex arc. B. Branches off at the clavicle into the sternothyroid nerve. C. Reaches diaphragm and innervates it. D. Is part of the brachial plexus.
C. Reaches diaphragm and innervates it.
Binds organs together, stores energy reserves as fat, and protects the body due to the presence of several immune cells.
Connective tissue
Supports body tissues.
Connective tissue
Muscles need to undergo this process to be able to pull on bones and produce movement
Contraction
Distal
Farther from the attachment of a limb to the trunk; farther from the origin of a structure.
Syndesmosis structure _______ and function _______
Fibrous joint Amphiarthrosis
Triad
Formed by transverse tubules and two terminal cisternae
Partial fracture where only one side of the bone is fractured
Greenstick fracture
Attach the epithelial cells to the basal lamina through adhesion proteins known as integrins.
Hemidesmosomes
This term is used to describe the process for production of blood cells
Hemopoiesis
Body deposits calcium in the bones when calcium blood levels are too:
High
Mast cells release granules that contain this chemical.
Histamine
Have complex shapes and vary in the amount of spongy and compact bones
Irregular bones
The fact that the dermis has great tensile, means that it has these characteristics
It is resistant to pulling or stretching forces
Sensory Receptor
It responds to a specific stimulus - a change in the internal or external environment- by producing a graded potential known as a receptor potential.
List all cells that you would find in each cell layer listed below. Stratum spinosum
Keratinocytes and Langerhan cells
List all cells that you would find in each cell layer listed below. Stratum basale
Keratinocytes, melanocytes, Merkel cells, stem cells
Separates the occipital bone from the parietal bones
Lambdoid suture
Contains large amounts of:
Large blood vessels
Consists of four to six layers of clear, flat, dead keratinocytes that contain large amounts of keratin
Stratum lucid
Present in the thick skin of areas such as the fingertips, palms, and soles
Stratum lucidum
The parietal pleura is ______ to the lungs
Superficial
The chin is ______ to the neck
Superior
Surface Anatomy
Surface markings of the body to understand the relationships of deep or internal anatomy through visualization and palpation (gentle touch).
T/F: The nail bed is the skin below the nail plate that extends from the lunula to the hyponychium
True
T/F: The nail body or plate is the visible part of the nail that is compared to the stratum corneum.
True
Trabecular bone
Type of bone with many spaces. Lighter, organized into trabeculae
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
Uses radio waves that is processed by a computer
The coronoid process articulates with the _________ of the humerus. A. Coronoid fossa B. Olecranon fossa C. Trochlea notch D. Capitulum E. Radial fossa
A. Coronoid fossa
This plasma membrane extension is responsible for moving particles over cell surface.
Cilia
T/F: In a relaxed muscle, myosin is blocked from binding to actin because the strands of troponin cover the myosin-binding sites on actin
False
T/F: Myosin are known as thick filaments while tropomyosin as thin filaments
False
Epicondyle
Projections for ligament and tendon attachment
CN IX
Glossopharyngeal Nerve
In this type of cartilage growth, cells in the center of the tissue divide and add more matrix in between existing cells
Interstitial growth
This cytoskeleton component is the thinnest of them all.
Microfilaments
Posterior
Near to or at the back of the body.
The posterior cavity is filled with a fluid called ________ while the anterior cavity is filled with _______ A. Vitreous humor; aqueous humor B. Vitreous humor; vitreous humor C. Aqueous humor; aqueous humor D. Aqueous humor; vitreous humor
A. Vitreous humor; aqueous humor
Medial
Closer to the midline.
Which cranial nerve innervates the parotid salivary gland?
Glossopharyngeal
Movement
Includes motion of entire body, individual organs, single cells, or even structures inside cells
(UL V. LL Anatomy) In both the upper and lower limb, there is a joint between the two bones of the forearm and leg formed by a sheet of fibrous connective tissue. What is this tissue called?
Interosseous membrane
When a bone forms directly within the mesenchyme, the process is called endochondral _________ ossification.
Intramembranous
Which area of the brain was damaged? Luis has trouble matching a face with a person
Occipital Lobe
Paranasal sinuses increase in size during two critical periods of facial enlargement, which are: _______
Onset of puberty and teeth eruption
(Upper Limb Articulations) This joint is where the axial and appendicular skeletons meet in the lower limb and serves to transmit the weight of the torso onto the pelvis and lower limb
Sacroiliac joint
(Upper Limb Articulations) Which carpal bones articulate with the forearm?
Scaphoid; lunate; triquetrum
Presence of membrane-enclosed lamellar granules that release a lipid-rich secretion
Stratum granulosum
Presence of melanocytes projections in every individual independent of skin color
Stratum spinosum
Appear to be covered with thornlike spines.
Stratum spinous
Elastic fibers
Stretchable but strong fibers made of proteins, elastin, and fibrillin. They are found in skin, blood vessels, and lung tissue
Systemic Anatomy
Structure of specific systems of the body such as the nervous or respiratory systems.
This physiological processes is important for calcium absorption
Synthesis of vitamin D
Occurs straight across the long axis of the bone
Transverse fracture
T/F: Fast glycolytic fibers have low myoglobin content, few blood capillaries, few mitochondria, and appear white in color
True
T/F: Superior sagittal sinus which is located between the right and left cerebral hemisphere in the superior site
True
Check all answers that describe the hyoid bone. (select all that apply) - It is a paired bone - It is an U-shaped bone - It is located between the maxillae and the mandible - This bone does not articulate with any other bone - It is part of the appendicular skeleton
- It is an U-shaped bone - This bone does not articulate with any other bone
Check all that apply with regards to the sternum. - It is made of the fusion of the manubrium, the body and xiphoid process - It will articulate with all ribs anteriorly - It articulates with the scapula - It is a paired bone - It is part of the axial skeleton - It articulates with the clavicle
- It is made of the fusion of the manubrium, the body and xiphoid process - It is part of the axial skeleton - It articulates with the clavicle
Which of the following bone features are only found in cervical vertebrae? (choose ALL that apply) - Largest vertebral foramen when compared to other vertebrae - Split spinous process - Dens - Articular Facets - Smallest centrum when compared to other vertebrae - Largest centrum when compared to other vertebrae - Smallest vertebral foramen when compared to other vertebrae - Transverse process - Costal facets - Transverse foramen
- Largest vertebral foramen when compared to other vertebrae - Split spinous process - Dens - Smallest centrum when compared to other vertebrae - Transverse foramen
bone 3 _______ and suture that unites this bone to the left parietal bone is the _______ suture
- Left temporal bone - Squamous
Which abdominopelvic quadrants are in contact with the diaphragm? (check ALL that apply) - Epigastric - Left hypochondriac - Right hypochondriac - Left upper - Right upper
- Left upper - Right upper
The maxillary sinus is located in which bone? _______ Is this bone cranial or facial? _______
- Maxillae - Facial
Choose ALL functions that belong to the muscular system. (multiple answers may apply) - Transports nutrients throughout the body - Produces body heat - Supports and protects the body - Produces body movements - Generates muscle contraction - Maintains body posture
- Produces body heat - Produces body movements - Maintains body posture
Choose ALL functions that belong to the endocrine system. (multiple answers may apply) - Helps regulate acid-base balance of body fluids - Regulates body activities by releasing hormones - Regulates body temperature - Removes foreign substances from blood and lymph - Plays role in immune response
- Regulates body activities by releasing hormones
Choose ALL functions that belong to the cardiovascular system. (multiple answers may apply) - Regulates body temperature - Transports nutrients, waste products, gases, and hormones throughout the body - Helps regulate production of red blood cells - Plays role in immune response - Transfers oxygen from inhaled air to blood and carbon dioxide from blood to exhaled air
- Regulates body temperature - Transports nutrients, waste products, gases, and hormones throughout the body - Plays role in immune response
Which of the following tissue membranes is classified as a connective tissue membrane? (check ALL that apply) - Synovial membrane - Cutaneous membrane - Mucous membrane - Serous membrane
- Synovial membrane
In the inner ear we have the following components: 1. Cochlea 2. Vestibule and semicurcular canals Match each of the components with its corresponding answer--> - Bony spiral canal, sense organ for hearing - Sense organ for equilibrium
1. Cochlea: Bony spiral canal, sense organ for hearing. 2. Vestibule and semicircular canals: Sense organ for equilibrium.
The dermis has this many cell layers in thick skin
2
This nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle
Abducens
This physiological property allows us to use medicinal patches as a way of bringing medication into our bodies to treat certain diseases.
Absorption
Inherited inability of an individual to produce melanin
Albinism
The _________(blank 1) is composed of mesencephalon, pons, and medulla oblongata. _________(blank 2) also called midbrain and it is related to extrinsic eyes movements _________(blank 3) relay station between cerebellum and cerebrum. _________(blank 4) connects the brain and the spinal cord.
Blank 1: Brainstem Blank 2: Mesencephalon Blank 3: Pons Blank 4: Medulla oblongata
Contains cylindrical cells with branching ends
Cardiac muscle tissue
Fracture of the radius
Colles fracture
Gaps or interruptions in the myelin sheath are called A. Internodes B. Tight junctions C. Neurofilaments D. Nodes of Ranvier E. Gap junctions
D. Nodes of Ranvier
This cell junction occurs in patches known as plaques and are especially important in holding cells together.
Desmosome
Plasma cells
Develop from B lymphocytes and secrete antibodies that attack and neutralize foreign substances
The wrist is ______ to the shoulder
Distal
T/F: BBB is also present in the choroid plexus
False
CN XII
Hypoglossal Nerve
The umbilicus is ______ to the forearm
Medial
Another term for hypodermis is:
Subcutaneous layer
Consist of weblike strands of proteins that fuse adjacent plasma membranes to seal off passageways between cells.
Tight junction
CN IV
Trochlear Nerve
Choose ALL functions that belong to the reproductive system. (multiple answers may apply) - Milk production - Release of hormones that regulate this systems function - Plays role in immune response - Production of gametes - Transport and store gametes
- Milk production - Release of hormones that regulate this systems function - Production of gametes - Transport and store gametes
Choose ALL components that belong to the urinary system. (multiple answers may apply) - Gallbladder - Spleen - Urinary bladder - Urethra - Ureters - Kidneys
- Urinary bladder - Urethra - Ureters - Kidneys
The head of the femur articulates with which bone feature? A. Acetabulum B. Glenoid fossa C. Obturator foramen D. Pubic symphysis E. Femoral notch
A. Acetabulum
The nose is __________ to the belly button. A. Cephalic B. Caudal C. Ventral D. Medial E. Anterior
A. Cephalic
Which of these types of receptors responds to pain stimuli? A. Nociceptors B. Mechanoreceptors C. Photoreceptors D. Chemoreceptors
A. Nociceptors
Use either cadherins or integrins depending on whether they are linking to other cells or to the matrix.
