Exam 2

To provide competent care to an Asian-American family, the nurse should include which of the following questions during the assessment interview? a. "Do you prefer hot or cold beverages?" b. "Do you want milk to drink?" c. "Do you want music playing while you are in labor?" d. "Do you have a name selected for the baby?"

a. "Do you prefer hot or cold beverages?" Asian-Americans often prefer warm beverages. Milk usually is excluded from the diet of this population. Asian-American women typically labor in a quiet atmosphere. Delaying naming the child is common for Asian-American families.

By what age does the posterior fontanel usually close? a. 6 to 8 weeks b. 10 to 12 weeks c. 4 to 6 months d. 8 to 10 months

a. 6 to 8 weeks The bones surrounding the posterior fontanel fuse and close by age 6 to 8 weeks. Ten weeks or longer is too late.

Preschoolers' fears can best be dealt with by which intervention? a. Actively involving them in finding practical methods to deal with the frightening experience b. Forcing them to confront the frightening object or experience in the presence of their parents c. Using logical persuasion to explain away their fears and help them recognize how unrealistic the fears are d. Ridiculing their fears so they understand that there is no need to be afraid

a. Actively involving them in finding practical methods to deal with the frightening experience Actively involving the child in finding practical methods to deal with the frightening experience is the best way to deal with fears. Forcing a child to confront fears may make the child more afraid. Pre-conceptual thought prevents logical understanding. Ridiculing fears does not make them go away.

With regard to the association of maternal diabetes and other risk situations affecting mother and fetus, nurses should be aware that: a. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) can lead to fetal death at any time during pregnancy. b. Hydramnios occurs approximately twice as often in diabetic pregnancies. c. Infections occur about as often and are considered about as serious in diabetic and nondiabetic pregnancies. d. Even mild to moderate hypoglycemic episodes can have significant effects on fetal well-being.

a. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) can lead to fetal death at any time during pregnancy. Prompt treatment of DKA is necessary to save the fetus and the mother. Hydramnios occurs 10 times more often in diabetic pregnancies. Infections are more common and more serious in pregnant women with diabetes. Mild to moderate hypoglycemic episodes do not appear to have significant effects on fetal well-being.

Pacifiers can be extremely dangerous because of the frequency of use and the intensity of the infant's suck. In teaching parents about appropriate pacifier selection, the nurse should explain that a pacifier should have which characteristics (select all that apply)? a. Easily grasped handle b. One-piece construction c. Ribbon or string to secure to clothing d. Soft, pliable material e. Sturdy, flexible material

a. Easily grasped handle b. One-piece construction e. Sturdy, flexible material A good pacifier should be easily grasped by the infant. One-piece construction is necessary to avoid having the nipple and guard separate. The material should be sturdy and flexible. An attached ribbon or string and soft, pliable material are not characteristics of a good pacifier.

Which information could be given to the parents of a 12-month-old child regarding appropriate play activities for this age? a. Give large push-pull toys for kinesthetic stimulation. b. Place cradle gym across crib to facilitate fine motor skills. c. Provide child with finger paints to enhance fine motor skills. d. Provide stick horse to develop gross motor coordination.

a. Give large push-pull toys for kinesthetic stimulation. The 12-month-old child is able to pull to a stand and walk holding on or independently. Appropriate toys for a child of this age include large push-pull toys for kinesthetic stimulation. A cradle gym should not be placed across the crib. Finger paints are appropriate for older children. A 12-month-old child does not have the stability to use a stick horse.

Compared with contraction stress test (CST), nonstress test (NST) for antepartum fetal assessment: a. Has no known contraindications. b. Has fewer false-positive results. c. Is more sensitive in detecting fetal compromise. d. Is slightly more expensive.

a. Has no known contraindications. CST has several contraindications. NST has a high rate of false-positive results, is less sensitive than the CST, and is relatively inexpensive.

Which gross motor milestones should the nurse assess in an 18-month-old child (select all that apply)? a. Jumps in place with both feet b. Takes a few steps on tiptoe c. Throws ball overhand without falling d. Pulls and pushes toys e. Stands on one foot momentarily

a. Jumps in place with both feet c. Throws ball overhand without falling d. Pulls and pushes toys An 18-month-old child can jump in place with both feet, throw a ball overhand without falling, and pull and push toys. Taking a few steps on tiptoe and standing on one foot momentarily are not acquired until 30 months of age.

The parents of a 4-month-old infant tell the nurse that they are getting a microwave oven and will be able to heat the baby's formula faster. The nurse should recommend: a. Never heating a bottle in a microwave oven. b. Heating only 10 ounces or more. c. Always leaving the bottle top uncovered to allow heat to escape. d. Shaking the bottle vigorously for at least 30 seconds after heating.

a. Never heating a bottle in a microwave oven. Neither infant formula nor breast milk should be warmed in a microwave oven as this may cause oral burns as a result of uneven heating in the container. The bottle may remain cool while hot spots develop in the milk. Warming expressed milk in a microwave decreases the availability of anti-infective properties and causes separation of the fat content. Milk should be warmed in a lukewarm water bath.

The reported incidence of ectopic pregnancy in the United States has risen steadily over the past 2 decades. Causes include the increase in STDs accompanied by tubal infection and damage. The popularity of contraceptive devices such as the IUD has also increased the risk for ectopic pregnancy. The nurse who suspects that a patient has early signs of ectopic pregnancy should be observing her for symptoms such as (Select all that apply): a. Pelvic pain b. Abdominal pain c. Unanticipated heavy bleeding d. Vaginal spotting or light bleeding e. Missed period

a. Pelvic pain b. Abdominal pain d. Vaginal spotting or light bleeding e. Missed period A missed period or spotting can easily be mistaken by the patient as early signs of pregnancy. More subtle signs depend on exactly where the implantation occurs. The nurse must be thorough in her assessment because pain is not a normal symptom of early pregnancy. As the fallopian tube tears open and the embryo is expelled, the patient often exhibits severe pain accompanied by intraabdominal hemorrhage. This may progress to hypovolemic shock with minimal or even no external bleeding. In about half of women, shoulder and neck pain results from irritation of the diaphragm from the hemorrhage.

Motor vehicle injuries are a significant threat to young children. Knowing this, the nurse plans a teaching session with a toddler's parents on car safety. Which will she teach (select all that apply)? a. Secure in a rear-facing, upright, car safety seat. b. Place the car safety seat in the rear seat, behind the driver's seat. c. Harness safety straps should be fit snugly. d. Place the car safety seat in the front passenger seat equipped with an air bag. e. After the age of 2 years, toddlers can be placed in a forward-facing car seat.

a. Secure in a rear-facing, upright, car safety seat. c. Harness safety straps should be fit snugly. e. After the age of 2 years, toddlers can be placed in a forward-facing car seat. Toddlers younger than 2 years should be secured in a rear-facing, upright, approved car safety seat. After the age of 2 years, a forward-facing car seat can be used. Harness straps should be adjusted to provide a snug fit. The car safety seat should be placed in the middle of the rear seat. Children younger than 13 years should not ride in a front passenger seat that is equipped with an air bag.

A newborn assessment shows separated sagittal suture, oblique palpebral fissures, depressed nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and transverse palmar creases. These findings are most suggestive of: a. Microcephaly. b. Down syndrome. c. Cerebral palsy. d. Fragile X syndrome.

b. Down syndrome. These are characteristics associated with Down syndrome. The infant with microcephaly has a small head. Cerebral palsy is a diagnosis not usually made at birth. No characteristic physical signs are present. The infant with fragile X syndrome has increased head circumference; long, wide, and/or protruding ears; long, narrow face with prominent jaw; hypotonia; and high, arched palate.

Unique muscle fibers make the uterine myometrium ideally suited for: a. Menstruation. b. The birth process. c. Ovulation. d. Fertilization.

b. The birth process The myometrium is made up of layers of smooth muscle that extend in three directions. These muscles assist in the birth process by expelling the fetus, ligating blood vessels after birth, and controlling the opening of the cervical os.

Which screening tests should the school nurse perform for the adolescent (select all that apply)? a. Glucose b. Vision c. Hearing d. Cholesterol e. Scoliosis

b. Vision c. Hearing e. Scoliosis The school nurse should perform vision, hearing, and scoliosis screening tests according to the school district's required schedule. Glucose and cholesterol screening would be performed in the medical clinic setting.

Which comments indicate that the mother of a toddler needs further teaching about dental care? a. "We use well water so I give my toddler fluoride supplements." b. "My toddler brushes his teeth with my help." c. "My child will not need a dental checkup until his permanent teeth come in." d. "I use a small nylon bristle brush for my toddler's teeth."

c. "My child will not need a dental checkup until his permanent teeth come in." Children should first see the dentist 6 months after the first primary tooth erupts and no later than age 30 months. Toddlers need fluoride supplements when they use a water supply that is not fluorinated. Toddlers also require supervision with dental care. The parent should finish brushing areas not reached by the child. A small nylon bristle brush works best for cleaning toddlers' teeth.

By what age should the nurse expect that an infant will be able to pull to a standing position? a. 6 months b. 8 months c. 9 months d. 11 to 12 months

c. 9 months Most infants can pull themselves to a standing position at age 9 months. Any infant who cannot pull to a standing position by age 11 to 12 months should be referred for further evaluation for developmental dysplasia of the hip. At 6 months, the infant has just obtained coordination of arms and legs. By age 8 months, infants can bear full weight on their legs.

When caring for a newborn with Down syndrome, the nurse should be aware that the most common congenital anomaly associated with Down syndrome is: a. Hypospadias. b. Pyloric stenosis. c. Congenital heart disease. d. Congenital hip dysplasia.

c. Congenital heart disease. Congenital heart malformations, primarily septal defects, are very common congenital anomalies in Down syndrome. Hypospadias, pyloric stenosis, and congenital hip dysplasia are not frequent congenital anomalies associated with Down syndrome.

A woman with asthma is experiencing a postpartum hemorrhage. Which drug would not be used to treat her bleeding because it may exacerbate her asthma? a. Pitocin b. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) c. Hemabate d. Fentanyl

c. Hemabate Prostaglandin derivatives should not be used to treat women with asthma, because they may exacerbate symptoms. Pitocin would be the drug of choice to treat this woman's bleeding because it would not exacerbate her asthma. NSAIDs are not used to treat bleeding. Fentanyl is used to treat pain, not bleeding.

When evaluating a patient whose primary complaint is amenorrhea, the nurse must be aware that lack of menstruation is most often the result of: a. Stress. b. Excessive exercise. c. Pregnancy. d. Eating disorders.

c. Pregnancy. Amenorrhea, or the absence of menstrual flow, is most often a result of pregnancy. Although stress, excessive exercise, and eating disorders all may be contributing factors, none is the most common factor associated with amenorrhea.

The most common clinical manifestation of retinoblastoma is: a. Glaucoma. b. Amblyopia. c. White eye reflex. d. Sunken eye socket.

c. White eye reflex. When examining the eye, the light will reflect off of the tumor, giving the eye a whitish appearance. This is called white eye reflex. A late sign of retinoblastoma is a red, painful eye with glaucoma. Amblyopia, or lazy eye, is reduced visual acuity in one eye. The eye socket is not sunken with retinoblastoma.

The nurse providing care for a woman with gestational diabetes understands that a laboratory test for glycosylated hemoglobin Alc: a. Is now done for all pregnant women, not just those with or likely to have diabetes. b. Is a snapshot of glucose control at the moment. c. Would be considered evidence of good diabetes control with a result of 5% to 6%. d. Is done on the patient's urine, not her blood.

c. Would be considered evidence of good diabetes control with a result of 5% to 6%. A score of 5% to 6% indicates good control. This is an extra test for diabetic women, not one done for all pregnant women. This test defines glycemic control over the previous 4 to 6 weeks. Glycosylated hemoglobin level tests are done on the blood.

Which accomplishment would the nurse expect of a healthy 3-year-old child? a. Jump rope b. Ride a two-wheel bicycle c. Skip on alternate feet d. Balance on one foot for a few seconds

d. Balance on one foot for a few seconds Three-year-olds are able to accomplish the gross motor skill of balancing on one foot. Jumping rope, riding a two-wheel bike, and skipping on alternate feet are gross motor skills of 5-year-old children.

In planning for the care of a 30-year-old woman with pregestational diabetes, the nurse recognizes that the most important factor affecting pregnancy outcome is the: a. Mother's age. b. Number of years since diabetes was diagnosed. c. Amount of insulin required prenatally. d. Degree of glycemic control during pregnancy.

d. Degree of glycemic control during pregnancy. Women with excellent glucose control and no blood vessel disease should have good pregnancy outcomes.

One of the alterations in cyclic bleeding that occurs between periods is called: a. Oligomenorrhea. b. Menorrhagia. c. Leiomyoma. d. Metrorrhagia.

d. Metrorrhagia Metrorrhagia is bleeding between periods. It can be caused by progestin injections and implants. Oligomenorrhea is infrequent or scanty menstruation. Menorrhagia is excessive menstruation. Leiomyoma is a common cause of excessive bleeding.

The weight loss of anorexia nervosa is often triggered by: a. Sexual abuse. b. School failure. c. Independence from family. d. Traumatic interpersonal conflict.

d. Traumatic interpersonal conflict. Weight loss may be triggered by a typical adolescent crisis such as the onset of menstruation or a traumatic interpersonal incident; situations of severe family stress such as parental separation or divorce; or circumstances in which the young person lacks personal control, such as being teased, changing schools, or entering college. There may in fact be a history of sexual abuse; however, this is not the trigger. These adolescents are often overachievers who are successful in school, not failures in school. The adolescent is most often enmeshed with his or her family.

The recommended treatment for the prevention of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmission to the fetus during pregnancy is: a. Acyclovir. b. Ofloxacin. c. Podophyllin. d. Zidovudine.

d. Zidovudine. Perinatal transmission of HIV has decreased significantly in the past decade as a result of prophylactic administration of the antiretroviral drug zidovudine to pregnant women in the prenatal and perinatal periods. Acyclovir is an antiviral treatment for HSV. Ofloxacin is an antibacterial treatment for gonorrhea. Podophyllin is a solution used in the treatment of human papillomavirus.

To detect human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), most laboratory tests focus on the: a. virus. b. HIV antibodies. c. CD4 counts. d. CD8 counts.

b. HIV antibodies. The screening tool used to detect HIV is the enzyme immunoassay, which tests for the presence of antibodies to the virus. CD4 counts are associated with the incidence of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) in HIV-infected individuals.

The viral sexually transmitted infection (STI) that affects most people in the United States today is: a. Herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2). b. Human papillomavirus (HPV). c. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). d. Cytomegalovirus (CMV).

b. Human papillomavirus (HPV). HPV infection is the most prevalent viral STI seen in ambulatory health care settings. HSV-2, HIV, and CMV all are viral STIs but are not the most prevalent viral STIs.

An appropriate recommendation in preventing tooth decay in young children is to: a. Substitute raisins for candy. b. Serve sweets after a meal. c. Use honey or molasses instead of refined sugar. d. Serve sweets between meals.

b. Serve sweets after a meal. Sweets should be consumed with meals so the teeth can be cleaned afterward. This decreases the amount of time that the sugar is in contact with the teeth. Raisins, honey, and molasses are highly cariogenic and should be avoided.

The teaching plan for the parents of a 3-year-old child with amblyopia ("lazy eye") should include what instruction? a. Apply a patch to the child's eyeglass lenses. b. Apply a patch only during waking hours. c. Apply a patch over the "bad" eye to strengthen it. d. Cover the "good" eye completely with a patch.

d. Cover the "good" eye completely with a patch. The "good" eye is patched to force the child to use the "bad" eye, thus strengthening the muscles. The patch should always be applied directly to the child's face, not to eyeglasses. The patch should be left in place even when the child is sleeping. Covering the "bad" eye will not contribute to strengthening it. The "good" eye should be patched.

Achieving and maintaining euglycemia comprise the primary goals of medical therapy for the pregnant woman with diabetes. These goals are achieved through a combination of diet, insulin, exercise, and blood glucose monitoring. The target blood glucose levels 1 hour after a meal should be: _________________

130 to 140 mg/dL Target levels of blood glucose during pregnancy are lower than nonpregnant values. Accepted fasting levels are between 65 and 95 mg/dL, and 1-hour postmeal levels should be less than 130 to 140 mg/dL. Two-hour postmeal levels should be 120 mg/dL or less.

A pictorial tool that can assist the nurse in assessing aspects of family life related to health care is the: a. Genogram. b. Family values construct. c. Life cycle model. d. Human development wheel.

a. Genogram A genogram depicts the relationships of family members over generations.

The parent of 16-month-old Chris asks, "What is the best way to keep Chris from getting into our medicines at home?" The nurse should advise that: a. "All medicines should be locked securely away." b. "The medicines should be placed in high cabinets." c. "Chris just needs to be taught not to touch medicines." d. "Medicines should not be kept in the homes of small children."

a. "All medicines should be locked securely away." The major reason for poisoning in the home is improper storage. Toddlers can climb, unlatch cabinets, and obtain access to high-security places. For medications, only a locked cabinet is safe. Toddlers can climb by using furniture. High places are not a deterrent to an exploring toddler. Toddlers are not able to generalize as dangerous all of the different forms of medications that may be available in the home. Teaching them not to touch medicines is not feasible. Many parents require medications for chronic illnesses. They must be taught safe storage for their home and when they visit other homes.

The mean age of menarche in the United States is: a. 11.5 years b. 12.5 years c. 13.5 years d. 14 years

b. 12.5 years The average age of menarche is 12 years and 4 months in North American girls, with a normal range of 10.5 to 15 years.

