Exam 14

Research Design and Statistics 98. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of a repeated measures design? A multicollinearity B autocorrelation C practice effects D carryover effects

ANSWER "A" A "repeated measures" design, sometimes referred to as a "within-subjects design," uses more than one measurement of a given variable for each subject. For example, longitudinal studies and pre-test/post-test designs measure the same subjects multiple times. These designs have several disadvantages including: "Autocorrelation" (B), which means that observations obtained close together in time from the same subjects tend to be highly correlated. This violates the independence of observations assumption made by statistical tests. "Practice effects" (C), "carryover effects" (D), and "order effects" all refer to systematic changes in subjects' performance due to prior exposure to a treatment condition or measurement. However, multicollinearity (A) refers to a problem associated with multiple regression which occurs when two or more predictors are highly correlated with each other.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 75. The notion that reinforcement is not necessary for learning and that learning does not always manifest in performance is referred to as: A latent learning B place learning C observational learning D insight learning

ANSWER "A" A. According to Tolman's Cognitive Learning Theory, learning is the result of conditioning and cognitive understanding. The acquisition of cognitive structures or cognitive maps underlies the concept of latent learning or learning that occurs without reinforcement and does not immediately manifest in behavior. Place learning (b.) refers to Tolman's description of learning places or paths instead of a series of movements in response to specific stimuli. Observational learning (c.) refers to learning through watching a model behave and then imitating the modeled behavior. Insight learning (d.) is an "a-ha!" experience or a sudden novel solution, which Kohler saw as the result of a sudden internal cognitive restructuring of the environment.

Neuropsychology 6. Which of the following is the most frequently used scale to measure orientation? A Galveston Orientation and Amnesia Test B Gollingberg Orientation and Awareness Test C Gross Orientation and Awareness Test D Global Orientation and Amnesia Test

ANSWER "A" A. The Galveston Orientation and Amnesia Test (GOAT), which assesses temporal orientation primarily, was developed to serially evaluate cognition during the subacute stage of recovery from closed head injury. The scale measures orientation to person, place, and time, and memory for events preceding and following the injury. (See: Levin, H.S., O'Donnell, V.M., & Grossman, R.G. (1975). The Galveston orientation and amnesia test: A practical scale to assess cognition after head injury. Journal of Nervous and Mental Diseases, 167, 675-684.) .

Clinical Psychology 89. A student seeks counseling at the university counseling center due to feelings of failure as a student. When asked about his grades, he states that his grade point average is 3.9 but thinks that he should be doing better. He is most likely using which of the following cognitive distortions? A arbitrary inference B overgeneralization C personalization D dichotomous thinking

ANSWER "A" Arbitrary inference occurs when one draws a specific conclusion without supporting evidence, or even in the face of contradictory evidence. This best applies to the student in this question. Despite having a nearly perfect GPA, the student believes he's a failure and should be doing better. Overgeneralization (B) is the application of a general rule based on a few isolated incidents. Personalization (C) is attributing external events to oneself without evidence of a causal connection. And dichotomous thinking (D) is categorizing experiences into one of two extremes.

Neuropsychology 45. The Acute phase of Antidepressant treatment is generally A 4 to 6 weeks B 4-9 months C 6-12 months D 2 years to lifetime

ANSWER "A" Barry Pierce, M.D. considers 4-6 weeks the Acute phase for antidepressant treatment. The Continuation phase which is used to prevent a relapse is 4-9 months and the Maintenance phase to prevent recurrent episodes is 2 years to lifetime. (Barry Pierce M.D. "Psychopharmacology from A to Z", r cassidy seminars, Santa Rosa, California 1999.).

Clinical Psychology 48. In brief psychodynamically-oriented therapy: A positive transferences are encouraged and are viewed as essential to treatment progress. B positive and negative transferences are encouraged early in treatment to ensure that a transference neurosis develops. C positive and negative transferences are both discouraged because of the here-and-now focus of the treatment. D negative transferences are encouraged because they are more likely than positive transferences to produce useful information for interpretation.

ANSWER "A" Brief and long-term psychodynamic psychotherapy share a number of characteristics. A primary difference is that, in brief psychotherapy, a full-scale transference neurosis is discouraged. However, positive transference is seen as an important contributor to therapy progress.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 11. In order to decrease job turnover, an interviewer should: A Rely on biodata B Rely on cognitive testing C Hire only older people D Rely on an interest inventory

ANSWER "A" Cognitive tests are the most valid predictors of job performance across jobs and settings-and job performance would include job continuity. However, biodata is particularily useful for predicting turnover. In the specific area of predicting turnover, biodata has been found to have validity coefficients of .77 and .79 for predicting the turnover of whites and African-Americans respectively (Cascio 1976). Hunter and Hunter (1984) report an average validity coefficient of .53 when cognitive tests are used to predict performance ratings and .75 when they are used to predict performance on a work sample.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 82. Medical treatment regimens for chronic illness most often results in: A greater compliance for children as compared to adolescents B greater compliance for adolescents as compared to children C equal compliance for children and adolescents D greater compliance for girls and adolescent females as compared to boys and adolescent males

ANSWER "A" Compliance with medical treatment regimens, such as those designed to manage diabetes, tends to be lower for adolescents as compared to children or adults. There are many reasons for this, including adolescents' greater desire to be similar to their peers and independent from the restrictions of their parents.

Social Psychology 66. A man who is very shy goes out with a friend. Suddenly, a crowd breaks out into a riot and the man becomes very aggressive. This is an example of A deindividuation. B social power. C social comparison. D reactance.

ANSWER "A" Deindividuation, which occurs under conditions of anonymity, refers to the loss of a person's identity and a loosening of normal restraints against deviant behavior. It has been offered as an explanation for mob violence, and it describes what is happening in the question. Social power (B) refers to the means by which a person is influenced by another (i.e., expert, legitimate, reward, coercive, or referent power). Here, the person is being influenced by a crowd rather than another individual, so deindividuation is a more accurate term. Social comparison (C) refers to the process by which we evaluate our opinions and abilities by comparing them to those of others. Reactance (D) refers to the theory that a person will react against perceived threats to freedom by choosing a course of action that is the opposite of what he or she is being pressured to do.

Clinical Psychology 77. Beck identified a number of cognitive distortions including the tendency to focus solely on a detail that is taken out of context. He termed this: A Selective abstraction B Overgeneralization C Personalization D Dichotomous thinking

ANSWER "A" Focusing solely on a detail is an example of selective abstraction. Overgeneralization is abstracting a general rule from one or two situations and then broadly applying it to other situations. Personalization is attributing external events to oneself without evidence of a causal correlation. Dichotomous thinking is categorizing experiences in one of two extremes.

Developmental Psychology 2. The realization that gender is unaffected by superficial changes in appearance or activity is referred to as: A gender constancy B gender stability C gender identity D ego-dystonic transvestism

ANSWER "A" Gender concept develops in a predictable sequence of stages during childhood. The first stage is known as "gender identity," which is the ability to categorize self and others as male or female. There is evidence that gender identity develops as early as 9 months or as late as 3 years, depending on how the researchers define it. The next stage, which develops by 4 years of age, is "gender stability," which is an understanding that one's gender does not change over time. The final stage is known as "gender constancy," which is characterized by an understanding that gender stays the same despite changes in appearance. Gender constancy is achieved by age 5 or 6.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 87. Holland's social type is most similar to which other one of his types? A artistic B investigative C realistic D conventional

ANSWER "A" Holland's theory categorizes individuals based on their resemblance to six personality types: realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional (you can remember the sequence as "RIASEC"). The personality types reflect a person's primary interest, or an environment's primary characteristic; for example, the social type enjoys working with others and avoids ordered, systematic activities that involve tools or machinery. There is overlap between the types, though some types overlap more than others. For example, the social type is relatively more similar to the artistic and enterprising types, and less similar to the realistic, investigative, and conventional types.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 12. According to current research, the best predictor(s) for alcoholism would be A family history of alcoholism. B environmental stresses and opportunities for observational learning. C interpersonal pressure and identifications. D age and SES.

ANSWER "A" If you wanted to find the best single predictor, you'd find out about alcoholism in the natural relatives of the patient. Even if the person is adopted away from the natural parents, the genetic connection is still the strongest one we have. So, when doing an initial assessment, you could ask about alcohol/drug abuse among family members. By the way, a good guess in answering any question structured as "the best predictor of (some disorder)" is "family history of that disorder." You won't be right 100% of the time, but you will be the majority of the time.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 42. Masters and Johnson found that their version of sex therapy, which incorporates education about sexuality, training in communication skills, and the technique known as sensate focus, is most effective for treating: A premature ejaculation. B impotence. C sexual aversion. D orgasmic disorder.

