Exam 1, EXAM 2, Exam 3, Exam 4, Final
14. Compare transcription and translation in eukaryotes. Transcription and translation both a. occur in the nucleus. b. use ribosomes. c. require a polymerase. d. make covalent bonds. e. terminate at a the stop codon.
*d. make covalent bonds.
2. Which of the following is the correct level of biological organization for a mitochondrion? a. molecule b. organ c. organism d. cell e. organelle
*e. organelle
Which of the following is probably the best explanation for the fact that Antarctic penguins cannot fly, although there is evidence that millions of years ago their ancestors could do so?
Ancestral penguins without large wings were better able to swim and feed in the water; therefore they passed their genes for shorter wings structure onto their offspring.
A small population of flies that has an even distribution of black-bodied and tan-bodied flies suffers a drought in which almost the entire population dies. As the population is recovering, the next generation has twice as many black-bodied flies as tan-bodied flies. What most likely occurred within the population?
Bottleneck effect
1. Which of the following contains living protoplasts at maturity and provides strength to the plant?
Collenchyma
1. Based on what you know about the life cycle of Ascaris, which of the following modern conveniences has played a major role in stopping the spread of these intestinal roundworms?
Toilets
1. Eukaryotic cells are distinguished from prokaryotic cells by the presence of a cytoskeleton, a nucleus and other organelles.
True
1. Seeds provide a food source for a young plant prior to its ability to photosynthesize.
True
1. Tardigrades are segmented ecdysozoans that can retract their legs and undergo a state of suspended animation when faced with adverse environmental conditions.
True
1. When an apical meristem cell divides, it gives rise to a differentiating cell and another meristem cell.
True
According to natural selection theory,
Well-adapted individuals leave more offspring, and thus contribute more to the next generation's gene pool, than do poorly adapted individuals.
66. Not including the abiotic factors in the environment, all of the individual organisms of one species that interact in a region are a. an organism. b. a community. c. a population. d. an ecosystem. e. a flock.
a population
Prior to fertilization, the angiosperm embryo sac consists of:
a. 3 antipodal cells, 2 synergid cells, an egg and a binucleate central cell.
1. Which of the following is the most fit in an evolutionary sense?
a. A lion that has many cubs, eight of which live to adulthood.
1. Flooding reduces __________ in submerged root cells. One adaptation that helps counteract this problem is the growth of __________.
a. ATP production; pneumatophores
1. An epiphyte is a plant that grows on another plant but is not parasitic. For example, some orchids grow on tree trunks in tropical rainforests. What type of roots would an epiphyte likely possess?
a. Aerial roots
1. Which of the following is produced by shoots, but NOT roots?
a. All of the above are produced by both roots and shoots.
1. Which of the following has single-loop blood circulation?
a. Amphibians b. Reptiles c. Birds d. Mammals e. None of the above*
1. In mosses, sperm are produced in the __________ and __________ water to swim to and fertilize an egg.
a. Antheridium; need
1. Which phylum contains the most species?
a. Arthropoda
1. Which of the following is formed from multiple ovaries within a single flower?
a. Blackberry
1. In what way are a human and an earthworm similar?
a. Both have closed circulatory systems.
1. A slug in your garden and an octopus in the ocean are quite different in appearance. What would be evidence to justify grouping them together as mollusks?
a. Both have closed circulatory systems. b. Both are tasty when sautéed in white wine. c. Both lack external shells. d. Both are coelomates. e. None of the above*
1. Which of the following are dependent on water for sexual reproduction?
a. Bryophytes b. Lycophytes c. Pterophytes
1. Which of the following diseases are caused by fungi?
a. Chytridiomycosis b. Ringworm c. Athlete's foot d. Yeast infections e. All of the above**
1. Which of the following lacks a radula?
a. Clam b. Crab
1. ___________ cambium is a ring of lateral meristem that produces cork to its _________.
a. Cork; exterior
18. Ignore retroviruses for this question. In general, biological information flows from a. DNA to mRNA by transcription, and from mRNA to proteins by translation. b. proteins to mRNA by translation, and mRNA to DNA by transcription. c. DNA to mRNA by translation, and from mRNA to proteins by transcription. d. DNA to mRNA by transcription, and directly from DNA to proteins (no mRNA) by translation. e. DNA to proteins by transcription, and proteins to mRNA by translation.
a. DNA to mRNA by transcription, and from mRNA to proteins by translation.
46. Imagine pond with a community of two types of algae. One population of algae in the community, called type A algae, tolerates pH levels from 6.5 to 7.6 and dies outside of this range. Another population in the community, called type B algae, tolerates pH levels from 7.0 to 7.9 and dies outside of that range. What would you expect to happen if the pH of the pond with this community of algae drops from 7.3 to 6.7? a. Due to natural selection, the allele frequency of type A alleles in the community would increase. b. Due to artificial selection, the allele frequency of type A alleles in the community would decrease. c. The fitness of type B algae would increase. d. The fitness of type A algae would decrease. e. Due to natural selection, the allele frequency of type A alleles in the community would decrease.
a. Due to natural selection, the allele frequency of type A alleles in the community would increase.
1. Which of the following is not an advantage of the terrestrial arthropod exoskeleton?
a. Ecdysis
1. This organism belongs to what phylum?
a. Echinodermata
1. __________ cells encircle the stele and are separated from one another by the Casparian strip, which contains __________ which blocks the passive diffusion of water into the stele .
a. Endodermis; suberin
1. Coelom type is one of the best characteristics upon which to determine phylogenetic relationships between animal phyla.
a. False
1. Water always moves from an area of lower water potential to an area of higher water potential.
a. False
For a seed to germinate, its metabolic activity must resume. For this to happen, carbon dioxide is required to initiate photosynthesis.
a. False
1. Which of the following is true?
a. Fungi are more closely related to okapis than mosses.
Which of the following is true of the pressure-flow theory and phloem transport?
a. Growing stem tips are sinks.