An unmarried young woman describes her sex life as "active" and involving "many" partners. She wants a contraceptive method that is reliable and does not interfere with sex. She requests an intrauterine device (IUD). The nurse's most appropriate response is: a. "The IUD does not interfere with sex." b. "The risk of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) will be higher for you." c. "The IUD will protect you from sexually transmitted infections (STIs)." d. "Pregnancy rates are high with IUDs."

b. "The risk of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) will be higher for you." Disadvantages of IUDs include an increased risk of PID in the first 20 days after insertion and the risks of bacterial vaginosis and uterine perforation. The IUD offers no protection against STIs or human immunodeficiency virus. Because this woman has multiple sex partners, she is at higher risk of developing a STI. The IUD does not protect against infection, as does a barrier method. Although the statement "The IUD does not interfere with sex" may be correct, it is not the most appropriate response. The IUD offers no protection from STIs. The typical failure rate of the IUD in the first year of use is 0.8%.

A married couple is discussing alternatives for pregnancy prevention and has asked about fertility awareness methods (FAMs). The nurse's most appropriate reply is: a. "They're not very effective, and it's very likely you'll get pregnant." b. "They can be effective for many couples, but they require motivation." c. "These methods have a few advantages and several health risks." d. "You would be much safer going on the pill and not having to worry."

b. "They can be effective for many couples, but they require motivation." FAMs are effective with proper vigilance about ovulatory changes in the body and adherence to coitus intervals. They are effective if used correctly by a woman with a regular menstrual cycle. The typical failure rate for all FAMs is 25% during the first year of use. FAMs have no associated health risks. The use of birth control has associated health risks. In addition, taking a pill daily requires compliance on the client's part.

The nurse is caring for a hospitalized 4-year-old boy, Ryan. His parents tell the nurse that they will be back to visit at 6 PM. When Ryan asks the nurse when his parents are coming, the nurse's best response is: a. "They will be here soon." b. "They will come after dinner." c. "Let me show you on the clock when 6 PM is." d. "I will tell you every time I see you how much longer it will be."

b. "They will come after dinner." A 4-year-old understands time in relation to events such as meals. Children perceive "soon" as a very short time. The nurse may lose the child's trust if his parents do not return in the time he perceives as "soon." Children cannot read or use a clock for practical purposes until age 7 years. This answer assumes that the child understands the concept of hours and minutes, which is not developed until age 5 or 6 years.

A woman inquires about herbal alternative methods for improving fertility. Which statement by the nurse is the most appropriate when instructing the client in which herbal preparations to avoid while trying to conceive? a. "You should avoid nettle leaf, dong quai, and vitamin E while you are trying to get pregnant." b. "You may want to avoid licorice root, lavender, fennel, sage, and thyme while you are trying to conceive." c. "You should not take anything with vitamin E, calcium, or magnesium. They will make you infertile." d. "Herbs have no bearing on fertility."

b. "You may want to avoid licorice root, lavender, fennel, sage, and thyme while you are trying to conceive." Herbs that a woman should avoid while trying to conceive include licorice root, yarrow, wormwood, ephedra, fennel, golden seal, lavender, juniper, flaxseed, pennyroyal, passionflower, wild cherry, cascara, sage, thyme, and periwinkle. Nettle leaf, dong quai, and vitamin E all promote fertility. Vitamin E, calcium, and magnesium may promote fertility and conception. All supplements and herbs should be purchased from trusted sources.

Which statement is the most appropriate advice to give parents of a 16-year-old girl who is rebellious? a. "You need to be stricter so that your teen stops trying to test the limits." b. "You need to collaborate with your daughter and set limits that are perceived as being reasonable." c. "Increasing your teen's involvement with her peers will improve her self-esteem." d. "Allow your teenager to choose the type of discipline that is used in your home."

b. "You need to collaborate with your daughter and set limits that are perceived as being reasonable." Allowing teenagers to choose between realistic options and offering consistent and structured discipline typically enhances cooperation and decreases rebelliousness. Structure helps adolescents to feel more secure and assists them in the decision-making process. Setting stricter limits typically does not decrease rebelliousness or decrease testing of parental limits. Increasing peer involvement does not typically increase self-esteem.

A woman who has a seizure disorder and takes barbiturates and phenytoin sodium daily asks the nurse about the pill as a contraceptive choice. The nurse's most appropriate response would be: a. "This is a highly effective method, but it has some side effects." b. "Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill." c. "The pill will reduce the effectiveness of your seizure medication." d. "This is a good choice for a woman of your age and personal history."

b. "Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill." Because the liver metabolizes oral contraceptives, their effectiveness is reduced when they are taken simultaneously with anticonvulsants. The statement "Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill" is true, but it is not the most appropriate response. The anticonvulsant will reduce the effectiveness of the pill, not the other way around. The statement "This is a good choice for a woman of your age and personal history" does not teach the client that the effectiveness of the pill may be reduced because of her anticonvulsant therapy.

The nurse is assessing a 6-month-old healthy infant who weighed 7 pounds at birth. The nurse should expect the infant to now weigh approximately: a. 10 pounds. b. 15 pounds. c. 20 pounds. d. 25 pounds.

b. 15 pounds. Birth weight doubles at about age 5 to 6 months. At 6 months, an infant who weighed 7 pounds at birth would weigh approximately 15 pounds. Ten pounds is too little; the infant would have gone from the 50th percentile at birth to below the 5th percentile. Twenty pounds or more is too much; the infant would have tripled the birth weight at 6 months.

At what age should the nurse expect an infant to begin smiling in response to pleasurable stimuli? a. 1 month b. 2 months c. 3 months d. 4 months

b. 2 months At age 2 months, the infant has a social, responsive smile. A reflex smile is usually present at age 1 month. The 3-month-old can recognize familiar faces. At age 4 months, the infant can enjoy social interactions.

Kimberly's parents have been using a rearward-facing, convertible car seat since she was born. The parents should be taught that most car seats can be safely switched to the forward-facing position when the child reaches which age? a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years

b. 2 years It is now recommended that all infants and toddlers ride in rear-facing car safety seats until they reach the age of 2 years or the height or weight recommended by the car seat manufacturer. Children 2 years old and older who have outgrown the rear-facing height or weight limit for their car safety seat should use a forward-facing car safety seat with a harness up to the maximum height or weight recommended by the manufacturer. One year is too young to switch to a forward-facing position.

When is the best age for solid food to be introduced into the infant's diet? a. 2 to 3 months b. 4 to 6 months c. When birth weight has tripled d. When tooth eruption has started

b. 4 to 6 months Physiologically and developmentally, the 4- to 6-month-old is in a transition period. The extrusion reflex has disappeared, and swallowing is a more coordinated process. In addition, the gastrointestinal tract has matured sufficiently to handle more complex nutrients and is less sensitive to potentially allergenic food. Infants of this age will try to help during feeding. Two to 3 months is too young. The extrusion reflex is strong, and the infant will push food out with the tongue. No research base indicates that the addition of solid food to bottle-feeding has any benefit. Tooth eruption can facilitate biting and chewing; most infant foods do not require this ability.

Parents of a 12-year-old child ask the clinic nurse, "How many hours of sleep should our child get?' The nurse should respond that 12-year-old children need how many hours of sleep at night? a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 11

b. 9 School-age children usually do not require naps, but they do need to sleep approximately 11 hours at age 5 years and 9 hours at age 12 years each night.

Which statement accurately describes physical development during the school-age years? a. The child's weight almost triples. b. A child grows an average of 2 inches per year. c. Few physical differences are apparent among children at the end of middle childhood. d. Fat gradually increases, which contributes to the child's heavier appearance.

b. A child grows an average of 2 inches per year. In middle childhood, growth in height and weight occur at a slower pace. Between the ages of 6 and 12 years, children grow 2 inches per year. In middle childhood, children's weight will almost double; they gain 3 kg/year. At the end of middle childhood, girls grow taller and gain more weight than boys. Children take on a slimmer look with longer legs in middle childhood.

Which statement about family systems theory is inaccurate? a. A family system is part of a larger suprasystem. b. A family as a whole is equal to the sum of the individual members. c. A change in one family member affects all family members. d. The family is able to create a balance between change and stability.

b. A family as a whole is equal to the sum of the individual members A family as a whole is greater than the sum of its parts. The other statements are characteristics of a system that states that a family is greater than the sum of its parts.

The patient that you are caring for has severe preeclampsia and is receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion. You become concerned after assessment when the woman exhibits: a. A sleepy, sedated affect. b. A respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. c. Deep tendon reflexes of 2. d. Absent ankle clonus.

b. A respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. A respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory depression from magnesium toxicity. Because magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant, the client will most likely become sedated when the infusion is initiated. Deep tendon reflexes of 2 and absent ankle clonus are normal findings.

When a child with mild cognitive impairment reaches the end of adolescence, what characteristic would be expected? a. Achieves a mental age of 5 to 6 years b. Achieves a mental age of 8 to 12 years c. Is unable to progress in functional reading or arithmetic d. Acquires practical skills and useful reading and arithmetic to an eighth-grade level

b. Achieves a mental age of 8 to 12 years By the end of adolescence, the child with mild cognitive impairment can usually acquire social and vocational skills, may need occasional guidance and support when under unusual social or economic stress, and may be able to adjust to marriage but not childrearing. Achieving a mental age of 5 to 6 years is considered a level of skill development associated with severe cognitive impairment. Being unable to progress in functional reading or math would indicate a level of skill development associated with profound cognitive impairment. Acquiring practical skills and useful reading and math to an eighth-grade level represents a level of skill development associated with moderate cognitive impairment.

The school nurse is caring for a child with a penetrating eye injury. Emergency treatment includes: a. Applying a regular eye patch. b. Applying a Fox shield to the affected eye and any type of patch to the other eye. c. Applying ice until the physician is seen. d. Irrigating the eye copiously with a sterile saline solution.

b. Applying a Fox shield to the affected eye and any type of patch to the other eye. The nurse's role in a penetrating eye injury is to prevent further injury to the eye. A Fox shield (if available) should be applied to the injured eye, and a regular eye patch to the other eye to prevent bilateral movement. Applying a regular eye patch or ice until the physician is seen, or irrigating the eye with a copious amount of sterile saline, may cause more damage to the eye.

What is descriptive of the preschooler's understanding of time? a. Has no understanding of time b. Associates time with events c. Can tell time on a clock d. Uses terms like "yesterday" appropriately

b. Associates time with events In a preschooler's understanding, time has a relation with events such as, "We'll go outside after lunch." Preschoolers develop an abstract sense of time at age 3 years. Children can tell time on a clock at age 7 years. Children do not fully understand use of time-oriented words until age 6 years.

Which contraceptive method best protects against sexually transmitted infections (STIs) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? a. Periodic abstinence b. Barrier methods c. Hormonal methods d. They all offer about the same protection.

b. Barrier methods Barrier methods such as condoms best protect against STIs and HIV. Periodic abstinence and hormonal methods ("the pill") offer no protection against STIs or HIV.

Care management of a woman diagnosed with acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) most likely would include: a. Oral antiviral therapy. b. Bed rest in a semi-Fowler position. c. Antibiotic regimen continued until symptoms subside. d. Frequent pelvic examination to monitor the progress of healing.

b. Bed rest in a semi-Fowler position. A woman with acute PID should be on bed rest in a semi-Fowler position. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are used. Antibiotics must be taken as prescribed, even if symptoms subside. Few pelvic examinations should be conducted during the acute phase of the disease.

A 41-week pregnant multigravida presents in the labor and delivery unit after a nonstress test indicated that her fetus could be experiencing some difficulties in utero. Which diagnostic tool would yield more detailed information about the fetus? a. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies b. Biophysical profile (BPP) c. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening d. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)

b. Biophysical profile (BPP) Real-time ultrasound permits detailed assessment of the physical and physiologic characteristics of the developing fetus and cataloging of normal and abnormal biophysical responses to stimuli. BPP is a noninvasive, dynamic assessment of a fetus that is based on acute and chronic markers of fetal disease. An ultrasound for fetal anomalies would most likely have been performed earlier in the pregnancy. It is too late in the pregnancy to perform MSAFP screening. Also, MSAFP screening does not provide information related to fetal well-being. Indications for PUBS include prenatal diagnosis or inherited blood disorders, karyotyping of malformed fetuses, detection of fetal infection, determination of the acid-base status of a fetus with IUGR, and assessment and treatment of isoimmunization and thrombocytopenia in the fetus.

A 41-week pregnant multigravida presents in the labor and delivery unit after a nonstress test indicated that her fetus could be experiencing some difficulties in utero. Which diagnostic tool would yield more detailed information about the fetus? a. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies b. Biophysical profile (BPP) c. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening d. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)

b. Biophysical profile (BPP) Real-time ultrasound permits detailed assessment of the physical and physiologic characteristics of the developing fetus and cataloging of normal and abnormal biophysical responses to stimuli. BPP is a noninvasive, dynamic assessment of a fetus that is based on acute and chronic markers of fetal disease. An ultrasound for fetal anomalies would most likely have been performed earlier in the pregnancy. It is too late in the pregnancy to perform MSAFP screening. Also, MSAFP screening does not provide information related to fetal well-being. Indications for PUBS include prenatal diagnosis or inherited blood disorders, karyotyping of malformed fetuses, detection of fetal infection, determination of the acid-base status of a fetus with IUGR, and assessment and treatment of isoimmunization and thrombocytopenia in the fetus.

The body part that both protects the pelvic structures and accommodates the growing fetus during pregnancy is the: a. Perineum. b. Bony pelvis. c. Vaginal vestibule. d. Fourchette.

b. Bony pelvis. The bony pelvis protects and accommodates the growing fetus. The perineum covers the pelvic structures. The vaginal vestibule contains openings to the urethra and vagina. The fourchette is formed by the labia minor.

Concerning the use and abuse of legal drugs or substances, nurses should be aware that: a. Although cigarette smoking causes a number of health problems, it has little direct effect on maternity-related health. b. Caucasian women are more likely to experience alcohol-related problems. c. Coffee is a stimulant that can interrupt body functions and has been related to birth defects. d. Prescription psychotherapeutic drugs taken by the mother do not affect the fetus; otherwise, they would not have been prescribed.

b. Caucasian women are more likely to experience alcohol-related problems. African-American and poor women are more likely to use illicit substances, particularly cocaine, whereas Caucasian and educated women are more likely to use alcohol. Cigarette smoking impairs fertility and is a cause of low birth weight. Caffeine consumption has not been related to birth defects. Psychotherapeutic drugs have some effect on the fetus, and that risk must be weighed against their benefit to the mother.

A child with autism is hospitalized with asthma. The nurse should plan care so that the: a. Parents' expectations are met. b. Child's routine habits and preferences are maintained. c. Child is supported through the autistic crisis. d. Parents need not be at the hospital.

b. Child's routine habits and preferences are maintained. Children with autism are often unable to tolerate even slight changes in routine. The child's routine habits and preferences are important to maintain. Focus of care is on the child's needs rather than on the parent's desires. Autism is a lifelong condition. The presence of the parents is almost always required when an autistic child is hospitalized.

A 17-year-old tells the nurse that he is not having sex because it would make his parents very angry. This response indicates that the adolescent has a developmental lag in which area? a. Cognitive development b. Moral development c. Psychosocial development d. Psychosexual development

b. Moral development The appropriate moral development for a 17-year-old would include evidence that the teenager has internalized a value system and does not depend on parents to determine right and wrong behaviors. Adolescents who remain concrete thinkers may never advance beyond conformity to please others and avoid punishment. Cognitive development is related to moral development, but it is not the pivotal point in determining right and wrong behaviors. Identity formation is the psychosocial development task. Energy is focused within the adolescent, who exhibits behavior that is self-absorbed and egocentric. Although a task during adolescence is the development of a sexual identity, the teenager's dependence on the parents' sanctioning of right or wrong behavior is more appropriately related to moral development.

Which statement best describes fear in school-age children? a. They are increasingly fearful for body safety. b. Most of the new fears that trouble them are related to school and family. c. They should be encouraged to hide their fears to prevent ridicule by peers. d. Those who have numerous fears need continuous protective behavior by parents to eliminate these fears.

b. Most of the new fears that trouble them are related to school and family. During the school-age years, children experience a wide variety of fears, but new fears related predominantly to school and family bother children during this time. During the middle-school years, children become less fearful of body safety than they were as preschoolers. Parents and other persons involved with children should discuss their fear with them individually or as a group activity. Sometimes school-age children hide their fears to avoid being teased. Hiding the fears does not end them and may lead to phobias.

Physiologically, sexual response can be characterized by: a. Coitus, masturbation, and fantasy. b. Myotonia and vasocongestion. c. Erection and orgasm. d. Excitement, plateau, and orgasm.

b. Myotonia and vasocongestion. Physiologically, according to Masters (1992), sexual response can be analyzed in terms of two processes: vasocongestion and myotonia. Coitus, masturbation, and fantasy are forms of stimulation for the physical manifestation of the sexual response. Erection and orgasm occur in two of the four phases of the sexual response cycle. Excitement, plateau, and orgasm are three of the four phases of the sexual response cycle.

Parents tell the nurse that they found their 3-year-old daughter and a male cousin of the same age inspecting each other closely as they used the bathroom. Which is the most appropriate recommendation the nurse should make? a. Punish children so this behavior stops. b. Neither condone nor condemn the curiosity. c. Allow children unrestricted permission to satisfy this curiosity. d. Get counseling for this unusual and dangerous behavior.

b. Neither condone nor condemn the curiosity. Three-year-olds become aware of anatomic differences and are concerned about how the other "works." Such exploration should not be condoned or condemned. Children should not be punished for this normal exploration. Encouraging the children to ask questions of the parents and redirecting their activity are more appropriate than giving permission. Exploration is age-appropriate and not dangerous behavior.