ANSWER "A" Masters and Johnson found that close to 100% of individuals with premature ejaculation were helped by their program which incorporated education about sexuality, improving communication, and sensate focus.

Developmental Psychology 78. Which of the following best reflects the research findings on stepparenting? A During late childhood and early adolescence males respond more positively to their stepfathers than do females. B During late childhood and early adolescence females respond more positively to their stepfathers than do males. C Stepfathers have more frequent contact with their stepchildren than do stepmothers. D Stepparents most often utilize an authoritative parenting style.

ANSWER "A" Most research has found that girls have more difficulty adjusting to their mother's remarriage than do boys. This is particularly the case during childhood and early adolescence. Older adolescent males, on the other hand, often continue to have problems with the adjustment. The reverse of choice C is true; that is, stepmothers typically have more frequent contact with their stepchildren than do stepfathers, although these interactions are often abrasive. And in contrast to choice D, stepparents have been found to rely heavily on authoritarian (rather than authoritative) parenting.

Test Construction 80. If you find that your job selection measure yields too many "false positives," what could you do to correct the problem? A raise the predictor cutoff score and/or lower the criterion cutoff score B raise the predictor cutoff score and/or raise the criterion cutoff score C lower the predictor cutoff score and/or raise the criterion cutoff score D lower the predictor cutoff score and/or lower the criterion cutoff score

ANSWER "A" On a job selection test, a "false positive" is someone who is identified by the test as successful but who does not turn out to be successful, as measured by a performance criterion. If you raise the selection test cutoff score, you will reduce false positives, since, by making it harder to "pass" the test, you will be ensuring that the people who do pass are more qualified and therefore more likely to be successful. By lowering the criterion score, what you are in effect doing is making your definition of success more lax. It therefore becomes easier to be considered successful, and many of the people who were false positives will now be considered true positives. If you understand concepts in pictures better than in words, refer to the Test Construction section, where a graph is used to explain this idea.

Clinical Psychology 67. Which of the following statements is true regarding electromyograph (EMG) biofeedback? A It is more effective in treating tension headaches than migraine headaches. B It is more effective in treating migraine headaches than tension headaches. C It is equally effective in treating tension headaches and migraine headaches. D It is ineffective in treating tension and migraine headaches.

ANSWER "A" Overall, biofeedback works equally well for tension and migraine headaches. However, a different modality of biofeedback is used for each of these conditions. EMG biofeedback, in which the person is trained to decrease muscle tension of the facial and/or neck muscles, is the most commonly used modality for biofeedback treatment of tension headaches; this is why A is the best answer. For migraine headaches, thermal hand warming biofeedback, whereby the person is trained to warm his or her hands, is the most commonly used modality.

Developmental Psychology 18. According to Jerry Patterson and associates the families of highly aggressive boys are characterized by: A coercive interactions and poor parental monitoring B Coercive interactions and high parental monitoring C Low interaction and low parental monitoring D Excessive television viewing

ANSWER "A" Patterson, Chamberlin and Reid 1982 "A Comparative evaluation of a parent-training program" Behavior Therapy, 13(5) 638-650 proposed a coercive family interaction model. It hypothesized that children first learn aggressive behaviors from their parents. These parents also use harsh discipline and reward their children's aggressiveness with attention and approval. As a result, the aggressiveness of the parent-child interaction continues to escalate.

Social Psychology 71. A high achiever would most likely attribute failures to A internal, unstable, and controllable factors. B internal, stable, and uncontrollable factors. C external, stable, and controllable factors. D external, unstable, and uncontrollable factors.

ANSWER "A" Research by Weiner and others has suggested that people who have high expectations for future performance (such as high achievers) tend to attribute their failure to a lack of effort. Effort is an internal, unstable, and controllable factor. Most research suggests that of these dimensions, stability is the most important in expectations for future achievement. The idea is that, if you attribute failure to an unstable cause, you must expect that you will not fail in most situations.

Developmental Psychology 49. An infant is least likely to experience emotional distress due to being separated from his or her parents if the infant is between the ages of: A 0-8 months. B 8-12 months. C 12-16 months. D 16-24 months.

ANSWER "A" Separation anxiety typically has its onset at 8 months of age, rises dramatically until the age of 18 months, and then gradually falls off until it becomes negligible between the ages of 24-36 months. Babies between the ages of 0-8 months do not typically protest when separated from their primary caretakers, even though a number of attachment behaviors develop during this time.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 4. Which of the following is NOT considered a disability according to the Americans with Disabilities Act? A Gender Identity Disorder B Paraplegia C Schizophrenia D Generalized Anxiety Disorder

ANSWER "A" The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 prohibits employers from discriminating against a qualified individual based on his or her disability. The ADA defines a disability as "a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of the major life activities" of an individual. However, it specifically excludes certain conditions including: transvestism, transsexualism, pedophilia, exhibitionism, voyeurism, gender identity disorders not resulting from physical impairments, or other sexual behavior disorders, compulsive gambling, kleptomania, pyromania, and psychoactive substance use disorders resulting from current illegal use of drugs. All of the other choices would, therefore, be considered a disability.

School Psychology/Intelligence 37. The concordance rate for IQ between children and adopted parents is around A .17. B .33. C .50. D .60.

ANSWER "A" The concordance rate for unrelated people living in a similar environment, into which category this question falls, is around .17. As the genetics get more similar, of course the rate increases, as you'd expect.

Ethics and Professional Practice 35. A psychologist is undertaking a research project in a high security prison on the effects of certain food additives on behavior. The prison population is surveyed, informed of the purposes of the study, and volunteers are sought. The volunteer participants are again explained the purpose of the study and are asked to give their written consent to be participants. Because of the nature of the study, its importance to the food industry and the governmental regulatory agency, and the need to keep as much control of the participants' food intake as is feasible, the participants are informed that, once they begin the study, they are expected to remain in it at least until the first evaluation period, six weeks from the beginning of the research program. They are told that they shouldn't agree to participate unless they are reasonably sure they can complete at least this initial phase. Those participants who then agree and give written consent are included in the study. According to APA's Ethical Principles, such a study: A should not be undertaken as the participants are not allowed to freely withdraw. B would be allowed only if the participants gave specific acknowledgment of their agreement to abide by the withdrawal arrangements. C is probably unethical because the prison research review committee did not also agree to the participation arrangements. D meets all research guidelines and can be undertaken.

ANSWER "A" The ethical standards require that research participants be allowed to withdraw from a study at any time. Hence the answer must be A.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 70. For women in general, the typical pattern of depression and dysfunctional physical symptoms accompanying a menstrual cycle is that: A there is no typical pattern. B the symptoms occur shortly before and terminate shortly after the onset of menses. C the symptoms occur shortly after the onset of menses. D the symptoms occur and terminate shortly before the onset of menses.

ANSWER "A" The key words in this question were "for women in general." You had to know that PMS is actually not typical of most women. While it is not uncommon for women to have mild psychological symptoms during the latter part of the luteal phase, there is no specific pattern typical of most women. Make sure you read each word in the question. You might want to use your pencil and point to each word as you read. This reduces the chance of missing something. If the question were about women who do suffer from PMS, the answer would be B.

Neuropsychology 10. A person who doesn't feel something they are touching probably has damage to: A Parietal lobe B Occipital lobe C Frontal lobe D Temporal lobe

ANSWER "A" The parietal lobe contains the somatosensory cortex. Its functions include the processing of touch-pressure, temperature, kinesthesia and pain.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 3. Research on gender differences in anxiety has most often found that: A females have more general anxiety than males B males have more general anxiety than females C females have more social and general anxiety than males D males have more social and general anxiety than females

ANSWER "A" The results of a meta-analysis on gender differences concluded that females (across all age groups) have a higher level of general anxiety than males. Males scored very slightly higher than females in level of social anxiety, although this difference was not significant (A. Feingold, Gender Differences in Personality: A Meta-Analysis. Psychological Bulletin, 1994, 116(3), 429-456).

Neuropsychology 91. The occipital lobe is to the temporal lobe as A vision is to hearing. B receptive language is to expressive language. C vision is to touch. D hearing is to smell.

ANSWER "A" The visual cortex, which is responsible for visual perception, recognition, and memory, is located in the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex. The auditory cortex, which is involved in the mediation of auditory sensation and perception, is located in the temporal lobe.

Test Construction 85. Discriminant and convergent validity are classified as examples of: A construct validity. B content validity C face validity. D concurrent validity.

