exam 1 review
Barbiturates can be used for many disorders. ________ is the best for sleep and rest, while_______ is best for seizure disorders. Enter your answers in all lower case, with one space between the words. *
butobarbital phenobarbital
A client currently prescribed gentamicin for endocarditis. After performing a physical assessment the nurse is most concerned about which of the following? * a. Temperature 102F b. Heart Rate 103 c. Urine Output 200ml in 12 hours d. Blood Pressure 102/64 e. 1 Bowel Movement in 6 hours
c
A client has been recently diagnosed with angina and is prescribed nitroglycerin PRN for chest pain. What currently prescribed medication can cause a fatal drop in blood pressure? * a. Metoprolol b. Verapamil c. Tadalafil d. Lisinopril
c
A client is finishing a course of azithromycin today. Upon assessment the client has an unsteady gait and appears off balance. What adverse effect does the nurse predict is resulting in these assessment findings? * a. hypokalemia b. hypomagnesemia c. ototoxicity d. hepatoxicity
c
A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication daily. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider? * a. Respirations of 22 breaths per minute b. Heart rate 95 beats per minute c. Excessive salivation d. Temperature of 104 F
d
The apical pulse is 72. How would you classify this data? a. objective b. subjective
a. objective
I occur early in therapy with anti-psychotic medications. I cause constant motion, like pacing and fidgeting. You might confuse me with anxiety if you don't know that the patient is on an anti-psychotic medication. What type of EPS am I? (Hint: Write in all lower case letters) *
akathisia
Typical anti-psychotics are ________ likely to cause EPS when compared to atypical anti-psychotics. *
more
A client has low albumin and will be prescribed a medication that is 99% protein bound. The medication is used to treat pain and can cause bleeding if the drug levels are elevated. What should the nurse assess for in this client? a. Increased formation of blood clots b. Increased signs of bleeding c. Decreased pain control d. Increased pain control
b
A client is prescribed methylphenidate. Which effect would be considered most dangerous and cause the nurse the greatest concern? a. Nervousness b. Tachycardia c. Weight loss d. Decreased growth
b
A client is prescribed metronidazole for an infection. The nurse is providing education to the client prior to discharge. What information should the nurse include in the discharge instructions? a. Take this medication with a full glass of water, on an empty stomach, to help aid in drug absorption b. Avoid alcohol, including alcohol hand gel, while on this medication to prevent a known interaction c. Take the medication until the symptoms disappear, then contact prescriber for further information d. You do not need to increase your fluid intake with this medication because it is easily excreted from the body
b
A client is prescribed promethazine for nausea and vomiting. When administering the medication, what priority assessment should the nurse perform to prevent client injury? * a. Assess the severity of the nausea and last time vomiting occurred b. Inspect the intravenous access site for signs of infiltration c. Auscultate the lungs and heart sounds prior to each dose d. Monitor urine output to ensure client is hydrated
b
A client is to receive 50 mg of atenolol at 0800. Prior to administering the medication, the nurse reviews the medical records for past medical history and obtains the client's apical pulse and blood pressure. What phase of the nursing process does this represent? a. Evaluation b. Assessment c. Implementation d. Planning e. Diagnosis
b
A client received epinephrine for an anaphylactic reaction in the emergency department 6 hours ago. Since that time, the client has been unable to void. What priority assessment should the nurse perform to determine the cause of this urinary issue? a. Assess oral fluid intake for the last 24 hours b. Palpate the area above the symphysis pubis bone c. Palpate peripheral pulse to determine adequate perfusion. d. Assess blood pressure to determine vasoconstriction
b
A client with hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia is prescribed tamsulosin. What data demonstrates the medication has achieved the therapeutic response? a. Client has less calf tenderness b. Client is able to fully empty bladder. c. Client heart rate is 80 beats per minute. d. Client's blood pressure is 110/76 mm/Hg
b
A nurse caring for a patient in an outpatient setting notes that the patient is currently taking lorazepam for anxiety and her breath smells of alcohol. The nurse reports this to the health care provider because A. taking alcohol with Ativan can decrease effectiveness of Ativan. B. taking alcohol with Ativan may increase sedative effects. C. all patients using alcohol should be referred for assistance. D. Ativan and alcohol antagonize one another.
b
A nurse has just administered atropine to a patient. It is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for the development of which effect? A. Nausea B. Tachycardia C. Rales D. Hypotension
b
For systemically-acting eye drops, the client should apply pressure to the inner canthus for 1-2 minutes after instilling the drops. T or F
T
when you are prioritizing your clients problems, you should use ABCs and Maslows Hierarchy. T or F
T
When providing dietary teaching for a patient taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), the nurse should teach the patient to avoid which food? A. Summer Sausage B. Avocado C. Grapefruit D. Potato chips
a
When teaching a patient about use of nasal decongestant sprays, the nurse informs the patient that they are most effective when administered for how many days? a. 4 days b. 10 days c. 14 days d. 20 days
a
Which herb is associated with the development of bleeding if taken with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs? a. Garlic b. Echinacea c. St. John's Wort d. Cinnamon
a
Which is a higher priority for the nurse who is teaching the client taking Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ)? a. Encourage an increase in fluid intake. b. Report signs of ototoxicity (e.g., tinnitus, deafness). c. Teach the client that individuals taking this drug are not affected by sun exposure. d. Advise the client to take this drug with dairy products or antacids to protect the stomach.
a
You are caring for a client post-operatively. The indwelling urinary catheter was removed in the post-anesthesia care unit per the surgeon's orders. The client is unable to urinate, and a bladder scan reveals 500 mL in in the bladder. What prescribed medication should you administer? a. Bethanechol b. Metoclopramide c. Atropine d. Tolterodine
a
You are to administer pantoprazole by intravenous route to your assigned client. What fluid should you use to reconstitute the powdered medication in the vial? * a. Normal saline (NS) b. Dextrose 5% in water (D5W) c. Lactated Ringers (LR) d. Sterile water for injection (SWFI)
a
Your patient has liver and kidney disease. He is given a medication with a half-life of 30 hours. You expect the duration of this medication to: a. Increase b. Decrease c. Remain unchanged d. Dissipate
a
A patient has been advised to take ibuprofen . when teaching the patient about ibuprofen, which instruction should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Avoid taking aspirin with ibuprofen b. Take with food to reduce GI upset c. Monitor for bleeding gums, nosebleeds, black tarry stools d. Take herbs, such as ginkgo and garlic, with ibuprofen e. Take NSAIDs 2 days before menstruation to decrease discomfort.