Mark, a 9-year-old with Down syndrome, is mainstreamed into a regular third-grade class for part of the school day. His mother asks the school nurse about programs such as Cub Scouts that he might join. The nurse's recommendation should be based on knowing that: a. Programs such as Cub Scouts are inappropriate for children who are cognitively impaired. b. Children with Down syndrome have the same need for socialization as other children. c. Children with Down syndrome socialize better with children who have similar disabilities. d. Parents of children with Down syndrome encourage programs such as scouting because they deny that their children have disabilities.

b. Children with Down syndrome have the same need for socialization as other children. Children of all ages need peer relationships. Children with Down syndrome should have peer experiences similar to those of other children, such as group outings, Cub Scouts, and Special Olympics, which can all help children with cognitive impairment to develop socialization skills. Although all children should have an opportunity to form a close relationship with someone of the same developmental level, it is appropriate for children with disabilities to develop relationships with children who do not have disabilities. The parents are acting as advocates for their child.

An implanted ear prosthesis for children with sensorineural hearing loss is a(n): a. Hearing aid. b. Cochlear implant. c. Auditory implant. d. Amplification device.

b. Cochlear implant. Cochlear implants are surgically implanted, and they provide a sensation of hearing for individuals who have severe or profound hearing loss of sensorineural origin. Hearing aids are external devices for enhancing hearing. An auditory implant does not exist. An amplification device is an external device for enhancing hearing.

A 4-year-old boy is hospitalized with a serious bacterial infection. He tells the nurse that he is sick because he was "bad." The nurse's best interpretation of this comment is that it is: a. A sign of stress. b. Common at this age. c. Suggestive of maladaptation. d. Suggestive of excessive discipline at home.

b. Common at this age. Preschoolers cannot understand the cause and effect of illness. Their egocentrism makes them think that they are directly responsible for events, making them feel guilt for things outside of their control. Children of this age show stress by regressing developmentally or acting out. Maladaptation is unlikely. This comment does not imply excessive discipline at home.

Preconception counseling is critical to the outcome of diabetic pregnancies because poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy is associated with: a. Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia. b. Congenital anomalies in the fetus. c. Polyhydramnios. d. Hyperemesis gravidarum.

b. Congenital anomalies in the fetus. Preconception counseling is particularly important because strict metabolic control before conception and in the early weeks of gestation is instrumental in decreasing the risks of congenital anomalies. Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia may occur during the first trimester (not before conception) as a result of hormone changes and the effects on insulin production and usage. Hydramnios occurs about 10 times more often in diabetic pregnancies than in nondiabetic pregnancies. Typically it is seen in the third trimester of pregnancy. Hyperemesis gravidarum may exacerbate hypoglycemic events because the decreased food intake by the mother and glucose transfer to the fetus contribute to hypoglycemia.

Acyclovir (Zovirax) is given to children with chickenpox to: a. Minimize scarring. b. Decrease the number of lesions. c. Prevent aplastic anemia. d. Prevent spread of the disease.

b. Decrease the number of lesions. Acyclovir decreases the number of lesions, shortens duration of fever, and decreases itching, lethargy, and anorexia; however, it does not prevent scarring. Preventing aplastic anemia is not a function of acyclovir. Only quarantine of the infected child can prevent the spread of disease.

Nurses, certified nurse-midwives, and other advanced practice nurses have the knowledge and expertise to assist women in making informed choices regarding contraception. A multidisciplinary approach should ensure that the woman's social, cultural, and interpersonal needs are met. Which action should the nurse take first when meeting with a new client to discuss contraception? a. Obtain data about the frequency of coitus. b. Determine the woman's level of knowledge about contraception and commitment to any particular method. c. Assess the woman's willingness to touch her genitals and cervical mucus. d. Evaluate the woman's contraceptive life plan.

b. Determine the woman's level of knowledge about contraception and commitment to any particular method. This is the primary step of this nursing assessment and necessary before completing the process and moving on to a nursing diagnosis. Once the client's level of knowledge is determined, the nurse can interact with the woman to compare options, reliability, cost, comfort level, protection from sexually transmitted infections, and a partner's willingness to participate. Although important, obtaining data about the frequency of coitus is not the first action that the nurse should undertake when completing an assessment. Data should include not only the frequency of coitus but also the number of sexual partners, level of contraceptive involvement, and partner's objections. Assessing the woman's willingness to touch herself is a key factor for the nurse to discuss should the client express interest in using one of the fertility awareness methods of contraception. The nurse must be aware of the client's plan regarding whether she is attempting to prevent conception, delay conception, or conceive.

Which should the nurse teach to parents of toddlers about accidental poison prevention (select all that apply)? a. Keep toxic substances in the garage. b. Discard empty poison containers. c. Know the number of the nearest poison control center. d. Remove colorful labels from containers of toxic substances. e. Caution child against eating non-edible items, such as plants.

b. Discard empty poison containers. c. Know the number of the nearest poison control center. e. Caution child against eating non-edible items, such as plants. To prevent accidental poisoning, parents should be taught to promptly discard empty poison containers, to know the number of the nearest poison control center, and to caution the child against eating non-edible items, such as plants. Parents should place all potentially toxic agents, including cosmetics, personal care items, cleaning products, pesticides, and medications, in a locked cabinet, not in the garage. Parents should be taught to never remove labels from containers of toxic substances.

During her gynecologic checkup, a 17-year-old girl states that recently she has been experiencing cramping and pain during her menstrual periods. The nurse would document this complaint as: a. Amenorrhea. b. Dysmenorrhea. c. Dyspareunia. d. Premenstrual syndrome (PMS).

b. Dysmenorrhea. Dysmenorrhea is pain during or shortly before menstruation. Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual flow. Dyspareunia is pain during intercourse. PMS is a cluster of physical, psychologic, and behavioral symptoms that begin in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle and resolve within a couple of days of the onset of menses.

A nurse is planning care for a hospitalized toddler in the preoperational thinking stage. Which characteristics should the nurse expect in this stage (select all that apply)? a. Concrete thinking b. Egocentrism c. Animism d. Magical thinking e. Ability to reason

b. Egocentrism c. Animism d. Magical thinking The characteristics of preoperational thinking that occur for the toddler include egocentrism (views everything in relation to self), animism (believes that inert objects are alive), and magical thinking (believes that thinking something causes that event). Concrete thinking is seen in school-age children and ability to reason is seen with adolescents.

A nurse is teaching parents about prevention and treatment of colic. Which should the nurse include in the teaching plan? a. Avoid use of pacifiers. b. Eliminate all secondhand smoke contact. c. Lay infant flat after feeding. d. Avoid swaddling the infant.

b. Eliminate all secondhand smoke contact. To prevent and treat colic, teach parents that if household members smoke, they should avoid smoking near the infant; smoking activity should preferably be confined to outside of the home. A pacifier can be introduced for added sucking. The infant should be swaddled tightly with a soft, stretchy blanket and placed in an upright seat after feedings.

A woman has been diagnosed with a high risk pregnancy. She and her husband come into the office in a very anxious state. She seems to be coping by withdrawing from the discussion, showing declining interest. The nurse can best help the couple by: a. Telling her that the physician will isolate the problem with more tests. b. Encouraging her and urging her to continue with childbirth classes. c. Becoming assertive and laying out the decisions the couple needs to make. d. Downplaying her risks by citing success rate studies.

b. Encouraging her and urging her to continue with childbirth classes. The nurse can best help the woman and her husband regain a sense of control in their lives by providing support and encouragement (including active involvement in preparations and classes). The nurse can try to present opportunities for the couple to make as many choices as possible in prenatal care.

Which test used to diagnose the basis of infertility is done during the luteal or secretory phase of the menstrual cycle? a. Hysterosalpingogram b. Endometrial biopsy c. Laparoscopy d. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level

b. Endometrial biopsy Endometrial biopsy is scheduled after ovulation, during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle. A hysterosalpingogram is scheduled 2 to 5 days after menstruation to avoid flushing potentially fertilized ovum out through a uterine tube into the peritoneal cavity. Laparoscopy usually is scheduled early in the menstrual cycle. Hormone analysis is performed to assess endocrine function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis when menstrual cycles are absent or irregular.

During a health history interview, a woman states that she thinks that she has "bumps" on her labia. She also states that she is not sure how to check herself. The correct response would be to: a. Reassure the woman that the examination will not reveal any problems. b. Explain the process of vulvar self-examination to the woman and reassure her that she should become familiar with normal and abnormal findings during the examination. c. Reassure the woman that "bumps" can be treated. d. Reassure her that most women have "bumps" on their labia.

b. Explain the process of vulvar self-examination to the woman and reassure her that she should become familiar with normal and abnormal findings during the examination. During the assessment and evaluation, the responsibility for self-care, health promotion, and enhancement of wellness is emphasized. The pelvic examination provides a good opportunity for the practitioner to emphasize the need for regular vulvar self-examination. Providing reassurance to the woman concerning the "bumps" would not be an accurate response.

In terms of language and cognitive development, a 4-year-old child would be expected to have which traits (select all that apply)? a. Think in abstract terms. b. Follow directional commands. c. Understand conservation of matter. d. Use sentences of eight words. e. Tell exaggerated stories.

b. Follow directional commands. e. Tell exaggerated stories. Children ages 3 to 4 years can give and follow simple commands and tell exaggerated stories. Children cannot think abstractly at age 4 years. Conservation of matter is a developmental task of the school-age child. Five-year-old children use sentences with eight words with all parts of speech.

In terms of language and cognitive development, a 4-year-old child would be expected to: a. Think in abstract terms. b. Follow simple commands. c. Understand conservation of matter. d. Comprehend another person's perspective.

b. Follow simple commands. Children ages 3 to 4 years can give and follow simple commands. Children cannot think abstractly at age 4 years. Conservation of matter is a developmental task of the school-age child. A 4-year-old child cannot comprehend another's perspective.

A school nurse is conducting a class with adolescents on suicide. Which true statement about suicide should the nurse include in the teaching session? a. A sense of hopelessness and despair are a normal part of adolescence. b. Gay and lesbian adolescents are at a particularly high risk for suicide. c. Problem-solving skills are of limited value to the suicidal adolescent. d. Previous suicide attempts are not an indication of risk for completed suicides.

b. Gay and lesbian adolescents are at a particularly high risk for suicide. A significant number of teenage suicides occur among homosexual youths. Gay and lesbian adolescents who live in families or communities that do not accept homosexuality are likely to suffer low self-esteem, self-loathing, depression, and hopelessness as a result of a lack of acceptance from their family or community. At-risk teenagers include those who are depressed, have poor problem-solving skills, or use drugs and alcohol. History of previous suicide attempt is a serious indicator for possible suicide completion in the future.

Women with hyperemesis gravidarum: a. Are a majority, because 80% of all pregnant women suffer from it at some time. b. Have vomiting severe and persistent enough to cause weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. c. Need intravenous (IV) fluid and nutrition for most of their pregnancy. d. Often inspire similar, milder symptoms in their male partners and mothers.

b. Have vomiting severe and persistent enough to cause weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Women with hyperemesis gravidarum have severe vomiting; however, treatment for several days sets things right in most cases. Although 80% of pregnant women experience nausea and vomiting, fewer than 1% (0.5%) proceed to this severe level. IV administration may be used at first to restore fluid levels, but it is seldom needed for very long. Women suffering from this condition want sympathy because some authorities believe that difficult relationships with mothers and/or partners may be the cause.

An important consideration for the school nurse who is planning a class on bicycle safety is: a. Most bicycle injuries involve collision with an automobile. b. Head injuries are the major causes of bicycle-related fatalities. c. Children should wear bicycle helmets if they ride on paved streets. d. Children should not ride double unless the bicycle has an extra-large seat.

b. Head injuries are the major causes of bicycle-related fatalities. The most important aspect of bicycle safety is to encourage the rider to use a protective helmet. Head injuries are the major cause of bicycle-related fatalities. Although motor vehicle collisions do cause injuries to bicyclists, most injuries result from falls. The child should always wear a properly fitted helmet approved by the U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission. Children should not ride double.

Which of the following statements about the various forms of hepatitis is accurate? a. A vaccine exists for hepatitis C but not for hepatitis B. b. Hepatitis A is acquired by eating contaminated food or drinking polluted water. c. Hepatitis B is less contagious than human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). d. The incidence of hepatitis C is decreasing.

b. Hepatitis A is acquired by eating contaminated food or drinking polluted water. Contaminated milk and shellfish are common sources of infection with hepatitis A. A vaccine exists for hepatitis B but not for hepatitis C. Hepatitis B is more contagious than HIV. The incidence of hepatitis C is increasing.

During which phase of the cycle of violence does the batterer become contrite and remorseful? a. Battering phase b. Honeymoon phase c. Tension-building phase d. Increased drug-taking phase

b. Honeymoon phase During the tension-building phase, the batterer becomes increasingly hostile, swears, threatens, and throws things. This is followed by the battering phase where violence actually occurs, and the victim feels powerless. During the honeymoon phase, the victim of IPV wants to believe that the battering will never happen again, and the batterer will promise anything to get back into the home. Often the batterer increases the use of drugs during the tension-building phase.

With regard to the use of intrauterine devices (IUDs), nurses should be aware that: a. Return to fertility can take several weeks after the device is removed. b. IUDs containing copper can provide an emergency contraception option if inserted within a few days of unprotected intercourse. c. IUDs offer the same protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs) as the diaphragm. d. Consent forms are not needed for IUD insertion.

b. IUDs containing copper can provide an emergency contraception option if inserted within a few days of unprotected intercourse. The woman has up to 8 days to insert the IUD after unprotected sex. Return to fertility is immediate after removal of the IUD. IUDs offer no protection for STIs. A consent form is required for insertion, as is a negative pregnancy test.

The nurse caring for a woman hospitalized for hyperemesis gravidarum should expect that initial treatment to involve: a. Corticosteroids to reduce inflammation. b. IV therapy to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances. c. An antiemetic, such as pyridoxine, to control nausea and vomiting. d. Enteral nutrition to correct nutritional deficits.

b. IV therapy to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Initially, the woman who is unable to keep down clear liquids by mouth requires IV therapy for correction of fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Corticosteroids have been used successfully to treat refractory hyperemesis gravidarum; however, they are not the expected initial treatment for this disorder. Pyridoxine is vitamin B6, not an antiemetic. Promethazine, a common antiemetic, may be prescribed. In severe cases of hyperemesis gravidarum, enteral nutrition via a feeding tube may be necessary to correct maternal nutritional deprivation. This is not an initial treatment for this patient.

According to Erikson, the psychosocial task of adolescence is developing: a. Intimacy. b. Identity. c. Initiative. d. Independence.

b. Identity. Traditional psychosocial theory holds that the developmental crises of adolescence lead to the formation of a sense of identity. Intimacy is the developmental stage for early adulthood. Initiative is the developmental stage for early childhood. Independence is not one of Erikson's developmental stages.

A 26-year-old primigravida has come to the clinic for her regular prenatal visit at 12 weeks. She appears thin and somewhat nervous. She reports that she eats a well-balanced diet, although her weight is 5 pounds less than it was at her last visit. The results of laboratory studies confirm that she has a hyperthyroid condition. Based on the available data, the nurse formulates a plan of care. What nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the woman at this time? a. Deficient fluid volume b. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements c. Imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements d. Disturbed sleep pattern

b. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements This client's clinical cues include weight loss, which would support the nursing diagnosis of Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements. No clinical signs or symptoms support the nursing diagnosis of Deficient fluid volume. This client reports weight loss, not weight gain. Imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements is not an appropriate nursing diagnosis. Although the client reports nervousness, based on the client's other clinical symptoms the most appropriate nursing diagnosis would be Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements.

While providing care in an obstetric setting, the nurse should understand that postpartum care of the woman with cardiac disease: a. Is the same as that for any pregnant woman. b. Includes rest, stool softeners, and monitoring of the effect of activity. c. Includes ambulating frequently, alternating with active range of motion. d. Includes limiting visits with the infant to once per day.

b. Includes rest, stool softeners, and monitoring of the effect of activity. Bed rest may be ordered, with or without bathroom privileges. Bowel movements without stress or strain for the woman are promoted with stool softeners, diet, and fluid. Care of the woman with cardiac disease in the postpartum period is tailored to the woman's functional capacity. The woman will be on bed rest to conserve energy and reduce the strain on the heart. Although the woman may need help caring for the infant, breastfeeding and infant visits are not contraindicated.

Which should the nurse expect for a toddler's language development at age 18 months? a. Vocabulary of 25 words b. Increasing level of comprehension c. Use of phrases d. Approximately one third of speech understandable

b. Increasing level of comprehension During the second year of life, level of comprehension and understanding of speech increases and is far greater than the child's vocabulary. This is also true for bilingual children, who are able to achieve this linguistic milestone in both languages. The 18-month-old child has a vocabulary of 10 or more words. At this age, the child does not use one-word sentences or phrases. The child has a limited vocabulary of single words that are comprehensible.

Which nursing intervention is necessary before a second-trimester transabdominal ultrasound? a. Place the woman NPO for 12 hours. b. Instruct the woman to drink 1 to 2 quarts of water. c. Administer an enema. d. Perform an abdominal preparation.

b. Instruct the woman to drink 1 to 2 quarts of water. When the uterus is still in the pelvis, visualization may be difficult. It is necessary to perform the test when the woman has a full bladder, which provides a "window" through which the uterus and its contents can be viewed. The woman needs a full bladder to elevate the uterus; therefore being NPO is not appropriate. Neither an enema nor an abdominal preparation is necessary for this procedure.