ANSWER "A" There are many ways to assess the validity of a test. If we correlate our test with another test that is supposed to measure the same thing, we'll expect the two to have a high correlation; if they do, the tests will be said to have convergent validity. If our test has a low correlation with other tests measuring something our test is not supposed to measure, it will be said to have discriminant (or divergent) validity. Convergent and divergent validity are both types of construct validity.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 84. A client of yours is insensitive to criticism or approval, doesn't make eye contact during conversations, rarely smiles or frowns, didn't do well in school, and expresses little interest in a sexual relationship or marriage. These symptoms are most suggestive of A Schizoid Personality Disorder. B Schizotypal Personality Disorder. C Avoidant Personality Disorder. D Asperger's Disorder.

ANSWER "A" This client is exhibiting detachment from social relationships and a lack of emotional responsivity, which are the core features of Schizoid Personality Disorder. With Schizotypal Personality Disorder (answer B), there would be cognitive and perceptual disturbances and eccentricities in behavior; with Avoidant Personality Disorder, the client would express a desire for relationships but avoid them due to fear of criticism and humiliation. For a diagnosis of Asperger's Disorder (answer D), there would have to be more severe social impairment and the presence of stereotyped behaviors.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 95. A child is reinforced for cleaning up her room and for doing homework. Reinforcement for the homework is stopped. One could predict that cleaning up will: A increase and doing homework will decrease. B decrease and doing homework will also decrease. C increase and doing homework will increase. D decrease and doing homework will increase.

ANSWER "A" This question has to do with the behavioral contrast effect. If we are reinforced for performing two different operants, and reinforcement for one of these behaviors stops, we tend to increase the rate of the remaining reinforced behavior. That is probably because the reinforcement that remains seems to become more valuable.

Social Psychology 31. When a group of people is attempting to develop solutions to problems using brainstorming, the resulting ideas, as compared to those generated by individuals working alone, are A fewer and of lower quality. B greater and of better quality. C fewer but of better quality. D greater but not necessarily of better quality.

ANSWER "A" This question references research about brainstorming, a technique in which people in a group are encouraged to generate all the ideas they can, without worrying about evaluation or censure. This technique is generally not too effective; it typically produces fewer ideas and the quality is poorer.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 63. A client who claims that the disk jockey on a local rock n'roll radio station is speaking directly to him most likely: A is experiencing a systematized delusion. B is experiencing a delusion of reference. C is experiencing a persecutory delusion. D has heard the same song over and over again on the local "classic rock" station one too many times.

ANSWER "B" A delusion of reference is one in which the person believes that objects or events in the immediate environment have an unusual and particular significance to him or her. In a persecutory delusion, the person feels that he or she is being mistreated in some way or conspired against; this is not the case here. Systematized delusions are organized around a coherent theme; there is no evidence that this is the case. Hearing the same song over and over again can drive one crazy, but probably not to the extent described in the question.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 43. Relapse by smokers who have stopped smoking is most likely to be triggered by the presence of smoking cues in one's surroundings or A positive affect. B negative affect. C inactivity. D coffee consumption.

ANSWER "B" According to S. Shiffman et al., the most common precipitants of relapse are the presence of smoking cues and negative affect (First lapses to smoking: Within-subjects analysis of real-time reports, Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 64(2), 366-389).

Clinical Psychology 33. A child feels confident in reaching out to others because as a baby they had a secure bond with their mother. This information would be important to a psychologist with the theoretical approach of: A cognitive- behavioral B object-relations C Family systems D Psychotherapeutic

ANSWER "B" According to object relations theory, an object introject is the mental representation of a person, either the self or the mother. In a healthy environment the child comes to develop representations of itself based on the early interactions with the mother. When normal and age-appropriate development is delayed or skewed by having a distrubed parent, the person could easily fail to develop object introjects.

Community Psychology 88. Which of the following groups has the highest rate of completed suicide? A Caucasian females B Caucasian males C African-American females D African-American males

ANSWER "B" Across all age groups, Caucasian males have a higher rate of completed suicide that the other groups listed by the choices. However, the rate of suicide in African-American males is rising the fastest.

School Psychology/Intelligence 54. In addition to the Vocabulary subtest, which of the following Wechsler subtests are least susceptible to brain damage and, therefore, useful for assessing premorbid intelligence? A Similarities and Picture Completion B Information and Picture Completion C Block Design and Object Assembly D Information and Arithmetic

ANSWER "B" Although scores on the Vocabulary, Information, and Picture Completion subtests can be suppressed by certain types of brain injury, they are considered to be most resistant to brain injury and, therefore, the best indicators of premorbid intelligence.

Developmental Psychology 17. Symptoms of separation anxiety usually begin to appear at approximately: A 5 months B 9 months C 12 months D 18 months

ANSWER "B" Although separation anxiety sometimes begins as early as 5 or 6 months, it typically has its onset at 8 or 9 months of age, rises dramatically until the age of 18 months, and then gradually falls off until it becomes negligible between the ages of 24-36 months. Prior to the onset of separation anxiety, babies do not typically protest when separated from their primary caretakers, even though a number of attachment behaviors develop during this time.

Neuropsychology 58. Which of the following is a non-stimulant medication that alleviates inattention and hyperactivity/impulsivity symptoms in AD/HD? A methylphenidate B atomoxetine C pemoline D dextroamphetamine

ANSWER "B" B. In November 2002, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved a new medication called atomoxetine (Strattera) specifically for AD/HD. This medication is neither a stimulant nor an antidepressant. It alleviates inattention and hyperactivity/impulsivity symptoms of AD/HD by affecting specific aspects of the norepinephrine system. This medication is a reuptake inhibitor that acts on the neurotransmitter norepinephrine (which affects blood pressure and blood flow) in the same way that antidepressants act on the neurotransmitter seratonin, allowing the natural chemical to remain longer in the brain before being drawn back up. Because it is a non-stimulant, it may be less objectionable to some families. Nevertheless, it has similar side effects as other medications used for AD/HD. It is a prescription medication, but it is not a controlled substance like a stimulant. This allows medical professionals to give samples and to place refills on the prescriptions. It does not start working as quickly as the stimulants do. Reports suggest that the full effects are often not seen until the person has been taking atomoxetine regularly for 3 or 4 weeks. Methylphenidate (a.), i.e., Ritalin, Concerta, Metadate, pemoline (c.), i.e., Cylert (less commonly prescribed because it can cause liver damage), and dextroamphetamine (d.), i.e., Dexedrine, Dextrostat, along with amphetamines, i.e., Adderall are four main types of stimulants used for the treatment of AD/HD.

Clinical Psychology 55. Meyer's (2003) minority stress model identifies distal and proximal factors that contribute to mental health outcomes in gay, lesbian, and bisexual populations. A proximal stressor from the model is: A homonegativism B internalized homophobia C minority group status D discrimination and violence

ANSWER "B" B. Meyer's minority stress model distinguishes between distal factors, which are external, objective events and conditions, and proximal factors, which are an individual's perceptions and appraisals of events and conditions. The minority stress model identifies three proximal stressors -- expectations of rejection, concealment of sexual orientation, and internalized homophobia (b.). Minority group status (c.) and exposure to "prejudice events" such as discrimination and violence (d.) are identified as a distal events or as an "environmental circumstance" in Meyer's model. Prejudice, discrimination (d.) and stigma were linked with mental health problems. Homonegativism (a.) refers to the beliefs and values of prejudiced individuals and is not part of the minority stress model. [Meyer, I.H. (2003) Prejudice, social stress, and mental health in lesbian, gay, and bisexual populations: Conceptual issues and research evidence, Psychological Bulletin, 129(5), 674-697.] .

Research Design and Statistics 92. In designing a research study, you take a number of steps that have the effect of reducing beta. This means that you have reduced the probability of: A retaining a true null hypothesis. B retaining a false null hypothesis. C rejecting a true null hypothesis. D rejecting a false null hypothesis.

ANSWER "B" Beta is the probability of making a Type II error, or of retaining a false null hypothesis. In plain language, it is the probability of failing to detect a true effect.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 100. According to DSM-IV, patients who meet some but not all of the criteria for a particular diagnosis can still be assigned that diagnosis. This reflects the fact that: A DSM-IV relies on a dimensional rather than a categorical approach to diagnosis. B DSM-IV relies on a categorical rather than a dimensional approach to diagnosis. C DSM-IV combines aspects of categorical and dimensional diagnosis. D DSM-IV's approach to diagnostic classification is not valid.

