Exam 2

What is CW3 Clark's birth month window for his Class 2 FDME, if his birthday is 07 February 1998?

01 December - 28 February

As little as ______ concentration of carbon monoxide (CO) in the blood will cause a decrease in peripheral vision and night vision.

10%

Aircrew members will not perform aviation duties for a minimum of _____ after the last alcoholic drink is consumed and until no residual effects remain.

12 hours

CW3 Clark recently had a root canal where a local anesthetic was used. How long is he grounded?

12 hours

CW3 Clark went scuba diving in Camp Crystal Lake. How long must he wait before attending hypobaric chamber exposure?

24 hours

28. Sustained negative acceleration (-Gz) between 2.5

3 Gs reaches the limit of human tolerance and may lead to: - a. Red out

CW3 Clark's birth month window for his Class 2 FDME is February. He was granted an approval for his extension. When will his approved extension expire?

31 March

DD form 365-4 (AWBS Form F) must be reviewed every [1] days except at Ft. Rucker where it is reviewed every [2] days.

90, 365

regulation that governs temporary restrictions due to exogenous factors.

AR 40-8

persons that assists the unit commander in developing, presenting, and monitoring a unit aeromedical training program.

Aeromedical physician assistant, Flight surgeon

The intent of using Class I medications is for them to only be taken if the flight surgeon/APA is______________.

Aware of the medication(s) being taken, Does not pose a risk to aviation safety

Aircrew members will report the following to the supporting aviation medicine team.

Change in health, Hospitalization or quarters ,Domestic violence, DUI

select all the example(s) of permanent disqualifying medical condition(s)

Diabetes, heart attack

Select all the screening criteria required that will result in the favorable granting of an aeromedical waiver for continuation of flight service/flight duties.

Does not preclude satisfactory completion of training or military service. Not aggravated by military service or continued flying duty.

What items below can be considered inhalation hazards?

Fibers, Composite Materials, Plastics, resins

Select the rated crewmember from the list below.

Flight Surgeon

What ingredient in an energy drink will ground you?

Ginseng

26. Under extremely high temperature Halon gas decomposes into more toxic gases. Select two of the three toxic gases from Halon decomposition from the items below.

Hydrogen bromide, Hydrogen fluoride

Who is NOT required to maintain a DD Form 2992, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty?

None of the answers given

Basic Weight + Aircrew + Passengers + Baggage/Cargo + Fuel

OPERATING WEIGHT

Identify the number of times an FDME "Upslip" (DD Form 2992) can be extended and how long the extension will be good for

One, 1 month extension

The Flying Duty Medical Examination (FDME) and/or Flying Duty Health Screening (FDHS):

Promotes and preserves the fitness and safety of aviation personnel.

A ______ should be kept in a conspicuous location and updated to include all hazardous substances in your working environment.

SDS

The time-weighted average concentrations of specific chemicals that are allowed for only 15 minutes during the work day is known as

Short Term Exposure Limits (TLV-STEL)

One of the greatest risks associated with taking herbal medications is

Sudden incapacitation

The two types of Aeromedical Disqualifications are:

Temporary and Permanent

___________ is added to aviation gasoline and is known to be highly toxic which affects the ___________ due to the _____________ content.

Tetraethyl lead, central nervous system, lead

he process in which the body breaks down any substance into its basic components in order to detoxify the body is known as?

The physiochemical process

which screening criteria is not acceptable for requesting or granting an aeromedical waiver for continuation of flight service/flight duties.

There is an undue hazard to the individual or others, condition is unstable

Class 1

These are approved for acute non-disqualifying conditions and do not require a waiver.

Class 2A

These medications require a prescription and may be used for a short term under the supervision of a flight surgeon/APA without a waiver.

Class 3

These medications require a prescription and may receive favorable waiver recommendation only on an individual basis for treatment or control of certain chronic conditions

Class2B

These medications require a prescription and used for long term or chronic use under the supervision of the flight surgeon/APA/AMNP

Select the additive that is found in paints, foams, and adhesives. This additive is known to cause redness and blistering of the eyes, nose respiratory tract, and can cause central nervous system wasting.