Adherns junctions
Chemical Level
Atoms are organized into molecules.
Fissure
Bone opening
Ongoing replacement of old bone tissue by new bone tissue
Bone remodeling
What is the largest mass of neuronal cell bodies found within the central nervous system? A. Hypothalamus B. Cerebellum C. Thalamus D. Pineal Gland
C. Thalamus
Raising your arm laterally to shoulder level is accomplished almost entirely by the A. Pectoralis major B. Biceps brachii C. Trapezius D. Deltoid E. Triceps brachii
D. Deltoid
If you were to find glial cells in the dorsal root ganglion, which ones will be located in this area? In you think there are no glial cells in this location, then select the answer choice "none" A. Astrocytes and microglial cells B. Oligodendrocytes C. Ependymal cells D. Satellite cells E. None
D. Satellite cells
Neuroglia ____________. Some examples of neuroglia in the CNS are _________. A. Are responsible for the transfer of information in the nervous system; Oligodendrocytes, Astrocytes and Ependymal Cells. B. Process information in the nervous system; Satellite Cells and Schwann Cells C. Support neurons; Oligodendrocytes, Microglia, Schwann cells and Satellite Cells D. Support neurons; Oligodendrocytes, Microglia and Ependymal Cells.
D. Support neurons; Oligodendrocytes, Microglia and Ependymal Cells.
Tiny bones that contain tear ducts
Lacrimal
Bridge of nose
Nasal
These cells enter the blood vessels as a response to the actions of histamine
Neutrophils and macrophages
CN I
Olfactory Nerve
(Upper Limb Articulations) What bones fuse to form the os coxa?
Pubis, ilium, ischium
Sarcomere
Repeating units of a myofibril
Regional Anatomy
Specific regions of the body such as the head or chest.
Sella turcica
Sphenoid
This hormone, which is produced by the skin after sunlight exposure, will be an important calcium homeostasis regulator.
Vitamin D
Loss of melanocytes may be related to an immune system malfunction in which antibodies attack melanocytes
Vitiligo
Partial or complete loss of melanocytes
Vitiligo
Lower portion of the nasal septum
Vomer
The skin prevents dehydration by reducing:
Water loss
Eccentric Isotonic Contraction
When the length of a muscle increases during a contraction
Neutrophils
White blood cells that migrate to sites of infection that destroy microbes by phagocytosis
Which of the following statements concerning types of muscle coptractions is false? A. In isometric contractions, the amount of tension produced by the muscle is constant B. In isotonic contractions , the muscle fibers shorten C. The contractile processes in isometric and isotonic contractions are the same D. Most skeletal muscle contractions are a combination of isometric and isotonic contractions E. In isotonic contractions, the amount of produced by the muscle fibers is constant during the contraction
A. In isometric contractions, the amount of tension produced by the muscle is constant
The olfactory nerves extend to parts of the brain known as the A. Olfactory bulbs B. Olfactory cortex C. Olfactory glands D. Mitral cells
A. Olfactory bulbs
When you "pull your tummy in" and compress your abdomen, you use the rectus abdominis, external abdominal oblique, internal abdominal oblique, and transversus abdominis muscles. This is an example of muscles working as A. Fixators B. Synergists C. Antagonists D. Prime movers E. Cooperatives
B. Synergists
After taking your exam you stretched your neck by rotating your head to the right. This rotational movement is monitored by receptors in: A. The cochlea B. The semicircular ducts C. Your neck D. The cerebellum
B. The semicircular ducts
__________(Blank 1), also known as nerve cells, are the basic functional units of the nervous system. A typical neuron has three major parts: a __________(blank 2) which will be the control center of the neuron, a __________(blank 3) which receive the stimuli from the environment and __________(blank 4) which generates the action potential and propagates them. Throughout the nervous system, the cell bodies of adjacent neurons are often clustered together. A cluster of neuronal cell bodies in the PNS is called a __________(blank 5) __________(plural is blank 6); a similar arrangement of neuronal cell bodies in the CNS is known as a __________(blank 7) __________(plural is blank 8). While the axons also group in bundles. If those axon bundles are located in the CNS, they will be referred to as __________(blank 9). And if they are located in the PNS, they will be referred to as __________(blank 10).
Blank 1: Neuron Blank 2: Cell body Blank 3: Dendrite Blank 4: Axon Blank 5: Ganglion Blank 6: Ganglia Blank 7: Nucleus Blank 8: Nuclei Blank 9: Tracts Blank 10: Nerves
In the PNS, there are two types of neuroglia. The __________(blank 1) is the one that produces myelin sheath, that will wrap up __________(blank 2) axon(s) in the myelinated neurons, and will wrap up __________(blank 3) axon(s) in the unmyelinated neurons. The __________(blank 4) is the neuroglia that will provide structural support to the neuronal cell bodies that are located within the __________(blank 5).
Blank 1: Schwann cell Blank 2: 1 Blank 3: Several Blank 4: Satellite cell Blank 5: Ganglia
Cell Biology
Cellular structure and function.
The process of hearing begins when sound enters the_________ A. Eustachian tube B. Tympanic membrane C. Cochlea D. External auditory canal E. Internal acoustic meatus
D. External auditory canal
Squamous
Flat cells
The mouth is ______ to the nose
Inferior
Ependymal Cells
Line the ventricles of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord. They produce and assist in the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid
Phagocytized by keratinocytes
Melanin
Parathyroid hormone stimulates the activity of:
Osteoclasts
Contains long, non-branching cylindrical cells
Skeletal muscle tissue
Changes the internal volume of an organ as it contracts
Smooth and cardiac muscle tissues
Involuntary controlled
Smooth and cardiac muscle tissues
Contains spindle-shaped cells
Smooth muscle tissue
Controls blood flow through arteries and veins.
Smooth muscle tissue
Sphenoid Bone Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:
Sphenoid Bone - Axial - Unpaired
Endosteum
The connective tissue layer covering the inside of bone (one cell thick)
Vertebrae Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:
Vertebrae - Axial - Unpaired
Which bony structure protects the vertebral cavity?
Vertebral canal
One way the spinal cord promotes homeostasis is by propagating action potentials along tracts. The name of a tract often indicates its position in the white matter and where it begins and ends. Using this knowledge, select the location, the beginning and end of each tract and the function. Ventral Corticospinal Tract - location in white column ___________(anterior, posterior, ventrolateral, dorsolateral); beginning _________(spinal cord, thalamus, cerebral cortex, cerebellum ) ; ends __________(cerebellum, cerebral cortex, thalamus, spinal cord) ; function_______(motor, sensory). fill in the blanks with one of the answer choices in the parenthesis.
- Anterior - Cerebral Cortex - Spinal Cord - Motor
One way the spinal cord promotes homeostasis is by propagating action potentials along tracts. The name of a tract often indicates its position in the white matter and where it begins and ends. Using this knowledge, select the location, the beginning and end of each tract and the function. Spinothalamic tract - location in white column ___________(anterior, posterior, ventrolateral, dorsolateral); beginning _________(spinal cord, thalamus, cerebral cortex, cerebellum ) ; ends __________(cerebellum, cerebral cortex, thalamus, spinal cord) ; function_______(motor, sensory). fill in the blanks with one of the answer choices in the parenthesis.
- Anterolateral - Spinal Cord - Thalamus - Sensory
Choose ALL functions that belong to the nervous system. (multiple answers may apply) - Causes muscular contraction - Intellectual functions - Detects sensation and generates action potentials - Causes glandular secretion - Site of many sensory receptors - Production of sound from air passage through glottis
- Causes muscular contraction - Intellectual functions - Detects sensation and generates action potentials - Causes glandular secretion
What are the different categories of tissues found in our body? (check ALL that apply) - Integumentary tissue - Connective tissue - Nervous tissue - Cardiac tissue - Muscular tissue - Epithelial tissue
- Connective tissue - Nervous tissue - Muscular tissue - Epithelial tissue
Choose ALL functions that belong to the integumentary system. (multiple answers may apply) - Contains many sensory receptors - Helps to regulate production of red blood cells - Helps to produce vitamin D - Helps to regulate body temperature - Helps body to move - Releases hormones - Provides protection to the body - Helps to prevent water loss
- Contains many sensory receptors - Helps to produce vitamin D - Helps to regulate body temperature - Provides protection to the body - Helps to prevent water loss
Which of the bone feature below is ONLY found in the thoracic vertebrae? (choose ALL that apply) - Dens - Largest centrum when compared to other vertebrae - Smallest vertebral foramen when compared to other vertebrae - Spinous process - Transverse process - Largest vertebral foramen when compared to other vertebrae - Articular facets - Vertebral foramen - Transverse foramen - Smallest centrum when compared to other vertebrae - Costal facets
- Costal facets
With regards to the different types of tissues, check ALL that apply in terms of tissue consistency that can be found. - Hard - Liquid - Vapor - Semisolid
- Hard - Liquid - Semisolid
Choose ALL components that belong to the cardiovascular system. (multiple answers may apply) - Kidneys - Heart - Bronchial tubes - Blood vessels - Blood
- Heart - Blood vessels - Blood
Choose ALL functions that belong to the urinary system. (multiple answers may apply) - Helps to regulate production of red blood cells - Produces, stores, and eliminates urine - Maintains body's mineral balance - Detects changes in body's internal and external environments - Helps maintain acid-base balance of body fluids - Eliminates wastes and regulates volume and chemical composition of blood
- Helps to regulate production of red blood cells - Produces, stores, and eliminates urine - Maintains body's mineral balance - Helps maintain acid-base balance of body fluids - Eliminates wastes and regulates volume and chemical composition of blood
Which of the following tissue membranes is classified as an epithelial membrane? (check ALL that apply) - Synovial membrane - Cutaneous membrane - Mucous membrane - Serous membrane
- Mucous membrane - Serous membrane - Cutaneous membrane
One way the spinal cord promotes homeostasis is by propagating action potentials along tracts. The name of a tract often indicates its position in the white matter and where it begins and ends. Using this knowledge, select the location, the beginning and end of each tract and the function. Lateral Corticospinal Tract - location in white column ___________(anterior, posterior, ventrolateral, dorsolateral); beginning _________(spinal cord, thalamus, cerebral cortex, cerebellum) ; ends __________(cerebellum, cerebral cortex, thalamus, spinal cord) ; function_______(motor, sensory). fill in the blanks with one of the answer choices in the parenthesis.
- Posterior - Cerebral Cortex - Spinal Cord - Motor
One way the spinal cord promotes homeostasis is by propagating action potentials along tracts. The name of a tract often indicates its position in the white matter and where it begins and ends. Using this knowledge, select the location, the beginning and end of each tract and the function. Dorsal Spinocerebellar tract - location in white column ___________(anterior, posterior, ventrolateral, dorsolateral); beginning _________(spinal cord, thalamus, cerebral cortex, cerebellum) ; ends __________(cerebellum, cerebral cortex, thalamus, spinal cord) ; function_______(motor, sensory). fill in the blanks with one of the answer choices in the parenthesis.