ANSWER "B" DSM-IV uses a categorical approach to diagnosis. This means that mental disorders are divided into types based on criteria sets with defining features. An alternative to the categorical approach would be a dimensional approach, which would involve quantifying patients' symptoms based on their severity. Some have suggested that the categorical approach is inappropriate for diagnosis of mental disorders because it misleadingly suggests that the categories of disorders and individuals within the same category are homogeneous in all relevant ways. To provide some degree of compensation for these limitations, DSM-IV diagnoses often include a polythetic criteria set, which means that, for a diagnosis to be made, a person may present with some but not all of the diagnostic criteria. In addition, DSM-IV reminds the clinician to include other information besides diagnoses in evaluation reports.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 28. According to DSM-IV, which of the following types of dementia is most common among those over the age of 65? A Vascular Dementia B Alzheimer's Type C Substance-Induced Persisting Dementia D Dementia due to Head Trauma

ANSWER "B" Dementia of the Alzheimer's Type is the most common type of dementia among older adults, and the rate of Alzheimer's increases with increasing age. About 20% of people over the age of 85 have this disorder.

Developmental Psychology 96. Erik Erikson is known for all of the following except: A eight developmental stages B ecological model C identity Crisis D psychosocial moratorium

ANSWER "B" Erik Erikson is best known for his psychosocial developmental model which consists of 8 stages spanning from birth to death. Each stage is characterized by a "crisis," the most famous of which, the "identity crisis" ("C"), is experienced in adolescence during the Identity vs. Role Confusion Stage. During this stage many adolescents also take a time-out by withdrawing from their responsibilities and exploring alternative identities, which Erikson and Marcia referred to as a "moratorium" ("D"). In fact, Erikson even encouraged adolescents to take such a moratorium. The only choice offered which is not associated with Erickson is the "ecological model" ("B") which was developed by Bronfenbrenner to describe the four environmental systems which influence development: the microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, and macrosystem.

Ethics and Professional Practice 13. You have been seeing a client for several months and believe that treatment has been a success. When you suggest termination to the client, he expresses a desire to continue therapy. Both you and the client are unable to come up with additional treatment goals; however, the client states that he really looks forward to coming to therapy just to talk. In this situation, you should: A terminate treatment immediately. B terminate treatment after a period of pretermination counseling, in which the client's reasons for not wanting to terminate are explored. C continue seeing the client until he is ready to end therapy. D seek consultation.

ANSWER "B" Ethical standard 10.10 requires that a psychologist terminate a professional relationship when it becomes "reasonably clear that the client/patient no longer needs the service, is not likely to benefit, or is being harmed by continued service." Prior to termination, the psychologist must "provide pretermination counseling and suggest alternative service providers as appropriate.".

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 65. During an evening interview, a client displays incoherence, disorientation, distractibility, fragmented delusions, and impaired recent memory. When the client is seen the next morning, his symptoms have remitted. The MOST likely diagnosis for this patient is: A amnestic disorder B delirium C brief psychotic disorder D substance intoxication

ANSWER "B" Even though there is no evidence of an underlying medical condition or substance use, delirium is the best response based on the information about the symptoms and their duration. Delirium involves a disturbance in consciousness with a change in cognition or the development of perceptual abnormalities. An individual exhibits a reduced awareness of his environment, shifts in attention, and distractibility, and changes in cognition can include memory loss, disorientation to time and place, and impaired language. Associated perceptual abnormalities can include illusions, hallucinations, or other misperceptions. As in this case, the symptoms of delirium usually fluctuate in the course of a day, and depending on the cause of the disorder, may remit within a few hours or persist for weeks. Response "D" may have been difficult to rule out as the symptoms could represent a substance-induced delirium; however the symptoms appear to be in excess of symptoms usually associated with "substance intoxication" or an intoxication syndrome. In contrast to brief psychotic disorder (response "C"), this client's psychotic symptoms fluctuate, are fragmented, and occur in the context of reduced awareness of the environment, shifts in attention, and distractibility which are associated with delirium. An amnestic disorder (response "A") is not diagnosed if memory difficulties occur in the course of delirium, or as with this client, the memory impairment is accompanied by reduced consciousness or other cognitive deficits.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 72. Hallucinations experienced by Schizophrenics are primarily: A visual. B auditory. C tactile. D somatic.

ANSWER "B" Hearing voices is a modal symptom of this disorder.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 97. According to Herbert Simon's administrative model, decision-makers in organizational settings typically chose the: A least expensive choice B most "satisficing" choice C best choice after weighing all the alternatives D worst choice after weighing all the alternatives

ANSWER "B" Herbert Simon earned a Nobel Prize in economics, but was also known for his theories in psychology, computer science (artificial intelligence), and administration. The one thread through all of his work was his interest in decision-making and problem solving. His "administrative" model maintains that decision-makers cannot always afford to be rational, instead, they must choose the first solution that is minimally acceptable or "satisficing." This is in contrast to another decision making theory, the "rational-economic model" in which decision-makers attempt to find the optimal solution to a problem.

Ethics and Professional Practice 23. The mother of a 3-year old has been told her daughter is very gifted. She wants to encourage the child's abilities and asks you, a school psychologist, to assess the girl's IQ score level and suggest a plan for her future education. You should: A comply with the request. B comply with the request, but inform the mother that test results at this age are not very valid as predictors of future performance. C suggest that the test not be given, but agree to help the mother in deciding on the future educational plans for her child. D inform the mother that there are no standardized valid tests available for children of such a young age.

ANSWER "B" In this case there is nothing wrong with you testing the child and tests are available. But you should also use your knowledge and judgment to counsel the mother about the use of tests for such a young child. While it's true that there is some predictive validity for intelligence tests starting at about 18 months to 2 years of age, you should still tell the mother that many things will determine her daughter's future school performance and that we can't be so sure she will continue as she presently is.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 26. In a study, subjects are asked to memorize a list of 12 unrelated words. After a brief period of time, they are asked to count backwards from 100 and are then tested on the word list. These subjects are A the experimental subjects in a study on retroactive interference. B the control subjects in a study on retroactive interference. C the experimental subjects in a study on proactive interference. D the control subjects in a study on proactive interference.

ANSWER "B" Knowing the difference between retroactive and proactive interference would have helped you narrow the choices down to responses A and B. (In retroactive interference subsequent learning interferes with previous learning). In studies on retroactive interference, experimental subjects learn material similar to the original list, while control subjects engage in a dissimilar activity (e.g., counting backwards) that keeps them from rehearsing the list.

Neuropsychology 15. Fluoxetine is LEAST likely to cause: A anxiety B confusion C headache D nausea

ANSWER "B" Like all medications, fluoxetine (Prozac) has a risk of side-effects. The most commonly observed side effects of Prozac are: nausea, headache, insomnia, anxiety, and somnolence. Confusion is not one of the common side effects.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 36. Memory for the rules of logic and inference is part of A procedural memory. B semantic memory. C episodic memory. D read-only memory

ANSWER "B" Long-term memory has been divided into three components: semantic memory, procedural memory, and episodic memory. Semantic memory includes memory for the rules of logic and inference, as well as knowledge about language (e.g., what words mean and how they are used). Procedural memory includes information about how to do things, such as how to drive a car. Episodic memory contains information about events that have been personally experienced. Read-only memory (ROM) is not part of long-term memory -- it is a computer term.

Research Design and Statistics 74. In the analysis of the effects of two independent variables, multiple regression analysis is sometimes used as a substitute for the factorial ANOVA. One advantage of using multiple regression as opposed to a factorial ANOVA is that: A multiple regression analysis can be used for multiple dependent variables as well as multiple independent variables. B continuous or categorical data (as opposed to solely categorical data) can be used to measure the independent variables in multiple regression analysis. C the use of multiple regression allows one to estimate the probability that obtained differences on the dependent variable between groups represent true population differences. D when multiple regression is used and a significant result is obtained, the conclusion that there is a causal relationship between the independent variables and the dependent variables is more plausible.

ANSWER "B" One limitation of the ANOVA technique is that independent variables must be divided into categories for the analysis to be conducted. In multiple regression, the researcher has the choice of using categories or continuous data (e.g., scores on a test) to measure the independent variables. This is considered an advantage of regression, because it allows for the data to provide more precise and specific information about the variables being measured. Choice A is not true of multiple regression; it is designed for use with one dependent variable only. Choice D is also not true; the strength of the conclusion that variables are causally related depends on the research design, not the statistical analysis. And choice C is true of both multiple regression and ANOVA, since they are both inferential statistical methods.

Research Design and Statistics 50. When random assignment of subjects to groups is not possible, researchers use: A Experimental design B Quasi-experimental design C Developmental research D Longitudinal research

ANSWER "B" Quasi-experimental designs are used when random assignment of subjects to groups is not possible. In true experimental design the investigator randomly assigns subjects to different groups which receive different levels of the manipulated variable. Developmental research involves assessing variables as a function of time. A type of developmental research is longitudinal-in these studies the same people are studied over a long period of time.