Which nursing intervention is necessary before a second-trimester transabdominal ultrasound? a. Place the woman NPO for 12 hours. b. Instruct the woman to drink 1 to 2 quarts of water. c. Administer an enema. d. Perform an abdominal preparation.

b. Instruct the woman to drink 1 to 2 quarts of water. When the uterus is still in the pelvis, visualization may be difficult. It is necessary to perform the test when the woman has a full bladder, which provides a "window" through which the uterus and its contents can be viewed. The woman needs a full bladder to elevate the uterus; therefore being NPO is not appropriate. Neither an enema nor an abdominal preparation is necessary for this procedure.

The most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae (as opposed to placenta previa) is: a. Bleeding. b. Intense abdominal pain. c. Uterine activity. d. Cramping.

b. Intense abdominal pain. Pain is absent with placenta previa and may be agonizing with abruptio placentae. Bleeding may be present in varying degrees for both placental conditions. Uterine activity and cramping may be present with both placental conditions.

A teen asks a nurse, "What is physical dependence in substance abuse?" Which is the correct response by the nurse? a. Problem that occurs in conjunction with addiction b. Involuntary physiologic response to drug c. Culturally defined use of drugs for purposes other than accepted medical purposes d. Voluntary behavior based on psychosocial needs

b. Involuntary physiologic response to drug Physical dependence is an involuntary response to the pharmacologic characteristics of drugs such as opioids or alcohol. A person can be physically dependent on a narcotic/drug without being addicted; for example, patients who use opioids to control pain need increasing doses to achieve the same effect. Dependence is a physiologic response; it is not culturally determined or subject to voluntary control.

The use of methamphetamine (meth) has been described as a significant drug problem in the United States. In order to provide adequate nursing care to this client population the nurse must be cognizant that methamphetamine: a. Is similar to opiates. b. Is a stimulant with vasoconstrictive characteristics. c. Should not be discontinued during pregnancy. d. Is associated with a low rate of relapse.

b. Is a stimulant with vasoconstrictive characteristics. Methamphetamines are stimulants with vasoconstrictive characteristics similar to cocaine and are used similarly. As is the case with cocaine users, methamphetamine users are urged to immediately stop all use during pregnancy. Unfortunately, because methamphetamine users are extremely psychologically addicted, the rate of relapse is very high.

Which interventions should the nurse plan when caring for a child with a visual impairment (select all that apply)? a. Touch the child upon entering the room before speaking. b. Keep items in the room in the same location. c. Describe the placement of the eating utensils on the meal tray. d. Use color examples to describe something to a child who has been blind since birth. e. Identify noises for the child.

b. Keep items in the room in the same location. c. Describe the placement of the eating utensils on the meal tray. e. Identify noises for the child. Keep all items in the room in the same location and order. Describing how many steps away something is or the placement of eating utensils on a tray are both useful tactics. Identify noises for the child because children who are visually impaired or blind often have difficulty establishing the source of a noise. Never touch the child without identifying yourself and explaining what you plan to do. When describing objects or the environment to a child who is blind or visually impaired, use familiar terms. If the child has been blind since birth, color has no meaning.

What is descriptive of the play of school-age children? a. Individuality in play is better tolerated than at earlier ages. b. Knowing the rules of a game gives an important sense of belonging. c. They like to invent games, making up the rules as they go. d. Team play helps children learn the universal importance of competition and winning.

b. Knowing the rules of a game gives an important sense of belonging. Play involves increased physical skill, intellectual ability, and fantasy. Children form groups and cliques and develop a sense of belonging to a team or club. At this age, children begin to see the need for rules. Conformity and ritual permeate their play. Their games have fixed and unvarying rules, which may be bizarre and extraordinarily rigid. With team play, children learn about competition and the importance of winning, an attribute highly valued in the United States.

A nurse teaches parents that team play is important for school-age children. Which can children develop by experiencing team play (select all that apply)? a. Achieve personal goals over group goals. b. Learn complex rules. c. Experience competition. d. Learn about division of labor.

b. Learn complex rules. c. Experience competition. d. Learn about division of labor. Team play helps stimulate cognitive growth because children are called on to learn many complex rules, make judgments about those rules, plan strategies, and assess the strengths and weaknesses of members of their own team and members of the opposing team. Team play can also contribute to children's social, intellectual, and skill growth. Children work hard to develop the skills needed to become team members, to improve their contribution to the group, and to anticipate the consequences of their behavior for the group. Team play teaches children to modify or exchange personal goals for goals of the group; it also teaches them that division of labor is an effective strategy for attaining a goal.

A 62-year-old woman has not been to the clinic for an annual examination for 5 years. The recent death of her husband reminded her that she should come for a visit. Her family doctor has retired, and she is going to see the women's health nurse practitioner for her visit. To facilitate a positive health care experience, the nurse should: a. Remind the woman that she is long overdue for her examination and that she should come in annually. b. Listen carefully and allow extra time for this woman's health history interview. c. Reassure the woman that a nurse practitioner is just as good as her old doctor. d. Encourage the woman to talk about the death of her husband and her fears about her own death.

b. Listen carefully and allow extra time for this woman's health history interview. The nurse has an opportunity to use reflection and empathy while listening and to ensure open and caring communication. Scheduling a longer appointment time may be necessary because older women may have longer histories or may need to talk. A respectful and reassuring approach to caring for women older than age 50 can help ensure that they continue to seek health care. Reminding the woman about her overdue examination, reassuring the woman that she has a good practitioner, and encouraging conversation about the death of her husband and her own death are not the best approaches with women in this age group.

In the first trimester, ultrasonography can be used to gain information on: a. Amniotic fluid volume. b. Location of Gestational sacs c. Placental location and maturity. d. Cervical length.

b. Location of Gestational sacs During the first trimester, ultrasound examination is performed to obtain information regarding the number, size, and location of gestatials sacs; the presence or absence of fetal cardiac and body movements; the presences or absence of uterine abnormalities (e.g., bicornuate uterus or fibroids) or adnexal masses (e.g., ovarian cysts or an ectopic pregnancy); and pregnancy dating.

In the first trimester, ultrasonography can be used to gain information on: a. Amniotic fluid volume. b. Location of Gestational sacs c. Placental location and maturity. d. Cervical length.

b. Location of Gestational sacs During the first trimester, ultrasound examination is performed to obtain information regarding the number, size, and location of gestatials sacs; the presence or absence of fetal cardiac and body movements; the presences or absence of uterine abnormalities (e.g., bicornuate uterus or fibroids) or adnexal masses (e.g., ovarian cysts or an ectopic pregnancy); and pregnancy dating.

A nurse is conducting education classes for parents of infants. The nurse plans to discuss sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which risk factors should the nurse include as increasing an infant's risk of a SIDS incident (select all that apply)? a. Breastfeeding b. Low Apgar scores c. Male sex d. Birth weight in the 50th or higher percentile e. Recent viral illness

b. Low Apgar scores c. Male sex e. Recent viral illness Certain groups of infants are at increased risk for SIDS: those with low birth weight, low Apgar scores, or recent viral illness, and those of male sex. Breastfed infants and infants of average or above-average weight are not at higher risk for SIDS.

A parent whose child has been diagnosed with a cognitive deficit should be counseled that intellectual impairment: a. Is usually due to a genetic defect. b. May be caused by a variety of factors. c. Is rarely due to first-trimester events. d. Is usually caused by parental intellectual impairment.

b. May be caused by a variety of factors. There are a multitude of causes for intellectual impairment. In most cases, a specific cause has not been identified. Only a small percentage of children with intellectual impairment are affected by a genetic defect. One third of children with intellectual impairment are affected by first-trimester events. Intellectual impairment can be transmitted to a child only if the parent has a genetic disorder.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a child and notes the presence of Koplik's spots. In which communicable disease are Koplik's spots present? a. Rubella b. Measles (rubeola) c. Chickenpox (varicella) d. Exanthema subitum (roseola)

b. Measles (rubeola) Koplik's spots are small, irregular red spots with a minute, bluish white center found on the buccal mucosa 2 days before systemic rash. Koplik's spots are not present with rubella, varicella, or roseola.

An abortion in which the fetus dies but is retained within the uterus is called a(n): a. Inevitable abortion b. Missed abortion c. Incomplete abortion d. Threatened abortion

b. Missed abortion Missed abortion refers to retention of a dead fetus in the uterus. An inevitable abortion means that the cervix is dilating with the contractions. An incomplete abortion means that not all of the products of conception were expelled. With a threatened abortion the woman has cramping and bleeding but not cervical dilation.

The nurse is talking to the parent of a 13-month-old child. The mother states, "My child does not make noises like 'da' or 'na' like my sister's baby, who is only 9 months old." Which statement by the nurse would be most appropriate to make? a. "I am going to request a referral to a hearing specialist." b. "You should not compare your child to your sister's child." c. "I think your child is fine, but we will check again in 3 months." d. "You should ask other parents what noises their children made at this age."

a. "I am going to request a referral to a hearing specialist." By 11 months of age, a child should be making well-formed syllables such as "da" or "na" and should be referred to a specialist if not. "You should not compare your child to your sister's child," "I think your child is fine, but we will check again in 3 months," and "You should ask other parents what noises their children made at this age" are not appropriate statements to make to the parent.

Which symptom described by a patient is characteristic of premenstrual syndrome (PMS)? a. "I feel irritable and moody a week before my period is supposed to start." b. "I have lower abdominal pain beginning the third day of my menstrual period." c. "I have nausea and headaches after my period starts, and they last 2 to 3 days." d. "I have abdominal bloating and breast pain after a couple days of my period."

a. "I feel irritable and moody a week before my period is supposed to start." PMS is a cluster of physical, psychologic, and behavioral symptoms that begin in the luteal phase of thebmenstrual cycle and resolve within a couple of days of the onset of menses. Complaints of lower abdominal pain, nausea and headaches, and abdominal bloating all are associated with PMS. However, the timing reflected is inaccurate.

In assessing the knowledge of a pregestational woman with type 1 diabetes concerning changing insulin needs during pregnancy, the nurse recognizes that further teaching is warranted when the client states: a. "I will need to increase my insulin dosage during the first 3 months of pregnancy." b. "Insulin dosage will likely need to be increased during the second and third trimesters." c. "Episodes of hypoglycemia are more likely to occur during the first 3 months." d. "Insulin needs should return to normal within 7 to 10 days after birth if I am bottle-feeding."

a. "I will need to increase my insulin dosage during the first 3 months of pregnancy." Insulin needs are reduced in the first trimester because of increased insulin production by the pancreas and increased peripheral sensitivity to insulin. "Insulin dosage will likely need to be increased during the second and third trimesters," "Episodes of hypoglycemia are more likely to occur during the first 3 months," and "Insulin needs should return to normal within 7 to 10 days after birth if I am bottle-feeding" are accurate statements and signify that the woman has understood the teachings regarding control of her diabetes during pregnancy.

In vitro fertilization-embryo transfer (IVF-ET) is a common approach for women with blocked fallopian tubes or unexplained infertility and for men with very low sperm counts. A husband and wife have arrived for their preprocedural interview. The husband asks the nurse to explain what the procedure entails. The nurse's most appropriate response is: a. "IVF-ET is a type of assisted reproductive therapy that involves collecting eggs from your wife's ovaries, fertilizing them in the laboratory with your sperm, and transferring the embryo to her uterus." b. "A donor embryo will be transferred into your wife's uterus." c. "Donor sperm will be used to inseminate your wife." d. "Don't worry about the technical stuff; that's what we are here for."

a. "IVF-ET is a type of assisted reproductive therapy that involves collecting eggs from your wife's ovaries, fertilizing them in the laboratory with your sperm, and transferring the embryo to her uterus." A woman's eggs are collected from her ovaries, fertilized in the laboratory with sperm, and transferred to her uterus after normal embryonic development has occurred. The statement, "A donor embryo will be transferred into your wife's uterus" describes therapeutic donor insemination. "Donor sperm will be used to inseminate your wife" describes the procedure for a donor embryo. "Don't worry about the technical stuff; that's what we are here for" discredits the client's need for teaching and is an inappropriate response.

You (the nurse) are reviewing the educational packet provided to a client about tubal ligation. What is an important fact you should point out (Select all that apply)? a. "It is highly unlikely that you will become pregnant after the procedure." b. "This is an effective form of 100% permanent sterilization. You won't be able to get pregnant." c. "Sterilization offers some form of protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs)." d. "Sterilization offers no protection against STIs." e. "Your menstrual cycle will greatly increase after your sterilization."

a. "It is highly unlikely that you will become pregnant after the procedure." d. "Sterilization offers no protection against STIs." A woman is unlikely to become pregnant after tubal ligation, although it is not 100% effective. Sterilization offers no protection against STIs. The menstrual cycle typically remains the same after a tubal ligation.

When the nurse is alone with a battered patient, the patient seems extremely anxious and says, "It was all my fault. The house was so messy when he got home and I know he hates that." The best response by the nurse is: a. "No one deserves to be hurt. It's not your fault. How can I help you?" b. "What else do you do that makes him angry enough to hurt you?" c. "He will never find out what we talk about. Don't worry. We're here to help you." d. "You have to remember that he is frustrated and angry so he takes it out on you."

a. "No one deserves to be hurt. It's not your fault. How can I help you?" The nurse should stress that the patient is not at fault. Asking what the patient did to make her husband angry is placing the blame on the woman and would be an inappropriate statement. The nurse should not provide false reassurance. To assist the woman, the nurse should be honest. Often the batterer will find out about the conversation.

Your patient is being induced because of her worsening preeclampsia. She is also receiving magnesium sulfate. It appears that her labor has not become active despite several hours of oxytocin administration. She asks the nurse, "Why is it taking so long?" The most appropriate response by the nurse would be: a. "The magnesium is relaxing your uterus and competing with the oxytocin. It may increase the duration of your labor." b. "I don't know why it is taking so long." c. "The length of labor varies for different women." d. "Your baby is just being stubborn."

a. "The magnesium is relaxing your uterus and competing with the oxytocin. It may increase the duration of your labor." Because magnesium sulfate is a tocolytic agent, its use may increase the duration of labor. The amount of oxytocin needed to stimulate labor may be more than that needed for the woman who is not receiving magnesium sulfate. "I don't know why it is taking so long" is not an appropriate statement for the nurse to make. Although the length of labor does vary in different women, the most likely reason this woman's labor is protracted is the tocolytic effect of magnesium sulfate. The behavior of the fetus has no bearing on the length of labor.

A pregnant woman's biophysical profile score is 8. She asks the nurse to explain the results. The nurse's best response is: a. "The test results are within normal limits." b. "Immediate delivery by cesarean birth is being considered." c. "Further testing will be performed to determine the meaning of this score." d. "An obstetric specialist will evaluate the results of this profile and, within the next week, will inform you of your options regarding delivery."

a. "The test results are within normal limits." The normal biophysical score ranges from 8 to 10 points if the amniotic fluid volume is adequate. A normal score allows conservative treatment of high-risk patients. Delivery can be delayed if fetal well-being is indicated. Scores less than 4 should be investigated, and delivery could be initiated sooner than planned. This score is within normal range, and no further testing is required at this time. The results of the biophysical profile are usually available immediately after the procedure is performed.

A pregnant woman's biophysical profile score is 8. She asks the nurse to explain the results. The nurse's best response is: a. "The test results are within normal limits." b. "Immediate delivery by cesarean birth is being considered." c. "Further testing will be performed to determine the meaning of this score." d. "An obstetric specialist will evaluate the results of this profile and, within the next week, will inform you of your options regarding delivery."

a. "The test results are within normal limits." The normal biophysical score ranges from 8 to 10 points if the amniotic fluid volume is adequate. A normal score allows conservative treatment of high-risk patients. Delivery can be delayed if fetal well-being is indicated. Scores less than 4 should be investigated, and delivery could be initiated sooner than planned. This score is within normal range, and no further testing is required at this time. The results of the biophysical profile are usually available immediately after the procedure is performed.

A physician prescribes clomiphene citrate (Clomid, Serophene) for a woman experiencing infertility. She is very concerned about the risk of multiple births. The nurse's most appropriate response is: a. "This is a legitimate concern. Would you like to discuss this further before your treatment begins?" b. "No one has ever had more than triplets with Clomid." c. "Ovulation will be monitored with ultrasound so that this will not happen." d. "Ten percent is a very low risk, so you don't need to worry too much."

a. "This is a legitimate concern. Would you like to discuss this further before your treatment begins?" The incidence of multiple pregnancies with the use of these medications is significantly increased. The patient's concern is legitimate and should be discussed so that she can make an informed decision. Stating that no one has ever had "more than triplets" is inaccurate and negates the patient's concerns. Ultrasound cannot ensure that a multiple pregnancy will not occur. The percentage quoted in this statement is inaccurate. The comment "don't worry" discredits the patient's concern.

A nurse has completed a teaching session for parents about "baby-proofing" the home. Which statements made by the parents indicate an understanding of the teaching (select all that apply)? a. "We will put plastic fillers in all electrical plugs." b. "We will place poisonous substances in a high cupboard." c. "We will place a gate at the top and bottom of stairways." d. "We will keep our household hot water heater at 130 degrees." e. "We will remove front knobs from the stove."

a. "We will put plastic fillers in all electrical plugs." c. "We will place a gate at the top and bottom of stairways." e. "We will remove front knobs from the stove." By the time babies reach 6 months of age, they begin to become much more active, curious, and mobile. Putting plastic fillers on all electrical plugs can prevent an electrical shock. Putting gates at the top and bottom of stairways will prevent falls. Removing front knobs from the stove can prevent burns. Poisonous substances should be stored in a locked cabinet, not in a cabinet that children can reach when they begin to climb. The household hot water heater should be turned down to 120 degrees or less.