Toluene Isocyante

LT Dan is sitting in the cockpit of a C12 aircraft during run-up sequences on the flight line. His copilot notices that LT Dan is having difficulty turning knobs and flipping switches. LT Dan continues through run-up procedures and is now having nausea and is coughing. He is now beginning to slur his words while completing a communications check with air traffic control. What is LT Dan experiencing?

Toxic Fuel Vapor Exposure

9. LT Dan is sitting in the cockpit of a C12 aircraft during run-up sequences on the flight line. His copilot notices that LT Dan is having difficulty turning knobs and flipping switches. LT Dan continues through run-up procedures and is now having nausea and is coughing. He is now beginning to slur his words while completing a communications check with air traffic control. What is LT Dan experiencing?

Toxic fuel vapor exposure

Class 4

Use of these medications necessitates grounding the aircrew member and is not waiverable for flight duty

class 1 medications that are not approved for acute non-disqualifying conditions

Visine, Robitussin with dextromethorphan

If an aircraft is not weighed within the time requirements in AR-95-1, its status changes to?

X

16. Select the appropriate definition to match the below term. Acceleration

a.

13. Select the two accelerative/inertial forces with the least amount of consequences on the human body.

a. + Gx - Gx

7. Select the appropriate force that occurs when an accelerative force acts on the body in a back-to-chest direction. This is experienced during acceleration. The inertial force acts in the opposite direction and the body is forced back into the seat.

a. +Gx

38. Select the appropriate force that occurs when the body accelerated headward. The inertial force acts in the opposite direction towards the feet, and the body is forced down into the cockpit seat.

a. +Gz

12. Select the appropriate force that occurs when the accelerative force acts across the body in a shoulder-to-shoulder direction. This acceleration is experienced primarily during sideward flight in rotary wing aircraft

a. -/+ Gy

9. Select the appropriate force that occurs when an accelerative force acts on the body in a chest to back direction. This is experienced during deceleration. The inertial force acts in the opposite direction and the body is forced forward out of the seat.

a. -Gx

27. Identify the type of G-force experienced by a pilot during a sustained negative acceleration that is known to cause a redout.

a. -Gz

35. Select the appropriate force that occurs when the body accelerated foot ward. The inertial force acts in the opposite direction towards the head, and the body is lifted out of the cockpit seat.

a. -Gz

8. Blood shot eyes or conjunctival hemorrhages noticed after flight may be secondary to which force?

a. -Gz

19. Low magnitude acceleration ranges from __________ and lasting several seconds and high magnitude acceleration exceeding ___________ and lasting less than a second.

a. 1-10 GS, 10 GS

14. While LT Dan is flying a resupply mission in Afghanistan he is alerted by his crew chief of incoming fire. LT Dan begins evasive manuevers and notices that he is having a hard time reading the numbers and gauges on his instrument panel. What is the range of G forces resulting in this condition of grayout?

a. 2.5 - 4.0 +Gz

39. Linear acceleration is. (Select all that apply)

a. A change in an objects speed, occurs when increasing airspeed in flight

5. What factors or modifiers of acceleration increase the severity of the effects on the human body?

a. All answers given

40. Select two of the three criteria that contribute to occupant survival during a crash sequence?

a. Amount of decelerative (crash) force transmitted to the crewmember, occupiable living space

10. Select the appropriate definition to match the below term. Speed

a. An object's magnitude of motion and rate of change

2. Select the appropriate definition to match the below term. Inertial Force

a. An object's resistance to change in a state of rest or motion

42. Select the appropriate definition to match the below term. Velocity

a. An object's speed in a given direction

18. What is the mnemonic that we use to describe the factors that are known to determine the effects of acceleration on the human body.

a. BIRDI

31. One of the circulatory effects caused by a sustained positive accleration (+Gz) force is:

a. Blood pooling in the lower extremities

25. As ________ decreases, the effects of acceleration on the body increases.

a. Body surface area

41. ________________ is the force acting on an object moving in a circular pattern that holds the object on its circular path.

a. Centripetal force

24. Design features that promote crash survival are known as:

a. Container, restraint systems, environment, energy absorption, postcrash protection,