Developmental Psychology 86. Michael Rutter, a key figure in the field of developmental psychopathology, notes that parental divorce does not have the same effects on all children. According to Rutter, such differences are related to: A the child's cognitive understanding of the causes of the divorce. B the child's early social interactions, especially interactions with his or her parents. C the nature of the parents' relationship following the divorce. D the custodial parent's social support and financial status.

ANSWER "B" Rutter and others interested in developmental psychopathology have attempted to identify the factors that account for the continuities and discontinuities in child psychopathology. Rutter has focused primarily on variations in social relationships that act as high risk or protective factors.

Clinical Psychology 53. A therapist working from the perspective of Minuchin's school of thought would examine a family system in terms of A multigenerational transmission processes. B subsystems and boundaries. C fusion and differentiation. D communication style.

ANSWER "B" Salvador Minuchin's Structural Family Therapy is based on and extends general family systems theory. The goal is to restructure maladaptive family structures, including family subsystems and boundaries.

Developmental Psychology 39. Relationships between pre-adolescent siblings are most commonly characterized by A rivalry and discord. B conflict and closeness. C closeness and reciprocity. D detachment and disinterest.

ANSWER "B" Sibling relationships in middle childhood are characterized by both conflict and closeness. Sibling rivalry is common during these years and is usually exacerbated by comparisons made between the siblings by parents and other adults. At the same time, pre-adolescent siblings typically serve as a source of companionship, assistance, and comfort for each other during difficult times.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 8. A person with Somatization Disorder is most likely to also have which of the following diagnoses: A a Substance Abuse Disorder B a Personality Disorder C Schizophrenia D Panic Disorder

ANSWER "B" Somatization Disorder has several frequently occurring comorbid conditions. Research indicates that 61% of Somatization Disorder patients have one or more co-occurring personality disorders. The next most frequent co-diagnoses are Major Depression (55%), Generalized Anxiety Disorder (34%), and panic disorder (26%). Substance-Related Disorders are also frequently associated with Somatization Disorder, however, not as frequently as the above diagnoses. [See: G.O. Glabbard, Treatment of Psychiatric Disorders, Volume 2 (2nd ed.), Washington, DC, American Psychiatric Press, 1995].

Developmental Psychology 20. The cognitive outcomes of malnutrition during the final months of prenatal development are severe because: A malnutrition causes degeneration of existing neurons. B malnutrition interferes with the development of new neurons and the connections between neurons. C malnutrition reduces the production of certain neurotransmitters. D malnutrition leads to the development of deformed, nonfunctional neurons.

ANSWER "B" The brain is the last organ to develop, which means that the last few months of prenatal development are most critical. Malnutrition during the final months can lead to irreversible damage due to the fact that it interferes with the development of new neurons and dendrites, which connect the neurons.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 81. A reason why the rational-economic model of decision-making usually does not prove viable in an organization is that A it allows for the consideration of a limited number of options. B it places too many demands on the individual and the organization. C it arouses resentment in organization members who are excluded from the decision-making process. D humans are irrational and emotional by their nature.

ANSWER "B" The rational-economic model assumes that decision-making involves a rational process in which all alternatives are considered and the best possible decision is eventually made. The model requires that decision-makers obtain information about and consider all possible alternatives before making a decision. This requirement places an inordinate demand on the people involved. Thus, in the real world, decisions are usually made based on the information that is available given restraints of resources such as time, money, and personnel.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 57. For a diagnosis of Tourette's disorder, a client must have A multiple vocal tics and at least one motor tic. B multiple motor tics and at least one vocal tic. C multiple motor and/or vocal tics. D multiple motor and vocal tics.

ANSWER "B" This is a straightforward question requiring you to be familiar with the DSM-IV diagnostic criteria for Tourette's Disorder. For this diagnosis, DSM requires the presence of multiple motor tics and one or more vocal tics for at least one year.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 61. Which of the following is the most common functional disorder in the elderly? A Delusional Disorder B Depressive Disorder C Dementia D Bipolar Disorder

ANSWER "B" To answer this question, it helps to know what the term "functional disorder" means. It is actually a somewhat outdated term: the DSM-III-R distinguished organic mental disorders, which are due to a known physiological cause, from functional disorders, which may or may not have a physiological component but are not directly caused by a known physiological factor. The DSM-IV divides what were previously called organic disorders into two categories: Mental Disorders Due to a General Medical Condition and Substance-Induced Disorders; disorders that don't fit into either of these categories are called primary mental disorders. Anyhow, this question illustrates that you sometimes have to be familiar with terms that are no longer part of the "official" lingo. If you knew the meaning of the term functional disorder, you would have eliminated Dementia as a choice, since Dementia is always either due to the effects of a general medical condition or is substance induced (or, using the old language, is always an organic mental disorder). Of the remaining choices, the prevalence of Depressive Disorders in the elderly is 5-10%, the prevalence of Delusional Disorder is approximately 4%, and the prevalence of Bipolar Disorder is 1%. So "B" is the correct answer.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 24. A person unwilling to get involved with others unless certain of being liked, is inhibited as a result, and is unusually reluctant to take personal risks, would most likeley be diagnosed with: A Schzoid Personality Disorder B Dependent Personality Disorder C Avoidant Personality Disorder D Schizotypal Personaltiy Disorder

ANSWER "C" An Avoidant Personality is described by DSM-IV as one with "a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation. While both Schzoid and Schizotypal Personalities are also characterized by social isolation, individuals with Avoidant Personalities want to be liked, and feel their isolation deeply.

Social Psychology 99. Self-perception theory proposes that people base their: A beliefs on their feelings B behaviors on their attitudes C attitudes on their behaviors D attitudes on their feelings

ANSWER "C" Bem's self-perception theory contradicts the more intuitive belief that we make conclusions about ourselves based solely on internal states. Based on the work of B. F. Skinner, Bem's self-perception theory proposes that when internal cues are weak or difficult to interpret, we rely on observations of our behavior and/or circumstances in which this behavior occurs to .

Neuropsychology 5. Recent findings indicate there is a type of cells in the premotor cortex which are activated when a person executes object-directed actions of a certain general type, and when the individual sees another individual performing actions of the same type. These cells are called: A imitation neurons B experiential neurons C mirror neurons D simulation neurons

ANSWER "C" C. Mirror neurons are a class of neurons that are activated by action observation, or when an individual witnesses actions performed by others (e.g., observing someone being hit by a ball), the individual's brain simulates as if it is performing the same specific actions (e.g., being hit by a ball). This experiential insight or "gut-feeling" is proposed to be due to neural underpinnings. Specifically, an embodied simulation - which is an unconscious, automatic, and pre-reflexive functional mechanism for the modeling of objects, agents, and events. Action observation differs from motor imagery. In motor imagery, an internal event or deliberate act of will triggers the simulation process, whereas in action observation it is an external event. While there are different patterns of brain activation, there is a commonality in the activation of parietal and premotor cortical networks in both simulations of action. Current research is investigating the role the mirror neuron system plays in empathy, Autism and Schizophrenia. (See: Gallese, V. and Goldman, A. (1998). Mirror neurons and the simulation theory of mind-reading. Trends in Cognitive Sciences, 12, 493-501. and Rizzolatti, G., Fadiga, L., Gallese, V. and Fogassi, L. (1996). Premotor cortex and the recognition of motor actions. Cognitive Brain Research, 3, 131-141. and Rizzolatti, G. and Craighero, L. (2004). The mirror neuron system. Annual Review of Neuroscience, 27, 169-192.).

Community Psychology 7. Research has identified the following factors as barriers that reduce the likelihood that a woman will seek or remain in substance abuse treatment. Of the following, which has been most often cited as a primary barrier to substance-abuse treatment for women: A a belief that treatment is ineffective B denial of a substance abuse problem C child and childcare concerns D sexual harassment from male counselors

ANSWER "C" C. Only one of the responses is consistently cited by studies as a primary or most frequently mentioned barrier and that is factors related to children. Research has confirmed that women with substance abuse problems are more likely than men to be caring for dependent children. Many women are concerned about custody issues; others are concerned about childcare while they receive treatment. According to a recent United Nations report on substance abuse treatment, "lack of childcare is probably the most consistent factor restricting women's treatment access identified in the literature" [United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime, Substance Abuse Treatment and Care for Women: Case Studies and Lessons Learned, New York, United Nations, 2004, p. 18]. While sexual harassment (d.) of women has been identified as a problem at some treatment centers and some women may be deterred by concerns over treatment effectiveness (a.), neither has been identified as a primary barrier to treatment. Women are more likely to express shame and guilt about their substance abuse than to deny that they have an abuse problem (b.).