- Posterior - Spinal Cord - Cerebellum - Sensory
Which of the bone features below is only found in the lumbar vertebrae? (choose ALL that apply) - Smallest vertebral foramen when compared to other vertebrae - Transverse foramen - Articular facets - Largest vertebral foramen when compared to other vertebrae - Largest centrum when compared to other vertebrae - Ala - Vertebral foramen - Transverse process - Smallest centrum when compared to other vertebrae - Dens
- Smallest vertebral foramen when compared to other vertebrae - Largest centrum when compared to other vertebrae
Choose ALL components that belong to the nervous system. (multiple answers may apply) - Hypothalamus - Special senses organs - Spinal column - Spinal cord - Spinal nerves - Brain
- Special senses organs - Spinal cord - Spinal nerves - Brain
Choose ALL components that belong to the lymphatic system. (multiple answers may apply) - Tonsils - Stomach - Thymus - Liver - Spleen - Lymph nodes
- Tonsils - Thymus - Spleen - Lymph nodes
Match each of the following definitions: 1. Caused by the presence of sodium ions (Na+) in food, most commonly found as NaCl (table salt) 2. Produced by hydrogen ions (H+) released from acids, for example, lemons are sour due to containing citric acid 3. Elicited by sugars such as glucose, fructose, and sucrose and artificial sugars 4. Caused by a wide variety of substances; aversion to this taste serves as a protection against ingesting harmful substances 5. Described as "meaty" or "savory" and is elicited by amino acids (especially glutamate) that are present in food With its corresponding primary taste: - Umami taste - Salty taste - Sweet taste - Bitter taste - Sour taste
1. Caused by the presence of sodium ions (Na+) in food, most commonly found as NaCl (table salt) - Salty taste 2. Produced by hydrogen ions (H+) released from acids, for example, lemons are sour due to containing citric acid" - Sour taste 3. Elicited by sugars such as glucose, fructose, and sucrose and artificial sugars" - Sweet taste 4. Caused by a wide variety of substances; aversion to this taste serves as a protection against ingesting harmful substances" - Bitter taste 5. Described as 'meaty' or 'savory' and is elicited by amino acids (especially glutamate) that are present in food" - Umami taste
Which bone feature of the scapula is posterior? A. Acromion B. Subscapular fossa C. Coracoid process D. Glenoid fossa
A. Acromion
After the aqueous humor is created by the ciliary bodies, where does it travel to and where is it collected? A. Anterior cavity, canal of schlemm B. Posterior cavity, canal of schlemm C. Iris, cornea D. Anterior cavity, posterior cavity
A. Anterior cavity, canal of schlemm
Which of these statements concerning positive feedback is correct? A. Birth is an example of a normally occurring positive-feedback mechanism. B. When cardiac muscle receives an inadequate supply of blood, positive-feedback mechanisms increase blood flow to the heart. C. Positive-feedback responses occur continuously in healthy individuals. D. Medical therapy seeks to overcome illness by aiding positive-feedback mechanisms. E. Positive-feedback responses maintain homeostasis.
A. Birth is an example of a normally occurring positive-feedback mechanism.
Which of the following muscles is the prime mover in spitting out a mouthful of liquid? A. Buccinator B. Platysma C. Risorius D. Zygomaticus E. Masseter
A. Buccinator
What is the anatomical name for the bones that make up the distal portion of the wrist joint? A. Carpals B. Metacarpals C. Tarsals D. Radius and ulna E. Metatarsals
A. Carpals
An impulse from the olfactory nerve can go to all of the following EXCEPT? A. Cerebellum B. Cerebral cortex C. Thalamus D. Limbic system E. Hypothalamus
A. Cerebellum
The clear continuation of the sclera is known as the: A. Cornea B. Fovea C. Iris D. Retina
A. Cornea
Which structure gives us the unique characteristics of fingerprints? A. Epidermal ridges B. Epidermis C. Hypodermis D. Stratum germinativum E. Langerhans
A. Epidermal ridges
Which action is performed by most of the muscles located on the anterior compartment of the forearm? A. Flexion B. Abduction C. Extension D. Supination E. Pronation
A. Flexion
Which bone feature is most proximal when compared to the other answers? A. Head of the humerus B. Head of the radius C. Head of the ulna D. Styloid process of radius E. Styloid process of ulna
A. Head of the humerus
Most of the ascending colon is in the ____________ region. A. Right lumbar B. Pubic C. Left inguinal D. Left lumbar E. Right inguinal
A. Right lumbar
Which of the following describes how signals pass through a typical single neuron? A. Signals pass from the dendrites through the cell body and down the axon to the axon terminals B. Signals pass from the cell body to the dendrites and axons and then down to the dendrite and axon terminals C. Signals pass from the axon terminals to the axon and then through the cell body to the dendrites D. Signals pass from the axons down to the axon terminals and then through the dendrites to the cell body E. Signals pass from dendrites through axon, then axon terminals and finally through the cell body
A. Signals pass from the dendrites through the cell body and down the axon to the axon terminals
The epimysium is a layer of dense irregular connective tissue that: A. Surrounds the entire skeletal muscle, separating the muscle from surrounding tissues and organs. B. Surrounds each skeletal muscle fiber and therefore binds each muscle fiver to its neighbor, and supports capillaries that supply individual fibers. C. Divides the muscle into a series of internal compartments, each containing a bundle of muscle fibers called a fascicle D. Attaches the muscle to bone, cartilage, skin, or another muscle
A. Surrounds the entire skeletal muscle, separating the muscle from surrounding tissues and organs.
Dorsiflexion of foot involves the: A. Tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus and extensor hallucis longus B. Extensor hallucis longus and flexor digitorum longus C. Tibialis anterior and extensor retinaculum of the foot D. Tibialis posterior and extensor digitorum longus
A. Tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus and extensor hallucis longus
What is the function of these ossicles? A. Transmit and amplify vibrations from tympanic membrane towards oval window B. Cartilages that collect sound waves and directs them to external auditory canal C. Transmit and amplify vibrations from tympanic membrane towards round window D. Transmit and amplify vibrations from Eustachian tube towards oval window
A. Transmit and amplify vibrations from tympanic membrane towards oval window
The motor command leaves through the: A. Ventral root B. Dorsal root C. Dorsal root ganglion D. Posterior root
A. Ventral root
In order for an odor to be smelled it must have which of the following characteristics? A. Volatile B. Water soluable C. All answers are correct D. Lipid soluable
A. Volatile
The spinal cord has two principal functions in maintaining homeostasis: action potential propagation and integration of information. The _______ tracts in the spinal cord serve as the "highways" for action potential propagation. A. White matter B. Gray matter
A. White matter
Contractibility
Ability of muscle fibers to contract forcefully when adequately stimulated
Motor Neuron
Action potentials triggered by the integrating center propagate out of the CNS along the axon of a motor neuron to the effector.
It serves to deposit:
Adipose tissue
Normal amounts of melanocytes
Albinism
Vision problems
Albinism
Basal surface of epithelial cell is attached to the basal lamina, maintaining these cells in place.
Attachment
Nerves that directly control the motility of the stomach or rate of the heartbeat would belong to the: A. Central nervous system B. Autonomic motor division C. Somatic motor division D. Autonomic sensory division E. Somatic sensory division
B. Autonomic motor division
Layers of the epidermis from the deepest to most superficial are: A. Spinosum, basale, granulosum, corneum B. Basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum C. Spinosum, basale, corneum, granulosum D. Basale, granulosum, spinosum, corneum
B. Basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum
Which region of the diencephalon controls the body temperature, various emotions and behavioral drives, and it is known as the center of homeostasis? A. Epithalamus B. Hypothalamus C. Thalamus D. Infundibulum
B. Hypothalamus
The type of epithelial cells present together with the type of epithelium in an organ or portion of the body give some information about its function. The presence of microvilli in a certain organ indicates that: A. The are being covered by the epithelia needs extra protection B. In this area, a lot of absorption takes place C. The organ is composed mainly by very small cells D. The main function of this organ is to move particles away
B. In this area, a lot of absorption takes place
If you were to find glial cells in white matter (Information processing in CNS) which ones will be located in this area? In you think there are no glial cells in this location, then select the answer choice "none" A. Schwann cells B. Oligodendrocytes C. Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes D. Satellite cells E. None
B. Oligodendrocytes
Which is the last structure to vibrate in this sequence? A. Incus B. Oval window C. Malleus D. Stapes
B. Oval window
This kind of section separates right and left portions of the body in anatomical positions but misses the midline. Which kind of section is this? A. Coronal section B. Parasagittal section C. Frontal section D. Midsagittal section E. Transverse section
B. Parasagittal section
When light passes through the eye in high intensity & large amounts the ______ will ________ A. Lens; constrict B. Pupil; constrict C. Iris; dilate D. Lens; dilate E. Pupil; dilate
B. Pupil; constrict
Epithelial cells present in pseudostratified epithelium have which shape? A. Starts round and ends up flat B. Rectangular C. Flat D. Cuboidal E. Round
B. Rectangular
What is the correct order of events for bone remodeling? A. Osteocyte mineralization, deposition, resorption B. Resorption, deposition, osteocyte mineralization C. Deposition, osteocyte mineralization, resorption D. Resorption, osteocyte mineralization, deposition
B. Resorption, deposition, osteocyte mineralization
Which of the following is NOT a glial cell of the CNS? A. Ependymal cells B. Satellite cells C. Oligodendrocytes D. Astrocytes E. Microglia
B. Satellite cells
Which muscle inserts on the tibia? A. Tibialis anterior B. Semitendinosus C. Gluteus minimus D. Tibialis posterior E. iliopsoas
B. Semitendinosus
Which is the last layer of skin in which the cells are still living? A. Stratum spinosum B. Stratum granulosum C. Stratum basale D. Stratum corneum E. Stratum lucidum
B. Stratum granulosum
The endomysium is a layer of connective tissue that: A. Attaches the muscle to bone, cartilage, skin, or another muscle B. Surrounds each skeletal muscle fiber and therefore binds each muscle fiver to its neighbor, and supports capillaries that supply individual fibers C. Surrounds the entire skeletal muscle, separating the muscle from surrounding tissues and organs. D. Divides the muscle into a series of internal compartments, each containing a bundle of muscle fibers called a fascicle
B. Surrounds each skeletal muscle fiber and therefore binds each muscle fiver to its neighbor, and supports capillaries that supply individual fibers
Which statement defines elasticity? A. The ability to shorten actively and exert a pull or tension B. The ability of a muscle to rebound toward its original length after a contraction C. Ability to respond to stimulation D. The ability to continue to contract over a range of resting lengths
B. The ability of a muscle to rebound toward its original length after a contraction
Which statement defines contractility? A. Ability to respond to stimulation B. The ability to shorten forcefully and exert a pull or tension C. The ability to continue to contract over a range of resting lenghts D. The ability of a muscle to rebound toward its original length after a contraction
B. The ability to shorten forcefully and exert a pull or tension
One of the characteristics of all epithelia is the attachment, which means that: A. Epithelia are composed by cells bound closely together B. The basal surface of a typical epithelium is bound to a thin basal lamina C. Cells forming the typical epithelium are strongly attached to each other D. There are no blood vessels within the epithelia
B. The basal surface of a typical epithelium is bound to a thin basal lamina
The cerebral aqueduct connects: A. The two lateral ventricles B. The third ventricle to the fourth ventricle C. The lateral ventricles to the third ventricle D. The fourth ventricle to the subarachnoid space
B. The third ventricle to the fourth ventricle
Amanda has dimples. Dimples are an inheritable trait caused by a shortened muscle which leads to a small depression in the flesh, either one that exists permanently or one that forms in the cheeks when one smiles. Which muscle causes this effect? A. Masseter B. Zygomaticus major C. Depressor anguli oris D. Orbicularis oris E. Levator labii superioris
B. Zygomaticus major
Which auditory structure is being defined by each statement below? answer each of the following questions below with one of the answer choices found in the parenthesis: 1. ________(external auditory canal, auricle, tympanic membrane, round window): skin covered flap of cartilage that collects sound waves and directs them to the external auditory canal 2: ________(eustachian tube, eardrum, oval window, pinna): receives sound waves and transmits to middle ear 3: ________(eustachian tube, pinna, external auditory canal, tympanic membrane): curved tube that takes sound waves from auricle to tympanic membrane 4: ________(cerumen, paraffin, bikini wax, pinna): earwax, prevents foreign objects from coming into ear 5: ________(middle ear, pinna, eustachian tube, tympanic membrane): also known as eardrum
Blank 1--> Auricle: skin-covered flap of cartilage that collects sound waves and directs them to the external auditory canal. Blank 2--> Tympanic membrane: receives sound waves and transmits them to the middle ear. Blank 3--> External auditory canal: curved tube that takes sound waves from the auricle to the tympanic membrane. Blank 4--> Cerumen: earwax, prevents foreign objects from coming into the ear. Blank 5--> Tympanic membrane: also known as the eardrum.