Which statement would indicate that the client requires additional instruction about breast self-examination? a. "Yellow discharge from my nipple is normal if I'm having my period." b. "I should check my breasts at the same time each month, like after my period." c. "I should also feel in my armpit area while performing my breast examination." d. "I should check each breast in a set way, such as in a circular motion."

a. "Yellow discharge from my nipple is normal if I'm having my period." Discharge from the nipples requires further examination from a health care provider. "I should check my breasts at the same time each month, like after my period," "I should also feel in my armpit area while performing my breast examination," and "I should check each breast in a set way, such as in a circular motion" all indicate successful learning.

A client asks her nurse, "My doctor told me that he is concerned with the grade of my placenta because I am overdue. What does that mean?" The best response by the nurse is: a. "Your placenta changes as your pregnancy progresses, and it is given a score that indicates the amount of calcium deposits it has. The more calcium deposits, the higher the grade, or number, that is assigned to the placenta. It also means that less blood and oxygen can be delivered to your baby." b. "Your placenta isn't working properly, and your baby is in danger." c. "This means that we will need to perform an amniocentesis to detect if you have any placental damage." d. "Don't worry about it. Everything is fine."

a. "Your placenta changes as your pregnancy progresses, and it is given a score that indicates the amount of calcium deposits it has. The more calcium deposits, the higher the grade, or number, that is assigned to the placenta. It also means that less blood and oxygen can be delivered to your baby." An accurate and appropriate response is, "Your placenta changes as your pregnancy progresses, and it is given a score that indicates the amount of calcium deposits it has. The more calcium deposits, the higher the grade, or number, that is assigned to the placenta. It also means that less blood and oxygen can be delivered to your baby." Although "Your placenta isn't working properly, and your baby is in danger" may be valid, it does not reflect therapeutic communication techniques and is likely to alarm the client. An ultrasound, not an amniocentesis, is the method of assessment used to determine placental maturation. The response "Don't worry about it. Everything is fine" is not appropriate and discredits the client's concerns.

A client asks her nurse, "My doctor told me that he is concerned with the grade of my placenta because I am overdue. What does that mean?" The best response by the nurse is: a. "Your placenta changes as your pregnancy progresses, and it is given a score that indicates the amount of calcium deposits it has. The more calcium deposits, the higher the grade, or number, that is assigned to the placenta. It also means that less blood and oxygen can be delivered to your baby." b. "Your placenta isn't working properly, and your baby is in danger." c. "This means that we will need to perform an amniocentesis to detect if you have any placental damage." d. "Don't worry about it. Everything is fine."

a. "Your placenta changes as your pregnancy progresses, and it is given a score that indicates the amount of calcium deposits it has. The more calcium deposits, the higher the grade, or number, that is assigned to the placenta. It also means that less blood and oxygen can be delivered to your baby." An accurate and appropriate response is, "Your placenta changes as your pregnancy progresses, and it is given a score that indicates the amount of calcium deposits it has. The more calcium deposits, the higher the grade, or number, that is assigned to the placenta. It also means that less blood and oxygen can be delivered to your baby." Although "Your placenta isn't working properly, and your baby is in danger" may be valid, it does not reflect therapeutic communication techniques and is likely to alarm the client. An ultrasound, not an amniocentesis, is the method of assessment used to determine placental maturation. The response "Don't worry about it. Everything is fine" is not appropriate and discredits the client's concerns.

Because of the effect of cyclic ovarian changes on the breast, the best time for breast self-examination (BSE) is: a. 5 to 7 days after menses ceases. b. Day 1 of the endometrial cycle. c. Midmenstrual cycle. d. Any time during a shower or bath.

a. 5 to 7 days after menses ceases. The physiologic alterations in breast size and activity reach their minimal level about 5 to 7 days after menstruation stops. All women should perform BSE during this phase of the menstrual cycle.

An 8-year-old girl tells the nurse that she has cancer because God is punishing her for "being bad." She shares her concern that, if she dies, she will go to hell. The nurse should interpret this as being: a. A belief common at this age. b. A belief that forms the basis for most religions. c. Suggestive of excessive family pressure. d. Suggestive of a failure to develop a conscience.

a. A belief common at this age. Children at this age may view illness or injury as a punishment for a real or imagined mystique. The belief in divine punishment is common at this age.

The nurse is doing a routine assessment on a 14-month-old infant and notes that the anterior fontanel is closed. This should be interpreted as: a. A normal finding. b. A questionable finding—the infant should be rechecked in 1 month. c. An abnormal finding—indicates the need for immediate referral to a practitioner. d. An abnormal finding—indicates the need for developmental assessment.

a. A normal finding. Because the anterior fontanel normally closes between ages 12 and 18 months, this is a normal finding, and no further intervention is required.

Which toy is the most developmentally appropriate for an 18- to 24-month-old child? a. A push-pull toy b. Nesting blocks c. A bicycle with training wheels d. A computer

a. A push-pull toy Push-pull toys encourage large muscle activity and are appropriate for toddlers. Nesting blocks are more appropriate for a 12- to 15-month-old child. A bicycle with training wheels is appropriate for a preschool or young school-age child. A computer can be appropriate as early as the preschool years.

The process by which people retain some of their own culture while adopting the practices of the dominant society is known as: a. Acculturation. b. Assimilation. c. Ethnocentrism. d. Cultural relativism.

a. Acculturation. Acculturation is the process by which people retain some of their own culture while adopting the practices of the dominant society. This process takes place over the course of generations. Assimilation is a loss of cultural identity. Acculturation describes the process by which people retain some of their own culture while adopting the practices of the dominant society. Ethnocentrism is the belief in the superiority of one's own culture over the cultures of others. Acculturation describes the process by which people retain some of their own culture while adopting the practices of the dominant society. Cultural relativism recognizes the roles of different cultures. Acculturation describes the process by which people retain some of their own culture while adopting the practices of the dominant society.

In caring for the woman with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), what order should the nurse anticipate? a. Administration of blood b. Preparation of the client for invasive hemodynamic monitoring c. Restriction of intravascular fluids d. Administration of steroids

a. Administration of blood Primary medical management in all cases of DIC involves correction of the underlying cause, volume replacement, blood component therapy, optimization of oxygenation and perfusion status, and continued reassessment of laboratory parameters. Central monitoring would not be ordered initially in a client with DIC because this can contribute to more areas of bleeding. Management of DIC would include volume replacement, not volume restriction. Steroids are not indicated for the management of DIC.

Which interventions should the nurse implement when caring for a family of a sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) infant (select all that apply)? a. Allow parents to say goodbye to their infant. b. Once parents leave the hospital, no further follow-up is required. c. Arrange for someone to take the parents home from the hospital. d. Avoid requesting an autopsy of the deceased infant. e. Conduct a debriefing session with the parents before they leave the hospital.

a. Allow parents to say goodbye to their infant. c. Arrange for someone to take the parents home from the hospital. e. Conduct a debriefing session with the parents before they leave the hospital. An important aspect of compassionate care for parents experiencing a SIDS incident is allowing them to say good-bye to their infant. These are the parents' last moments with their infant, and they should be as quiet, meaningful, peaceful, and undisturbed as possible. Because the parents leave the hospital without their infant, it is helpful to accompany them to the car or arrange for someone else to take them home. A debriefing session may help health care workers who dealt with the family and deceased infant to cope with emotions that are often engendered when a SIDS victim is brought into the acute care facility. An autopsy may clear up possible misconceptions regarding the death. When the parents return home, a competent, qualified professional should visit them after the death as soon as possible.

The best play activity to provide tactile stimulation for a 6-month-old infant is to: a. Allow to splash in bath. b. Give various colored blocks. c. Play music box, tapes, or CDs. d. Use infant swing or stroller.

a. Allow to splash in bath. The feel of the water while the infant is splashing provides tactile stimulation. Various colored blocks provide visual stimulation for a 4- to 6-month-old infant. A music box, tapes, and CDs provide auditory stimulation. Swings and strollers provide kinesthetic stimulation.

An adolescent girl tells the nurse that she has suicidal thoughts. The nurse asks her if she has a specific plan. Asking this should be considered: a. An appropriate part of the assessment. b. Not a critical part of the assessment. c. Suggesting that the adolescent needs a plan. d. Encouraging the adolescent to devise a plan.

a. An appropriate part of the assessment. Routine health assessments of adolescents should include questions that assess the presence of suicidal ideation or intent. Questions such as "Have you ever developed a plan to hurt yourself or kill yourself?" should be part of that assessment. Threats of suicide should always be taken seriously and evaluated. Suggesting that the adolescent needs a plan and encouraging her to devise this plan would be inappropriate statements by the nurse.

Steven, 16 months old, falls down a few stairs. He gets up and "scolds" the stairs as if they caused him to fall. This is an example of which of the following? a. Animism b. Ritualism c. Irreversibility d. Delayed cognitive development

a. Animism Animism is the attribution of lifelike qualities to inanimate objects. By scolding the stairs, the toddler is attributing human characteristics to them. Ritualism is the need to maintain sameness and reliability. It provides a sense of comfort to the toddler. Irreversibility is the inability to reverse or undo actions initiated physically. Steven is acting in an age-appropriate manner.

Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder that displays as weakness of the connective tissue, joint deformities, ocular dislocation, and weakness to the aortic wall and root. While providing care to a client with Marfan syndrome during labor, which intervention should the nurse complete first? a. Antibiotic prophylaxis b. b-Blockers c. Surgery d. Regional anesthesia

a. Antibiotic prophylaxis Because of the potential for cardiac involvement during the third trimester and after birth, treatment with prophylactic antibiotics is highly recommended. b-Blockers and restricted activity are recommended as treatment modalities earlier in the pregnancy. Regional anesthesia is well tolerated by clients with Marfan syndrome; however, it is not essential to care. Adequate labor support may be all that is necessary if an epidural is not part of the woman's birth plan. Surgery for cardiovascular changes such as mitral valve prolapse, aortic regurgitation, root dilation, or dissection may be necessary. Mortality rates may be as high as 50% in women who have severe cardiac disease.

When should children with cognitive impairment be referred for stimulation and educational programs? a. As young as possible b. As soon as they have the ability to communicate in some way c. At age 3 years, when schools are required to provide services d. At age 5 or 6 years, when schools are required to provide services

a. As young as possible The child's education should begin as soon as possible. Considerable evidence exists that early intervention programs for children with disabilities are valuable for cognitively impaired children. The early intervention may facilitate the child's development of communication skills. States are encouraged to provide early intervention programs from birth under Public Law 101-476, the Individuals with Disabilities Act.

The priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant woman who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy is to: a. Assess fetal heart rate (FHR) and maternal vital signs b. Perform a venipuncture for hemoglobin and hematocrit levels c. Place clean disposable pads to collect any drainage d. Monitor uterine contractions

a. Assess fetal heart rate (FHR) and maternal vital signs Assessment of the FHR and maternal vital signs will assist the nurse in determining the degree of the blood loss and its effect on the mother and fetus. The most important assessment is to check mother/fetal well-being. The blood levels can be obtained later. It is important to assess future bleeding; however, the top priority remains mother/fetal well-being. Monitoring uterine contractions is important but not the top priority.

Diabetes refers to a group of metabolic diseases characterized by hyperglycemia resulting from defects in insulin action, insulin secretion, or both. Over time, diabetes causes significant changes in the microvascular and macrovascular circulations. These complications include: a. Atherosclerosis. b. Retinopathy. c. IUFD. d. Nephropathy. e. Neuropathy. Autonomcs neuropathy.

a. Atherosclerosis. b. Retinopathy. d. Nephropathy. e. Neuropathy. Autonomcs neuropathy. These structural changes are most likely to affect a variety of systems, including the heart, eyes, kidneys, and nerves. Intrauterine fetal death (stillbirth) remains a major complication of diabetes in pregnancy; however, this is a fetal complication.

Clinical manifestations of failure to thrive caused by behavioral problems resulting in inadequate intake of calories include: a. Avoidance of eye contact. b. An associated malabsorption defect. c. Weight that falls below the 15th percentile. d. Normal achievement of developmental landmarks.

a. Avoidance of eye contact One of the clinical manifestations of nonorganic failure to thrive is the child's avoidance of eye contact with the health professional. A malabsorption defect would result in a physiologic problem, not behavioral. Weight (but not height) below the 5th percentile is indicative of failure to thrive. Developmental delays, including social, motor, adaptive, and language, exist.

On vaginal examination of a 30-year-old woman, the nurse documents the following findings: profuse, thin, grayish white vaginal discharge with a "fishy" odor; complaint of pruritus. On the basis of these findings, the nurse suspects that this woman has: a. Bacterial vaginosis (BV). b. Candidiasis. c. Trichomoniasis. d. Gonorrhea.

a. Bacterial vaginosis (BV). Most women with BV complain of a characteristic "fishy" odor. The discharge usually is profuse; thin; and white, gray, or milky in color. Some women also may have mild irritation or pruritus. The discharge associated with candidiasis is thick, white, and lumpy and resembles cottage cheese. Trichomoniasis may be asymptomatic, but women commonly have a characteristic yellowish-to-greenish, frothy, mucopurulent, copious, and malodorous discharge. Women with gonorrhea are often asymptomatic. They may have a purulent endocervical discharge, but discharge usually is minimal or absent.

Which order should the nurse expect for a patient admitted with a threatened abortion? a. Bed rest b. Ritodrine IV c. NPO d. Narcotic analgesia every 3 hours, prn

a. Bed rest Decreasing the woman's activity level may alleviate the bleeding and allow the pregnancy to continue. Ritodrine is not the first drug of choice for tocolytic medications. There is no reason for having the woman placed NPO. At times dehydration may produce contractions, so hydration is important. Narcotic analgesia will not decrease the contractions. It may mask the severity of the contractions.

Prevention of hearing impairment in children is a major goal for the nurse. This can be achieved through: a. Being involved in immunization clinics for children. b. Assessing a newborn for hearing loss. c. Answering parents' questions about hearing aids. d. Participating in hearing screening in the community.

a. Being involved in immunization clinics for children. Childhood immunizations can eliminate the possibility of acquired sensorineural hearing loss from rubella, mumps, or measles encephalitis. Assessing a newborn for hearing loss, answering parents' questions about hearing aids, and participating in community hearing screenings are screening interventions to identify the presence of hearing loss, not prevention.

Teasing can be common during the school-age years. Which of the following does the nurse recognize as applying most to teasing? a. Can have a lasting effect on children b. Is not a significant threat to self-concept c. Is rarely based on anything that is concrete d. Is usually ignored by the child who is being teased

a. Can have a lasting effect on children Teasing in this age group is common and can have a long-lasting effect. Increasing awareness of differences, especially when accompanied by unkind comments and taunts from others, may make a child feel inferior and undesirable. Physical impairments such as hearing or visual defects, ears that "stick out," or birth marks assume great importance.

Which aspect of cognition develops during adolescence? a. Capability to use a future time perspective b. Ability to place things in a sensible and logical order c. Ability to see things from the point of view of another d. Progress from making judgments based on what they see to making judgments based on what they reason

a. Capability to use a future time perspective Adolescents are no longer restricted to the real and actual. They also are concerned with the possible; they think beyond the present. During concrete operations (between ages 7 and 11 years), children exhibit the ability to place things in a sensible and logical order, the ability to see things from another's point of view, and the ability to make judgments based on what they reason rather than just what they see.

A woman was treated recently for toxic shock syndrome (TSS). She has intercourse occasionally and uses over-the-counter protection. On the basis of her history, what contraceptive method should she and her partner avoid? a. Cervical cap b. Condom c. Vaginal film d. Vaginal sheath

a. Cervical cap Women with a history of TSS should not use a cervical cap. Condoms, vaginal films, and vaginal sheaths are not contraindicated for a woman with a history of TSS.

Approximately 10% to 15% of all clinically recognized pregnancies end in miscarriage. Which is the most common cause of spontaneous abortion? a. Chromosomal abnormalities b. Infections c. Endocrine imbalance d. Immunologic factors

a. Chromosomal abnormalities At least 50% of pregnancy losses result from chromosomal abnormalities that are incompatible with life. Maternal infection may be a cause of early miscarriage. Endocrine imbalances such as hypothyroidism or diabetes are possible causes for early pregnancy loss. Women who have repeated early pregnancy losses appear to have immunologic factors that play a role in spontaneous abortion incidents.

Congenital anomalies can occur with the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs), including (Select all that apply): a. Cleft lip. b. Congenital heart disease. c. Neural tube defects. d. Gastroschisis. e. Diaphragmatic hernia.

a. Cleft lip. b. Congenital heart disease. c. Neural tube defects. Congenital anomalies that can occur with AEDs include cleft lip or palate, congenital heart disease, urogenital defects, and neural tube defects. Gastroschisis and diaphragmatic hernia are not associated with the use of AEDs.

A child has an evulsed (knocked-out) tooth. In which medium should the nurse instruct the parents to place the tooth for transport to the dentist? a. Cold milk b. Cold water c. Warm salt water d. A dry, clean jar

a. Cold milk An evulsed tooth should be placed in a suitable medium for transport, either cold milk or saliva (under the child's or parent's tongue). Cold milk is a more suitable medium for transport than cold water, warm salt water, or a dry, clean jar.