Clinical Psychology 47. A social-role theorist might contend that minority clients drop out of treatment more readily when matched with a white therapist, because: A the therapist indicates discomfort B higher power or status groups are more adept at reading or perceiving members of lower status groups than those from lower status groups reading people from higher status groups. C lower power or status groups are more adept at reading or perceiving members of higher status groups than those from higher status groups reading people from lower status groups. D the client lacks awareness of the differences in power and status.

ANSWER "C" C. Social-Role theorists assert that individuals in positions of lower power and status are better at reading/perceiving members of higher status groups than are those from higher status groups at reading people from lower status groups. Thus, for example, women may be more adept at attending to men, than men are at attending to the feelings and experiences of women. Similarly white therapists may be less familiar with the culture and life experience of minority clients than are minority therapists with white clients (See: Sue, S. & Zane, N. (1987). The role of culture and cultural techniques in psychotherapy: A critique and reformulation. American Psychologist, 42, 37-45.) .

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 59. The first step a parent takes in teaching a child to feed the family cat is showing her how to put the cat food into the dish. After mastering that task, she is taught to open a can of cat food and then put it into the dish. The child is then taught to open the pantry door, take out a can of cat food, open it, and put it in the dish. This is an example of: A stimulus control training B forward chaining C backward chaining D sequential training

ANSWER "C" C. The child has learned a complex behavior by learning the individual responses in the "behavior chain." The procedure in this question is best described as backward chaining: the parent began by teaching the last behavior and then worked backward from there.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 32. Which of the following best describes the distinction between shaping and chaining? A shaping involves reinforcement for successive approximations of a single behavior; chaining involves providing a chain of reinforcement for one behavior B shaping involves providing successive approximations of a reinforcer for a given behavior over a period of time; chaining involves reinforcing multiple behaviors with the same reinforcers C shaping involves reinforcing component parts of one simple behavior; chaining involves many simple behaviors that are linked to form a more complex behavior D there is no distinction between these two terms; they are essentially synonymous

ANSWER "C" Choice C best describes the distinction between shaping and chaining. Shaping involves reinforcing successive approximations of a single behavior as the person approaches that behavior. For instance, an autistic individual learning to speak might be reinforced first for moving his mouth, then for uttering nonsense sounds, and then for saying a particular word. The successive approximations being reinforced are all components of one behavior. Chaining, on the other hand, involves linking a group of simple behaviors to form a more complex response chain. For instance, a child learning to put on his shirt might first learn to open the drawer, then put his shirt on over his head, and then button the shirt. Each of these behaviors is a separate behavior, but can be linked as a set to constitute the more complex behavior of putting on the shirt.

Social Psychology 79. Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that, when a college student is not accepted by the sorority she most wanted to join, the student will A blame the sorority for not being accepted. B blame herself for not being accepted. C decide that she doesn't really want to be in the sorority after all. D feel depressed until an alternative sorority accepts her.

ANSWER "C" Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that, when we have two conflicting cognitions (e.g., I like the club but they don't want me"), we'll be motivated to reduce the tension that this causes by changing one of our cognitions. Since the student can't change the sorority's decision in this situation, she's likely to change her attitude toward the sorority.

Clinical Psychology 19. According to Beck, a depressed man is most likely to believe that: A the world is unfair, his future is hopeless, but he is a good person B he is worthless, his future is hopeless, but the world is just C he is worthless, his future is hopeless, and the world is unfair D he is worthless, the world is unfair, but his future is hopeful

ANSWER "C" Depressed people tend to distort their perceptions and interpret events from a negative perspective. Beck referred to the "cognitive triad" which consists of negative thoughts about the self, future, and the world. Choice C best represents the cognitive triad.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 52. According to Holland's personality typology, a person's personality type indicates the: A person's unconscious occupational abilities B one occupation the person is capable of performing C occupational environment in which the person would be most satisfied and productive D person's occupational interests, but does not predict job satisfaction

ANSWER "C" Holland classified six personality types and occupational environments, and proposed that the closer the match, or "congruence" between them, the more likely the person will be satisfied, productive, and will stay in that environment. Contrary to A, Holland's personality types are based on self-perceived (not unconscious) abilities and interests. B is incorrect because Holland's typology indicates more than one occupation the person might be capable of performing.

Ethics and Professional Practice 9. You see a client for the first time. She is already receiving treatment from another professional, and she is not clear about why she wants additional treatment from you. In this situation, you should A treat the client and let her discuss what she is doing with the other professional when she is comfortable enough to do so. B contact the other professional and attempt to work out a coordinated treatment plan with him or her. C attempt to discuss with the client the reason she is seeking the services of a second therapist. D inform the client that it would be unethical for you to continue therapy with her.

ANSWER "C" In answering ethics questions, it is a good idea to bring to mind the language of the applicable ethical standard and choose the answer that is most consistent with that standard. According to Standard 10.04 (Providing Therapy to Those Served by Others), psychologists should consider treatment issues and the client's welfare, and discuss these issues with the client, "in order to minimize the risk of confusion and conflict," and should "proceed with caution and sensitivity to the therapeutic issues." Of the choices listed, only C states that you would discuss the issue with the client, and is therefore the best answer.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 93. The behavioral technique known as flooding is based on the theoretical principle of A reciprocal inhibition. B covert desensitization. C classical extinction. D negative reinforcement.

ANSWER "C" In flooding, the patient is exposed to a feared stimulus. The technique is based on the principle of classical extinction, which involves repeatedly presenting a conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus. The idea is that the fear developed through classical conditioning, or a pairing of a conditioned stimulus (the feared stimulus) and an unconditioned stimulus (a stimulus that naturally causes fear). For instance, a fear of dogs might have been developed through a pairing of a dog (the conditioned stimulus) and a frightening event associated with a dog, such as a dog bite (the unconditioned stimulus). Classical extinction involves "unpairing" the conditioned and the unconditioned stimulus -- for instance, repeatedly exposing the person to dogs that don't bite.

Clinical Psychology 16. Research on the use of mental health services by members of minority groups indicates that: A utilization rates are lower for members of all minority groups than for whites. B utilization rates are higher for members of all minority groups than for whites. C utilization rates are higher for members of some minority groups and lower for members of other minority groups than for whites. D utilization rates for members of minority groups are about the same as the rates for whites.

ANSWER "C" It's difficult to draw any general conclusions about utilization rates because the research findings are inconsistent. However, a 1991 study by Sue et al. (which is frequently cited in the literature) reports underutilization by Asian-and Latino-Americans and overutilization by African-Americans. The results of other studies also suggest that there are group differences in utilization rates, so response C is the best.

School Psychology/Intelligence 90. To be consistent with the Federal Educational Rights and Privacy Act (the Buckley Amendment), a school counselor must keep in mind that A it is necessary to obtain the signed consent of a student's parents before releasing any information from the student's file to officials of another school where the student is planning to enroll. B student records, including identifying information, must be released to designated federal and state educational authorities if needed in connection with the evaluation of federally-sponsored educational programs. C parents have the right not only to inspect and review their children's school records but also to challenge the contents of records. D all of the above.

ANSWER "C" Only C is a requirement of the Buckley Amendment. Written consent is not needed in the situation described in choice A, as long as the parents have been notified of the transfer of records to the new school. And although the records must be supplied in the situation presented in B, identifying information must be removed from the records.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 25. Although Jasper has worked for the same company for nearly 15 years, he has no friends at work and never eats lunch or takes breaks with his coworkers. Jasper hasn't been to a party for eight years. He says he'd like to go to parties but he feels no one will want to talk with him and that people will make fun of him. He also says that he often feels lonely. The best diagnosis is A Schizoid Personality Disorder. B Paranoid Personality Disorder. C Avoidant Personality Disorder. D Schizotypal Personality Disorder.

ANSWER "C" The combination of social avoidance, fear of humiliation, and loneliness are characteristic of Avoidant Personality Disorder.

Ethics and Professional Practice 29. Which of the following infractions accounts for the largest percentage of malpractice costs? A lack of competence B breach of confidentiality C sexual contact with clients D improper billing practices

ANSWER "C" The infraction that accounts for the greatest proportion of malpractice claims depends on how the infractions are categorized. However, regardless of the way that malpractice claims are grouped, sex with clients is always the infraction that accounts for the greatest insurance costs, with reported figures ranging from 45 to 50%.