Skeletal muscle fibers have three ways to produce ATP: (1) from creatine phosphate, (2) by anaerobic glycolysis, and (3) by aerobic respiration. Match the blanks below. Creatine phosphate is a molecule that can store energy in its phosphate bonds. In a resting muscle, excess _________(blank 1) transfers its energy to creatine, producing ADP and _________(blank 2). This acts as an energy reserve that can be used to quickly create _________(blank 3) (more/less) ATP. When the muscle starts to contract and needs energy, creatine phosphate transfers its phosphate back to ADP to form ATP and _________(blank 4). The enzyme _________(blank 5) catalyzes the transfer of one of the high-energy phosphate groups from ATP to creatine. Because the formation of ATP from creatine phosphate occurs _________(blank 6), creatine phosphate is the _________(blank 7) source of energy when muscle contraction begins.
Blank 1: ATP Blank 2: Creatine phosphate Blank 3: More Blank 4: Creatine Blank 5: Creatine kinase (CK) Blank 6: Very rapidly Blank 7: First
If sufficient oxygen is present, the pyruvic acid formed by glycolysis enters the mitochondria, where it undergoes _________(blank 1) respiration, a series of oxygen-requiring reactions that produce _________(blank 2). Although aerobic respiration is _________(blank 3) (slower/faster) than anaerobic glycolysis, it yields much _________(blank 4) (less/more) ATP. Each molecule of glucose catabolized under aerobic conditions yields about 36 molecules of ATP. Muscle tissue has two sources of oxygen: (1) oxygen that diffuses into muscle fibers from the _________(blank 5) and (2) oxygen released by _________(blank 6) within muscle fibers. Both myoglobin _________(found only in blank 7) and hemoglobin _________(found only in blank 8) are oxygen-binding proteins. They bind oxygen when it is plentiful and release oxygen when it is scarce.
Blank 1: Aerobic Blank 2: ATP, carbon dioxide, water, and heat Blank 3: Slower Blank 4: More Blank 5: Blood Blank 6: Myoglobin Blank 7: Muscle cells Blank 8: Erythrocytes
Choose the correct answer to complete the statements below. The ________(blank 1) cord is formed by the merging of the superior, middle, and inferior trunks. A patient is experiencing pain on the posterior part of his thigh. What nerve may be implicated? ________(blank 2) Musculocutaneous nerve stems from ________(blank 3) cord, which stems from ________(blank 4) trunks. The ________(blank 5) trunk stems from C7, which gives rise to the ________(blank 6) cords. The sciatic nerve branches into the ________(blank 7) nerves. Damage to the ________(blank 8) nerve will interfere with one's diaphragm which may be deadly. This nerve originates between ________(blank 9) (vertebral nerves). The superficial fibular nerve runs on top of the ________(blank 10) (bone) while the deep fibular nerve runs on top of the ________(blank 11) (bone). The posterior cord gives rise to the ________(blank 12) nerves, while the medial cord gives rise to the ________(blank 13) nerves. The ________(blank 14) cords merge to form the median nerve. The cervical plexus is comprised of ________(blank 15) nerves (total number)
Blank 1: Brachial Blank 2: Sciatic Blank 3: Lateral Blank 4: Superior, middle, and inferior Blank 5: Posterior Blank 6: Lateral and medial Blank 7: Common fibular and tibial Blank 8: Phrenic Blank 9: C3-C5 Blank 10: Fibula Blank 11: Tibia Blank 12: Radial and axillary Blank 13: Ulnar and median Blank 14: Medial Blank 15: 8
When muscle activity continues and the supply of creatine phosphate within the muscle fiber is depleted, _________(blank 1) is catabolized to generate _________(blank 2). Glucose passes from the _________(blank 3) into contracting muscle fibers and it is also produced by the breakdown of _________(blank 4) within muscle fibers. Then a series of reactions known as glycolysis quickly breaks down each glucose molecule into two molecules of _________(blank 5). Glycolysis occurs in the cytosol and produces a net _________(blank 6) (gain/loss) of two molecules of ATP. Because glycolysis does not require _________(blank 7), it can occur whether oxygen is present _________(blank 8 conditions) or absent _________(blank 9 conditions). During heavy exercise not enough oxygen is available to skeletal muscle fibers hence the pyruvic acid generated from glycolysis is converted to _________(blank 10). When produced at a rapid rate, this acid can accumulate in active skeletal muscle fibers and in the bloodstream. This acid buildup is thought to be responsible for muscle _________(blank 11) that is felt during strenuous exercise.
Blank 1: Glucose Blank 2: ATP Blank 3: Blood Blank 4: Glycogen Blank 5: Pyruvic acid Blank 6: Gain Blank 7: Oxygen Blank 8: Aerobic Blank 9: Anaerobic Blank 10: Lactic acid Blank 11: Soreness
The gyrus, sulcus, and fissure are anatomical characteristics of the cerebrum. ___________(blank 1) helps increase the surface area of the brain. ___________(blank 2) would divide each cerebral hemisphere into lobes like frontal lobe and occipital lobe. ___________(blank 3) is a deep depression. One example of a fissure is the ___________(blank 4) fissure that helps divide the left and right hemisphere. ___________(blank 5) matter is composed of neuronal cell bodies. The collection of these neuronal cell bodies on the surface of the Central Nervous System is called ___________(blank 6). If a group of neuronal cell bodies is located deeper into the central nervous system, then it is called ___________(blank 7). The ___________(blank 8) is considered the largest nuclei in our brain. The ___________(blank 9) matter is composed of myelinated axons. Our cerebrum is composed of a right and left hemisphere which are connected to each other through a bundle of axons called ___________(blank 10).
Blank 1: Gyri Blank 2: Sulci Blank 3: Fissure Blank 4: Longitudinal Blank 5: Gray Blank 6: Cortex Blank 7: Nuclei Blank 8: Thalamus Blank 9: White Blank 10: Corpus Callosum
Neurons of the sympathetic nervous system __________(blank 1) heart rate, and neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system __________(blank 2). In general, the sympathetic nervous system helps support exercise or emergency actions, so called __________(blank 3) responses, and the parasympathetic nervous system controls __________(blank 4) activities. In addition, the __________(blank 5) nervous system, will control most of the body functions as it is the major regulator of the __________(blank 6) muscle of the cardiovascular system. While the __________(blank 7) is the major regulator of the smooth muscle of the digestive and __________(blank 8) systems, which are derived from the embryonic __________(blank 9) tube.
Blank 1: Increase Blank 2: Slow it down Blank 3: Fight-or-flight Blank 4: Rest-and-digest Blank 5: Sympathetic Blank 6: Smooth Blank 7: Parasympathetic Blank 8: Respiratory Blank 9: Gut
Nociceptors detect ________(blank 1). ________(Blank 2) (type of receptor) respond to tactile stimuli. If firefighters did not wear protective gear, ________(blank 3) (type of receptors) would be activated. ________(Blank 4) are a type of receptors that detect changes in blood pressure. Chemoreceptors of carotid bodies are sensitive to changes in blood ________(blank 5). ________(Blank 6) receptors are always active like the photoreceptors of the eye and various receptors that monitor body position, while a ________(blank 7) receptor becomes active only when stimulated, like when walking into a cold room. The ________(blank 8) cranial nerve present in carotid bodies and the vagus nerve, present in aortic bodies are sensitive to changes in pH, levels of CO2 and O2 in blood and is. ________(Blank 9) pain is the name of the mechanism in which pain sensations from visceral organs are often perceived as originating in regions that are more superficial. The information that arrives at a sensory receptor is called a ________(blank 10), while the sensory information arriving at the CNS is called a ________(blank 11). A ________(blank 12) is a conscious awareness of a sensation,
Blank 1: Pain Blank 2: Mechanoreceptors Blank 3: Nociceptors Blank 4: Baroreceptors Blank 5: pH, and levels of CO2 and O2 Blank 6: Tonic Blank 7: Phasic Blank 8: Glossopharyngeal Blank 9: Referred Blank 10: Stimulus Blank 11: Sensory input Blank 12: Perception Blank 13: Adaptation
The ________(blank 1) of a neuron is the stimulated physical area, specific group of chemicals, or particular set of sound frequencies that causes a response in that neuron. The advantage of a somatic sensory neuron having over-lapping receptive fields is that it improves stimulus localization because the brain is able to compare the ________(blank 2). ________(blank 3) are slow adapting receptors that respond to steady pressure changes. ________(blank 4) is defined by perception of body movement. Cold and warmth are detected by ________(blank 5), free nerve endings that are present in the skin. ________(blank 6) respond to various stimuli, including mechanical stimuli, extreme thermal stimuli, and chemicals released from damaged tissue. ________(blank 7) are located in the upper part of the dermis of glabrous (non-hairy) skin and are rapidly adapting receptors. ________(blank 8) pain that is felt at a site other than the place of origin is called ________(blank 9). Most sensory pathways ________(blank 10) (cross over to the opposite side) as they course through the spinal cord or brain stem.