29. Energy absorption safety features in Army rotary wing aircraft include: (Select all that apply)

a. Crash attenuating seats, landing gear

3. ______________ and ____________ are important factors in acceleration and deceleration.

a. Distance and time

34. The human body is able to withstand a series of high-G shocks in each of the three axes for ___________.

a. Extremely short duration

6. Changes in velocity have no physiological effect on an aviator's body.

a. False

17. Incremental factors that enhance the body's ability to withstand "+Gz" forces:

a. Fear/excitement

32. What are contributing factors to the limits to high-magnitude deceleration on the human body?

a. Force duration direction

23. "G" is the measure of the magnitude of an accelerative force with respect to:

a. Gravity

15. A force that pushes the body forward or backward is:

a. Gx

21. Select the order from greatest to least (1 being the greatest and 3 being the least) the human tolerances to G forces.

a. Gx, Gz, Gy

37. A force that pushes the body left or right is:

a. Gy

1. A force that pushes the body up or down is:

a. Gz

4. _________ is the resistance to a change in the state of rest or motion.

a. Inertia

20. This anti-G straining maneuver requires the crewmember to maintain a normal upright sitting position, tense the skeletal muscles, and simultaneously attempt to exhale against a closed glottis at 2- to 3-second intervals.

a. L-1

22. From the following select the factor(s) that reduces the body's G-force tolerance. (Select all that apply)

a. Low blood pressure, alcohol abuse, varicose veins, loss of blood volume

30. Call sign Goose was caught in a flat tailspin that resulted in emergency procedures. Goose pulled his ejection handles. An ejection seat malfunction occurred that was most likely secondary to excessive propellant charge that increased the duration of the 8G ejection flight. This resulted in Goose experiencing a blackout. What was the most likely cause of his blackout?

a. Prolonged or sustained exposure to the accelerative force

26. LT Dan is practicing evasive procedures in his C12 fixed wing aircraft. He performs a tight corkscrew like spin to simulate avoidance of surface-to-air missile. Select all the factors that change simultaneously during this angular acceleration maneuver.

a. Speed, direction

33. The human body is less vulnerable to injury when exposed to a series of high-G shocks in a single axis as opposed to multiple axises.

a. True

36. During aircraft maneuvers, the main body part affected by excessive force is the cardiovascular system.

a. True

11. The shorter the stopping distance, the lesser the G-force.

a. false

Which statements below are true regarding blood and plasma donations,

blood donation = 72 hour grounding, plasma donation = 24 hour grounding

What is the most common toxic substance in an aviation environment?

carbon monoxide

what class of Flight Duty Medical Examination (FDME) must be maintained by trained Aviators, Flight Surgeons and Aeromedical Physician Assistants?

class 2

Select the Class 1 medications that are approved for acute non

disqualifying conditions: .Pepto Bismol, Afrin, Tums, Ricola throat lozenges

Several completed DD Forms 365-4 (AWBS Form F) aboard the aircraft for other loads to verify the weight and center of gravity may be used. In this case, the actual loading being verified must be within the ___________of the loading shown on DD Forms 365-4 (AWBS Form F) used for verification.

extremes

Crewmembers are not required to stay current in aeromedical training and hypobaric (low pressure/high altitude) training.

false

Herbal medicines are approved while on flight status and does not require reporting to your aviation medicine team.

false

asic Weight + Aircrew + Baggage/Cargo + Steward Equipment + Survival Kits + Emergency Equipment + Special Mission Fixed Equipment + all other non-expendable items not included in the aircrafts basic weight

gross take off weight

he goal of a FDME (Flight Duty Medical Examination) is to

maintain deployability

What is the formula for computing a moment?

moment = weight x arm

What is zero fuel weight?

operating weight + payload.

Overloading an aircraft may result in reduced engine and airframe life or cause [1] [2].

structural damage

The __________ is the final approval authority for the DD Form 2992, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty, and may agree or disagree with the Flight Surgeon's recommendation.

unit commander

The health care team duties and responsibilities are:

unit readiness, staff functions and clinical and operational preventive medicine

Are FDME/FDHS required on deployment?

yes