Neuropsychology 62. Damage to the orbitofrontal cortex is most likely to result in: A impaired depth perception B impaired motor coordination C altered emotional behaviors D left-right confusion

ANSWER "C" The orbitofrontal cortex is part of the prefrontal cortex located just above the eye sockets. Damage to the orbitofrontal cortex is most likely to alter emotional behavior. The orbitofrontal cortex is believed to play a role in excitability, behavioral inhibition, personality, and judgment. The famous case of Phineas Gage, the 19th century railroad worker who survived an iron rod shooting through his head, suffered damage to his orbitofrontal cortex which is believed to have caused changes in his emotions and behaviors.

Research Design and Statistics 68. A psychologist is conducting research to evaluate the effectiveness of three predictor tests of overall mental health he has developed. He administers the predictors to 35 individuals randomly chosen from the population of interest and obtains a squared multiple correlation coefficient (R2) of .47. If the psychologist administers the predictors to another 70 individuals drawn from the same population, the best prediction is that, he would obtain an R2 that is: A lower than .47. B about equal to .47. C slightly to moderately higher than .47. D much higher than .47.

ANSWER "C" The principle behind this question is that the greater the range of scores in both the predictor(s) and the criterion, the higher the validity coefficient will be. If you administer the predictors to 70 people as opposed to 35, you are likely to get a somewhat greater range of scores in the former case. Therefore, you will get a somewhat higher correlation coefficient. Choice D, a much higher correlation coefficient is not a good answer. Increasing the range of scores can only do so much for your correlation coefficient, especially if you already have a reasonably representative sample to begin with. Increasing the sample size from 35 to 70, for example, will not turn a poor set of predictors into a good one. Some of you might have gone for choice A, thinking that, due to shrinkage, the correlation coefficient would be smaller. Shrinkage, however, is associated with the development of a predictor or set of predictors. It occurs when, based on research with one sample, items for a predictor are chosen from a larger pool, and the newly developed predictor is then tested on a second sample. The correlation coefficient for the second sample is likely to be smaller, because the predictor was "tailor made" for the first sample. In this question, however, the predictors are not in the process of development, and the first group of 35 people is not a validation sample (i.e., a sample of people used to determine which items to retain for the final version of the test). To see if you understand this distinction, try to rewrite the question, changing as few words as possible, so that A becomes the best answer.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 34. All of the following statements are true of Tourette's Disorder, except: A onset of the disorder always occurs before the age of 18. B both motor tics and vocal tics are present. C uncontrollable outbursts of vulgar and obscene utterances are present in the majority of cases. D the disorder is more common in males than females.

ANSWER "C" Tourette's Disorder is a Tic Disorder that involves multiple motor tics (involuntary jerky movements) and vocal tics (vocal sounds such as grunts, barks, and clicks). Coprolalia, or involuntary utterances of obscenities, occurs in 10% or less of cases -- not the majority, which is why C is correct (remember, the question is asking for the statement that isn't true). For a diagnosis to be made, onset of the disorder must be before age 18. The disorder is between 1.5 and 3 times more common in males than in females.

Ethics and Professional Practice 38. An individual comes into your office complaining of recent job stress. He notes a chronic pattern of depressed mood, low energy, and eating and sleeping difficulties. Your best initial intervention is to: A begin individual treatment. B refer to an expert in vocational issues. C refer for a psychiatric evaluation. D explore the possibility of a job change.

ANSWER "C" Whenever you see any symptoms that might have a medical or psychiatric basis, it's always good to recommend a physical examination. The closest alternative here was to refer to a psychiatrist. Maybe medication is indicated to address the eating and sleeping difficulties and what you suspect might be an underlying depression.

Developmental Psychology 73. A college student tells you she has just read that adolescent females are faced with a conflict between their own strengths and accomplishments and the stereotypic feminine roles they are expected to adopt. Apparently, this student has just read the work of: A Kohlberg. B Erikson. C Gilligan. D Ainsworth.

ANSWER "C" You may have been able to answer this question through the process of elimination. Kohlberg, Erikson, and Ainsworth didn't distinguish between girls and boys in their theories. That leaves Gilligan who is best known for her work on moral development in girls but has also addressed other developmental issues.

Clinical Psychology 44. In their discussion of mental health services for Latino clients, Rogler et al. (1987) describe three ways to increase the cultural sensitivity of therapy for members of this group. These methods include all of the following except: A incorporating elements of Latino culture into therapy. B increasing the accessibility of mental health services for Latino clients. C selecting standard treatments that best fit Latino culture. D obtaining cultural sensitivity training.

ANSWER "D" Although all of the actions described in the responses could be called "culturally sensitive," only the first three were described by Rogler and his colleagues, which makes answer D the correct response. [L. H. Rogler et al., What do culturally sensitive mental health services mean? The case of Hispanics. American Psychologist, 1987, 42(6), 656-570.] .

Test Construction 30. A person obtains a raw score of 70 on a Math test with a mean of 50 and an SD of 10; a percentile rank of 84 on a History test; and a T-score of 65 on an English test. What is the relative order of each of these scores? A History >> Math >> English B Math >> History >> English C History >> English >> Math D Math >> English >> History

ANSWER "D" Before we can compare different forms of scores, we must transform them into some form of standardized measure. A Math test which has a mean of 50 and an SD of 10 indicates that a raw score of 70 would fall 2 standard deviations above the mean. Assuming a normal distribution of scores, a percentile rank of 84 on a History test is equivalent to 1 standard deviation above the mean. If you haven't memorized that, you could still figure it out: Remember that 50% of all scores in a normal distribution fall below the mean and 50% fall above the mean. And 68% of scores fall within +/- 1 SD of the mean. If you divide 68% by 2 - you get 34% (the percentage of scores that fall between 0 and +1 SD). If you then add that 34% to the 50% that fall below the mean - you get a percentile rank of 84. Thus, the 84 percentile score is equivalent to 1 SD above the mean. Finally, looking at the T-score on the English test - we know that T-scores always have a mean of 50 and an SD of 10. Thus a T-score of 65 is equivalent to 1½ standard deviations above the mean. Comparing the 3 test scores we find the highest score was in Math at 2 Sds above the mean, followed by English at 1½ SDs above the mean, and History at 1 SD above the mean.

Clinical Psychology 41. A difference between the brief dynamic therapies and crisis intervention is: A brief dynamic therapies focuses on specific symptoms B crisis intervention focuses on specific symptoms C crisis intervention views the patient's symptoms as pathological D brief dynamic therapies views the patient's symptoms as pathological

ANSWER "D" Brief dynamic therapies emphasize specific symptoms (response "A"), viewed as pathological, and addresses underlying personality issues with emphasis on altering the normal level of functioning. Crisis intervention also focuses on specific symptoms (response "B"); however, crisis intervention views symptoms as expected responses to acute trauma and seeks to return the person to the pre-trauma level of functioning.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 21. Individuals with Major Depressive Disorders who experience abnormalities in the sleep cycle may have any of the following sleep disturbances EXCEPT: A early morning awakening B sleep continuity decrease C REM latency decrease D slow-wave sleep increase

ANSWER "D" D. Depression is associated with decreased slow-wave or non-REM sleep as well as, early morning waking (a.), decreased sleep continuity (b.) and earlier onset of REM sleep or decreased REM latency (c.). .

Ethics and Professional Practice 83. Dr. Fastbuck has been hired by a for-profit mental health hospital corporation as a supervisor of two psychological interns, Dr. Newbie and Dr. Greenhorn. The hospital has promised both interns that they would receive training in psychological assessment. The agency needs at least one of these interns trained quickly, due to a backlog of work on financially lucrative psychological assessments. Dr. Fastbuck decides that Dr. Newbie will receive extensive experience and training in testing, while Dr. Greenhorn will get very little training, because training one of them can be done more quickly than training both. Dr. Fastbuck has acted: A ethically, because finishing the assessments quickly is in the best interests of clients. B ethically, because, in light of the situation, Dr. Fastbuck does not have any alternative. C unethically, because decisions such as these cannot be based on financial concerns. D unethically, because Dr. Fastbuck is failing to meet his responsibility as a supervisor.

ANSWER "D" Ethical Standard 2.05 applies to this situation. It states in part that "Psychologists who delegate work to employees, supervisees, or research or teaching assistants or who use the services of others, such as interpreters, take reasonable steps to (1) avoid delegating such work to persons who have a multiple relationship with those being served that would likely lead to exploitation or loss of objectivity; (2) authorize only those responsibilities that such persons can be expected to perform competently on the basis of their education, training, or experience, either independently or with the level of supervision being provided; and (3) see that such persons perform these services competently." In this situation, in light of what Dr. Greenhorn was hired for, Dr. Fastbuck is not providing proper supervision. It could be argued that the hospital's policy prevented fulfillment of this obligation, but there is no indication in the question that Dr. Fastbuck has attempted to correct the situation.