The ability to mentally understand that 1 + 3 = 4 and 4 - 3 = 1 occurs in which stage of cognitive development? a. Concrete operations stage b. Formal operations stage c. Intuitive thought stage d. Preoperations stage

a. Concrete operations stage By 7 to 8 years of age, the child is able to retrace a process (reversibility) and has the skills necessary for solving mathematical problems. This stage is called concrete operations. The formal operations stage deals with abstract reasoning and does not occur until adolescence. Thinking in the intuitive stage is based on immediate perceptions. A child in this stage often solves problems by random guessing. In pre-operational thinking, the child is usually able to add 1 + 3 = 4 but is unable to retrace the process.

The most common type of hearing loss, which results from interference of transmission of sound to the middle ear, is called: a. Conductive. b. Sensorineural. c. Mixed conductive-sensorineural. d. Central auditory imperceptive.

a. Conductive. Conductive or middle-ear hearing loss is the most common type. It results from interference of transmission of sound to the middle ear, most often from recurrent otitis media. Sensorineural, mixed conductive-sensorineural, and central auditory imperceptive are less common types of hearing loss.

The uterus is a muscular, pear-shaped organ that is responsible for: a. Cyclic menstruation. b. Sex hormone production. c. Fertilization. d. Sexual arousal.

a. Cyclic menstruation The uterus is an organ for reception, implantation, retention, and nutrition of the fertilized ovum; it also is responsible for cyclic menstruation. Hormone production and fertilization occur in the ovaries. Sexual arousal is a feedback mechanism involving the hypothalamus, the pituitary gland, and the ovaries.

A woman is 16 weeks pregnant and has elected to terminate her pregnancy. The nurse knows that the most common technique used for medical termination of a pregnancy in the second trimester is: a. Dilation and evacuation (D&E). b. Instillation of hypertonic saline into the uterine cavity. c. Intravenous administration of Pitocin. d. Vacuum aspiration.

a. Dilation and evacuation (D&E). The most common technique for medical termination of a pregnancy in the second trimester is D&E. It is usually performed between 13 and 16 weeks. Hypertonic solutions injected directly into the uterus account for less than 1% of all abortions because other methods are safer and easier to use. Intravenous administration of Pitocin is used to induce labor in a woman with a third-trimester fetal demise. Vacuum aspiration is used for abortions in the first trimester.

In caring for an immediate postpartum client, you note petechiae and oozing from her IV site. You would monitor her closely for the clotting disorder: a. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) b. Amniotic fluid embolism (AFE) c. Hemorrhage d. HELLP syndrome

a. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) The diagnosis of DIC is made according to clinical findings and laboratory markers. Physical examination reveals unusual bleeding. Petechiae may appear around a blood pressure cuff on the woman's arm. Excessive bleeding may occur from the site of slight trauma such as venipuncture sites. These symptoms are not associated with AFE, nor is AFE a bleeding disorder. Hemorrhage occurs for a variety of reasons in the postpartum client. These symptoms are associated with DIC. Hemorrhage would be a finding associated with DIC and is not a clotting disorder in and of itself. HELLP is not a clotting disorder, but it may contribute to the clotting disorder DIC.

Fibrocystic changes in the breast most often appear in women in their 20s and 30s. The etiology is unknown, but it may be an imbalance of estrogen and progesterone. The nurse who cares for this client should be aware that treatment modalities are conservative. One proven modality that may provide relief is: a. Diuretic administration. b. Including caffeine daily in the diet. c. Increased vitamin C supplementation. d. Application of cold packs to the breast as necessary.

a. Diuretic administration. Diuretic administration plus a decrease in sodium and fluid intake are recommended. Although not supported by research, some advocate eliminating dimethylxanthines (caffeine) from the diet. Smoking should also be avoided, and alcohol consumption should be reduced. Vitamin E supplements are recommended; however, the client should avoid megadoses because this is a fat-soluble vitamin. Pain relief measures include applying heat to the breast, wearing a supportive bra, and taking nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs.

The nurse sees a woman for the first time when she is 30 weeks pregnant. The woman has smoked throughout the pregnancy, and fundal height measurements now are suggestive of growth restriction in the fetus. In addition to ultrasound to measure fetal size, what other tool would be useful in confirming the diagnosis? a. Doppler blood flow analysis b. Contraction stress test (CST) c. Amniocentesis d. Daily fetal movement counts

a. Doppler blood flow analysis Doppler blood flow analysis allows the examiner to study the blood flow noninvasively in the fetus and the placenta. It is a helpful tool in the management of high risk pregnancies because of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), diabetes mellitus, multiple fetuses, or preterm labor. Because of the potential risk of inducing labor and causing fetal distress, CST is not performed on a woman whose fetus is preterm. Indications for amniocentesis include diagnosis of genetic disorders or congenital anomalies, assessment of pulmonary maturity, and diagnosis of fetal hemolytic disease, not IUGR. Fetal kick count monitoring is performed to monitor the fetus in pregnancies complicated by conditions that may affect fetal oxygenation. Although this may be a useful tool at some point later in this woman's pregnancy, it is not used to diagnose IUGR.

The nurse sees a woman for the first time when she is 30 weeks pregnant. The woman has smoked throughout the pregnancy, and fundal height measurements now are suggestive of growth restriction in the fetus. In addition to ultrasound to measure fetal size, what other tool would be useful in confirming the diagnosis? a. Doppler blood flow analysis b. Contraction stress test (CST) c. Amniocentesis d. Daily fetal movement counts

a. Doppler blood flow analysis Doppler blood flow analysis allows the examiner to study the blood flow noninvasively in the fetus and the placenta. It is a helpful tool in the management of high risk pregnancies because of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), diabetes mellitus, multiple fetuses, or preterm labor. Because of the potential risk of inducing labor and causing fetal distress, CST is not performed on a woman whose fetus is preterm. Indications for amniocentesis include diagnosis of genetic disorders or congenital anomalies, assessment of pulmonary maturity, and diagnosis of fetal hemolytic disease, not IUGR. Fetal kick count monitoring is performed to monitor the fetus in pregnancies complicated by conditions that may affect fetal oxygenation. Although this may be a useful tool at some point later in this woman's pregnancy, it is not used to diagnose IUGR.

Which activity is most appropriate for developing fine motor skills in the school-age child? a. Drawing b. Singing c. Soccer d. Swimming

a. Drawing Activities such as drawing, building models, and playing a musical instrument increase the school-age child's fine motor skills. Singing is an appropriate activity for the school-age child, but it does not increase fine motor skills. The school-age child needs to participate in group activities to increase both gross motor skills and social skills, but group activities do not increase fine motor skills. Swimming is an activity that also increases gross motor skills.

A benign breast condition that includes dilation and inflammation of the collecting ducts is called: a. Ductal ectasia. b. Intraductal papilloma. c. Chronic cystic disease. d. Fibroadenoma.

a. Ductal ectasia Generally occurring in women approaching menopause, ductal ectasia results in a firm irregular mass in the breast, enlarged axillary nodes, and nipple discharge. Intraductal papillomas develop in the epithelium of the ducts of the breasts; as the mass grows, it causes trauma or erosion within the ducts. Chronic cystic disease causes pain and tenderness. The cysts that form are multiple, smooth, and well delineated. Fibroadenoma is evidenced by fibrous and glandular tissues. They are felt as firm, rubbery, and freely mobile nodules.

A nurse is recommending strategies to a group of school-age children for prevention of obesity. Which should the nurse include (select all that apply)? a. Eat breakfast daily. b. Limit fruits and vegetables. c. Have frequent family meals with parents present. d. Eat frequently at restaurants. e. Limit television viewing to 2 hours a day.

a. Eat breakfast daily. c. Have frequent family meals with parents present. e. Limit television viewing to 2 hours a day. The nurse should counsel school-age children to eat breakfast daily, have mealtimes with family, and limit television viewing to 2 hours a day to prevent obesity. Fruits and vegetables should be consumed in the recommended quantities, and eating at restaurants should be limited.

When the pregnant diabetic woman experiences hypoglycemia while hospitalized, the nurse should intervene by having the patient: a. Eat six saltine crackers. b. Drink 8 oz of orange juice with 2 tsp of sugar added. c. Drink 4 oz of orange juice followed by 8 oz of milk. d. Eat hard candy or commercial glucose wafers.

a. Eat six saltine crackers. Crackers provide carbohydrates in the form of polysaccharides. Orange juice and sugar will increase the blood sugar but not provide a slow-burning carbohydrate to sustain the blood sugar. Milk is a disaccharide and orange juice is a monosaccharide. They will provide an increase in blood sugar but will not sustain the level. Hard candy or commercial glucose wafers provide only monosaccharides.

A parent of an infant with colic tells the nurse, "All this baby does is scream at me; it is a constant worry." The nurse's best action is: a. Encourage parent to verbalize feelings. b. Encourage parent not to worry so much. c. Assess parent for other signs of inadequate parenting. d. Reassure parent that colic rarely lasts past age 9 months.

a. Encourage parent to verbalize feelings. Colic is multifactorial, and no single treatment is effective for all infants. The parent is verbalizing concern and worry. The nurse should allow the parent to put these feelings into words. An empathic, gentle, and reassuring attitude, in addition to suggestions about remedies, will help alleviate the parent's anxieties. The nurse should reassure the parent that he or she is not doing anything wrong. The infant with colic is experiencing spasmodic pain that is manifested by loud crying, in some cases up to 3 hours each day. Telling the parent that it will eventually go away does not help him or her through the current situation.

A woman complains of severe abdominal and pelvic pain around the time of menstruation that has gotten worse over the last 5 years. She also complains of pain during intercourse and has tried unsuccessfully to get pregnant for the past 18 months. These symptoms are most likely related to: a. Endometriosis. b. PMS. c. Primary dysmenorrhea. d. Secondary dysmenorrhea.

a. Endometriosis Symptoms of endometriosis can change over time and may not reflect the extent of the disease. Major symptoms include dysmenorrhea and deep pelvic dyspareunia (painful intercourse). Impaired fertility may result from adhesions caused by endometriosis. Although endometriosis may be associated with secondary dysmenorrhea, it is not a cause of primary dysmenorrhea or PMS. In addition, this woman is complaining of dyspareunia and infertility, which are associated with endometriosis, not with PMS or primary or secondary dysmenorrhea.

Which is an important nursing consideration when caring for an infant with failure to thrive? a. Establish a structured routine and follow it consistently. b. Maintain a nondistracting environment by not speaking to the infant during feeding. c. Place the infant in an infant seat during feedings to prevent overstimulation. d. Limit sensory stimulation and play activities to alleviate fatigue.

a. Establish a structured routine and follow it consistently. The infant with failure to thrive should have a structured routine that is followed consistently. Disruptions in other activities of daily living can have a great impact on feeding behaviors. Bathing, sleeping, dressing, playing, and feeding are structured. The nurse should talk to the infant by giving directions about eating. This will help the infant maintain focus. Young children should be held while being fed, and older children can sit at a feeding table. The infant should be fed in the same manner at each meal. The infant can engage in sensory and play activities at times other than mealtime.

A nurse would suspect possible visual impairment in a child who displays: a. Excessive rubbing of the eyes. b. Rapid lateral movement of the eyes. c. Delay in speech development. d. Lack of interest in casual conversation with peers.

a. Excessive rubbing of the eyes. Excessive rubbing of the eyes is a clinical manifestation of visual impairment. Rapid lateral movement of the eyes, delay in speech development, and lack of interest in casual conversation with peers are not associated with visual impairment.

A mother's household consists of her husband, his mother, and another child. She is living in a(n): a. Extended family. b. Single-parent family. c. Married-blended family. d. Nuclear family.

a. Extended family. An extended family includes blood relatives living with the nuclear family. Both parents and a grandparent are living in this extended family. Single-parent families comprise an unmarried biologic or adoptive parent who may or may not be living with other adults. Married-blended refers to families reconstructed after divorce. A nuclear family is where male and female partners and their children live as an independent unit.

The exact cause of breast cancer remains undetermined. Researchers have found that there are many common risk factors that increase a woman's chance of developing a malignancy. It is essential for the nurse who provides care to women of any age to be aware of which of the following risk factors (Select all that apply)? a. Family history b. Late menarche c. Early menopause d. Race e. Nulliparity or first pregnancy after age 30

a. Family history d. Race e. Nulliparity or first pregnancy after age 30 Family history, race, and nulliparity are known risk factors for the development of breast cancer. Other risk factors include age, personal history of cancer, high socioeconomic status, sedentary lifestyle, hormone replacement therapy, recent use of oral contraceptives, never having breastfed a child, and drinking more than one alcoholic beverage per day. Early menarche and late menopause are risk factors for breast malignancy, not late menarche and early menopause.

Examples of sexual risk behaviors associated with exposure to a sexually transmitted infection (STI) include (Select all that apply): a. Fellatio. b. Unprotected anal intercourse. c. Multiple sex partners. d. Dry kissing. e. Abstinence.

a. Fellatio. b. Unprotected anal intercourse. c. Multiple sex partners. Engaging in these sexual activities increases the exposure risk and the possibility of acquiring an STI. Dry kissing and abstinence are considered "safe" sexual practices.

Which is the most commonly used method in completed suicides? a. Firearms b. Drug overdose c. Self-inflected laceration d. Carbon monoxide poisoning

a. Firearms Firearms are the most commonly used instruments in completed suicides among both males and females. For adolescent boys, firearms are followed by hanging and overdose. For adolescent females, overdose and strangulation are the next most common means of completed suicide. The most common method of suicide attempt is overdose or ingestion of potentially toxic substances such as drugs. The second most common method of suicide attempt is self-inflicted laceration. Carbon monoxide poisoning is not one of the more frequent forms of suicide completion.

The most fatal type of burn in the toddler age-group is: a. Flame burn from playing with matches. b. Scald burn from high-temperature tap water. c. Hot object burn from cigarettes or irons. d. Electric burn from electrical outlets.

a. Flame burn from playing with matches. Flame burns from matches and lighters represent one of the most fatal types of burns in the toddler age-group. Scald burns from water, hot object burns from cigarettes or irons, and electric burns from outlets are all significant causes of burn injury. The child should be protected from these causes by reducing the temperature of the hot water in the home, keeping objects such as cigarettes and irons away from children, and placing protective guards over electrical outlets when not in use.

A woman has a thick, white, lumpy, cottage cheese-like discharge, with patches on her labia and in her vagina. She complains of intense pruritus. The nurse practitioner would order which preparation for treatment? a. Fluconazole b. Tetracycline c. Clindamycin d. Acyclovir

a. Fluconazole Fluconazole, metronidazole, and clotrimazole are the drugs of choice to treat candidiasis. Tetracycline is used to treat syphilis. Clindamycin is used to treat bacterial vaginosis. Acyclovir is used to treat genital herpes.

According to Piaget, the adolescent is in the fourth stage of cognitive development, or period of: a. Formal operations. b. Concrete operations. c. Conventional thought. d. Postconventional thought.

a. Formal operations. Cognitive thinking culminates with capacity for abstract thinking. This stage, the period of formal operations, is Piaget's fourth and last stage. The concrete operations stage usually develops between ages 7 and 11 years. Conventional and post-conventional thought refer to Kohlberg's stages of moral development.

Parents tell the nurse that their toddler daughter eats little at mealtimes, only sits at the table with the family briefly, and wants snacks "all the time." The nurse should recommend that the parents: a. Give her planned, frequent, and nutritious snacks. b. Offer rewards for eating at mealtimes. c. Avoid snacks so she is hungry at mealtimes. d. Explain to her in a firm manner what is expected of her.

a. Give her planned, frequent, and nutritious snacks. Most toddlers exhibit a physiologic anorexia in response to the decreased nutritional requirement associated with the slower growth rate. Parents should assist the child to develop healthy eating habits. The toddler is often unable to sit through a meal. Frequent nutritious snacks are a good way to ensure proper nutrition. To help with developing healthy eating habits, food should not be used as positive or negative reinforcement for behavior. The child may develop habits of overeating or eat nonnutritious foods in response.

A young adolescent boy tells the nurse he "feels gawky." The nurse should explain that this occurs in adolescents because: a. Growth of the extremities and neck precedes growth in other areas. b. Growth is in the trunk and chest. c. The hip and chest breadth increases. d. The growth spurt occurs earlier in boys than it does in girls.

a. Growth of the extremities and neck precedes growth in other areas. Growth in length of the extremities and neck precedes growth in other areas, and, because these parts are the first to reach adult length, the hands and feet appear larger than normal during adolescence. Increases in hip and chest breadth take place in a few months, followed several months later by an increase in shoulder width. These changes are followed by increases in length of the trunk and depth of the chest. This sequence of changes is responsible for the characteristic long-legged, gawky appearance of early adolescent children. The growth spurt occurs earlier in girls than in boys.

Compared with contraction stress test (CST), nonstress test (NST) for antepartum fetal assessment: a. Has no known contraindications. b. Has fewer false-positive results. c. Is more sensitive in detecting fetal compromise. d. Is slightly more expensive.

a. Has no known contraindications. CST has several contraindications. NST has a high rate of false-positive results, is less sensitive than the CST, and is relatively inexpensive.

Parents have learned that their 6-year-old child has autism. The nurse may help the parents to cope by explaining that the child may: a. Have an extremely developed skill in a particular area. b. Outgrow the condition by early adulthood. c. Have average social skills. d. Have age-appropriate language skills.

a. Have an extremely developed skill in a particular area. Some children with autism have an extremely developed skill in a particular area, such as mathematics or music. No evidence supports that autism is outgrown. Autistic children have abnormal ways of relating to people (social skills). Speech and language skills are usually delayed in autistic children.