a, c
A client was brought into the emergency department with symptomatic bradycardia and has received multiple doses of atropine. What clinical manifestations would the nurse identify as being potential symptoms of atropine toxicity? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. Confusion b. Flushing of the face and neck c. Diaphoresis d. Miosis e. Excessive salivation f. Urinary frequency
a,b
A client has been placed on high-dose therapy of selegiline. What foods should the nurse educate the client to avoid or limit while on this treatment regimen? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. Sharp cheddar cheese b. Summer sausage c. Red wine d. Hamburger and french fries e. Fish and chips
a,b,c
A client is prescribed scopolamine transdermal patch to help with motion sickness while on a cruise. What education should the nurse provide the client to alleviate the common side effects of the medication? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. Wear sunglasses when going outside b. Chew sugar free gum c. Increase fluid and fiber d. Urinary incontinence may occur, use caution e. Avoid exercise to avoid fatigue
a,b,c
What are the symptoms associated with "Red man" or Red neck syndrome" with vancomycin infusion? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. Severe hypotension b. Reflect tachycardia c. Red flushing of face,neck,chest and extremities d. Difficulty breathing Raised, red rash on face and neck
a,b,c
What information should the nurse include when providing education to a client newly prescribed furosemide? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. "When standing up ,rise slowly ,in stages." b. "Increase dietary intake of potassium rich foods." c. "Weigh yourself every day,in the same clothes and on the same scale." d. "Increase salt intake to prevent low sodium levels." e. "Take the furosemide in the evening hours."
a,b,c
select all of the abbreviations that are on the Joint Commission's "Do Not Use Abbreviation" List. * a. U,u b. QD c. QOD d. QID e. PRN
a,b,c
A client is to start taking valproic acid. What labs should be monitored periodically throughout therapy? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. AST b. ALT c. Valproic acid level d. CBC e. Sodium levels
a,b,c,d
The nurse is preparing to administer prednisone. What drugs can have potential interaction with prednisone? select all that apply a. aspirin b. furosemide c. metformin d. regular insulin e. metoprolol
a,b,c,d
A patient has been ordered a transdermal patch of methylphenidate. The nurse teaches the family to leave the patch on for how long? A. 2 hours B. 9 hours C. 6 hours D. 24 hours
b
A patient is ordered to receive low-dose aspirin to prevent a heart attack. Which assessment, if found in the patient, is the highest priority for the nurse? a. Otitis externa b. Multiple bruises c. Dry mouth d. Aches in joints
b
When planning medication administration to a client on cholestyramine, the nurse should administer the cholestyramine either hour(s) before other medications or hour(s) after other medications. (Enter number or number range only) _ _-_
1 4-6
A patient is recovering from surgery to replace the right hip. In the early postoperative phase, the nurse anticipates administration of which drug to prevent deep vein thrombosis? a. clopidogrel b. enoxaparin c. warfarin d. dabigatran
b
During what timeframe is a client at greatest risk for suicide when on an antidepressant? Hint (It is a range of time, use numbers and words to complete the range; for example 1-2 months). *
2-4 weeks
What is the goal number of stools for a client with liver disease who is prescribed lactulose? (Enter number range with dash between numbers, example 1-2)
3-4
Sucralfate is given ______ minutes before meals and before bedtime in order to create a thick paste that will coat the ulcer, protecting it from gastric acid that is released during meals and rest. (Write only the number)
30
If a client is receiving a medication on a scheduled basis, how many half-lifes will it take to reach a steady state?
4-5
If a client takes only 1 dose of a medication, how much medication is cleared from the body at 1 half life?
50%
A client will start on an anticonvulsant drug that has a half-life of up to 42 hours, When will the client achieve steady-state? Between and days. (Enter a number only, answer to the nearest whole day). _ and _
7 and 9
What would indicate to the nurse that the child taking methylphenidate requires more teaching? A. The child is seen drinking a cola product. B. The child checks his weight twice a week. C. The child takes the drug 45 minutes before a meal. D. The child takes the drug before breakfast and lunch.
a
A client asks the nurse "How does the sumatriptan work to stop my migraine?" What is the best response by the nurse? a. "It causes vasoconstriction of your cranial arteries." b. "It causes central nervous system depression, making you relax." c. "It lowers your blood pressure which decreases the throbbing pain." d. "It is thought to stimulate your GABA receptors in your brain."
a
A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. Which client symptoms would be most concerning to the nurse? a. Sore throat, fever, and malaise b. Insomnia and restlessness c. Dry mouth and urinary retention d. Akathisia and hypersalivation
a
A client has been prescribed topiramate. What education should the nurse provide? a. Avoid alcohol intake within 6 hours of scheduled dose b. Therapeutic range is 4-12 mcg/mL c. This drug increases mental focus and alertness d. Grapefruit juice will cause toxicity
a
A client has been receiving subcutaneous heparin for venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. What lab is most concerning from this mornings lab results? * a. Platelet count of 87,000 b. aPTT of 60 seconds c. PT of 12 seconds d. INR of 1.3
a
A client has oral candida albicans infection with throat involvement. The nurse is teaching the client about taking their prescribed swish and swallow medication. What statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I will drink some water directly after swallowing the nystatin to help with the bad flavor in my mouth." b. "I will take the nystatin exactly as my health care provider prescribed it to ensure medication effectiveness." c. "I will swish the medication around my mouth ensuring contact with all oral mucosa and gargle before swallowing." d. "I will shake the nystatin container prior to taking the dose of medication since it is a suspension."
a
A client is admitted with possible bowel obstruction. What prescribed medication will the nurse clarify with the healthcare provider? a. Metoclopramide b. Promethazine c. Pantoprazole d. Ondansetron
a
A client is beginning to take cyclobenzaprine for treatment of acute back spasms. Which statement indicates to the nurse that the client needs additional instructions? a. "I will take this drug in the evening with a glass of wine." b. "I can take this medication with food if needed." c. " I should not drive after taking a dose of cyclobenzaprine." d. "I will take this medication exactly as prescribed."
a
A client is experiencing chest pain and 2 doses of nitroglycerin have been administered. Which assessment finding would require the nurse to hold the third dose of nitroglycerin? a. Systolic blood pressure 88 mm/Hg b. Headache rating at 10 on a 0-10 pain scale c. Unrelieved chest pain, radiating into the left arm and jaw d. Tingling sensation under the tongue with each SL tablet
a
A client is prescribed a cholinergic medication. What assessment finding would be of most concern to the nurse? a. Heart rate of 50 beats per minute b. Urinary frequency c. Increased tear production d. Blood pressure 104/64
a
A client is prescribed an NSAID for pain and inflammation associated with rheumatoid arthritis. What information in the past medical history is most concerning? * a. Cardiovascular disease with previous myocardial infarction b. Seizure disorder c. Bone malformation of fingers with ulnar drift and severe pain d. Chronic liver disease
a
A client is prescribed an anti-thyroid medication. Which lab test should be monitored periodically during therapy related to potential adverse effects? * a. Complete blood count b. Basic chemistry panel c. Thyroid panel d. Hemoglobin A1C
a
A client is prescribed an anticholinergic medication. What information in the past medical history would be of most concern to the nurse? a. Glaucoma b. Asthma c. Diabetes d. Bradycardia
a
A client is prescribed carbidopa-levodopa and the nurse is providing education on this new medication. What information should the nurse provide to help prevent injury? a. Rise slowly, in stages b. Drink 3 liters of fluid each day c. Increase intake of foods high in protein d. Decrease intake of dietary fiber
a
A client is prescribed morphine. What currently prescribed medication would be most concerning to the nurse? a. Lorazepam b. Naloxone c. Acetaminophen d. Diphenhydramine
a
A client is receiving acyclovir by intravenous route for herpes zoster infection. What action should the nurse implement to help prevent phlebitis? a. Administer infusion slowly, over 60 minutes b. Ask the prescriber to change the route to intramuscular c. Administer by intravenous push d. Dilute further in 1 liter of normal saline
a
A client is receiving heparin by intravenous infusion for treatment of a deep vein thrombosis. What lab data would require the nurse to hold the infusion of heparin and notify the prescriber? a. aPTT 120 seconds b. Platelets 180,000/mcL c. PT 39.5 seconds d. INR 3.1
a
When assessing a patient taking hydantoin therapy for seizure disorder, which indicates an adverse reaction to this therapy? A. Thrombocytopenia B. Leukocytosis C. Gingival atrophy D. Hypoglycemia
a
A client is to have a major in-patient surgery and the nurse administered scopolamine transdermal patch behind the ear. The client asks, "What is that for? Why do I need a band aid behind my ear?" What is the best response by the nurse? a. "This medication is used to help dry up secretions to prevent aspiration during surgery." b. "The patch behind your ear will help decrease motion sickness on your ride home." c. "This medication helps with pain control after your surgery is completed." d. "The patch behind your ear will help prevent complications of glaucoma."