Blank 1: Receptive field Blank 2: Information from multiple receptive fields Blank 3: Ruffini corpuscles Blank 4: Kinesthesia Blank 5: Thermoreceptors Blank 6: Polymodal nociceptors Blank 7: Merkel discs and Meissner corpuscles Blank 8: Pain that is felt at a site other than the place of origin is called referred pain. Blank 9: Referred pain Blank 10: Decussate
After containment of an injury, the tissue repair phase starts with removal of toxins and waste products. Clotting (coagulation) ____________blank 1 blood loss from damaged blood vessels and forms a network of fibrin proteins that trap blood cells and bind the edges of the wound together. A ___________blank 2 forms when the clot dries, reducing the risk of infection. Sometimes a mixture of dead leukocytes and fluid called pus accumulates in the wound. As healing progresses, _____________ blank 3 from the surrounding connective tissues replace the collagen and extracellular material lost by the injury. ______________Blank 4, the growth of new blood vessels, results in vascularization of the new tissue known as ____________blank 5 tissue. The clot retracts pulling the edges of the wound together, and it slowly dissolves as the tissue is repaired. When a large amount of granulation tissue forms and capillaries disappear, a pale scar is often visible in the healed area. A __________blank 6 describes the healing of a wound where the edges are close together. When there is a gaping wound, it takes longer to refill the area with cells and collagen. The process called ___________blank 7 occurs as the edges of the wound are pulled together by what is called ____________blank 8. When a wound is more than one quarter of an inch deep, sutures (stitches) are recommended to promote a primary union and avoid the formation of a disfiguring scar. _____________Blank 9 is the addition of new cells of the same type as the ones that were injured. In _______________blank 10, a new type of tissue develops, which eventually produces a scar and causes the loss of some tissue function. Most wounds heal through regeneration and replacement; which process dominates depends on the tissues involved and the nature and
Blank 1: Reduces Blank 2: Scab Blank 3: Fibroblasts Blank 4: Angiogenesis Blank 5: Granulation Blank 6: Primary union Blank 7: Secondary union Blank 8: Wound contraction Blank 9: Regeneration Blank 10: Replacement
Two types of contractile proteins are myosin and actin. The first contractile protein is made up of _________(blank 1) filaments and the second is made up of _________(blank 2) filaments, respectively. Two types of regulatory proteins are Tropomyosin and _________ (blank 3). Titin is a type of _________ (blank 4) protein, that holds the thick filaments to both: the _________ (blank 5), which are located on the sides of the sarcomeres, and the _________ (blank 6), which is located in the middle of the sarcomere.
Blank 1: Thick Blank 2: Thin Blank 3: Troponin Blank 4: Structural Blank 5: Z lines Blank 6: M line
A _________(blank 1) is the brief contraction of a group of muscle fibers within a muscle in response to a _________(blank 2) action potential. The record of a muscle contraction is called a _________(blank 3). Twitches of skeletal muscle fibers last anywhere from _________(blank 4) msec. The three sequential phases of a twitch are: _________(blank 5) periods.
Blank 1: Twitch Blank 2: Single Blank 3: Myogram Blank 4: A few to 100 Blank 5: Latent, contraction, and relaxation
Trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus are examples of what kind of nerves?
Both or mixed
Which area of the brain was damaged? Sudden death after falling off the horse and hitting the back of the neck
Brainstem
Cells are stem cells that continually undergo cell division to produce new olfactory receptor cells, which live for only about two months before being replaced A. Olfactory receptor B. Mitral C. Basal D. Supporting
C. Basal
What happens to sodium during a chemical synapse? A. Enters the presynaptic terminal B. Enters the postsynaptic terminal C. Binds to the receptors D. Enters the synaptic vesicles E. Binds to the postsynaptic cell membrane
C. Binds to the receptors
The vascular coat of the eyeball is called: A. Cornea B. Pupil C. Choroid D. Sclera
C. Choroid
Which of the following situations occurs in electrically excitable cells? A. When Na^ + ion channels open K^ + ion channels close B. The sodium-potassium pump moves sodium into the cell C. Depolarization causes voltage-gated sodium ion channels to open D. Sodium ion channels are opened by high extracellular calcium levels E. The opening and closing of ligand-gated channels cause depolarization
C. Depolarization causes voltage-gated sodium ion channels to open
The act of bending the wrist so that the palmar portion of the hand is moved closer to the forearm involves what movement? A. Extension B. Medial rotation C. Flexion D. Dorsiflexion E. Abduction
C. Flexion
If one nerve stimulus arrives at a muscle fiber so soon that the fiber has only partially relaxed from the previous twitch, the most likely result will be A. Fatigue B. Spasm C. Incomplete tetanus D. Complete tetanus E. Flaccid paralysis
C. Incomplete tetanus
When calcium levels in the blood fall below homeostasis, which bone cells act to raise calcium levels and through what mechanism? A. Osteoclast; deposition B. Osteoblast; resorption C. Osteoclast; resorption D. Osteoblast; deposition
C. Osteoclast; resorption
While driving to school to take an anatomy test, Peter gets in a car accident and breaks the clavicle on the steering wheel. Which of the following muscles is the most likely damaged in this injury? A. Mylohyoid B. Stylohyoid C. Osternocleidomastoid D. Digastric E. Stemohyoid
C. Osternocleidomastoid
Flexion of the hip is a movement produced by the A. Gluteus medius and gluteus maximus B. Gluteus maximus and vastus lateralis C. Psoas major and iliacus D. Sartorius and rectus femoris E. Piriformis and quadratus femoris
C. Psoas major and iliacus
The vestibulocochlear nerve (N VIII): A. Has motor neurons that are located within an adjacent ganglion, and their axons target the vestibular of the medulla oblongata B. Is involved with the consensual light reflex C. Reaches the sensory receptors of the inner ear by entering the internal acoustic meatus along with the facial nerve (N VII) D. Medial to the origin of the facial nerve (N VII), straddling the boundary between the pons and the medulla oblongata
C. Reaches the sensory receptors of the inner ear by entering the internal acoustic meatus along with the facial nerve (N VII)
This bone feature which is present in all vertebra, except the atlas, projects posteriorly and appears thickest and most blunt in lumbar vertebra. A. Superior articulating process B. Centrum C. Spinous process D. Transverse process E. Inferior articulating process
C. Spinous process
Which of the following branched patterns of nerves is part of the brachial plexus? A. Superior trunk, lateral cord, axillary nerve B. Middle trunk, posterior cord, medial nerve C. Superior trunk, lateral cord, musculocutaneous nerve D. Inferior trunk, posterior cord, ulnar nerve
C. Superior trunk, lateral cord, musculocutaneous nerve
Which of the following is a function of connective tissues? A. Produce active movement B. Stores waste C. Support, surround, and interconnect other tissue types D. Provide protection for underlying tissues E. Are completely impermeable, and therefore prevent water loss
C. Support, surround, and interconnect other tissue types
Where are neurotransmitters located before they are released the synaptic cleft? A. Soma B. Dendrites C. Synaptic vesicles D. Receptors E. Axon hillock
C. Synaptic vesicles
If osteoclast activity exceeds osteoblast activity, how will the mass of the bone be affected? A. The bone would have an increased mineral content and, as a result, it would also be stronger. B. Mineralization of the bone would occur at a much slower rate. C. The bone would have a decreased mineral content and, as a result, it would also be weaker. D. Matrix deposition would occur at a much slower rate and therefore resorption would occur at a slower rate as well.
C. The bone would have a decreased mineral content and, as a result, it would also be weaker.
Neural tissue cells: A. Contract B. Line internal cavities and passageways C. Transmit electrical signals D. Have short microvilli E. Are underneath every exposed body surface
C. Transmit electrical signals
Which of the following in NOT considered to be a general sense? A. Touch B. Pain C. Vision D. Proprioception
C. Vision
Lucy experienced a concussion recently and as a result, is gradually losing her eyesight. The doctor says this is because of the compression of a nerve. Which nerve (number) is being compressed?
CN II
These nerves move the eye in general. (number)
CN III, CN IV, CN VI
Integrative
CNS processes sensory information by analyzing it and making decisions for appropriate responses
(Additional Structures) The ligament on the plantar portion of the foot that puts an extra "spring" in your step connects what two tarsal bones together?
Calcaneus; navicular
Chemical element that cannot be produced by any biological processes
Calcium
Movement of blood through the heart and into the arteries.
Cardiac muscle tissue
Tissue of the circulatory pump
Cardiac muscle tissue
Provides an orange appearance to the skin
Carotene
Symphysis structure _______ and function _______
Cartilaginous joint Amphiarthrosis
Synchondrosis structure _______ and function _______
Cartilaginous joint Amphiarthrosis/ synarthrosis
The sacrum is ______ to the thoracic vertebra
Caudal
What are the two major cell types of the nervous system? Start with least numerous as cell type 1 Cell Type 1: Cell Type 2:
Cell Type 1: Neurons Cell Type 2: Glial cells
Osteocyte
Cell that maintains living bone tissue *Mature bone cell
Tissue Level
Cells are organized into groups of similar cells.
Epithelial tissue is composed almost entirely of cells bound closely together by specialized junctions with little or no space in between these cells.
Cellularity
This plasma membrane extension is located in most of the respiratory tract
Cilia
Produces movement of material
Ciliated epithelium
Clavicle Bone Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:
Clavicle Bone - Appendicular - Paired
Most widely distributed tissue type in the body.