1. Which of the following is NOT true?
a. Guard cells control whether stomata are open. b. Trichomes can protect leaves from overheating. c. Some trichomes form stinging structures that deter herbivory. d. Some trichomes secrete substances that deter herbivory. e. All of the above are true.***
1. Which of the following lack vertebrae?
a. Hagfish
1. In the haplodiplontic life cycle of a land plant, the gametophyte produces:
a. Haploid gametes via mitosis.
1. Which of the following is NOT true?
a. In monocots, a vascular cambium develops between the primary xylem and primary phloem.
1. As the temperature during the day increases, the rate of transpiration likely __________.
a. Increases.
1. What structures are present in the picture below?
a. Insectivorous leaves
1. When K+ ions flow __________ guard cells, the guard cells become __________ and the stomata __________. (Flaccid is the opposite of turgid.)
a. Into; turgid; open
1. Which of the following is NOT true?
a. Leech bites are relatively painless. b. Polychaetes possess parapodia. c. The clitellum is used during earthworm and leech reproduction. d. Earthworm castings enrich the soil. e. All of the above are true.**
1. Which of the following is NOT true?
a. Lizards and snakes are slimy to the touch.
1. Due to a lack of water circulation, standing water is __________, thus flooding __________ root cells.
a. Low in oxygen; decreases cellular respiration in
1. The picture above is a __________. Line A marks the __________. Line B marks the __________.
a. Medusa; gastrovascular cavity; mesoglea
1. Which of the following is true of the conifer reproductive cycle?
a. Microsporangia form on the scales of the male cones. b. Of the two sperm cells in the pollen tube, one fertilizes the egg and the other degenerates. c. Each megapore mother cell undergoes meiosis to form four megaspores, three of which degenerate. d. The pollen tube reaches the archegonium fifteen months after pollination. e. All of the above.***
1. Which of the following supports the hypothesis that endosymbiosis was involved in the origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts of eukaryotic cells?
a. Mitochondrial and chloroplast DNA are similar to bacterial DNA.
1. Some Euglena display a photosynthetic capability only when light is present. In the dark, the chloroplasts of these Euglena shrink up and temporarily cease functioning; the cells, instead, take up organic nutrients from their environment. These Euglena are best described by which of the following terms?
a. Mixotroph
1. A plant cell is placed in a solution in an open beaker. The Ψs of the cell is -0.7 MPa. The Ψs of the solution is -0.3 MPa. What will happen to the protoplast?
a. Not enough information is given to determine what will happen to the protoplast.
1. In the flatworm, flame cells are involved in which of the following processes?
a. Osmoregulation
1. __________ is the movement of any solvent, like water, through a selectively permeable membrane from an area of __________ solute concentration to an area of __________ solute concentration, the result of which will be an equalizing of solute concentration on either side of the membrane.
a. Osmosis; lower; higher
1. Which of the following is NOT true?
a. Oysters primarily feed on fish that they capture.
1. __________ growth is the growth that occurs as a result of cell division of the __________ meristems and increases the length of the root and shoot, while __________ growth is the growth that occurs as a result of cell division of the __________ meristems and increases root and shoot diameter.
a. Primary; apical; secondary; lateral
1. Which of the following is NOT true?
a. Ruminants possess genes that encode cellulose-digesting enzymes.
1. Which of the following is most closely related to vertebrates?
a. Sea squirts
1. The organism below has which of the following in common with platyhelminthes?
a. Segmentation b. Complete digestive tract c. Pseudocoelom d. Eye spots e. None of the above.**
1. Which of the following is NOT an important evolutionary adaptation of seeds?
a. Self-fertilization
1. Corals that have a symbiotic relationship with zooxanthellae live in __________ waters because they receive most of their nourishment from __________.
a. Shallow; zooxanthellae photosynthesis
1. Which of the following does NOT carry out cutaneous respiration?
a. Snake
1. Which of the following is NOT true?
a. Some animals have haplodiplontic life cycles.
1. Which of the following lacks legs?
a. Spider opisthosoma
1. Which of the following is NOT true?
a. Spider pedipalps inject venom into their prey.
1. Which of the following has an open circulatory system?
a. Starfish
1. Which of the following was important for the transition of plants from water to land?
a. Stomata b. Tracheids c. Cuticles d. Dominant diploid generation e. All of the above**
1. Which of the following is true?
a. Tapeworms have no mouths.
1. Which of the following is NOT true?
a. The evolution of vascular tissue reduced the height and size of tracheophytes.
1. Which of the following is true?
a. The gametophyte is the dominant life stage of mosses.
1. Which of the following is NOT true?
a. The phyla Annelida and Arthropoda both consist of segmented animals and therefore are very closely related.
1. A plant cell is placed in a solution in an open beaker. The Ψp of the cell is 0.5 MPa. The Ψs of the cell is -0.7 MPa. The Ψs of the solution is -0.7 MPa. What will happen to the protoplast?
a. The protoplast will shrink.
1. Compare what happens to a spore mother cell as it gives rise to a spore with what happens to a spore as it gives rise to a gametophyte.
a. The spore mother cell goes through meiosis, and the spore goes through mitosis.
1. Given that a plant has a green gametophyte and a brown sporophyte, which of the following statements is likely true?
a. The sporophyte is nutritionally dependent on the gametophyte.
1. Which of the following is NOT true of gamete development in angiosperms?
a. The synergid cells in the female gametophyte fuse to form the egg.
1. Concerning plasmodial and cellular slime molds, which of the following is NOT true?
a. They are both multinucleate.
1. Which of the following is true of the phylum Cnidaria?
a. They are carnivorous.
1. Protists are classified into a single kingdom because of which of the following features?
a. They are eukaryotes, but not fungi, plants, or animals.
1. Halophytes are plants that live in saline soils. The high osmotic potential of the salt solution in the soil creates a very negative water potential. What can halophytes do so that water will flow into the roots?
a. They can increase the solute concentration in their roots creating a water potential that is more negative than the soil.
1. Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of a model organism? a. They reproduce and grow well under laboratory conditions.
a. They have long generation times, which is the time between being born or germinating and being able to reproduce.