a
A client receives 10 mg of morphine orally at home for pain management. The client is in the emergency department and is to receive 4 mg of morphine IV for severe pain. The client asks the nurse why they are only getting 4 mg of IV morphine when at home they take 10 mg of morphine. What is the best response by the nurse? a. "Intravenous medications go directly into the bloodstream while oral medications must first go through the liver and some of the medication is made inactive." b. "I will administer this dose now and if it does not work, I will double the dose next time in order to control your pain." c. "I will clarify this order with the healthcare provider because 4 mg is not enough since you take such a large amount at home" d. "Because morphine is highly addictive and we are worried about the opioid crisis, the healthcare provider has ordered a smaller dose for you."
a
A client with symptoms of myocardial infarction has received alteplase within the needed time-frame. What nursing intervention should the nurse implement to help keep the client safe? a. Implement strict bed rest and pad the side rails b. Insert a foley catheter so client will not need to go to bathroom c. If bleeding occurs at IV site, hold pressure 5 minutes. d. Place a fall precautions armband on the client
a
A patient has been diagnosed with neuroleptic malignant syndrome. The nurse anticipates administration of which medication to treat this patient? • A. Dantrolene B. Tetrabenazine C. Propranolol D. Benztropine
a
A patient has just received a nebulizer treatment of albuterol. It is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for the development of which side effect/adverse effect? a. tremors b. bradycardia c. hypotension d. hypoglycemia
a
A patient with myasthenia gravis is admitted to the emergency department with cholinergic crisis. Which medication should be administered per protocol? A. atropine sulfate. B. baclofen C. edrophonium D. neostigmine
a
A patient with myasthenia gravis is prescribed pyridostigmine. The nurse identifies that the medication is effective when the patient experiences? A. Increased muscle strength B. Decrease in sweating and salivation C. Changes in vital signs to within normal limits D. Decrease in generalized pain
a
The family of a client diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease asks how the newly prescribed donepezil works. What is the best response by the nurse? a. "It prevents the breakdown of the neurotransmitter responsible for memory recall." b. "It stimulates the receptor sites in the brain responsible for memory recall." c. "By allowing more acetylcholine in the brain, this medication cures Alzheimer's disease." d. "It blocks the cholinergic receptor sites in the brain which allows for memory recall."
a
The nurse assesses a patient receiving morphine via a PCA pump. The patient has a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min. The nurse anticipates administration of which of the following drugs? a. Naloxone b. Sumatriptan c. Nalbuphine hcl d. Hydromorphone
a
The nurse is administering a viscous (thick) medication. What additional step must be added? * a. Wait 10 seconds before removing the needle after the injection b. Insert the needle at 90-degree angle using a dart-like motion c. Don (put on) gloves d. Pull the skin taut
a
The nurse is assigned to a client who is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which statement best illustrates an outcome criterion for this client? a. The client will demonstrate correct technique for insulin injections before discharge home. b. The client will not experience complications. c. The client will follow dietary and medication instructions to manage disease process. d. The client will adhere to the new insulin treatment regimen.
a
The nurse is caring for a client being treated for tuberculosis who is taking isoniazid (INH). Which statement made by the client indicates the need for further teaching? * a. "I should limit my alcohol intake to no more than 3 beers a day while I'm taking this medicine." b. "I'll have to have regular checkups and eye exams to monitor for side effects." c. "I know I need to take this medication for at least 6 months." d. "I need to call the doctor if I notice any yellow color to my skin or eyes."
a
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a female client who delivered a healthy, full-term infant. What information should the nurse provide about taking medications while breastfeeding? a. Many medications cross into the breast milk in small amounts and could cause harm to the infant b. The mother should not take any medication while breastfeeding in order to prevent harm to the infant c. The mother should pump and discard breast milk 30 minutes after any oral medication is taken. d. It is unlikely that a large enough amount of medication will cross into the breast milk and cause harm to the infant.
a
The nurse provides education about avoiding alcohol while on a CNS depressant. Why is this information important? * a. Increased sedation or respiratory suppression can occur if alcohol is used with CNS depressants b. When alcohol is consumed with a CNS depressant, the medication will not work effectively c. Alcohol is contraindicated with every medication and all patients should not drink any alcohol d. Because nonpharmacologic interventions should not be used with pharmacologic interventions
a
The nurse will question the health care provider if a drug with a half-life (t ½) of more than 24 hours is ordered to be given more than how often? a. Once daily b. Every other day c. Twice weekly d. Once weekly
a
The patient develops a deep vein thrombosis post-operatively. Which medication does the nurse know is best for treatment of this problem? a. intravenous heparin b. enoxaparin c. vitamin k d. protamine sulfate
a
What is the primary use for butobarbital? a. Short-term treatment of insomnia b. Used as anesthesia for surgery c. Prevents seizures with epilepsy d. Long-term treatment of anxiety
a
A young-adult, female client is to start a tetracycline antibiotic for treatment of acne. What teaching points should the nurse include in the education provided to this client? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. This medication can make oral contraceptives less effective and some other form of birth-control is recommended to prevent pregnancy. b. Tetracycline antibiotics can cause birth defects in developing fetuses. c. Take on an empty stomach with a full glass of water, either 1 hour before meals or 2 hours after meals. d. Avoid sunlight and wear sunblock and protective clothing because this drug can increase the chance of severe sunburns, also known as, a photosensitive reaction. e. Complete the full course of therapy, as prescribed. f. Take at the same time as a glass of buttermilk or yogurt to prevent superinfection
a,b,c,d,e
An adolescent is newly prescribed phenytoin. What information should the nurse provide in the teaching plan to the client and the parents? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. Brush and floss your teeth at least twice very day. b. Have dental exams done twice per year. c. Take the drug as close to the same time every day, if possible. d. Drug levels will be monitored periodically throughout therapy. e. Pad the corners of tables and try to clear any clutter that can cause harm if patient were to fall and have seizure f. This drug will make you more alert and awake and it will help increase your focus in school
a,b,c,d,e
What information about side effects of simvastatin should the nurse include in client teaching? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. "Right upper quadrant pain and tenderness can be a symptom of liver damage." b. "Muscle pain and tenderness can be a sign of muscle breakdown." c. "Periodically while on this medication, the health care provider will monitor your liver enzymes to assess for liver damage." c. "Dark, tea colored urine can be a symptom of liver damage." e. "Sudden weight loss and weakness can be a sign of muscle breakdown."