Connective tissue
Fibrosis
Connective tissue thickening or scarring
In the secretion of the mammary glands, the secretory product is released during the shedding of the apical portion of the cell's cytoplasm that is packed with secretory vesicles. The cells in this gland then regenerates and creates more secretory vesicles. What kind o secretion is being described? A. Holocrine secretion B. Merocrine secretion C. Apical secretion D. Apocrine secretion
D. Apocrine secretion
Which bone is NOT a flat bone?A. ScapulaB. RibsC. SternumD. Clavicle
D. Clavicle
Which of the following abducts the arm? A. Pectoralis major B. Trapezius C. Biceps brachii D. Deltoid
D. Deltoid
Adduction at the wrist involves contraction of the: A. Extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor carpi ulnaris B. Extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, flexor carpi radialis C. Flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris D. Flexor carpi ulnaris & extensor carpi ulnaris
D. Flexor carpi ulnaris & extensor carpi ulnaris
Which of the following muscles is used to look to the right with the right eye? A. Inferior rectus B. Superior rectus C. Medial rectus D. Lateral rectus E. Inferior oblique
D. Lateral rectus
Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by: A. Proprioceptors B. Interoceptors C. Photoreceptors D. Nociceptors
D. Nociceptors
Gaps in the myelination of axons known as ______ are present ______. A. Nodes of Ranvier; for saltatory conduction and decreased speed of action potential transmission B. Schwann cells; for saltatory conduction and increased speed of action potential transmission C. Nodes of Ranvier; when the axon is damaged D. Nodes of Ranvier; for saltatory conduction and increased speed of action potential transmission
D. Nodes of Ranvier; for saltatory conduction and increased speed of action potential transmission
Estrogen is a hormone that aids in the absorption of calcium. When a woman reaches menopause, the production of estrogen is greatly reduced. Mary recently reached menopausal age and was advised to take a calcium supplement to reduce her risk of Osteoporosis. How can a menopause affect Mary's bones? A. Osteoblasts will begin to break down calcium stored within the bone which can cause Osteoporosis B. Osteoblasts will begin to use excess calcium to secrete matrix for bone formation which can cause osteoporosis C. Osteoclasts will begin to use excess calcium to secrete matrix for bone formation which can cause osteoporosis D. Osteoclasts will begin to break down calcium stored within the bone which can cause osteoporosis
D. Osteoclasts will begin to break down calcium stored within the bone which can cause osteoporosis
Scoliosis occurs from: A. Over-curvature anteriorly B. Over-curvature posteriorly C. Under-curvature anteriorly D. Over-curvature laterally E. Under-curvature posteriorly
D. Over-curvature laterally
The blood- brain barrier: A. Permits passage of foreign substances from the blood to the neurons B. Prohibits the transport of amino acids and glucose to the neurons C. Prohibits the removal of waste materials from the neurons D. Protects neurons from toxic substances in the blood E. Does not prevent fluctuations in the composition of the blood from affecting the functions of the brain
D. Protects neurons from toxic substances in the blood
Collectively as a group, the muscles of the anterior thigh that work together to extend the leg are referred to as: A. Hamstrings B. Rectus femoris C. Gluteus maximus D. Quadriceps femoris
D. Quadriceps femoris
The sensory systems keep the CNS informed of changes in the external and internal environments. The sensory information is integrated by interneurons in the spinal cord and brain. Responses to the integrative decisions are brought about by motor activities (muscular contractions and glandular secretions). The cerebral cortex, the outer part of the brain, plays a major role in controlling precise voluntary muscular movements. Other brain regions regulate involuntary movements. Motor output to skeletal muscles travels down the spinal cord in two types of descending pathways: direct and indirect. Choose which pathways are direct and which ones are indirect. Known as the pyramidal pathways Referred to as the extrapyramidal pathways Lateral corticospinal tract Tectospinal tract Vestibulospinal tract Ventral (anterior) Corticospinal tract Rubrospinal tract Corticobulbar tract Lateral reticulospinal tract Medial reticulospinal tract
Direct Motor Pathway: - Known as the pyramidal pathways Referred to as the extrapyramidal pathways - Lateral corticospinal tract - Ventral (anterior) corticospinal tract - Corticobulbar tract - Convey action potentials that originate in the cerebral cortex and are destined to cause voluntary movements of skeletal muscles Indirect Motor Pathway: - Referred to as the extrapyramidal pathways - Tectospinal tract - Vestibulospinal tract - Rubrospinal tract - Lateral reticulospinal tract - Medial reticulospinal tract - Convey action potentials from the brainstem to cause involuntary movements that regulate posture, balance, and muscle tone
Within the gray matter of the spinal cord are three horns, the (1) dorsal gray horns, (2) lateral gray horns, and (3) ventral gray horns. Match below what is present in each of these horns with one of the following answer choices: - Cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons - Cell bodies of somatic motor neurons - Axons of sensory neurons and cell bodies of interneurons Dorsal Gray Horns: Lateral Gray Horns: Ventral Gray Horns:
Dorsal Gray Horns: Axons of sensory neurons and cell bodies of interneurons Lateral Gray Horns: Cell bodies of autonomic motor neuronsVentral Gray Horns: Cell bodies of somatic motor neurons
The sphenoid and ethmoid bones are part of the: A. Bony palate B. Facial bones C. Mandible D. Nasal septum E. Cranial bones
E. Cranial bones
A pregnant woman would most likely suffer what type of spinal curvature and in what vertebral area? A. Hyperkyphosis in the sacral area B. Hyperkyphosis in the lumbar area C. Hyperkyphosis in the thoracic area D. Hyperlordosis in the cervical area E. Hyperlordosis in the lumbar area
E. Hyperlordosis in the lumbar area
Although both are involved with the tongue, the _______ nerve moves the tongue while the _________ nerve allows for sensation and taste on the tongue A. Hypoglossal; accessory B. Glossopharyngeal; olfactory C. Trochlear; hypoglossal D. Abducens; accessory E. Hypoglossal; glossopharyngeal
E. Hypoglossal; glossopharyngeal
What muscle causes flexion of the neck?A. External intercostals B. Mylohyoid C. Sternohyoid D. Splenius capitis E. Sternocleidomastoid
E. Sternocleidomastoid
Group of cells with a similar function that work together. A. Organ B. Organ system C. Cell D. Organism E. Tissue
E. Tissue
T/F: The cuticle of the hair, forms the major part of the shaft and consists of elongated cells that contain pigmentation
False - The CORTEX of the hair, forms the major part of the shaft and consists of elongated cells that contain pigmentation
T/F: The externally observable part of a hair is called the root
False - The externally observable part of a hair is called the SHAFT
T/F: The most abundant protein in dead epidermal structures such as hair and nails is melanin.
False - The most abundant protein in dead epidermal structures such as hair and nails is KERATIN
Which two major organs are located within the thoracic cavity?
Heart and lungs
Most responsible for the skin color of light-skinned (Caucasian) individuals, especially after intense exercising
Hemoglobin
Secretory product accumulates in cytosol. As it matures, the cell membrane ruptures releasing the secretory contents. With the rupture of the cell membrane, this cell dies and gets replaced by a new cell.
Holocrine
(Upper Limb Articulations)What bone(s) can be located in the ARM?
Humerus
This cartilage is the one associated with bones:
Hyaline cartilage
The three types of cartilages are:
Hyaline, elastic and fibrocartilages
Condition characterized by abnormally low levels of calcium
Hypocalcemia
Which area of the brain was damaged? Her analysis revealed that she has low levels of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) being produced by her body
Hypothalamus
Choose the best answers with regards to the hypodermis Helps delay heat loss from body by:
Insulation
This cytoskeleton component has a thickness that is in between the other two components.
Intermediate filaments
This cytoskeleton component uses keratin as their primary protein.
Intermediate filaments
Imaging Anatomy
Internal body structures that can be visualized with x-rays, CT scans, MRIs and other technologies.
List all cells that you would find in each cell layer listed below. Stratum granulosum
Keratinocytes only
Fibroblasts
Large flat cells that move through connective tissue and secrete fibers and ground substance
Within the physiological processes of protection, the presence of this substance will protect the skin from dehydration due to its presence causing an inhibition of water evaporation
Lipids
Within the physiological processes of protection, the presence of this cell type is important to alert our body to the presence of microbial invaders or pathogens
Macrophages
Bone(s) that form(s) the chin
Mandible
Mandibular condyle
Mandible
Match the following different types of sensory receptors: Mechanoreceptors Thermoreceptors Photoreceptors Chemoreceptor Nociceptors With its corresponding functions --> - Respond to painful stimuli resulting from physical or chemical damage to tissues - Sensitive to mechanical such as deformation, stretching, or bending of cells. Provide of pressure, vibration, proprioception, and - Detect chemicals in the mouth (taste), nose (smell), and body fluids - Detect changes in temperature - Detect light that strikes the retina of the eye
Mechanoreceptors: Sensitive to mechanical stimuli such as deformation, stretching, or bending of cells. Provide the sense of pressure, vibration, proprioception (awareness of body position), and tactile sensations. Thermoreceptors: Detect changes in temperature. Photoreceptors: Detect light that strikes the retina of the eye. Chemoreceptors: Detect chemicals in the mouth (taste), nose (smell), and body fluids. Nociceptors: Respond to painful stimuli resulting from physical or chemical damage to tissues.
Most responsible for the skin color of dark-skinned individuals
Melanin
Within the physiological processes of protection, the secretion of this substance by melanocytes will help to shield the skin against the damaging effects of ultraviolet light
Melanin
Secretions released from cell in secretory vesicles via exocytosis. Therefore the cells remain intact.
Merocrine
These cells form the mesenchyme.
Mesenchymal cells
These are the components of the cytoskeleton.
Microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules
This cytoskeleton component is the thickest of them all.
Microtubules
This plasma membrane extension is responsible for increasing absorption and secretion in the digestive system.
Microvilli
This plasma membrane extension is responsible for increasing cell membrane surface area
Microvilli
Cellular Level
Molecules are organized to form the basic structural and functional living units of an organism
Hypogastric region
Most of ileum and anus
Abducens Nerve
Motor
This tissue membrane has mucus that is produced by epithelial cells.
Mucous membrane
Packages and protects body organs.
Muscular tissue
Fissure
Narrow slit between adjacent parts of bones through which blood vessels or nerves pass
Compare what happens to the lens when you need to view an object far away to when you need to view an object up-close. Choose the best option to answer the question. Option 1 - When an object is far away, the lens stretches and becomes thinner. When the object is closer, the lens become more rounded. Option 2 - When an object is far away, the lens recoils and becomes more rounded. When the object is closer, the lens stretches and becomes thinner.
Option 1 - When an object is far away, the lens stretches and becomes thinner. When the object is closer, the lens becomes more rounded
Changes in skin color can tell you a lot about an individual. Of the characteristics listed below, what colored skin would you expect to see on individuals that present these conditions or situations. Here are the color options: blue, brown, orange, red. Indicates the presence of carotene, which can result from eating a lot of carrots:
Orange
Which cavities are located within the thoracic cavity?
Pleural, pericardial, and mediastinum cavities
Fracture of the fibular with serious implications of the ankle joint
Pott's fracture
Oligodendrocytes
Produce myelin sheaths in the CNS
Schwann Cells
Produce myelin sheaths in the PNS
Condyle
Projections on bones that form joints
Release of this hormone will from injured cells activates pain receptors.