The nurse is preparing for a home visit to complete a newborn wellness checkup. The neighborhood has a reputation for being dangerous. Identify which precautions the nurse should take to ensure her safety (Select all that apply). a. Having access to a cell phone at all times. b. Visiting alone due to the agency's staffing model. c. Carrying an extra set of car keys. d. Avoiding groups of strangers hanging out in doorways. e. Wearing her usual amount of jewelry.

a. Having access to a cell phone at all times. c. Carrying an extra set of car keys. d. Avoiding groups of strangers hanging out in doorways. Nurse safety is an important component of home care. The nurse should be fully aware of the home environment and the neighborhood in which the home care is being provided. In this situation, nurses should visit in pairs, have access to a cell phone at all times, and wear a limited amount of jewelry. The car should be parked in a well-lit area and locked at all times. An extra set of keys kept in the nursing home care bag avoids time and frustration if the nurse should become locked out of her automobile. Car keys spread between the fingers can also be used of the weapon if necessary. Groups of strangers, dark alleys, and unrestrained dogs should be avoided at all times.

Which statement is correct about childhood obesity? a. Heredity is an important factor in the development of obesity. b. Childhood obesity in the United States is decreasing. c. Childhood obesity is the result of inactivity. d. Childhood obesity can be attributed to an underlying disease in most cases.

a. Heredity is an important factor in the development of obesity. Heredity is an important fact that contributes to obesity. Identical twins reared apart tend to resemble their biologic parents to a greater extent than their adoptive parents. It is difficult to distinguish between hereditary and environmental factors. The rate of childhood obesity has increased so dramatically that it has now reached epidemic proportions. Inactivity is an important contributing factor; however, obesity is the result of a combination of a number of other factors. Fewer than 5% of all cases of obesity can be linked to underlying disease.

Which viral sexually transmitted infection is characterized by a primary infection followed by recurrent episodes? a. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)-2 b. Human papillomavirus (HPV) c. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) d. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

a. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)-2 The initial HSV genital infection is characterized by multiple painful lesions, fever, chills, malaise, and severe dysuria; it may last 2 to 3 weeks. Recurrent episodes of HSV infection commonly have only local symptoms that usually are less severe than the symptoms of the initial infection. With HPV infection, lesions are a chronic problem. HIV is a retrovirus. Seroconversion to HIV positivity usually occurs within 6 to 12 weeks after the virus has entered the body. Severe depression of the cellular immune system associated with HIV infection characterizes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). AIDS has no cure. In most adults, the onset of CMV infection is uncertain and asymptomatic. However, the disease may become a chronic, persistent infection.

Which assessment findings indicate to the nurse a child has Down syndrome (select all that apply)? a. High-arched, narrow palate b. Protruding tongue c. Long, slender fingers d. Transverse palmar crease e. Hypertonic muscle tone

a. High-arched, narrow palate b. Protruding tongue d. Transverse palmar crease The assessment findings of Down syndrome include high-arched, narrow palate; protruding tongue; and transverse palmar creases. The fingers are stubby and the muscle tone is hypotonic, not hypertonic.

A woman with severe preeclampsia has been receiving magnesium sulfate by intravenous infusion for 8 hours. The nurse assesses the woman and documents the following findings: temperature of 37.1° C, pulse rate of 96 beats/min, respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min, blood pressure (BP) of 155/112 mm Hg, 3+ deep tendon reflexes, and no ankle clonus. The nurse calls the physician, anticipating an order for: a. Hydralazine. b. Magnesium sulfate bolus. c. Diazepam. d. Calcium gluconate.

a. Hydralazine. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive commonly used to treat hypertension in severe preeclampsia. Typically it is administered for a systolic BP greater than 160 mm Hg or a diastolic BP greater than 110 mm Hg. An additional bolus of magnesium sulfate may be ordered for increasing signs of central nervous system irritability related to severe preeclampsia (e.g., clonus) or if eclampsia develops. Diazepam sometimes is used to stop or shorten eclamptic seizures. Calcium gluconate is used as the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. The client is not currently displaying any signs or symptoms of magnesium toxicity.

The nurse caring for pregnant women must be aware that the most common medical complication of pregnancy is: a. Hypertension. b. Hyperemesis gravidarum. c. Hemorrhagic complications. d. Infections.

a. Hypertension Preeclampsia and eclampsia are two noted deadly forms of hypertension. A large percentage of pregnant women will have nausea and vomiting, but a relatively few have the severe form called hyperemesis gravidarum. Hemorrhagic complications are the second most common medical complication of pregnancy; hypertension is the most common.

Which major neonatal complication is carefully monitored after the birth of the infant of a diabetic mother? a. Hypoglycemia b. Hypercalcemia c. Hypobilirubinemia d. Hypoinsulinemia

a. Hypoglycemia The neonate is at highest risk for hypoglycemia because fetal insulin production is accelerated during pregnancy to metabolize excessive glucose from the mother. At birth, the maternal glucose supply stops and the neonatal insulin exceeds the available glucose, thus leading to hypoglycemia. Hypocalcemia is associated with preterm birth, birth trauma, and asphyxia, all common problems of the infant of a diabetic mother. Excess erythrocytes are broken down after birth and release large amounts of bilirubin into the neonate's circulation, with resulting hyperbilirubinemia. Because fetal insulin production is accelerated during pregnancy, the neonate presents with hyperinsulinemia.

The parents of a 2-year-old tell the nurse that they are concerned because the toddler has started to use "baby talk" since the arrival of their new baby. The nurse should recommend that the parents: a. Ignore the "baby talk." b. Explain to the toddler that "baby talk" is for babies. c. Tell the toddler frequently, "You are a big kid now." d. Encourage the toddler to practice more advanced patterns of speech.

a. Ignore the "baby talk." The baby talk is a sign of regression in the toddler. It should be ignored, while praising the child for developmentally appropriate behaviors. Regression is children's way of saying that they are expressing stress. The parents should not introduce new expectations and should allow the child to master the developmental tasks without criticism.

Which play patterns does a 3-year-old child typically display (select all that apply)? a. Imaginary play b. Parallel play c. Cooperative play d. Structured play e. Associative play

a. Imaginary play b. Parallel play c. Cooperative play e. Associative play Children between ages 3 and 5 years enjoy parallel and associative play. Children learn to share and cooperate as they play in small groups. Play is often imitative, dramatic, and creative. Imaginary friends are common around age 3 years. Structured play is typical of school-age children.

A nurse places some x-ray contrast the toddler is to drink in a small cup instead of a large cup. Which concept of a toddler's preoperational thinking is the nurse using? a. Inability to conserve b. Magical thinking c. Centration d. Irreversibility

a. Inability to conserve The nurse is using the toddler's inability to conserve. This is when the toddler is unable to understand the idea that a mass can be changed in size, shape, volume, or length without losing or adding to the original mass. Instead, toddlers judge what they see by the immediate perceptual clues given to them. A small glass means less amount of contrast. Magical thinking is believing that thoughts are all-powerful and can cause events. Centration is focusing on one aspect rather than considering all possible alternatives. Irreversibility is the inability to undo or reverse the actions initiated, such as being unable to stop doing an action when told.

In planning care for women with preeclampsia, nurses should be aware that: a. Induction of labor is likely, as near term as possible. b. If at home, the woman should be confined to her bed, even with mild preeclampsia. c. A special diet low in protein and salt should be initiated. d. Vaginal birth is still an option, even in severe cases.

a. Induction of labor is likely, as near term as possible Induction of labor is likely, as near term as possible; however, at less than 37 weeks of gestation, immediate delivery may not be in the best interest of the fetus. Strict bed rest is becoming controversial for mild cases; some women in the hospital are even allowed to move around. Diet and fluid recommendations are much the same as for healthy pregnant women, although some authorities have suggested a diet high in protein. Women with severe preeclampsia should expect a cesarean delivery.

Sara, age 4 months, was born at 35 weeks' gestation. She seems to be developing normally, but her parents are concerned because she is a "more difficult" baby than their other child, who was term. The nurse should explain that: a. Infants' temperaments are part of their unique characteristics. b. Infants become less difficult if they are not kept on scheduled feedings and structured routines. c. Sara's behavior is suggestive of failure to bond completely with her parents. d. Sara's difficult temperament is the result of painful experiences in the neonatal period.

a. Infants' temperaments are part of their unique characteristics. Infant temperament has a strong biologic component. Together with interactions with the environment, primarily the family, the biologic component contributes to the infant's unique temperament. Children perceived as difficult may respond better to scheduled feedings and structured caregiving routines than to demand feedings and frequent changes in routines. Sara's temperament has been created by both biologic and environmental factors. The nurse should provide guidance in parenting techniques that are best suited to Sara's temperament.

The leading cause of death during the toddler period is: a. Injuries. b. Infectious diseases. c. Congenital disorders. d. Childhood diseases.

a. Injuries Injuries are the single most common cause of death in children ages 1 through 4 years. It is the period of highest death rate from injuries of any childhood age-group except adolescence. Infectious and childhood diseases are less common cause of deaths in this age-group. Congenital disorders are the second leading cause of death in this age-group.

A client who has undergone a dilation and curettage for early pregnancy loss is likely to be discharged the same day. The nurse must ensure that vital signs are stable, bleeding has been controlled, and the woman has adequately recovered from the administration of anesthesia. To promote an optimal recovery, discharge teaching should include (Select all that apply): a. Iron supplementation. b. Resumption of intercourse at 6 weeks following the procedure. c. Referral to a support group if necessary. d. Expectation of heavy bleeding for at least 2 weeks. e. Emphasizing the need for rest.

a. Iron supplementation. c. Referral to a support group if necessary. e. Emphasizing the need for rest. The woman should be advised to consume a diet high in iron and protein. For many women iron supplementation also is necessary. Acknowledge that the client has experienced a loss, albeit early. She can be taught to expect mood swings and possibly depression. Referral to a support group, clergy, or professional counseling may be necessary. Discharge teaching should emphasize the need for rest. Nothing should be placed in the vagina for 2 weeks after the procedure. This includes tampons and vaginal intercourse. The purpose of this recommendation is to prevent infection. Should infection occur, antibiotics may be prescribed. The client should expect a scant, dark discharge for 1 to 2 weeks. Should heavy, profuse, or bright bleeding occur, she should be instructed to contact her provider.

Nurses should be aware that the biophysical profile (BPP): a. Is an accurate indicator of impending fetal death. b. Is a compilation of health risk factors of the mother during the later stages of pregnancy. c. Consists of a Doppler blood flow analysis and an amniotic fluid index. d. Involves an invasive form of ultrasound examination.

a. Is an accurate indicator of impending fetal death. An abnormal BPP score is an indication that labor should be induced. The BPP evaluates the health of the fetus, requires many different measures, and is a noninvasive procedure.

The nurse is interviewing the father of 10-month-old Megan. She is playing on the floor when she notices an electrical outlet and reaches up to touch it. Her father says "No" firmly and removes her from near the outlet. The nurse should use this opportunity to teach the father that Megan: a. Is old enough to understand the word "No." b. Is too young to understand the word "No." c. Should already know that electrical outlets are dangerous. d. Will learn safety issues better if she is spanked.

a. Is old enough to understand the word "No." By age 10 months, children are able to associate meaning with words. The child should be old enough to understand the word "No." The 10-month-old is too young to understand the purpose of an electrical outlet. The father is using both verbal and physical cues to teach safety measures and alert the child to dangerous situations. Physical discipline should be avoided.

Nurses should be aware that infertility: a. Is perceived differently by women and men. b. Has a relatively stable prevalence among the overall population and throughout a woman's potential reproductive years. c. Is more likely the result of a physical flaw in the woman than in her male partner. d. Is the same thing as sterility.

a. Is perceived differently by women and men. Women tend to be more stressed about infertility tests and to place more importance on having children. The prevalence of infertility is stable among the overall population, but it increases with a woman's age, especially after age 40. Of cases with an identifiable cause, about 40% are related to female factors, 40% to male factors, and 20% to both partners. Sterility is the inability to conceive. Infertility, or subfertility, is a state of requiring a prolonged time to conceive.

As relates to dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB), the nurse should be aware that: a. It is most commonly caused by anovulation. b. It most often occurs in middle age. c. The diagnosis of DUB should be the first considered for abnormal menstrual bleeding. d. The most effective medical treatment is steroids.

a. It is most commonly caused by anovulation. Anovulation may occur because of hypothalamic dysfunction or polycystic ovary syndrome. DUB most often occurs when the menstrual cycle is being established or when it draws to a close at menopause. A diagnosis of DUB is made only after all other causes of abnormal menstrual bleeding have been ruled out. The most effective medical treatment is oral or intravenous estrogen.

As related to the care of the patient with anemia, the nurse should be aware that: a. It is the most common medical disorder of pregnancy. b. It can trigger reflex brachycardia. c. The most common form of anemia is caused by folate deficiency. d. Thalassemia is a European version of sickle cell anemia.

a. It is the most common medical disorder of pregnancy. Combined with any other complication, anemia can result in congestive heart failure. Reflex bradycardia is a slowing of the heart in response to the blood flow increases immediately after birth. The most common form of anemia is iron deficiency anemia. Both thalassemia and sickle cell hemoglobinopathy are hereditary but not directly related or confined to geographic areas.

Many pregnant teens wait until the second or third trimester to seek prenatal care. The nurse should understand that the reasons behind this delay include: a. Lack of realization that they are pregnant. b. Uncertainty as to where to go for care. c. Continuing to deny the pregnancy. d. A desire to gain control over their situation. e. Wanting to hide the pregnancy as long as possible.

a. Lack of realization that they are pregnant. b. Uncertainty as to where to go for care. c. Continuing to deny the pregnancy. e. Wanting to hide the pregnancy as long as possible. These are all valid reasons for the teen to delay seeking prenatal care. An adolescent often has little to no understanding of the increased physiologic needs that a pregnancy places on her body. Once care is sought, it is often sporadic, and many appointments are missed. The nurse should formulate a diagnosis that assists the pregnant teen to receive adequate prenatal care. Planning for her pregnancy and impending birth actually provides some sense of control for the teen and increases feelings of competency. Receiving praise from the nurse when she attends her prenatal appointments will reinforce the teen's positive self-image.

Autism is a complex developmental disorder. The diagnostic criteria for autism include delayed or abnormal functioning in which area(s) with onset before age 3 years (select all that apply)? a. Language as used in social communication b. Gross motor development c. Growth below the 5th percentile for height and weight d. Symbolic or imaginative play e. Social interaction

a. Language as used in social communication d. Symbolic or imaginative play e. Social interaction Language as used in social communication, symbolic or imaginative play, and social interaction are three of the areas in which autistic children may show delayed or abnormal functioning. Gross motor development and growth below the 5th percentile for height and weight are not areas in which autistic children may show delayed or abnormal functioning.

Screening at 24 weeks of gestation reveals that a pregnant woman has gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). In planning her care, the nurse and the woman mutually agree that an expected outcome is to prevent injury to the fetus as a result of GDM. The nurse identifies that the fetus is at greatest risk for: a. Macrosomia. b. Congenital anomalies of the central nervous system. c. Preterm birth. d. Low birth weight.

a. Macrosomia. Poor glycemic control later in pregnancy increases the rate of fetal macrosomia. Poor glycemic control during the preconception time frame and into the early weeks of the pregnancy is associated with congenital anomalies. Preterm labor or birth is more likely to occur with severe diabetes and is the greatest risk in women with pregestational diabetes. Increased weight, or macrosomia, is the greatest risk factor for this woman.

A child with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. The nurse should plan which priority intervention when caring for the child? a. Maintain a structured routine and keep stimulation to a minimum. b. Place the child in a room with a roommate of the same age. c. Maintain frequent touch and eye contact with the child. d. Take the child frequently to the playroom to play with other children.

a. Maintain a structured routine and keep stimulation to a minimum. Providing a structured routine for the child to follow is key in the management of ASD. Decreasing stimulation by using a private room, avoiding extraneous auditory and visual distractions, and encouraging the parents to bring in possessions the child is attached to may lessen the disruptiveness of hospitalization. Because physical contact often upsets these children, minimum holding and eye contact may be necessary to avoid behavioral outbursts. Children with ASD need to be introduced slowly to new situations, with visits with staff caregivers kept short whenever possible. The playroom would be too overwhelming with new people and situations and should not be a priority of care.

A married couple lives in a single-family house with their newborn son and the husband's daughter from a previous marriage. On the basis of the information given, what family form best describes this family? a. Married-blended family b. Extended family c. Nuclear family d. Same-sex family

a. Married-blended family Married-blended families are formed as the result of divorce and remarriage. Unrelated family members join together to create a new household. Members of an extended family are kin, or family members related by blood, such as grandparents, aunts, and uncles. A nuclear family is a traditional family with male and female partners and the children resulting from that union. A same-sex family is a family with homosexual partners who cohabit with or without children.

With one exception, the safest pregnancy is one in which the woman is drug and alcohol free. For women addicted to opioids, ________________________ treatment is the current standard of care during pregnancy. a. Methadone maintenance b. Detoxification c. Smoking cessation d. 4 Ps Plus

a. Methadone maintenance Methadone maintenance treatment (MMT) is currently considered the standard of care for pregnant women who are dependent on heroin or other narcotics. Buprenorphine is another medication approved for opioid addiction treatment that is increasingly being used during pregnancy. Opioid replacement therapy has been shown to decrease opioid and other drug use, reduce criminal activity, improve individual functioning, and decrease rates of infections such as hepatitis B and C, HIV, and other sexually transmitted infections. Detoxification is the treatment used for alcohol addiction. Pregnant women requiring withdrawal from alcohol should be admitted for inpatient management. Women are more likely to stop smoking during pregnancy than at any other time in their lives. A smoking cessation program can assist in achieving this goal. The 4 Ps Plus is a screening tool designed specifically to identify pregnant women who need in-depth assessment related to substance abuse.