a,b,c,d,e
A child is diagnosed with ADHD and is to start taking methylphenidate by mouth. What education should the nurse provide to the parents and child about this medication? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. Weigh the child 2 times per week to monitor for weight loss associated with methylphenidate b. Report fast heart rate to health care provider as this can be a serious adverse effect c. Take before breakfast and lunch d. Increase intake of caffeine to decrease need of methylphenidate e. Provide child with a nutritious breakfast as they may have decreased appetite for the rest of the day f. Take the last dose 2 hours before bedtime to help increase sleep at night.
a,b,c,e
The nurse is reviewing the client's medical record before providing discharge instructions. Find the information below: Admitting Diagnosis Dehydration Past Medical Diagnosis: Heart Failure, chronic stable angina, hypertension Discharge Medication Orders: digoxin 0.125 mg PO daily furosemide 40 mg PO BID at 0900 and 1700 metoprolol 25 mg PO daily isosorbide dinitrate 20 mg PO daily nitroglycerin 0.4 mg SL PRN chest pain. What information should the nurse include in the discharge instructions? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. Rise slowly, in stages, because metoprolol and isosorbide dinitrate can cause low blood pressure upon standing. b. Call 9-1-1 if pain is not relieved within 3 minutes of your first dose of nitroglycerin. c. Smoking cessation will help with disease management. d. If experiencing chest pain, place 1 nitroglycerin tablet under your tongue and allow it to dissolve; you may repeat up to 5 times, 3 minutes apart. e. Weigh yourself weekly to monitor for fluid retention and report a weight gain of more than 5 pounds. f. Store the nitroglycerin in original container,keeping it away from heat and moisture.
a,b,c,e,f
A nurse is teaching the client about EPS and is specifically discussing pseudoparkinsonism. What signs and symptoms should the nurse include in the education? Select all that apply. a. Stooped posture b. Shuffling gate c. Flaccid muscles d. Tremors at rest e. Tachykinesia
a,b,d
The nurse is administering vancomycin to a client. Which nursing interventions are appropriate? Monitor the client for _______. (Select all that apply) A. adequate hearing B. appropriate IV rate C. pseudomembranous colitis D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome E. hypotension and tachycardia F. redness of the face, neck, and chest
a,b,d,e,f
The antilipemic "statin" drug classification are commonly prescribed. What are some potential side effects? Select all that apply * a. Rhabdomyolysis b. Hepatotoxicity c. Respiratory depression d. Orthostatic hypotension e. Cataract formation
a,b,e
When providing education about antihypertensive medications. What information should the nurse provide to the patient that is true for ALL antihypertensive medications? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. "Check your blood pressure prior to taking your medication each morning." b. "Rise slowly from sitting to standing." c. "Increase potassium rich foods in diet." d. "Avoid grapefruit juice." e. "Avoid the use of salt substitutes." f. "Do not stop the medication abruptly."
a,b,f
A client is being discharged home with a new prescription for warfarin. What information should the nurse provide in the discharge teaching concerning this medication? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. "Keep your blood work appointments every 2-4 weeks once the therapeutic level of warfarin is reached" b. "Increase your intake of vitamin K in order to off-set the chance of bleeding with warfarin." c. "Use a soft bristle toothbrush to help prevent bleeding from your gums." d. "Use an electric shaver to help prevent bleeding from cuts from shaving." e. "Report any excessive bruising or bleeding to your health care provider."
a,c,d,e
A client is being discharged home with a new prescription for warfarin. What information should the nurse provide in the discharge teaching concerning this medication? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. "Keep your blood work appointments every 2-4 weeks once the therapeutic level of warfarin is reached" b. "Increase your intake of vitamin K in order to off-set the chance of bleeding with warfarin." c. "Use a soft bristle toothbrush to help prevent bleeding from your gums." d. "Use an electric shaver to help prevent bleeding from cuts from shaving." e."Report any excessive bruising or bleeding to your health care provider."
a,c,d,e
The nurse is administering levofloxacin to a client with a severe infection. What issues are included in the black box warning for this classification of drugs? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. Peripheral neuropathy b. Sudden cardiac arrest c. Achilles tendon rupture d. Exacerbation of myasthenia gravis e. CNS effects
a,c,d,e
The nurse is performing an admission history. The client reports having diarrhea and vomiting for 24 hrs. The temperature is 100.6 degrees F and the client has dry mucous membranes and tenting skin turgor. Which data is considered subjective data? a. diarrhea and vomiting b. temperature 100.6 degrees F c. dry mucous membranes d. tenting skin
a. diarrhea and vomiting
A client will be starting on a transdermal patch for treatment of chronic stable angina. What education should the nurse provide the client? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. Remove the old patch before applying the new patch b. Acceptable application sites include the forearm area, calf area, along with the torso c. Apply the patch at the same time each day d. Avoid saunas and hot tubs because these increase vasodilation e. Cleanse the previous patch site to prevent irritation f. Do not apply the patch to the same location every day.
a,c,d,e,f
A client with tuberculosis will be starting on isoniazid, rifampin, and kanamycin for the initial phase of treatment. What education should the nurse provide this client? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. Take the medications exactly as prescribed to help prevent multi-drug resistant tuberculosis b. These anti-tubercular drugs will only be administered for about 7 days. c. Isoniazid and rifampin can cause liver damage, avoid acetaminophen and alcohol while on these medications. d. Because isoniazid depletes vitamin B6, peripheral neuropathy can occur, and any numbness or tingling should be reported. e. Rifampin can cause discoloration of body fluids, which can stain clothing and soft contact lenses. f. Kanamycin can cause kidney and ear toxicity, therefore, report decreased urine output or hearing or balance disturbances.