1. Which of the following plant structures is NOT matched to its correct function?
a. Tracheids—carry out photosynthesis
1. Active transport of sucrose into the phloem from the leaf mesophyll increases the turgor pressure within the phloem.
a. True
1. All fish have internal gills, but not all have jaws.
a. True
1. Because mature sieve tube members lack nuclei, they rely on companion cells to produce proteins that help them support their metabolism.
a. True
1. In Michigan, deciduous trees lose leaves in the fall to reduce water loss as temperatures drop.
a. True
1. Most polychaetes live in a marine environment.
a. True
1. Phloem bidirectionally transports food through the plant body.
a. True
1. Which of the following structures is likely used for a plant's survival of the winter or dry months and provides energy and nutrients for regrowth during the next growing season?
a. Tubers
1. ___________ cambium is a ring of lateral meristem that produces secondary xylem to its _________.
a. Vascular; interior
1. A body cavity that develops completely within mesodermal tissue is a characteristic of:
a. a coelomate.
1. In angiosperms, double fertilization results in:
a. a triploid endosperm and a diploid zygote.
60. Which of the following releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere? a. all of the other answers are correct b. secondary consumers c. decomposers d. burning fossil fuels e. primary producers
a. all of the other answers are correct
1. What feature do platypi share with tortoises, but not with caecilians?
a. amniotic eggs
1. In what environment would a mutant allele that decreases root hair formation be likely to persist?
a. an environment with abundant rainfall
1. Genetic drift and natural selection can both lead to rapid rates of evolution. However,
a. both processes of evolution can be slowed by gene flow.
1. The animal below is a __________ and belongs to the class __________.
a. box jellyfish; Cubozoa
1. Fruit dispersal does NOT occur by:
a. burial by squirrels. b. "hitching a ride" on deer. c. ingestion and defecation by birds. d. floating down a river. e. All of the above could promote fruit dispersal.
1. Water flow through the sponge is actively generated by __________. The water flow initially enters through outer pores and ultimately exits through the ___________.
a. choanocytes; osculum
1. Many sessile and slow-moving marine animals have free-swimming larvae. How would this characteristic be an advantage to the species? It allows them to:
a. colonize new territories where there might be less competition for food.
1. In the figure below, individuals with tolerant alleles have decreased growth rates on unpolluted soil. Thus, we would expect copper tolerance to be 100% on mine sites and 0% on non-mine sites. However, prevailing winds blow pollen containing nontolerant alleles onto the mine site and tolerant alleles beyond the site's borders. The amount of pollen received decreases with distance, which explains the changes in levels of tolerance. The index of copper tolerance is calculated as the growth rate of a plant on soil with high concentrations of copper relative to growth rate on soils with low levels of copper; the higher the index, the more tolerant the plant is of heavy metal pollution.
a. constraining gene flow
1. Lobsters are __________, thus they have __________.
a. crustaceans; biramous appendages
1. Under times of stress, some protists form a __________ and go __________.
a. cyst; dormant
31. During meiosis, which of the following happens NEXT after sister chromatids separate? a. cytokinesis II b. tetrads move to the metaphase plate c. non-homologous chromatids cross over d. homologous chromosomes separate e. teleophase I and cytokinesis I
a. cytokinesis II
9. Enzymes a. decrease the activation energy of the reaction. b. change endergonic reactions to exergonic reactions. c. increase the amount of energy released by a reaction. d. decrease the amount of energy released by a reaction. e. increase the activation energy of the reaction.
a. decrease the activation energy of the reaction.
1. An atmospheric increase in carbon dioxide has __________ the pH of the oceans, which in turn has affected coral reef formation by reducing the amount of available __________.
a. decreased; calcium carbonate
1. Terrestrial arthropods do NOT have:
a. dorsal nerve cords.
1. A frontal plane divides a snake into a(n) __________ section and a __________ section.
a. dorsal; ventral
1. Angiosperm seeds contain an embryonic food supply called the __________, which is comprised of __________ cells.
a. endosperm; triploid
1. Which of the following is NOT found in both lycophytes and pterophytes?
a. euphylls
1. Porifera:
a. exhibit cell differentiation.
1. Which of the following does the phylum Cnidaria, but NOT Porifera, exhibit?
a. extracellular digestion
1. Crayfish are:
a. freshwater crustaceans.
1. Some lichens are symbiotic associations between __________ and photosynthetic __________.
a. fungi; green algae
51. When the receptor proteins on an egg do not match the proteins on a sperm cell that is an example of a. gametic isolation, which is a prezygotic reproductive barrier. b. habitat isolation, which is a prezygotic reproductive barrier. c. reduced hybrid viability, which is a postzygotic reproductive barrier. d. reduced hybrid fertility, which is a postzygotic reproductive barrier. e. behavioral isolation, which is a prezygotic reproductive barrier.
a. gametic isolation, which is a prezygotic reproductive barrier.
1. Mammals have two characteristics that no other vertebrates have. These are:
a. hair and mammary glands.
1. Pine seeds contain an embryonic food supply comprised of __________ cells.
a. haploid gametophyte
1. Bilaterally symmetric animals:
a. have greater mobility than radially symmetric animals.
1. Fern sporophytes:
a. have rhizomes.
1. Millipedes:
a. have two pair of legs per segment.
1. Dragonflies are __________, thus they have _________ legs.
a. hexapods; six thoracic
1. Stomata close in response to:
a. high levels of carbon dioxide.
1. Which of the following accurately describes fungi? i. autotroph ii. phototroph iii. heterotroph iv. saprophyte
a. iii and iv
64. Invasive mussels, like Zebra mussels and Quagga mussels, have a. increased the amount of the benthic algae, Cladophora, in Lake Michigan. b. decreased the clarity of the water in the Lake Michigan. c. increased the amount of phytoplankton near the surface of Lake Michigan. d. filtered out toxins from Lake Michigan. e. caused problems along Lake Michigan when the mussels wash up on shore and rot in large mats.
a. increased the amount of the benthic algae, Cladophora, in Lake Michigan.