Prostaglandins
(Upper Limb Articulations) The radial head articulates with this depression on the humerus.
Radial fossa
This is the first cardinal sign of the inflammatory process.
Redness
Organ System Level
Related organs are organized into functionally related groups of organs that cooperate to perform a common general function.
Oligodendrocytes
Responsible for forming and maintaining the myelin sheath around the axons of neurons in the CNS
Vestibulocochlear Nerve
Sensory
Place muscle contraction steps in order Step 1: Step 2: Step 3: Step 4: Step 5: Step 6: Step 7: Step 8: Step 9: Step 10: Step 11:
Step 1: Action potential occurs in the somatic motor neuron Step 2: ACH that is stored in the synaptic vesicle of the synaptic end bulb is released and diffused across the synaptic cleft Step 3: ACH binds to specific receptors on the motor end plate Step 4: Entry of Na+ ions causes depolarization of sarcolemma Step 5: Action potential travels along T-tubules Step 6: At the onset of muscle fiber contraction, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions into the sarcoplasm Step 7: The calcium ions then bind to troponin, which moves tropomyosin away from myosin binding sites on actin Step 8: Now that the binding sites are free, ATP is hydrolyzed into ADP and a phosphate. This energizes the myosin head which then assumes the "cocked" position Step 9: The energized myosin head then attaches to the myosin binding site on actin and a phosphate is released. This is referred to as the "crossbridge" Step 10: The myosin head pivots changing its position from 90 degrees to 45, pulling the thin filament past the thick filament towards the center of the sarcomere. This is referred to as the power stroke Step 11: Another molecule of ATP binds to the ATP binding site on myosin allowing for myosin to detach from actin
Place the following steps of bone growth in thickness in the correct order. Statement #1 - transformation of bone ridges into grooves to accommodate periosteal blood vessel Statement #2 - formation of bone ridges on either side of the periosteal blood vessel Statement #3 - formation of new osteon Statement #4 - periosteum becomes endosteum lining the tunnel Statement #5 - osteoblasts deposit new circumferential lamellae Statement #6 - osteoblasts become surrounded by extracellular matrix and develop into osteocytes Statement #7 - transformation of bone grooves into tunnels to accommodate periosteal blood vessel Statement #8 - periosteal cells differentiate into osteoblasts Statement #9 - formation of new concentric lamellae
Step 1: Statement #8 - periosteal cells differentiate into osteoblasts Step 2: Statement #6 - osteoblasts become surrounded by extracellular matrix and develop into osteocytes Step 3: Statement #2 - formation of bone ridges on either side of the periosteal blood vessel Step 4: Statement #1 - transformation of bone ridges into grooves to accommodate periosteal blood vessel Step 5: Statement #7 - transformation of bone grooves into tunnels to accommodate periosteal blood vessel Step 6: Statement #4 - periosteum becomes endosteum lining the tunnel Step 7: Statement #9 - formation of new concentric lamellae Step 8: Statement #3 - formation of new osteon Step 9: Statement #5 - osteoblasts deposit new circumferential lamellae
Adipocytes
Store fats and found below the skin and around organs (heart, kidney)
Best suited for areas subjected to friction.
Stratified squamous epithelium
Contains scattered intermediate filaments also known as tonofilaments
Stratum basale
Cells are continuously shed and replaced by cells from the deeper strata.
Stratum corneum
Cells are extremely thin, flat and are called corneocytes
Stratum corneum
Constant exposure of skin to friction stimulates increased cell production and keratin production in this layer, that results in the formation of a callus.
Stratum corneum
Sarcoplasm
Surrounded by the sarcolemma; the cytoplasm of the muscle fiber
Sensory receptors in the integumentary system detect all, except:
Sweat
Complete the following table relating to body membranes. Enter your answers in the areas left blank. SYNOVIAL Tissue Type: _______________ Common Location(s): _______________ Functions (s): _______________
Tissue Type: Composed entirely of connective tissue Common Location(s): Lines cavities of synovial joints Functions(s): Produces lubricating fluid that reduces friction within joint cavity
Complete the following table relating to body membranes. Enter your answers in the areas left blank. CUTANEOUS Tissue Type: _______________ Common Location(s): _______________ Functions (s): _______________
Tissue Type: Epithelial epidermis and connective tissue dermis Common Location(s): Covers the body exterior Functions(s): Protection from external abrasion and water loss
Receptors vary in how quickly they adapt. Classify the statements below as being tonic or phasic receptors. - Known as rapidly adapting receptors. - Known as slowly adapting receptors. - Continues to produce a significant response as long as the stimulus persists. - Responds when the stimulus is first applied—the on response—and then cease to respond while the stimulus is maintained. - Some of these receptors also produce a second response called the off response when the stimulus is removed. - Specialized for signaling changes in a stimulus. - Associated with stimuli that require constant monitoring. - Baroreceptor is an example of this stimulus. - As an example of this stimulus, the brain must be continuously informed about the level of arterial blood pressure in order to maintain the driving force for movement of blood through body tissues. - As an example of this stimulus, you normally notice your clothes touching your body when you first put them on and then are unaware of them after that.
Tonic receptors: - Continues to produce a significant response as long as the stimulus persists. - Associated with stimuli that require constant monitoring. - Baroreceptor is an example of this stimulus. - As an example of this stimulus, the brain must be continuously informed about the level of arterial blood pressure in order to maintain the driving force for movement of blood through body tissues. Phasic receptors: - Responds when the stimulus is first applied—the on response—and then ceases to respond while the stimulus is maintained. - Some of these receptors also produce a second response called the off response when the stimulus is removed. - Specialized for signaling changes in a stimulus. - Known as rapidly adapting receptors. - Known as slowly adapting receptors. - As an example of this stimulus, you normally notice your clothes touching your body when you first put them on and then are unaware of them after that.
Damage to this nerve would not allow a person to look "down and laterally"
Trochlear
(Upper Limb Articulations) The humeral trochlea articulates with the _______ of the _______ bone.
Trochlear notch; ulna
T/F: A fiber is categorized as slow or fast depending on how rapidly the ATPase in its myosin heads hydrolyze ATP
True
T/F: Blood Brain Barrier (BBB) is made by capillary endothelial cells surrounded by astrocytes. It allows nutrients to go in and nourish the brain tissue and allows CO2 and waste to get out of brain tissue
True
T/F: Cranial meninges are connective tissue layer that separates the brain tissue from the scalp
True
T/F: Each myosin head has two binding sites: (1) an actin-binding site and (2) an ATP-binding site.
True
T/F: Medium and lateral aperture are openings that communicate with the subarachnoid space in the brain and in the spinal cord, the CSF produced in the choroid plexus of the ventricles leaves the ventricular system and bathe the entire surface of the central nervous system
True
T/F: Slow oxidative fibers are smallest in diameter and are the least powerful type of muscle fibers
True
Choose if the bone belongs to the appendicular or axial subdivision. Then select if these bones are paired or unpaired. Ulna Bone Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:
Ulna Bone - Appendicular - Paired
This connective tissue is the site for a potential chemical energy reserve
Yellow bone marrow
Final zone of bone growth
Zone of calcified cartilage
Chondrocytes in this zone will undergo interstitial growth
Zone of proliferating cartilage
Periosteum
The connective tissue covering/protecting the outside of bone
Eosinophils
White blood cells that migrate to sites of parasitic infection and allergic reactions
Secretory product accumulates in cell apical region. Then, that portion of the cell pinches off from the rest of the cell to release the secretion. Therefore, only the apical part of the cell gets removed, but cells do not die.
Apocrine
Is the first connective tissue to develop in the embryo.
Mesenchyme
Lies at the junctions between the squamous and lambdoid sutures
Mastoid fontanel
Facet
Projections on bones that form joints
Pathological Anatomy
Structural changes (from gross to microscopic) associated with disease.
Bone(s) that form(s) the nasal septum
Vomer and ethmoid
Present between cranial sutures
Sutural bones
Choose ALL functions that belong to the digestive system. (multiple answers may apply) - Absorbs nutrients - Produces, stores, and eliminates urine - Regulates production of red blood cells - Eliminates waste products - Mechanical and chemical breakdown of food - Helps maintain acid-base balance of body fluids
- Absorbs nutrients - Eliminates waste products - Mechanical and chemical breakdown of food
T/F: The myosin tail of each myosin molecule points toward the Z line in the center of the sarcomere
False
Cells are sensory neurons that respond to olfactory stimuli; olfactory transduction occurs in the cilia that extend from their dendrites; cilia contain olfactory receptor proteins that detect inhaled odorants A. Olfactory receptor B. Mitral C. Basal D. Supporting
A. Olfactory receptor
Choose ALL functions that belong to the lymphatic system. (multiple answers may apply) - Removes foreign substances from blood and lymph - Regulates body temperature - Maintains tissue fluid balance - Carries lipids from GI tract to blood - Helps to regulate production of red blood cells - Combats diseases
- Removes foreign substances from blood and lymph - Maintains tissue fluid balance - Carries lipids from GI tract to blood - Combats diseases
Which four bones will articulate with the left parietal bone? Make sure to choose also the suture that unite these bones accordingly. Bone 1 _______ and suture that unites this bone to the left parietal bone is the _______
- Right parietal bone - Sagittal
T/F: There is a potential space between the arachnoid and pia mater called the subarachnoid space that contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
False
Which of the following is a group of four muscles in the anterior thigh? A. Quadriceps femoris B. Gluteal muscles C. Biceps femoris D. Hamstrings Gracilis
A. Quadriceps femoris
Which of the following retracts the scapula? A. Rhomboid minor B. Pectoralis minor C. Serratus anterior D. Teres minor
A. Rhomboid minor
The pubic symphysis unites which two bones? A. Right and left pubis B. Right and left ilium C. Right and left ischium D. Ilium to the sacrum E. Sacrum to the coccyx
A. Right and left pubis
Which bone feature is present in the sphenoid bone? A. Sella turcica B. Foramen magnum C. Perpendicular plate D. Crista galli E. Infraorbital fissure
A. Sella turcica
Extensibility
Ability of muscle to stretch without being damaged
Electrical Excitability
Ability to respond to stimuli (neurotransmitter or hormones) by producing action potentials that trigger movement
Main function of a stratified epithelium is: A. For protection B. To allow contraction C. For absorption D. For secretion
A. For protection
The central nervous system: A. Is the site for processing information B. Initiates visual and auditory stimuli C. Consists of 43 pairs of nerves D. Is totally involuntary E. Does not interact with the peripheral nervous system
A. Is the site for processing information
Which three bones form the coxal bone? A. Ischium, ilium, pubis B. Pelvis, pubic symphysis, sacrum C. Sacrum, pelvis, ilium D. Ilium, sacrum, ischium E. Sacrum, coccyx, ischium
A. Ischium, ilium, pubis
T/F: The integumentary system consists of the skin and the dermis.