a,c,d,e,f
What are the side effects associated with amlodipine (calcium channel blocker)? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. Bradycardia b. Diarrhea c. Flushing d. Reflex tachycardia e. Hypotension f. Ankle edema
a,c,d,e,f
The nurse administered epinephrine to a client with a severe case of angioedema related to administration of ACE inhibitors. What side effects should the nurse monitor for in this client? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. Impaired renal tissue perfusion b. Bradycardia c. Urinary retention d. Agitation e. Palpitations f. Hypotension g. Tremors
a,c,d,e,g
If you take metronidazole with alcohol you will experience which of the following symptoms (select all that apply). * a. flushing b. mottling c. throbbing headache d. urine discoloration e. tachycardia f. shortness of breath g. dizziness
a,c,e
Select all of the black box warning for the fluoroquinolone drug class. * a. Achille's Tendon Rupture b. QT Prolongation c. Nephrotoxicity d. Exacerbation of Myasthenia Gravis e. Peripheral Neuropathy f. CNS Effects g. Crystalluria h. Tinnitus
a,d,e,f
What factor has the most impact on the pharmacokinetic phase of absorption? a. an elevated gastric pH b. low albumin c. liver dz (hepatic) d. kidney dz (renal)
a. an elevated gastric pH
The client asks the nurse if they can crush all of their medications. Which medication will the nurse inform the client CANNOT be crushed? a. aspirin EC b. acetaminophen rapid rekease c, simvastatin d. diphenhydramine hcl
a. aspirin EC
What do you first if you make medication error? a. assess the client for any adverse effects b. report the error to the risk management depart. c. contact the healthcare provider d. document using accurate objective information
a. assess the client for any adverse effects
What action best matches the assessment phase of the nursing practice? a. counting the apical pulse before giving a dose of the medication b. teaching the client about their cardiac medication c. identifying "decreased cardiac output" as a client problem d. counting the apical pulse and checking the blood pressure after giving the dose of medication e. developing an outcome that the heart rate will be between 60-100 after giving the medication
a. counting the apical pulse before giving a dose of the medication
A patient on risperidone may be at increased risk for injury due to A. increased potential for aspiration due to sedation. B. increased risk for falls due to orthostatic hypotension. C. increased risk for infection due to neutropenia. D. increased risk for suicide due to changes in thought processes.
b
A patient with gout is prescribed colchicine. It is most important for the nurse to give which instruction to the patient? a. Increase vitamin C intake b. Avoid alcohol and caffeine c. Increase foods high in purines d. Take colchicine 2 hours before meals
b
A patient's serum lipids are cholesterol 197 mg/dL, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) 110 mg/dL, and high-density lipoprotein (HDL) 35 mg/dL. The nurse knows what about these values? a. Serum lipids are within desirable values. b. Cholesterol is within desirable value, but LDL and HDL are not. c. Cholesterol is not within desirable value, though LDL and HDL are. d. Cholesterol, LDL, and HDL are not within desirable values.
b
A young woman is being treated for psychosis with fluphenazine. Which sign would indicate the need to add an anticholinergic to the patient's medication regimen? A.A decrease in pulse and respiratory rate B. Facial grimacing and tongue spasms C. An increase in hallucinations D.A decrease in the patient's level of orientation
b
An 18-year-old has an external ear infection to be treated with eardrops. How will the nurse instruct the patient to angle the ear? a. down and back b. up and back/out c. down and forward d. up and forward
b
An older adult complains of insomnia. Which suggestion would be most appropriate for the nurse to provide as an initial method to deal with this issue? A. "Take Benadryl pills each evening before bedtime." B. "Drink warm milk or chamomile tea before bedtime." C. "Develop an exercise regimen for the evening hours." D. "Take naps during the day whenever you feel drowsy."
b
An older adult patient takes ibuprofen for arthritis pain. Which statement made by the patient is of most concern to the nurse? a. "I feel like I am coming down with a cold." b. "My stomach aches and burns." c. "I have a bad headache." d. "I feel dizzy when I get up fast."
b
Before administering a daily dose of phenytoin, it is most important for the nurse to A. maintain the patient on bed rest. B. check phenytoin levels. C. monitor intake and output. D. monitor renal function tests.
b
The Z-track method is the preferred method of administration for which drug? a. Vitamin B12 b. Iron Dextran c. Ondansetron d. Morphine
b
The nurse is about to administer a prescribed dose of metoprolol to a client with a cardiac dysrhythmia. What assessment data would be of most concern to the nurse? a. Past medication history of diabetes b. Heart rate at 50 beats per minutes. c. Past medical history of asthma d. Blood pressure 104/68 mm/Hg.
b
The patient is being discharged home on warfarin therapy. What information will the nurse include when teaching the patient? a. Results of activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) will determine if the medication is effective. b. International normalized ratio (INR) results should be between 2 to 3. c. A normal response to warfarin is for your stools to look tarry. d. Increase the amount of green leafy vegetables in your diet.
b
Upon assessment the nurse hears wheezing in all lung fields bilaterally. Which medication is most appropriate to administer? * a. guaifenesin b. albuterol c. dextromethorphan d. theophylline
b
What substance/drug is known to cause additive effects with methylphenidate? a. Dantrolene b. Caffeine c. Lorazepam d. Alcohol
b
When discussing dosage calculation for pediatric clients with a clinical pharmacist, the nurse notes that which type of dosage calculation is used most commonly in pediatric calculations? a. West nomogram b. Milligram per kilogram of body weight formula c. Height-to-weight ratio d. Clark rule
b
Which drug would the nurse administer for the treatment of a patient with hyperthyroidism? a. liothyronine sodium b. methimazole c. levothyroxine d. armour thyroid
b
Which nursing intervention is a high priority for the client who is taking cefepime? A. Wait until culture results are received before initiating antibiotic. B. Monitor the client for signs and symptoms of a superinfection. C. Administer IV cephalosporins over 2 hours to prevent phlebitis. D. Instruct the client to take the drug for 5 days only.
b
Which statement about amitriptyline does the nurse identify as being true? A. The drug is administered first thing in the morning. B. The drug should be discontinued slowly. C. The onset of antidepressant effect is 48 hours. D. Hypertension is a frequent side effect of this drug.
b
Which statement about transdermal drugs is true? a. Transdermal drugs are preferred because they exert only a local effect. b. Transdermal drugs provide more consistent blood levels than oral and injection forms. c. For maximum effectiveness, transdermal patches should be reapplied to the same location when reapplied. d. For maximum effectiveness, the skin should not be cleansed with soap once it has been exposed to a transdermal drug.
b
While performing medication reconciliation at discharge, the nurse notes that the client takes simvastatin 20 mg PO as a current home medication and the hospital physician has written a prescription for gemfibrozil. What potential adverse reaction can happen as a results of taking these medications concurrently? a. Low blood pressure b. Rhabdomyolysis c. Liver damage d. Bleeding
b
A client is suspected to have cholinergic crisis. Which signs and symptoms will the nurse expect to find upon assessment? (Select all that apply) * a. Pupil dilation b. Pupil constriction c. Salivation d. Urination e. Dry Skin f. Flushed Skin
b,c,d
The nurse is providing education to a client being discharge on digoxin. What information should the nurse provide about symptoms to report to the healthcare provider? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. Blood pressure of 100/60 mm/Hg b. Weight gain of 5 pounds in 2 days c. Visual disturbances of yellow, green, or purple halos d. Shortness of breath and worsening ankle edema e. Heart rate greater than 120 beats per minute
b,c,d,e
The nurse is providing discharge education to an older adult client who will be on 5 prescription drugs. What physiologic changes in the older adult population put this client at risk for drug interactions? Select All That Apply a. Gastric pH is decreased b. Glomerular Filtration Rate is decreased c. Protein production by the liver is decreased d. Fat content is increased e. Blood flow to the gastrointestinal tract is reduced f. Number of working nephrons is decreased g. Medication cost is increased
b,c,d,e,f
A client is newly prescribed clopidogrel to prevent clots from forming on an implanted cardiac stent. What information should the nurse provide the patient concerning this medication? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. "You must go get lab work drawn every 2-4 weeks while on this medication." b. "Notify any surgeon or dentist that you are on clopidogrel prior to any procedure." c. "Avoid the use of ibuprofen and naproxen as this can increase the chance of bleeding." d. "Limit your intake of green leafy vegetables." e. "Report any dark, tarry stools to your health care provider."