School Psychology/Intelligence 64. For the WISC-III, which of the following would have the lowest reliability? A Verbal IQ score B Performance IQ score C subtest scores D Verbal-Performance difference score

ANSWER "D" If you take a difference between two scores, you are, obviously, using two measures. Since each is less than 100% reliable, you are going to compound the total error variance (i.e., the total unreliability). The error contained in both tests would exist in the difference score. Thus, using two measures which are less than perfectly reliable, you will end up with a score which is less reliable than either of the two you started with.

Ethics and Professional Practice 46. Which of the following statements regarding informed consent procedures in research is least true? A Psychologists should inform research participants, in language that is reasonably understandable, about the nature of the research. B Research participants should be informed of significant factors that may affect their willingness to participate in the research. C Informed consent to research must be appropriately documented. D Informed consent to research must be obtained in all cases.

ANSWER "D" In most cases, informed consent to research must be obtained from participants. However, there are some exceptions, such as research involving anonymous questionnaires or naturalistic observations. Ethical standard 8.05 discusses the circumstances under which research does not require informed consent.

Clinical Psychology 56. According to Janet Helms, a White member of a city council meeting, which consists of members from different racial and cultural backgrounds, is most likely to work cooperatively if the member is in which stage of development: A contact B integration C reintegration D autonomy

ANSWER "D" Janet Helms developed the White Racial Identity Development Model, which consists of six stages. "Contact"(A), the first stage, is characterized by ignorance and disregard of any racial differences. The next stage is "disintegration" which involves awareness of racial inequalities which results in moral confusion and conflict. This is followed by "reintegration" (C), in which Whites are viewed as superior to minorities. "Pseudo-Independence" is marked by dissatisfaction with reintegration. "Immersion-Emersion" follows, during which, people embrace their whiteness without rejecting minorities. "Autonomy", the last stage, is reached when a person internalizes a nonracist White identity, whereby similarities and differences are acknowledged but are not perceived as threatening. Note that "Integration" (B) is not one of the stages in Helms' model; rather, it refers to Berry's Acculturation Model, in which a minority has a high retention for the minority culture and high maintenance of the mainstream culture.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 94. In applied industrial settings, Maslow's theory has been shown to be: A applicable for lower-level employees only. B appropriate for supervisors but not managers. C applicable across the board. D not applicable.

ANSWER "D" Maslow's theory, as it applies to workplace settings, has not been supported by research. For instance, the notion that lower level needs, such as pay and job security, cease to be important once they are satisfied has not been shown to be true.

Developmental Psychology 27. Piaget believed that children are "spontaneous liars" and considered their false statements to be natural and harmless until about: A Age 3 or 4 B Age 4 or 5 C Age 5 or 6 D Age 7 or 8

ANSWER "D" Piaget thought that around age 7 or 8 children begin to intentionally communicate false statements. Subsequent research suggest that children as young as age four lie intentionally, most often to avoid punishment or obtain a reward. (Ceci S.J., Leichtman M., and Putnick, M., 1992 Cognitive and Social Factors in Early Deception Hillsdale NJ Erlbaum).

School Psychology/Intelligence 69. When using the WISC-III, the Symbol Search and Coding subtests provide information on A learning disabilities. B brain dysfunction. C perceptual organization. D processing speed.

ANSWER "D" Processing speed is one of four factors that can be assessed with the WISC-III and is a measure of mental and motor speed while solving nonverbal problems. (The other factors are verbal comprehension, perceptual organization, and freedom from distractibility).

Ethics and Professional Practice 1. A psychologist in a rural area is referred a 17-year-old male who has been abusing OxyContin. Although the psychologist is trained and experienced in the treatment of substance abuse, she has not received training in, nor experience with, OxyContin abuse. The psychologist should: A refer the patient to a psychologist outside the area who is experienced in the treatment of OxyContin abuse B agree to treat the patient after attending a workshop on the treatment of OxyContin abuse C refer the patient for inpatient detoxification D provide the patient with treatment and read relevant literature

ANSWER "D" Psychologists have an ethical responsibility to practice within the boundaries of their competence. However, according to APA's Ethics Standard 2.01(d), "When psychologists are asked to provide services to individuals for whom appropriate mental health services are not available and for which psychologists have not obtained the competence necessary, psychologists with closely related prior training or experience may provide such services in order to ensure that services are not denied if they make a reasonable effort to obtain the competence required by using relevant research, training, consultation, or study." It should not, therefore, be necessary to refer the patient to a provider out of the area. It also would not be in the patient's best interest to postpone treatment until the psychologist can attend a workshop on the subject (B). And, although OxyContin abuse is serious and potentially fatal, it generally would not require inpatient detoxification (C) unless the abuse progressed to dependence.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 51. Which of the following statements is true about children who have been diagnosed with a learning disability? A They usually are below average in general intelligence. B They usually come from families high in expressed emotion. C By definition, they cannot be mentally retarded. D A child who scores one standard deviation above the mean on a test of Reading Achievement and three standard deviations above the mean on a test of general intelligence probably would not be diagnosed with a Learning Disorder.

ANSWER "D" Reading Disorders, like most mental disorders in the DSM-IV, are only diagnosed when the symptoms cause significant distress or functional impairment. A child whose score on a reading achievement test is one standard deviation above the mean probably would not be impaired or distressed in relation to reading. This is true even though the DSM-IV states that the discrepancy between achievement and intelligence that defines a Learning Disorder is "usually defined as a discrepancy of more than two standard deviations between achievement and intelligence." Here, the word "usually" allows for some exceptions, and, as noted, a child with a clearly above average reading achievement test score would not be functionally impaired in reading.

Social Psychology 40. A "script" in social psychology is: A any verbal communication used to express emotions B the primary cause of the actor-observer effect C a set of cognitive distortions D a representation of a stereotyped sequence of actions

ANSWER "D" Scripts are schemas that tell us what sequence of actions to expect in certain settings. For example, when you go to a restaurant, your restaurant script causes you to expect that someone will greet you, you will sit down at a table, a server will take your order, etc., in that particular order. You would not expect them to give you the check as soon as you sat down, or to ask you to go to the kitchen to cook your own meal.

Clinical Psychology 22. Research by Sue and his colleagues (1991) suggests that which of the following clients is most likely to return for a second session of psychotherapy? A an African-American client B a Latino-American client C an Anglo-American client D an Asian-American client

ANSWER "D" Studies on therapy dropout rates have produced inconsistent results. This question is asking about a particular study, however (Sue et al., 1991), which found that African-Americans have the highest dropout rates, while Asian-Americans have the lowest dropout rates.

Neuropsychology 76. In most species of animals the differences between males and females in body size and shape is referred to as: A androgyny B sexual bifurcation C gender dichotomy D sexual dimorphism

ANSWER "D" The term "sexual dimorphism" may be new to you, but now you know that it refers to any consistent differences between males and females in size or shape. Sexual dimorphism enables animals to readily identify males and females of their species which serves to facilitate mating.

Ethics and Professional Practice 60. A psychologist receives a request for information about treatment for a patient from the patient's insurance carrier. The request for a treatment report includes the appropriate signed authorization from the patient. The psychologist should: A not provide the information because this is still an unsettled issue. B provide only the dates of service and the diagnosis. C refuse the request unless the patient himself or herself asks that it be sent. D provide the information requested.

ANSWER "D" This ethics question will have some of you stumped unless you deal with these types of clinical situations regularly. In practice, clinicians often get requests for information, especially with insurance companies using managed-care organizations to approve visits. Similar authorizations are necessary when information is released from a hospital, from a clinic, and so forth. The confidentiality of information belongs to the patient. It is up to him or her to waive that confidentiality, as we assume he or she has done by signing the release. In addition, such authorizations should specify the type and extent of information that the patient authorizes to be released, for what purposes, and to whom.

Ethics and Professional Practice 14. A psychologist sends the MMPI to a client through the mail. The client will complete the test at home and return it to the psychologist by mail. This is: A acceptable as long as the client has signed a statement saying she will not breach test security. B acceptable as long as the psychologist provides adequate instructions over the phone. C acceptable as long as the test is sent by certified mail. D unacceptable.

ANSWER "D" This is pretty clear: As a psychologist, you're responsible for maintaining test security. In addition, you'd want to administer the MMPI under controlled conditions to obtain valid results. If you sent the test to the client, you'd have no control over testing conditions.