False - False because the integument includes the hypodermis
A sweat gland whose duct reaches the surfaces of the skin is called? A. Merocrine sweat gland B. Endocrine gland C. Apocrine sweat gland D. Sebaceous gland
A. Merocrine sweat gland
What is the cell type in nervous tissue responsible for sending and receiving messages? A. Neuron B. Neuroglial cells C. Axon D. Dendrite
A. Neuron
Condition characterized by abnormally high levels of calcium
Hypercalcemia
Basis of the major controlling system of the body.
Neural tissue
What are the two classifications of dense connective tissue proper?
Regular and irregular
Frontal Lobe
Related to conscious control of skeletal muscle, and trouble solving, reasoning and planning
Which bony structure protects the thoracic cavity?
Ribcage
Left hypochondriac region
Right side of stomach
Olfactory Nerve
Sensory
Functionally, joints are classified as: synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis and diarthrosis. Match their definitions below. Synarthrosis Amphiarthrosis Diarthrosis
Synarthrosis --> Immovable Amphiarthrosis -->Somewhat movable Diarthrosis -->Freely movable
Superficial
Toward or on the surface of the body.
CN VIII
Vestibulocochlear Nerve
This cytoskeleton component has a protein that will interact with myosin during muscle contraction.
microfilaments
Found attached to bones
Skeletal muscle tissue
Which one of the following is not a branch of the Trigeminal Nerve (CN V)?
Auditory
Deep
Away from the surface of the body.
Addition of minerals and collagen fibers to bone by osteoblasts
Bone deposition
Osteoclast
Cell that degrades bone *Functions in bone resorption
Glioma
Glial cells
Which organ(s) are located within the pleural cavity?
Lungs
Apoptosis
Normal and controlled cell death
Crest
Prominent ridge
Twisting motion that pulls bone apart
Spiral fracture
Composed of 3-5 cell layers
Stratum granulosum
Tibia Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:
Tibia - Appendicular - Paired
Found in the bladder lining; peculiar cells that slide over one another.
Transitional epithelium
Death of bone cells near injury site
Reactive phase
Production of blood cells occurs in this connective tissue
Red bone marrow
Formation of bony callus
Reparative phase
Condyle
Smooth, rounded articular surface at the end of a bone
Choose ALL functions that belong to the skeletal system. (multiple answers may apply) - Aids in body movements - Mantains body's mineral balance - Supports and protects the body - Stores minerals and lipids - Houses cells that produce blood cells - Provides a surface area for muscle attachment
- Aids in body movements - Supports and protects the body - Stores minerals and lipids - Houses cells that produce blood cells - Provides a surface area for muscle attachment
bone 4 _______ and suture that unites this bone to the left parietal bone is the _______ suture.
- Occipital bone - Lambdoidal
When traveling in a plane we often experience "popping" in our ears. The pressure causes an uncomfortable feeling that can be relieved by yawning. Explain why this occurs 1. _____________("due to connection of pharynx to eustachian tube. Yawning releases pressure, which in turn relieves pain due to connection of external auditory tube to eustachian tube", "Yawning releases pressure , which in turn relieves pain due to connection of external auditory tube to tympanic membrane", "Yawning releases pressure, which in turn relieves pain due to connection of pharynx to tympanic membrane", "Yawning releases pressure , which in turn relieves pain) and indicate what region of the ear undergoes this experience") 2. _____________(middle ear, internal ear, external ear); answer the question by filling in the blanks with one of the answer choices found in the parenthesis
1. Popping 2. Middle ear
Place the intramembranous ossification events listed on RIGHT column in the order in which they occur. 1: 2: 3: 4: 5: 6:
1: Mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoprogenitor cells, which then differentiate into osteoblasts 2: Organic extracellular matrix is secreted by osteoblasts 3: Calcification of extracellular matrix forming ossification center 4: Extracellular matrix develops into trabeculae that come together to form spongy bone 5: Formation of periosteum from peripheral mesenchyme 6: Osteoblasts from periosteum deposit compact bone between periosteum and spongy bone
Melanin is missing from their hair, eyes, and skin
Albinism
Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
Analyzes metabolic state by detecting levels of glucose in organs
In this type of cartilage growth, cells in the perichondrium will add new cartilage to the outside of the existing cartilage
Appositional growth
Reticular fibers
Are made of collagen and glycoproteins. They provide support in blood vessel walls and form branching networks around
White Matter
Area of brain and spinal cord composed primarily of myelinated axons
Parietal Lobe
Area where we have the sensation of the skin, muscles, and joints
Auditory Ossicles Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:
Auditory Ossicles - Axial - Paired
Myelinated Axons
Axons in the CNS and PNS that have a myelin sheath
The glial cells that guide migrating neurons in the developing fetal brain are: A. Microglia B. Astrocytes C. Ependymal cells D. Satellite cells E. Oligodendrocytes
B. Astrocytes
If you were to find glial cells in gray matter (information processing in CNS) which ones will be located in this area? In you think there are no glial cells in this location, then select the answer choice "none". A. Astrocytes and Schwann cells B. Astrocytes and microglial cells C. Schwann cells D. Satellite cells E. None
B. Astrocytes and microglial cells
Changes in skin color can tell you a lot about an individual. Of the characteristics listed below, what colored skin would you expect to see on individuals that present these conditions or situations. Here are the color options: blue, brown, orange, red. Indicates either a local or general increase in melanin production by melanocytes:
Brown
Fossa
Bone depression
Sulcus
Bone depression
Eva Marie is a boxer! She goes and trains at her gym to properly prepare for her competitions against other boxers. Her last match consisted of her throwing five punches in a row and resulted in a knock out. Which of the following muscles were used to perform a punch if we are discussing movement at the level of the SHOULDER joint? A. Trapezius B. Rhomboids C. Pectoralis minor D. Levator scapulae
C. Pectoralis minor
What is an oxygen deficit? A. A protein found along the groove of the F-actin double helix OAT-tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae B. The combination of myosin heads with active sites on actin molecules C. The movement of myosin head while attached to actin myofilament D. After exercise, the taken in that exceeds the required for resting metabolism
D. After exercise, the taken in that exceeds the required for resting metabolism
A connective tissue fiber refers to a(n) __________ and a muscle fiber refers to a/an __________. A. Entire cell; part of a cell B. Entire cell; tissue C. Complex of macromolecules; part of a cell D. Entire cell; complex of macromolecules E. Complex of macromolecules; entire cell
E. Complex of macromolecules; entire cell
All of these are classified as loose connective tissue. Except this one. elastic
Elastic
X-ray
Electromagnetic wave of high energy and very short wavelength, which moves through body
In _________ growth in long bone results in an increase in bone length.
Endochondral
Bones containing paranasal sinuses
Ethmoid, frontal, sphenoid, maxillae
This physiological property will allow the removal of water and small amounts of salts, carbon dioxide, ammonia and urea from our bodies
Excretion
T/F: A saltwater solution is secreted by sebaceous glands
False - A saltwater solution is secreted by SWEAT GLANDS
T/F: The epidermis is responsible for tissue strength.
False - False because the dermis is the layer responsible for tissue strength
Which cavity consists of a mass of connective tissue that surrounds, stabilizes, and supports the esophagus, trachea, thymus and major blood vessels leaving the heart?
Mediastinum
These are the sensory receptors located in the dermal papillae are important for touch perception
Meissener's corpuscle
Hypoglossal Nerve
Motor
Oculomotor Nerve
Motor
Trochlear Nerve
Motor
What is the primary function of the abducens nerve?
Motor
Allows you to smile, grasp, swim, ski, and shoot an arrow.
Muscular tissue
Tissue that generates body heat.
Muscular tissue
(Lower Limb Articulations) Your friend falls and lands with all his weight on the medial aspect of his foot just distal to the heel bone and proximal to the metatarsals. Which tarsal is most likely broken?
Navicular
Produces nerve impulses that activates muscle contractions and glandular secretions.
Nervous tissue
Transmits electrochemical impulses.
Neural tissue
This layer of the dermis in located on the top of the dermis and it is the thinnest of the dermal layers
Papillary
(Lower Limb Articulations) The patella articulates with which femoral bone feature?
Patellar surface
Which area of the brain was damaged? The doctor has been evaluating Chris for several weeks now because his daily work schedule changed, and he has trouble adjusting sleep-wake cycles. The doctor finally decides that taking some melatonin supplement would help him
Pineal Gland
Lies at the junction between the lambdoid and sagittal sutures
Posterior fontanel
Reproduction
Process by which new cells are formed for growth, repair, or replacement or for the production of a new individual
Mast cells
Produce histamine, which dilates small blood vessels during inflammation and kills bacteria
Trochanter
Projections for ligament and tendon attachment
Tuberosity
Projections for ligament and tendon attachment
Production of fibrocartilage from chondroblasts
Reparative phase
Check all that apply with regards to the ribs. Ribs 1-7: Ribs 8-10: Ribs 11-12: Bone feature that articulates with the vertebrae: Bone feature that articulates with the sternum: Type of vertebrae that the ribs articulate with:
Ribs 1-7: Vertebrosternal Ribs 8-10: Vertebrochondral Ribs 11-12: Vertebral Bone feature that articulates with the vertebrae: Head & tubercle Bone feature that articulates with the sternum: Sternal end Type of vertebrae that the ribs articulate with: Thoracic
Tarsals
Short and irregular
Nearly equal in length, width, and depth
Short bones
(UL V. LL Anatomy) The _______joint in the upper limb is more mobile than the _______joint in the lower limb.
Shoulder; hip
Functions in diffusion and filtration
Simple squamous epithelium
Presence of red bone marrow in medullary cavity
Site of blood cell production
Movement of food through the digestive tract
Smooth muscle tissue
Concentric Isotonic Contraction
The tension generated is great enough to exceed the load and the muscle shortens, pulling on another structure (such as a tendon) to produce movement
Astrocytes
They surround brain capillaries and are responsible for maintaining the "tightness" of tight junctions. They are especially important in maintaining this
Which cavities are located ventrally within the body?
Thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities
Complete the following table relating to body membranes. Enter your answers in the areas left blank. MUCOUS Tissue Type: _______________ Common Location(s): _______________ Functions (s): _______________
Tissue Type: Epithelial sheet on top of connective tissue called lamina propria Common Location(s): Lines respiratory, digestive, urinary and reproductive tracts Functions(s): Protection, lubrication, secretion and absorption
Chondrocytes in this zone divide to replace dying cells of epiphyseal plate that face diaphysis
Zone of proliferating cartilage
This adhesion molecule projects through the cell membrane of desmosomes to link with the same molecule of neighboring epithelial cells.
cadherins