b,c,e
A client has been diagnosed with myasthenia gravis and is placed on pyridostigmine. Thirty minutes after taking the first dose of medication, the nurse suspects cholinergic crisis. What clinical manifestations would the nurse identify as being potential symptoms of cholinergic crisis? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. Confusion b. Miosis c. Diaphoresis d. Mydriasis e. Excessive salivation f. Lacrimation
b,c,e,f
What factor has the most impact on the pharmacokinetic phase of distribution? a. an elevated gastric pH b. low albumin c. liver dz (hepatic) d. kidney dz (renal)
b. low albumin
What action best matches the implementation phase of the nursing process? a. counting the apical pulse before giving a dose of the medication b. teaching the client about their cardiac medication c. identifying "decreased cardiac output" as a client problem d. developing an outcome that the heart rate will be between 60-100 after giving the medication e. counting the apical pulse and checking the blood pressure after giving the dose of medication
b. teaching the client about their cardiac medication
The nurse is administering a viscous (thick) medication. What additional step must be added? a. pull the skin taut b. wait 10 seconds before removing the needle after the injection c. don gloves d. insert the needle at 90 degree angle using a dart-like motion
b. wait 10 sec before removing the needle after the injeciton
I am a drug classification, use the following riddle to solve who I am. I stimulate GABA receptors. If you take me, you shouldn't drive tractors. Don't add me to your alcohol at happy hour or you will strengthen my power. I stop seizures when they happen. I send your anxiety packin'. I can be used to help you sleep, so lay down and count some sheep. Who am I? Enter your answer in all lower case (remember, enter the drug classification)
benzodiazepines
A client is prescribed buspirone for anxiety. What is the reason that buspirone is chosen over a benzodiazepine in the treatment for anxiety? a. It is not metabolized with the CYP 450 system b. It has no known interactions with herbal supplements c. It has less physical and psychological dependency issues d. It does not have any severe adverse reactions
c
A client with pneumonia is prescribed levofloxacin and ondansetron. The client has a history of cardiovascular disease. Based on this information, what action should the nurse take? a. Auscultate lung sounds b. Check the blood pressure c. Apply a heart monitor d. Count the apical pulse
c
A nurse who is administering atorvastatin calcium realizes the importance of monitoring for which serious adverse reaction? a. pharyngitis b. rash/pruritus c. rhabdomyolysis d. agranulocytosis
c
A patient is experiencing status epilepticus. The nurse anticipates administration of which drug initially? A. Phenobarbital B. Valproic acid C. Diazepam D. Phenytoin
c
A patient is receiving dextromethorphan. The nurse knows the drug is exerting its therapeutic effect when the patient experiences a. thinning of secretions b. bronchodilation c. decreased coughing d. relief of nasal congestion
c
A patient is scheduled to receive gemfibrozil. It is most important for the nurse to assess for concurrent use of which medication? a. acetaminophen b. ibuprofen c. warfarin d. folic acid
c
A patient is using a glucocorticoid inhaler. The patient asks the nurse why he has to rinse his mouth out after using the glucocorticoid inhaler. The nurse should inform the patient that rinsing the mouth is done to a. avoid mucous membrane breakdown b. increase hydration of the oral mucosa c. decrease risk of infection d. slow the development of cavities
c
A patient received atropine as a preoperative medication 30 minutes ago. The nurse evaluates the medication as effective if the patient states, A. "I feel like I need to throw up." B. "I need to urinate." C. "My mouth feels dry." D. "I have a headache."
c
A patient was discharged 3 days ago on phenytoin therapy for seizure disorder. The patient comes to the emergency department experiencing seizures. What will be of most value to determine the etiology of the returned seizures? A. A CT scan B. An EEG C. Serum phenytoin levels D. Serum electrolytes
c
A young female client of child-bearing age with hypertension is started on losartan. What information about family planning should the nurse include in the teaching plan? a. "Losartan is a common medication used for hypertension in pregnant women, but fetal growth should be monitored." b. "Losartan interacts with oral birth-control pills, making them less effect. Be sure to use a secondary birth control option." c. "Losartan can cause birth defects in the developing fetus and should be stopped prior to becoming pregnant if possible." d. "Losartan is ineffective in controlling blood pressure in pregnancy and should be stopped prior to pregnancy for this reason."
c
An older-adult client is started on zolpidem for sleep while in the acute care setting. What action is most important for the nurse to implement after administering the first dose? * a. Teach the client to avoid alcohol while on zolpidem b. Ensure client safety by turning on the bed exit device (alarm) c. Teach the client to rise slowly in stages while on zolpidem d. Restrain the client by raising all 4 side-rails on the bed
c
Before administering an MAO inhibitor, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient's A. sexual history. B. socioeconomic status. C. dietary intake. D. hydration status.
c
The nurse identifies which of the following as a common side effect/adverse effect of morphine therapy? a. Diarrhea b. Hypertension c. Urinary Retention d. Tachypnea
c
The nurse is providing education to a patient prescribed levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. What symptom should the nurse teach the patient to report to the HCP immediately? a. dizziness b. nausea c. palpitations d. abdominal cramps
c
The nurse realizes more medication teaching is necessary when the 30-year-old patient taking lorazepam states A. "I must stop drinking coffee and colas." B. "I drinking alcoholic beverages." C. "I should stop this drug after 3 weeks if I feel better." D. "I must stop not become pregnant while taking this drug."
c
What medication can cause a fatal drop in blood pressure if taken with nitroglycerin? a. Amlodipine b. Carvedilol c. Sildenafil d. Digoxin
c
What required concentration of pantoprazole and how fast should it be administered by intravenous route? * a. 4 mg/10mL; 5 minutes b. 40 mg/ 100 mL; 30 minutes c. 4 mg/mL; 2 minutes
c
Which laboratory test is most important for the nurse to monitor when a patient is receiving lithium? A. Urinalysis B. Serum glucose C. Serum electrolytes D. Complete blood count
c
Which of the following laboratory values requires the closest monitoring with isoniazid therapy? * a. CBC b. BUN and creatinine c. AST/ALT d. Hemoglobin A1C
c
Which statement by a patient indicates that more teaching on phenothiazine therapy for the treatment of psychosis is needed? A. "It might take 6 weeks or more for the drug to take effect." B. "I will get up slowly from a seated position." C. "When I start to feel better, I will cut the dose of my medication in half." D. "I will avoid exposure to direct sunlight."