1. The __________ development of echinoderms involves a __________ larval stage.
a. indirect; bilateral
1. The lungs of a bird are extremely efficient because:
a. inhaled air does not mix with exhaled air.
1. Amphibians:
a. lack a ventricular septum.
1. Mature vessels __________ protoplasts and are more efficient at conducting __________ than tracheids.
a. lack; water
1. Compared to sun leaves, shade leaves have a __________ surface area and a(n) __________ photosynthetic capacity.
a. larger; reduced
1. Dicots do NOT typically have:
a. leaves with parallel veins.
1. Amphibians are thought to have evolved from:
a. lobe-finned fish.
1. The northern elephant seal was nearly hunted to extinction by man. At one point, a small population of only about twenty northern elephant seals remained. This population rebounded and now numbers in the tens of thousands. However, this population is still considered to be fragile. This is due to a(n):
a. loss of genetic variation.
1. The obstruction of __________ by __________ causes elephantiasis.
a. lymph channels; nematodes
1. In plants, the shift from a dominant haploid generation to a dominant diploid generation:
a. masked mutant alleles. b. increased genetic diversity.
1. Which of the following is characteristic of all ecdysozoans?
a. molting
1. In the life cycle of a cellular slime mold, amoebas aggregate together and form a/an __________ when food is __________.
a. motile slug; scarce
1. When you look in a mirror, you are observing a:
a. multicellular diplontic organism.
1. Which of the following is an adaptation in birds that allows flight?
a. multiple sets of fused bones
1. A notable feature of gene duplication, when compared with other forms of mutation, is that it creates genetic redundancy. (Genetic redundancy refers to situations where a given biochemical function is redundantly encoded by two or more genes.) This redundancy is believed to lead to evolutionary innovations. For example, in the Antarctic icefish, an antifreeze protein gene evolved from a duplicate copy of the sialic acid synthase gene. This is an example of:
a. neofunctionalization.
1. In the figure below, item A is the ______ and item C is the _______.
a. nerve cord; notochord
1. The __________ is a transient embryonic structure in __________ that gives rise to most of the peripheral nervous system and to several non-neural cell types, including smooth muscle cells of the cardiovascular system, pigment cells in the skin, and craniofacial bones, cartilage, and connective tissue.
a. neural crest; vertebrates
1. A biologist discovered a new animal. Upon studying its embryonic development, she observed that its anus developed from the blastopore, but the mouth developed from another region. Later in development the embryo developed into a trochophore larva. This animal is likely:
a. not categorizable under the current animal phylogenetic tree.
1. The taxonomic classification of the gray squirrel is as follows: Animalia, Chordata, Mammalia, Rodentia, Sciuridae, Sciurus, Sciurus carolinensis. Rodentia is a(n):
a. order.
42. Not all phenotypes are inherited in a Mendelian fashion. For example, many genes affect human skin color. The fact that human skin color is determined by many genes is an example of a. polygenic inheritance. b. pleiotropy. c. multiple alleles. d. incomplete dominance. e. codominance.
a. polygenic inheritance.
1. Ions are often imported into plant cells by harnessing the power of a(n) __________ gradient across their cell membranes. The establishment of this gradient requires __________.
a. proton; ATP
1. Water flow through a sponge does NOT:
a. provide oxygen. b. provide food. c. expel waste materials. d. Water flow does all of the above.**
1. Euphylls and motile sperm are characteristic of __________, which are less successful than gymnosperms due to a lack of __________.
a. pterophytes; seeds
1. When the mouth of a bony fish is closed, opening the opercula:
a. pushes water over the gills.
1. Which of the following structures does NOT facilitate wind dispersal of spores?
a. rhizoids
1. Bryophytes have:
a. rhizoids.
1. The outer cells of the root cap are formed by the __________ and __________.
a. root apical meristem; protect the growing root tip
1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of nematodes?
a. segmentation
1. Which of the following are characteristic of the annelid?
a. segmentation; ventral nerve cord; chaetae
1. Under times of stress, many protists undergo ___________ reproduction, which __________ genetic diversity
a. sexual; increases
1. Which of the following is NOT a deuterostome?
a. starfish b. tiger c. frog d. turtle e. All of the above are deuterostomes.*
1. Pneumatophores would most likely be part of a tree growing in a __________.
a. swamp
1. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic seen in sharks?
a. swim bladder c. opercula
1. Bacteria and fungi often occupy the same ecological niche. Thus, as a result of "biological warfare" between the two, bacteria have produced many antifungal toxins and fungi have produced many antibacterial toxins. Which is more likely to be harmful to humans?
a. the antifungal agents produced by bacteria
1. Echinoderms and chordates develop __________ first from the blastopore.
a. the anus
24. Due to the antiparallel nature of a double helix of DNA, if the top of the left strand of the helix is a 3' end, then a. the bottom of the right strand is a 3' end. b. the bottom of the right strand is a phosphate. c. the top of the left strand is a phosphate. d. the top of the right strand is a sugar. e. the bottom of the left strand is a 3' end.
a. the bottom of the right strand is a 3' end.
38. You work in a lab and have two chromosomes. You determine that the two chromosomes have the exact same sequence of nucleotides at every position. From this information you would conclude that a. the chromosomes are sister chromatids. b. the chromosomes are non-sister homologous chromosomes. c. you made a mistake because no two chromosomes are ever identical. d. the chromosomes came from eukaryotes. e. the chromosomes came from prokaryotes
a. the chromosomes are sister chromatids.
1. In the adult starfish,
a. the endoskeleton is composed of calcium carbonate ossicles.
1. By coating themselves with host antigens, blood flukes escape:
a. the immune response of their hosts.
13. In eukaryotes, before the mRNA leaves the nucleus a. the introns are removed and the exons are put together to make the mature mRNA. b. the cap is removed so that the mRNA can fit through the nuclear pores. c. it is translated. d. amino acids are added by tRNA synthetase. e. the tail is shorted so that the mRNA can fit through the nuclear pores.
a. the introns are removed and the exons are put together to make the mature mRNA.