c
While preparing to give amphotericin B to a client who is also receiving dexamethasone, which electrolyte imbalance is the client is at increased risk for due to this drug combination? * a. Hypoglycemia b. Hyponatremia c. Hypokalemia d. Hypocalcemia
c
Your client is prescribed lisinopril and is experiencing the symptoms shown below. Which priority problem is your client at risk of experiencing? * a. Visual disturbances b. Chapped lips c. Impaired airway d. Orthostatic hypotension
c
I am used to treat type II diabetes. I must be held 48 hours before and after surgery. I can cause lactic acidosis and a lot of gastrointestinal symptoms. Client's creatinine clearance must be greater than 30mL/min in order to receive me
metformin
Which components of pharmacokinetics does the nurse need to understand before administering a drug? (select all that apply) a. Drugs with smaller volume of drug distribution have a longer half-life. b. Oral drugs are dissolved through the process of pinocytosis. c. Patients with kidney disease may have fewer protein-binding site and are at risk for drug toxicity. d. Rapid absorption decreases the bioavailability of the drug. e. When the drug metabolism rate is decreased, excess drug accumulation can occur, which can cause toxicity
c, e
A client is taking piperacillin- tazobactam (Zosyn). Which nursing interventions are most appropriate for this drug? (Select all that apply.) a. Usually given with an aminoglycoside. b. Send specimen to lab for C&S before antibiotic therapy is started. c. Instruct client to take entire prescribed drug. d. Instruct client to restrict fluid intake. e. Monitor for symptoms of superinfection
c,e
How can a nurse help prevent errors that result because of failed communication? a. ask the charge nurse to verify all orders b. use abbreviations as often as possible c. clarify any unclear orders with the healthcare provider d. use trailing zeros in all medication doses
c. clarify any unclear orders with the healthcare provider
A client is on a med that is metabolized through the cyp 450 system. if the client smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day. what will need to happen with the dosing of this medication? a. dose will need to be administered with an antacid b. dose will need to be decreased to avoid toxicity c. dose or frequency of dose will need to be increased to achieve therapeutic results d. dose will stay the same as nicotine does not impact the absorption or excretion
c. dose or frequency of dose will need to be increased to achieve therapeutic results
The nurse is assessing patency of an IV prior to administering a medication. The nurse pulls back on the plunger of the syringe and notes blood in the syringe. What should the nurse do next? a. remove the IV and restart the medication b. administer the medication c. flush the tubing with normal saline d. clamp the IV tubing just above the port you are using
c. flush the tubing with normal saline
What action best matches the diagnosis phase of the nursing practice? a. counting the apical pulse before giving a medication b. teaching the client about their cardiac medication c. identifying "decreased cardiac output" as a client problem d. developing an outcome that the heart rate will be between 60-100 after giving the medication e. counting the apical pulse and checking the blood pressure after giving the dose of medication
c. identifying "decreased cardiac output" as a client problem
What factor has the most impact on the pharmacokinetic phase of metabolism? a. an elevated gastric pH b. low albumin c. liver dz (hepatic) d. kidney dz (renal)
c. liver dz (hepatic)
A client is on a medication that is metabolized through the CYP 450 system. if the client drinks grape fruit juice what will happen with the pharmacokinetics of the medication? a. absorption will be delayed b. protein binding will be decreased c. metabolism will be decreased d. excretion will be increased
c. metabolism will be decreased
The client is to receive 3mL of an intramuscular medication. Which site should the nurse select for this injection? a. scapular area of the back b. vastus lateralis c. ventrogluteal d. deltoid
c. ventrogluteal
If you're allergic to penicillin, my first and second generations might get you itching. If you have a pre-existing renal condition your kidneys will be glitching. If you mix me with anticoagulants you might start bleeding and it's the infections I be treating. What drug class am I (enter your answer in all lowercase)? *
cephalosporins
A client has taken several doses of intravenous gentamicin for a severe infection and is scheduled for another dose this morning. The client is unsteady while walking to the bathroom this morning and complains of having some trouble hearing the nurse. The nurse notes that this is new behavior from what was shared in shift report. What action should the nurse implement? a. Contact the health care provider and request an order for the gentamicin to be discontinued b. Request a physical therapy consultation to help with balance and gait training c. Administer the scheduled dose on time to help maintain a steady state of the gentamicin d. Contact the health care provider and request trough level before giving the scheduled dose
d
A client is prescribed alprazolam for anxiety. What is the most important information for the nurse to provide when providing education to the client? a. Take this medication whenever you feel anxious b. You can quit attending your support group now that you have medication c. Take this medication every day on scheduled basis d. Avoid drinking alcohol when you take a dose of your medication
d
A client is receiving vancomycin and experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure and increase in heart rate. The nurse also notes that the client is red on their face, neck and chest. What is the best action by the nurse? a. Contact the health care provider since the patient is sensitive to the vancomycin b. Administer 0.3 mg of intravenous epinephrine to combat this anaphylactic reaction c. Elevate the lower extremities to help raise the blood pressure to a normal value d. Decrease the rate of infusion as this is a known reaction to rapid vancomycin infusions
d
A client with seasonal allergies takes diphenhydramine at bedtime to help their symptoms. The client becomes hyperactive and is unable to sleep. What type of reaction is the client experiencing? a. Hypersensitivity reaction b. Idiosyncratic reaction c. Adverse drug reaction d. Paradoxical reaction
d
A nurse has been teaching a patient about levothyroxine. Which side effect should the nurse teach may occur? a. somnolence b. bradycardia c. constipation d. nervousness
d
A nurse is planning to administer an intradermal injection to a patient. Which represents the appropriate technique for this route? a. 21-gauge needle at 33 degrees b. 20-gauge needle at 90 degrees c. 23-gauge needle at 45 degrees d. 26-gauge needle at 15 degrees
d
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease asks the nurse what the albuterol he is taking does. The nurse should inform the patient that albuterol is used to a. mobilize respiratory secretions. b. decrease the cough response. c. increase the work of breathing. d. dilate the larger airways.
d
A patient with reactive depression is ordered to receive fluoxetine. Which information will the nurse include when teaching this patient? A. The medication takes effect in 1 week. B. The medication increases libido. C. The medication should be taken with grapefruit juice. D. The medication may cause headaches and insomnia.
d
An older-adult client who has renal failure asks you if they can take milk of magnesia for constipation once a day. What is your best response? * a. You can do this, but milk of magnesia is more hash than many other laxatives b. Why are you dependent on a laxative? Drink more fluids, eat more fiber, and walk more. c. It is not necessary for you to have a bowel movement every day d. Taking milk of magnesia frequently can cause high levels of magnesium
d
Assessment findings for a patient with neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) include A. bradycardia. B. hypothermia. C. muscle weakness. D. rhabdomyolysis.
d
Before administering diphenhydramine to a patient, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for a history of a. allergy to PCN b. hypertension c. diabetes mellitus type 2 d. narrow-angle glaucoma
d
Prior to administering hydromorphone for pain, what priority assessment should the nurse complete? * a. BP b. pupil reaction c. HR d. RR
d
The nurse is caring for an infant with oral thrush whose medications include nystatin suspension 5 mL PO QID. Which action should the nurse take when administering this medication? * a. Dilute the medication in 30 mL of water and provide it to the infant in a bottle b. Dip a pacifier into the medication and allow the infant to suck on the pacifier c. Use a needleless syringe to gently squirt small amounts into the infant's mouth d. Use a cotton swab to coat the inside of the infant's cheeks, gums, and tongue
d
What priority assessment should the nurse complete prior to administering a dose of carvedilol? * a. Respiratory rate b. Blood sugar c. Daily weight d. Apical pulse
d
What would indicate to the nurse that a patient taking a sedative-hypnotic requires more teaching? A. The patient wants to listen to music on the radio. B. The patient has saved her urine to be measured. C. The patient says she has taken 1800 mL of fluid today. D. The patient requests a cup of kava kava tea to help with relaxation.
d
Which nursing intervention would be most appropriate for a patient taking temazepam? A. Monitor for fever. B. Give drug intravenously only. C. Monitor daily weights. D. Tell patient to ask for help before standing.
d
Which teaching by the nurse has highest priority for the client taking azithromycin? A. Instruct the client to use sunblock and protective clothing during sun exposure. B. Instruct the client to store the drug out of light and extreme heat. C. Inform parents that children younger than 8 years should not take the drug, to avoid tooth discoloration. D. Instruct the client to report any loose stools or diarrhea.
d
Hocus pocus, I can't focus. Reading is hard, so let's play in the yard. I am no fool but I struggle in school. I seem hyperactive but I'm non-productive. What medication should I take? *
methylphenidate
The nurse is to administer medications to a client with a nasogastric tube. What action should the nurse implement when administering the medications? a. flush with 8 ounces of water after the last medication b. use a small bore syringe and push forcefully on the plunger c. crush all medications into fine powder, including XR, ER, EC, and SR d. administer each medication individually
d. administer each medication individually
What action best matches the planning phase of the nursing process? a. counting the apical pulse before giving a dose of the medication b. teaching the client about their cardiac medication c. identifying "decreased cardiac output" as a client problem d. developing an outcome that the heart rate will be between 60-100 after giving the medication e. counting the apical pulse and checking the blood pressure after giving the dose of medication
d. developing an outcome that the heart rate will be between 60-100 after giving the medication
What factor has the most impact on the pharmacokinetic phase of excretion? a. an elevated gastric pH b. low albumin c. liver dz (hepatic) d. kidney dz (renal)
d. kidney dz
An infant needs nasal drops instilled. how will the nurse clear the nasal passages? a. ask the mother to pick the infants nose b. instruct the client to blow their nose c. use a tissue to wipe as many secretions as possible d. suction the nasal passages using a bulb syringe
d. suction the nasal passages using a bulb syringe
Calcium carbonate can cause increased calcium, which means that it will cause the phosphorous level to be ________.
decreased
For clients younger than 2, the correct technique for administering otic drops is to pull the ear outward and _______, however, for clients older than 2 years old, the ear should be pulled outward and _________ instead. (Enter answer in all lowercase letters, with a single space in between words). *
downward, upward
What action best matches the evaluation phase of the nursing process? a. counting the apical pulse before giving a dose of the medication b. teaching the client about their cardiac output c. identifying "decreased cardiac output" as a client problem d. developing an outcome that the heart rate will be between 60-100 after giving the medication e. counting the apical pulse and checking the blood pressure after giving the dose of medication
e. counting the apical pulse and checking the blood pressure after giving the dose of medication
The nurse administered 500mg of acetaminophen instead of the prescribed 365mg. Which right of the medication administration did the nurse NOT follow in this situation? a. right route b. right documentation c. right patient d. right time e. right dose f. right medication
e. right dose
A client's vancomycin trough results at 6 mcg/mL. The nurse assesses the level and determines it to be therapeutic. * T or F
f
A generic name is the proprietary name and is generally written with a capital first letter. T or F
f
Antiretroviral therapy will completely cure HIV infections. * t or f
f
Clavulanate is a medication and can be given alone to treat infection. True or False? *
f
SSRI's and SNRI's are the newer antidepressants and do not share the black box warning of suicide that the FDA provided for the older antidepressants. * T or F
f
The client is prescribed 20 mg of furosemide PO daily. The nurse administered 20 mg of furosemide intravenously this morning. Which right of medication administration did the nurse NOT follow in this situation? * a. Right Medication b. Right Documentation c. Right Dose d. Right Time e. Right Patient f. Right Route
f
A client is brought into the emergency department unresponsive. The family found the patient with an empty bottle of alprazolam. If it is determined to be necessary, what is the appropriate antidote in this situation? (enter the generic name in lower case letters) *
flumazenil
What would happen if a client prescribed phenelzine were to eat foods that contain tyramine? (Hint: two words, enter lower case letters only, one space between words). *
hypertensive crisis
If the client experiences NMS, the medication should be stopped_______; however, for EPS, the medication should be ______ ______ (Hint: Write each word in lower case letters) *
immediately tapered off
I am a synthetic hormone. I should be taken on an empty stomach first thing in the morning. I am dosed in micrograms. My most dangerous adverse effects are cardiovascular. My half life is VERY LONG. What drug am I?
levothyroxine
The main way to distinguish between acute dystonia and tardive dyskinesia is the _______ of symptoms in relation to starting the anti-psychotic drug. Acute dystonia occurs within ______ to _______, while tardive dyskinesia occurs after a ______ or more of treatment. (Hint, use lower case letters for all words, one space between each word) *
onset days weeks year
I am used to treat the flu, you must take me within 48 hours of when you started to feel like poo. I do not replace the flu shot I am only used if it's is the flu you got. What drug am I (enter your answer in all lowercase letters)? *
oseltamivir
Fill in the blank with the correct answer: Cholinergic medications ________ the parasympathetic nervous system while anticholinergic medications________ the parasympathetic. Enter your answer in all lower case letters, with a single space in-between *
stimulate inhibit
I fight gram negative bacteria. When your clients take me they'll want to avoid the sun. I can cause crystals in your client's urine so you'll teach them to drink 2 liters of fluid every day. You will need to monitor your client's CBC and LFTs if they are taking me. What drug class am I?
sulfonamides
Clients on ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-II receptor-blockers, and potassium sparing diuretics need to avoid salt substitute and avoid food that are high in potassium. These medications can raise the potassium level. T or F
t
If the anticonvulsant drug level is below the therapeutic levels, the client is at risk for having seizures. * T or F
t
True or False: Promethazine blocks dopamine, which means it can cause EPS.
t
When giving a subcutaneous injection, you should use an insertion angle of 45-90 degrees. * T or F
t
I am a broad spectrum antibiotic. When you take me avoid the sun, or you'll get a burn. If you take me and you're under 8, a weird color your teeth will turn. If you take me with dairy my absorption will be decreased if you take me while pregnant your baby will be deceased. What drug class am I? (hint: enter your answer in all lower case). *
tetracyclines