1. In leaves, most photosynthesis occurs in:
a. the palisade mesophyll.
When earthworms contract the circular muscles of a segment,:
a. the segment increases in length and its bristles lose contact with the ground.
1. Amphibians are not completely free to live on dry land because:
a. their reproduction depends on water.
1. Botanically speaking, __________ are fruits because they are derived from __________.
a. tomatoes; carpels
1. Cells have the most control over which of the following water transport routes?
a. transmembrane
1. The process by which water is "pulled" up through the xylem columns of plants as it evaporates out of the leaves is called:
a. transpiration.
1. Which one of the following incorrectly matches a molluscan structure with its typical function?
a. visceral mass—houses the exit openings of the excretory, reproductive & digestive organs
1. An increase in the vertical length of a root cell is characteristic of the:
a. zone of elongation.
flower pic
angiosperm
Inbreeding is an example of __________ mating and reduces the proportion of __________ within a population.
assortative; heterozygotes
53. In genetic engineering, vectors are a. lines with an arrows on one end, indicating the direction of the function. b. used to move genes from one organism to another. c. toxins that cause the disease that is being treated. d. the name of the vials and plastic containers that are required for the genetic procedures. e. the genes that are being modified by the scientists, to be inserted into the genome of the recipient organism
b. used to move genes from one organism to another.
47. Assume Mendelian genetics for this question. An individual has the genotype rr. For the R gene in this individual, what are the predicted frequencies of the genotypes of her gametes? a. 50% R, 50% r b. 25% R, 75% r c. 0% R, 100% r d. 100% rr e. 100% R, 0% r
c. 0% R, 100% r
43. Assume Mendelian genetics for this question. For a cross of dominant green-pod plants (G) to recessive yellow-pod plants (g), the F1 generation will be a. 75% green-pod phenotype b. 100% GG genotype, and 100% green-pod phenotype c. 100% Gg genotype, and 100% green-pod phenotype d. 100% Gg genotype, and 50% green-pod phenotype e. 100% gg genotype, and 100% yellow-pod phenotype
c. 100% Gg genotype, and 100% green-pod phenotype
30. Sister chromatids are made by a. mutagenesis. b. the cytoskeleton during G2 phase. c. DNA synthesis during S phase. d. anaphase of mitosis and meiosis. e. DNA synthesis during the G1 phase.
c. DNA synthesis during S phase.
49. On average, in a Mendelian monohybrid cross the F2 generation has plants that a. are all homozygous recessive. b. are 75% homozygous and 25% heterozygous. c. are 75% dominant phenotype and 25% recessive phenotype. d. are all homozygous dominant. e. all have the dominant phenotype.
c. are 75% dominant phenotype and 25% recessive phenotype.
56. Which of the following would decrease the salinity of the soil? a. increasing irrigation b. changing the amount of fertilizer being used c. decreasing irrigation d. changing the amount of pesticides being used e. erosion control
c. decreasing irrigation
40. If two fish live in the same part of a lake, eat the same food, have the same predators and hide and reproduce in the same parts of the lake, then they are the same species by the _______________ definition of a species. a. genetic b. morphological c. ecological d. biological e. phylogenetic
c. ecological
11. When sucrose moves by diffusion, it moves from a. organelles into the cytosol. b. the membranes to the cytosol. c. higher to lower [sucrose]. d. lower to higher [sucrose]. e. the cytosol to the membranes.
c. higher to lower [sucrose].
15. During the electron transport chain of oxidative phosphorylation a. non-polar water is converted into polar water by moving the electrons from hydrogen to oxygen. b. ATP moves down its energy gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane. c. the energy from FADH2 and NADH moves protons (H+) against their concentration gradient. d. ATP synthase moves from the inner to the outer mitochondrial membrane. e. the energy in the proton (H+) gradient is used to make ATP.
c. the energy from FADH2 and NADH moves protons (H+) against their concentration gradient.
1. The activation energy is a. where a substrate binds to an enzyme. b. the energy needed for a molecule to go through a channel in a membrane. c. the energy needed for a reaction to occur. d. what activates membrane receptors, like the insulin receptor.
c. the energy needed for a reaction to occur.
21. Leucine is a hydrophobic amino acid. Where would you find it? a. equally in the cytosol and touching the fatty acid tails of the bilayer b. as part of the DNA c. touching the fatty acids tails of the phospholipid bilayer d. as part of the lipid bilayer e. in the cytosol
c. touching the fatty acids tails of the phospholipid bilayer
55. The major structural component of a plant is cellulose, which is a carbohydrate made of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. The cellulose comes from a. fertilizers added to the soil. b. carbon dioxide mostly through the roots, and water mostly through the leaves. c. water mostly through the roots, and carbon dioxide from the air. d. glucose from horizon B of the soil taken in through the roots and root hairs. e. the process of cellular respiration.
c. water mostly through the roots, and carbon dioxide from the air.
20. During _____________ carbon dioxide is converted to glucose. a. the light reactions b. the citric acid cycle c. glycolysis d. the electron transport chain e. the Calvin cycle
calvin cycle
1. Ctenophores move via:
cilia
6. Which organ systems move glucose from your mouth into the cells of the muscles? a. respiratory and digestive b. musculoskeletal and nervous c. circulatory and nervous d. respiratory and circulatory e. circulatory and digestive
circulatory and digestive
50. You have a population of 50 heterozygous individuals and 50 homozygous dominant individuals. What is the allele frequency for the dominant allele in the population? a. 25% dominant allele b. 100% dominant allele c. 50% dominant allele d. 75% dominant allele e. 0% dominant allele
d. 75% dominant allele
4. Assume you ate 20 minutes ago and the food is in your small intestine. Why is the concentration of carbon dioxide higher the blood leaving the muscle than in the blood entering the muscle? a. Cellular respiration produces glucose. b. Cellular respiration uses up oxygen. c. Cellular respiration breaks down carbon dioxide. d. Cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide. e. Cellular respiration produces oxygen.
d. Cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide.
58. Deserts and semidesert scrub contribute about 1% of the Earth's net primary production. Rain forests contribute 22%. Rain forests have about 22 times more average net productivity than deserts and semidesert scrub. From this you can conclude a. Deserts and semidesert scrub cover less of the Earth's surface area as rain forests. b. There are more consumers in the deserts and semidesert scrub than in the rain forest. c. The primary production of rain forest is greater than the production of oceans. d. Deserts and semidesert scrub cover about the same amount of surface area as rain forests. e. Deserts and semidesert scrub cover more of the Earth's surface area as rain forests.
d. Deserts and semidesert scrub cover about the same amount of surface area as rain forests.
54. Four of the following are facts and one is a value related to food production and choices. Which one is a value? a. It takes more energy to produce calories through meat than with most vegetables. b. Artificial selection changes allele frequencies so they are not the natural frequencies. c. Plants can be genetically modified to add vitamins. d. Low cost food is more important than sustainable farming. e. Transgenic organisms are created when humans add genes from a different species.
d. Low cost food is more important than sustainable farming.
5. Which organ system is correctly matched with its major function? a. Digestive system - O2 in, CO2 out b. Respiratory - hormones control metabolism c. Cardiovascular system - coordination (movement, hunger, breathing rates) d. Musculoskeletal - movement e. Endocrine system - circulates nutrients and gasses through the body
d. Musculoskeletal - movement
35. You look at a cell using a microscope. You see ribosomes and a nucleoid that has one circular chromosome and no surrounding membrane. You do not see any endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria, Golgi or chloroplasts. From these observations you would conclude you were looking at a. a eukaryotic animal cell b. a prokaryotic plant cell c. a prokaryotic animal cell d. a prokaryotic cell e. a eukaryotic plant cell
d. a prokaryotic cell
25. You look at a cell and see 7 tetrads randomly arranged relative to each other. From this information you would know that a. it is a human cell in metaphase. b. it is a non-human cell in prophase II. c. it is a non-human cell in metaphase II. d. it is a non-human cell in prophase I. e. it is a non-human cell in prophase.
d. it is a non-human cell in prophase I.
57. Which of the following best describes the flow of energy through an ecosystem? a. heat enters, turns into biotic chemicals, then is converted back to heat and released b. sunlight energy enters, is converted to chemical energy then is permanently stored as fossil fuels c. chemical energy enters, is converted to other forms of chemical energy, and is washed out of the ecosystem as medium-sized molecules d. sunlight energy enters, is converted to chemical energy and is released as heat e. heat enters, is converted to chemical energy and is released as light energy
d. sunlight energy enters, is converted to chemical energy and is released as heat
61. When humans add more carbon dioxide to the atmosphere, the additional carbon dioxide changes the climate by a. killing off primary producers. b. decreasing the global temperature. c. increasing toxins in the water. d. trapping heat on the Earth longer. e. increasing the amount of energy that flows from primary producers to primary consumers.
d. trapping heat on the Earth longer.
19. The products of glycolysis are a. pyruvate, ADP and NAD+. b. glucose, ADP and NAD+. c. glucose, ATP and pyruvate. d. glycol and ATP. e. ATP, NADH and pyruvate.
e. ATP, NADH and pyruvate.
32. What will happen to the protein sequence if you mutate its mRNA by adding a single nucleotide between the first two Gs, so that the mRNA sequence changes from 5'AUGGUGACCUCG to 5'AUGCGUGACCUCG? a. Exactly one amino acid will change. b. Nothing will happen. c. There will be exactly one more amino acid. d. There will be exactly one less amino acid. e. The entire protein downstream from the mutation will be different.
e. The entire protein downstream from the mutation will be different.
41. An enormous rock falls on a population of 1000 snails and kills all but ten of them. The ten remaining snails keep breeding and start a new population. You had been studying the traits of the original population and also observe the traits of the new population. You notice that there is a difference in the traits of the new population compared to the traits of the original population. This is an example of a. a founder effect. b. artificial selection. c. gene flow. d. gametic isolation. e. a bottleneck effect.
e. a bottleneck effect.
39. When individual nucleotides combine to make a nucleic acid, a. a phosphate group binds a sugar group in a hydrolysis reaction. b. a nitrogenous base binds a ribose group in a hydrolysis reaction. c. a nitrogenous base binds a sugar group in a dehydration reaction. d. a nitrogenous base binds a phosphate group in a dehydration reaction. e. a phosphate group binds a sugar group in a dehydration reaction.
e. a phosphate group binds a sugar group in a dehydration reaction.
In eukaryotes, transcription ends a. in the cytoplasm. b. at the stop codon. c. at the promoter. d. at the terminator codon. e. at the terminator DNA.
e. at the terminator DNA.
23. Which of the following is in the correct order from largest to smallest? a. gene, nucleotide, chromosome, codon, genome b. gene, nucleotide, chromosome, codon, genome c. nucleotide, codon, gene, chromosome, genome d. codon, genome, gene, nucleotide, chromosome e. genome, chromosome, gene, codon, nucleotide
e. genome, chromosome, gene, codon, nucleotide
10. In a phospholipid bilayer a. hydrophilic heads are in the middle of the bilayer away from water. b. the hydrophobic tails touch the cytosol. c. the hydrophilic heads of one half of the bilayer touch the hydrophobic tails of the other half of the bilayer. d. the hydrophilic tails touch the cytosol. e. hydrophilic heads face the cytosol.
e. hydrophilic heads face the cytosol.
3. Homeostasis a. is inhaling oxygen and exhaling carbon dioxide. b. is negative feedback. c. is the scientific name for humans. d. is breaking down glucose in the cytosol and mitochondria to make ATP and carbon dioxide. e. is the process of maintaining a parameter in a normal range with negative feedback.
e. is the process of maintaining a parameter in a normal range with negative feedback
52. Which of the following is NOT a way that humans have changed allele frequencies to meet our own needs? a. selectively breeding grains so that there are more larger seeds after many generations b. artificial selection c. agriculture d. genetic engineering e. natural selection
e. natural selection
65. You want to know if an invasive species, Asian Carp, will increase the amount of light that gets to the benthic algae. The best measurement to make to test this hypothesis would be to measure a. the amount of benthic algae b. the amount of phosphorous near the benthic algae c. the amount of phosphorous entering the lake d. the distribution of Zebra mussels e. the depth of a Secchi disk reading above the algae
e. the depth of a Secchi disk reading above the algae
8. You are studying a reaction and know that it is exergonic. You would predict that a. the reaction is a reaction that breaks down hormones. b. the reaction has more energy in the products than in the reactants. c. the reaction only occurs in cells. d. the enzyme ATP synthase is required for the reaction to take place. e. the reaction releases energy.
e. the reaction releases energy.
34. You work in a lab and accidentally mix up a vial of liver cells with a vial of kidney cells. The liver and kidney cells are from the same individual. In order to identify which vial has liver cells you would look for the vial with a. the same liver genes, and fewer liver proteins. b. more liver genes, and the same number of liver proteins. c. more liver genes, and more mRNA for liver proteins. d. fewer liver genes, and more liver proteins. e. the same liver genes, and more mRNA for liver proteins.
e. the same liver genes, and more mRNA for liver proteins.
28. The purpose of mitosis is a. replicate the DNA. b. to get exactly one copy of each type of chromosome into each daughter cell. c. get both copies of every other chromosome into each daughter cell. d. stop cell division if there is a mistake in DNA replication. e. to get exactly one copy of each chromosome into each daughter cell.
e. to get exactly one copy of each chromosome into each daughter cell.
17. You transfuse type A red blood cells (RBCs) into a person with each blood type. People with ________ will agglutinate the new RBCs. a. type A blood only b. type B blood only c. type B and type AB blood d. type A and type O blood e. type O and type B blood
e. type O and type B blood
1. All vertebrates have bony vertebrae protecting their spinal cords.
false
1. As turtles grow, they must periodically shed their shells and grow new ones.
false
1. In platyhelminthess, a pseudocoelom aids in the circulation of nutrients throughout the body.
false
1. Mammalian placentas deliver blood from the mother directly into the developing fetus.
false
1. Ovules are enclosed within ovary walls in gymnosperms and angiosperms.
false
1. Tapeworms secrete enzymes that extracellularly digest their food prior to absorbing it across their body wall.
false
blue whales are the largest fish on earth
false
27. Which happens next after gametes are made in the human life cycle? a. mitosis of haploid cells b. differentiation of cell types c. fertilization d. mitosis of diploid cells e. meiosis of diploid cells
fertilization
1. Pines possess which of the following?
i. True leaves iii. Seeds
A woman was an excellent gymnast in high school, thus her teen daughter is also an excellent gymnast. This would be an example of __________, which was a theory of evolution proposed by __________.
inheritance of acquired characteristics; Lamarck
45. In woman, an egg is released from a follicle in the ________, then travels through the oviduct to the uterus. a. cervix b. clitoris c. vagina d. vulva e. ovary
ovary
1. The organism shown below can be described as a(n):
plasmodium
1. A pluripotent cell is one that is capable of giving rise to multiple different cell types. Which of the following cell types would be characterized as pluripotent?
protoderm root apical meristem procambium
Genetic drift is change in the allele frequency of a population due to:
random chance
1. Which of the following is characteristic of the organism below?
regeneration
1. The structures below do NOT contain:
seeds (CURLY)
1. Which of the following undergoes torsion during embryological development?
snails
Gene flow is likely to be high among populations of all the following except:
snails
26. Meiosis I, meiosis II and mitosis have similarities and differences. A major difference between meiosis I and mitosis is that during meiosis I a. the nuclear envelope reforms. b. there is a metaphase plate. c. sister chromatids separate from each other and go to opposite poles. d. tetrads form. e. the cytoskeleton forms a spindle that separates chromatids.
tetrads form
DNA makes RNA via __________. RNA instructs the synthesis of proteins via __________.
transcription; translation
1. All phyla classified as Spiralia are protostomes.
true
1. Alligators are more closely related to birds than lizards.
true
1. An application of too much fertilizer to soil will negatively affect the movement of water into root cells.
true
1. Kangaroos are born incompletely developed and are typically carried and suckled in a pouch on the mother's belly.
true
1. Reptilian scales, avian feathers and mammalian hair are all keratin-rich structures.
true
1. Sea cucumbers can eject parts of their gut in order to scare and defend against potential predators.
true
1. The Portuguese man-of-war is a not a jellyfish, but a colonial hydrozoan made up of specialized individual polyps. These polyps are so physiologically integrated with one another that they cannot survive as individual polyps.
true
1. The evolution of leaves contributed tremendously to the success of land plants because leaves increased the surface area available for photosynthesis.
true
1. The main force driving water transport in plants is transpiration.
true
1. The mantle cavity of an aquatic snail houses gills.
true
1. The wriggling of a nematode is accomplished by contraction of its longitudinal muscles.
true
1. Toads have evolved from frogs on multiple occasions.
true
The exoskeleton and tracheal system of insects place severe limitations on their size.
true
1. In agreement with the hypothesis of endosymbiosis, mitochondria have __________ membrane(s).
two
1. This organism:
weird bag heart looking thing had a notochord as a larva
1. If a species is under heavy pressure to fit into a changing environmental niche, it may need to develop new structures that can deal with the altered conditions. In that instance, it would be much easier to modify an existing organ than build a whole new one. Based on the above, would segmentation give a species a better shot at quickly adapting to new environments?
yes
1. Root cells in the __________ that have WEREWOLF gene expression will __________ root hairs in the zone of maturation.
zone of cell division; not develop
1. Maple samaras are primarily spread by birds.
False
1. Some of the enzymes secreted into the environment by fungal hyphae are highly effective at digesting chitin.
False
All phenotypic variation is externally visible.
False
Individuals exhibiting phenotypic variation always differ in survival and reproductive success.
False
Some brown mice from a population that lives in a brown, sandy environment are transplanted to an environment that consists primarily of black volcanic rock. These transplanted brown mice will be more likely to undergo mutations that will darken their fur than the brown mice still living in the sandy environment.
False
The Afrikaner population of Dutch settlers in South Africa has an abnormally high incidence of Huntington's Disease, in which nerve cells in the brain degenerate, because the original Dutch settlers carried the defective Huntington gene with a higher frequency than the rest of the Dutch population. This is an example of:
Founder's effect
44. A child has both parents with type AB blood. The child cannot have a. type A blood. b. type AB blood. c. type O blood. d. type B blood.
O blood
A population of grasshoppers in the Kansas prairie has two color phenotypes, green and brown. Typically, the prairie receives adequate water to maintain healthy, green grass. Assume a bird that eats grasshoppers moves into the prairie. How will this affect natural selection of the grasshoppers?
The brown phenotype should be more easily seen by the predator and decrease in frequency.
37. A snail has 12 types of chromosomes (n = 12). How many double helices of DNA are in one of snail cell during prophase of mitosis? a. 96 b. 24 c. 48 d. 12 e. 6
48
Which of the following is NOT true?
The terms natural selection and evolution are interchangeable.
1. Which of the following is true?
The water potential in the roots is higher than the water potential in the stem.
1. Which of the following is NOT a component of fitness?
All of the above are components of fitness.
1. If you could override the control mechanisms that open stomata and force them to remain closed, what would you expect to happen to the plant?
All would be the result of keeping stomata closed.
1. Which floral whorl does NOT typically play a role in the pollination process?
Sepal
62. How much of the energy consumed passes to the next trophic level? a. All of the energy from one trophic level passes to the next. b. About 10% to 15% of the energy passes from primary producers to primary consumers, and up each level of consumer. c. Only chemicals, not energy, pass from one trophic level to the next. d. About 50% of the energy passes from producers to primary consumers, then 1% up each level of consumer.
b. About 10% to 15% of the energy passes from primary producers to primary consumers, and up each level of consumer.
36. Imagine you work in a lab and prepared two Petri dishes with plenty of nutrients and exactly the same density of cultured skin cells. The density starts at 1000 cells per dish. The cells are low enough density that they are not touching each other. The professor you work with asked you to test substance X to see if it is a growth factor. Which experiment and result would most strongly support the hypothesis that substance X is a growth factor? a. You add X to both dishes; when you count later they each have 1000 cells. b. You add X to one dish; when you count later the dish with X has 2000 cells and the dish without X has 1000 cells. c. You add X to one dish; when you count later both dishes have 4000 cells. d. You add X to one dish; when you count later the dish with X has 1000 cells and the dish without X has 3000 cells. e. You add X to both dishes; when you count later they each have 3000 cells.
b. You add X to one dish; when you count later the dish with X has 2000 cells and the dish without X has 1000 cells.
The tRNA synthetases a. bind to the A site of ribosomes. b. add the correct amino acid to each tRNA. c. read the codons on the tRNA by complementary base pairing. d. make the ribosomes that tRNA binds to during translation. e. make tRNA from the sequence of nucleotides in DNA at the tRNA gene.
b. add the correct amino acid to each tRNA.
48. A genetically dominant allele will always a. result in a stronger organism. b. appear as the phenotype if there is at least one dominant allele. c. be less frequent than a recessive allele in a population. d. fertilize more eggs than a recessive allele. e. be more frequent than a recessive allele in a population.
b. appear as the phenotype if there is at least one dominant allele.
22. Hydrogen bonds form a. between two atoms that have the same partial charge. b. between two atoms that have opposite partial charges. c. between two atoms that attract electrons equally. d. as the first step of making a covalent bond. e. when two atoms share a pair of electrons.
b. between two atoms that have opposite partial charges.
1. In the oriental liver fluke life cycle, the __________ encyst in __________ muscle.
b. cercaria; fish
29. Imagine you work in a lab and have a dish of cells that normally divide until they fill the dish with one layer of cells, then stop dividing. What do you predict would happen if you removed a patch that was 20% of the cells? The remaining cells would a. divide until they overflowed the side of the dish because they would pass through all of the checkpoints. b. divide until they returned to the original density, then stop at the G1 checkpoint. c. divide until they returned to the original density, G2 checkpoint. d. not divide because they would be stopped at the G2 checkpoint. e. divide until they returned to the original density, then stop at the M checkpoint.
b. divide until they returned to the original density, then stop at the G1 checkpoint.
63. Which of the following would increase Cladophora growth along the shores of the Great Lakes? a. decreasing the primary consumers of the phytoplankton b. increasing the amount of phosphorous near the Cladophora c. decreasing the amount of phosphorous entering the Lakes d. decreasing light exposure of the Cladophora e. increasing the phosphorous near the phytoplankton
b. increasing the amount of phosphorous near the Cladophora
7. You run a blood test on a person who was not exercising, who does not have any diabetes, and who drank a large amount of glucose at time zero. Compared to the results of a blood test on the same person at 30 minutes after the glucose, you would expect the blood from the test 4 hours after the glucose drink to have a. lower [insulin] and higher [glucose]. b. lower [insulin] and lower [glucose]. c. higher [insulin] and lower [glucose]. d. higher [insulin] and higher [glucose].
b. lower [insulin] and lower [glucose].
59. A hawk eats mice that eat seeds from plants. In this example, the mice are a. secondary consumers. b. primary consumers. c. primary producers. d. decomposers. e. tertiary consumers.
b. primary consumers.
33. When a bacterium is in an environment without any lactose a. RNA polymerase will be transcribing the genes of the lac operon. b. the lac operon will be repressed. c. genes on many different chromosomes in the bacterium will be activated. d. the proteins coded by the lac operon will be processed in the Golgi apparatus. e. the repressor will be bound to the enhancer.
b. the lac operon will be repressed.