The nurse is caring for an adolescent brought to the hospital with acute drug toxicity. Cocaine is believed to be the drug involved. Data collection should include the: a. Mode of administration. b. Actual content of the drug. c. Function the drug plays in the adolescent's life. d. Adolescent's level of interest in rehabilitation.

a. Mode of administration. When the drug is questionable or unknown, every effort must be made to determine the type, amount of drug taken, the mode and time of administration, and factors relating to the onset of presenting symptoms. Because the actual content of most street drugs is highly questionable, this information would be difficult to obtain. It is helpful to know the pattern of use but not essential during this emergency. This is an inappropriate time for an evaluation about the level of interest in rehabilitation.

Transvaginal ultrasonography is often performed during the first trimester. While preparing your 6-week gestation patient for this procedure, she expresses concerns over the necessity for this test. The nurse should explain that this diagnostic test may be indicated for a number of situations (Select all that apply). a. Multifetal gestation b. Obesity c. Fetal abnormalities d. Amniotic fluid volume e. Ectopic pregnancy

a. Multifetal gestation b. Obesity c. Fetal abnormalities e. Ectopic pregnancy Transvaginal ultrasound is useful in obese women whose thick abdominal layers cannot be penetrated with traditional abdominal ultrasound. This procedure is also used for identifying multifetal gestation, ectopic pregnancy, estimating gestational age, confirming fetal viability, and identifying fetal abnormalities. Amniotic fluid volume is assessed during the second and third trimester. Conventional ultrasound would be used.

Which analysis of maternal serum may predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus? a. Multiple-marker screening b. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio c. Biophysical profile d. Type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum

a. Multiple-marker screening Maternal serum can be analyzed for abnormal levels of alpha-fetoprotein, human chorionic gonadotropin, and estriol. The multiple-marker screening may predict chromosomal defects in the fetus. The L/S ratio is used to determine fetal lung maturity. A biophysical profile is used for evaluating fetal status during the antepartum period. Five variables are used, but none is concerned with chromosomal problems. The blood type and crossmatch would not predict chromosomal defects in the fetus.

Strict isolation is required for a child who is hospitalized with (select all that apply): a. Mumps. b. Chickenpox. c. Exanthema subitum (roseola). d. Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease). e. Parvovirus B19.

a. Mumps. b. Chickenpox. c. Exanthema subitum (roseola). d. Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease). Childhood communicable diseases requiring strict transmission-based precautions (Contact, Airborne, and Droplet Precautions) include diphtheria, chickenpox, measles, mumps, tuberculosis, adenovirus, Haemophilus influenzae type B, mumps, pertussis, plague, streptococcal pharyngitis, and scarlet fever. Strict isolation is not required for parvovirus B19.

A patient has been prescribed adjuvant tamoxifen therapy. What common side effect might she experience? a. Nausea, hot flashes, and vaginal bleeding b. Vomiting, weight loss, and hair loss c. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea d. Hot flashes, weight gain, and headaches

a. Nausea, hot flashes, and vaginal bleeding Common side effects of tamoxifen therapy include hot flashes, nausea, vomiting, vaginal bleeding, menstrual irregularities, and rash. Weight loss, hair loss, diarrhea, weight gain, and headaches are not common side effects of tamoxifen.

A woman is undergoing a nipple-stimulated contraction stress test (CST). She is having contractions that occur every 3 minutes. The fetal heart rate (FHR) has a baseline of approximately 120 beats/min without any decelerations. The interpretation of this test is said to be: a. Negative. b. Positive. c. Satisfactory. d. Unsatisfactory.

a. Negative. Adequate uterine activity necessary for a CST consists of the presence of three contractions in a 10-minute time frame. If no decelerations are observed in the FHR pattern with the contractions, the findings are considered to be negative. A positive CST indicates the presence of repetitive later FHR decelerations. Satisfactory and unsatisfactory are not applicable terms.

A woman is undergoing a nipple-stimulated contraction stress test (CST). She is having contractions that occur every 3 minutes. The fetal heart rate (FHR) has a baseline of approximately 120 beats/min without any decelerations. The interpretation of this test is said to be: a. Negative. b. Positive. c. Satisfactory. d. Unsatisfactory.

a. Negative. Adequate uterine activity necessary for a CST consists of the presence of three contractions in a 10-minute time frame. If no decelerations are observed in the FHR pattern with the contractions, the findings are considered to be negative. A positive CST indicates the presence of repetitive later FHR decelerations. Satisfactory and unsatisfactory are not applicable terms.

A 3-month-old infant, born at 38 weeks of gestation, will hold a rattle if it is put in her hands; however, she will not voluntarily grasp it. The nurse should interpret this as: a. Normal development. b. Significant developmental lag. c. Slightly delayed development caused by prematurity. d. Suggestive of a neurologic disorder such as cerebral palsy.

a. Normal development. This indicates normal development. Reflexive grasping occurs during the first 2 to 3 months and then gradually becomes voluntary. No evidence of developmental lag, delayed development, or neurologic dysfunction is present.

The woman's family members are present when the home care maternal-child nurse arrives for a postpartum and newborn visit. What should the nurse do? a. Observe the family members' interactions with the newborn and one another. b. Ask the woman to meet with her and the baby alone. c. Do a brief assessment on all family members present. d. Reschedule the visit for another time so that the mother and infant can be assessed privately.

a. Observe the family members' interactions with the newborn and one another. The nurse should introduce herself to the patient and the other family members present. Family members in the home may be providing care and assistance to the mother and infant. However, this care may not be based on sound health practices. Nurses should take the opportunity to dispel myths while family members are present. The responsibility of the home care maternal-child nurse is to provide care to the new postpartum mother and her infant, not to all family members. The nurse can politely ask about the other people in the home and their relationships with the woman. Unless an indication is given that the woman would prefer privacy, the visit may continue.

A woman has chosen the calendar method of conception control. During the assessment process, it is most important that the nurse: a. Obtain a history of menstrual cycle lengths for the past 6 to 12 months. b. Determine the client's weight gain and loss pattern for the previous year. c. Examine skin pigmentation and hair texture for hormonal changes. d. Explore the client's previous experiences with conception control.

a. Obtain a history of menstrual cycle lengths for the past 6 to 12 months. The calendar method of conception control is based on the number of days in each cycle, counting from the first day of menses. The fertile period is determined after the lengths of menstrual cycles have been accurately recorded for 6 months. Weight gain or loss may be partly related to hormonal fluctuations, but it has no bearing on use of the calendar method. Integumentary changes may be related to hormonal changes, but they are not indicators for use of the calendar method. Exploring previous experiences with conception control may demonstrate client understanding and compliancy, but it is not the most important aspect to assess for discussion of the calendar method.

A nurse is planning care for a 7-year-old child hospitalized with osteomyelitis. Which activities should the nurse plan to bring from the playroom for the child (select all that apply)? a. Paper and some paints b. Board games c. Jack-in-the-box d. Stuffed animals e. Computer games

a. Paper and some paints b. Board games e. Computer games School-age children become fascinated with complex board, card, or computer games that they can play alone, with a best friend, or with a group. They also enjoy sewing, cooking, carpentry, gardening, and creative activities such as painting. Jack-in-the-box and stuffed animals would be appropriate for a toddler or preschool child.

Injuries claim many lives during adolescence. Which factors contribute to early adolescents engaging in risk-taking behaviors (select all that apply)? a. Peer pressure b. A desire to master their environment c. Engagement in the process of separation from their parents d. A belief that they are invulnerable e. Impulsivity

a. Peer pressure d. A belief that they are invulnerable e. Impulsivity Peer pressure (including impressing peers) is a factor contributing to adolescent injuries. During early to middle adolescence, children feel that they are exempt from the consequences of risk-taking behaviors; they believe that negative consequences only happen to others. Feelings of invulnerability ("It can't happen to me") are evident in adolescence. Impulsivity places adolescents in unsafe situations. Mastering the environment is the task of young school-age children. Emancipation is a major issue for the older adolescent. The process is accomplished as the teenager gains an education or vocational training.

Research has shown that the most successful smoking cessation programs among teens include (select all that apply): a. Peer-led education and support. b. Information on the long-term effects of smoking. c. Programs including the media. d. School-based programs. e. Information on the immediate effects of smoking.

a. Peer-led education and support. c. Programs including the media. d. School-based programs. e. Information on the immediate effects of smoking. Two areas of antismoking campaigns that have shown success are those that are peer-led and use media in education related to smoking prevention. School-based programs have also shown success and can be strengthened by expansion into the community and youth groups. Teens respond much better to education that focuses on the immediate effects of smoking. For the most part, smoking prevention programs that focus on the negative long-term effects of smoking have been ineffective.

With the goal of preventing plagiocephaly, the nurse should teach new parents to: a. Place the infant prone for 30 to 60 minutes per day. b. Buy a soft mattress. c. Allow the infant to nap in the car safety seat. d. Have the infant sleep with the parents.

a. Place the infant prone for 30 to 60 minutes per day. Prevention of positional plagiocephaly may begin shortly after birth by implementing prone positioning or "tummy time" for approximately 30 to 60 minutes per day when the infant is awake. Soft mattresses or sleeping with parents (co-sleeping) are not recommended because they put the infant at a higher risk for a sudden infant death incident. To prevent plagiocephaly, prolonged placement in car safety seats should be avoided.

Which toys should a nurse provide to promote imaginative play for a 3-year-old hospitalized child (select all that apply)? a. Plastic telephone b. Hand puppets c. Jigsaw puzzle (100 pieces) d. Farm animals and equipment e. Jump rope

a. Plastic telephone b. Hand puppets d. Farm animals and equipment To promote imaginative play for a 3-year-old child, the nurse should provide: dress-up clothes, dolls and dollhouses, housekeeping toys, play-store toys, telephones, farm animals and equipment, village sets, trains, trucks, cars, planes, hand puppets, and medical kits. A 100-piece jigsaw puzzle and a jump rope would be appropriate for a young, school-age child but not a 3-year-old child.

An appropriate play activity for a 7-month-old infant to encourage visual stimulation is: a. Playing peek-a-boo. b. Playing pat-a-cake. c. Imitating animal sounds. d. Showing how to clap hands.

a. Playing peek-a-boo. Because object permanence is a new achievement, peek-a-boo is an excellent activity to practice this new skill for visual stimulation. Playing pat-a-cake and showing how to clap hands will help with kinesthetic stimulation. Imitating animal sounds will help with auditory stimulation.

Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) is associated with numerous pregnancy-related risk factors (Select all that apply). a. Poor nutrition b. Maternal collagen disease c. Gestational hypertension d. Premature rupture of membranes e. Smoking

a. Poor nutrition b. Maternal collagen disease c. Gestational hypertension e. Smoking Poor nutrition, maternal collagen disease, gestational hypertension, and smoking all are risk factors associated with IUGR. Premature rupture of membranes is associated with preterm labor, not IUGR.

Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) is associated with numerous pregnancy-related risk factors (Select all that apply). a. Poor nutrition b. Maternal collagen disease c. Gestational hypertension d. Premature rupture of membranes e. Smoking

a. Poor nutrition b. Maternal collagen disease c. Gestational hypertension e. Smoking Poor nutrition, maternal collagen disease, gestational hypertension, and smoking all are risk factors associated with IUGR. Premature rupture of membranes is associated with preterm labor, not IUGR.

A common characteristic of those who sexually abuse children is that they: a. Pressure the victim into secrecy. b. Are usually unemployed and unmarried. c. Are unknown to victims and victims' families. d. Have many victims that are each abused only once.

a. Pressure the victim into secrecy. Sex offenders may pressure the victim into secrecy, regarding the activity as a "secret between us" that other people may take away if they find out. Abusers are often employed upstanding members of the community. Most sexual abuse is committed by men and persons who are well known to the child. Abuse is often repeated with the same child over time. The relationship may start insidiously without the child realizing that sexual activity is part of the offer.

There is little consensus on the management of premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). However, nurses can advise women on several self-help modalities that often improve symptoms. The nurse knows that health teaching has been effective when the client reports that she has adopted a number of lifestyle changes, including (Select all that apply): a. Regular exercise. b. Improved nutrition. c. A daily glass of wine. d. Smoking cessation. e. Oil of evening primrose.

a. Regular exercise. b. Improved nutrition. d. Smoking cessation. e. Oil of evening primrose. These modalities may provide significant symptom relief in 1 to 2 months. If there is no improvement after these changes have been made, the patient may need to begin pharmacologic therapy. Women should decrease both their alcohol and caffeinated beverage consumption if they have PMDD.

Postcoital contraception with Ovral: a. Requires that the first dose be taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. b. Requires that the woman take second and third doses at 24 and 36 hours after the first dose. c. Must be taken in conjunction with an IUD insertion. d. Is commonly associated with the side effect of menorrhagia.

a. Requires that the first dose be taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. Emergency contraception is most effective when used within 72 hours of intercourse; however, it may be used with lessened effectiveness 120 hours later. Insertion of the copper IUD within 5 days of intercourse may also be used and is up to 99% effective. The most common side effect of postcoital contraception is nausea.

Despite warnings, prenatal exposure to alcohol continues to exceed by far exposure to illicit drugs. A diagnosis of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is made when there are visible markers in each of three categories. Which is category is not associated with a diagnosis of FAS? a. Respiratory conditions b. Impaired growth c. CNS abnormality d. Craniofacial dysmorphologies

a. Respiratory conditions Respiratory difficulties are not a category of conditions that are related to FAS. Abnormalities related to FAS include organ deformities, genital malformations, and kidney and urinary defects. Impaired growth is a visible marker for FAS. CNS abnormalities with neurologic and intellectual impairments are categories used to assist in the diagnosis of FAS. An infant with FAS manifests at least two craniofacial abnormalities, such as microcephaly, short palpebral fissures, poorly developed philtrum, thin upper lip, or flattening of the maxilla.

What nursing diagnosis would be the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia? a. Risk for injury to the fetus related to uteroplacental insufficiency b. Risk for eclampsia c. Risk for deficient fluid volume related to increased sodium retention secondary to administration of MgSO4 d. Risk for increased cardiac output related to use of antihypertensive drugs

a. Risk for injury to the fetus related to uteroplacental insufficiency Risk for injury to the fetus related to uteroplacental insufficiency is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client scenario. Other diagnoses include Risk to fetus related to preterm birth and abruptio placentae. Eclampsia is a medical, not a nursing, diagnosis. There would be a risk for excess, not deficient, fluid volume related to increased sodium retention. There would be a risk for decreased, not increased, cardiac output related to the use of antihypertensive drugs.

In terms of gross motor development, what would the nurse expect a 5-month-old infant to do? a. Roll from abdomen to back. b. Roll from back to abdomen. c. Sit erect without support. d. Move from prone to sitting position.

a. Roll from abdomen to back. Rolling from abdomen to back is developmentally appropriate for a 5-month-old infant. The ability to roll from back to abdomen usually occurs at 6 months old. Sitting erect without support is a developmental milestone usually achieved by 8 months. The 10-month-old infant can usually move from a prone to a sitting position.

In terms of gross motor development, what would the nurse expect a 5-month-old infant to do (select all that apply)? a. Roll from abdomen to back. b. Put feet in mouth when supine. c. Roll from back to abdomen. d. Sit erect without support. e. Move from prone to sitting position.

a. Roll from abdomen to back. b. Put feet in mouth when supine. Rolling from abdomen to back and placing the feet in the mouth when supine are developmentally appropriate for a 5-month-old infant. Rolling from back to abdomen is developmentally appropriate for a 6-month-old infant. An 8-month-old infant should be able to sit erect without support. A 10-month-old infant can usually move from a prone to a sitting position.

The major consideration when selecting toys for a child who is cognitively impaired is: a. Safety. b. Age appropriateness. c. Ability to provide exercise. d. Ability to teach useful skills.

a. Safety. Safety is the primary concern in selecting recreational and exercise activities for all children. This is especially true for children who are cognitively impaired. Age appropriateness, the ability to provide exercise, and the ability to teach useful skills are all factors to consider in the selection of toys, but safety is of paramount importance.

A 9-year-old girl often comes to the school nurse complaining of stomach pains. Her teacher says that she is completing her schoolwork satisfactorily, but lately she has been somewhat aggressive and stubborn in the classroom. The school nurse should recognize this as: a. Signs of stress. b. Developmental delay. c. A physical problem causing emotional stress. d. Lack of adjustment to the school environment.

a. Signs of stress. Signs of stress include stomach pains or headache, sleep problems, bed-wetting, changes in eating habits, aggressive or stubborn behavior, reluctance to participate, or regression to early behaviors. This child is exhibiting signs of stress, not developmental delay, a physical problem, or lack of adjustment.

Which statement is true about smoking in adolescence? a. Smoking is related to other high-risk behaviors. b. Smoking is more common among athletes. c. Smoking is less common when the adolescent's parent(s) smokes. d. Smoking among adolescents is becoming more prevalent.

a. Smoking is related to other high-risk behaviors. Cigarettes are considered a gateway drug. Teenagers who smoke are 11.4 times more likely to use an illicit drug. Teens who refrain from smoking often have a desire to succeed in athletics. If a parent smokes, it is more likely that the teen will smoke. Cigarette smoking has declined among all groups since the 1990s.

Which is the most significant factor in distinguishing those who commit suicide from those who make suicidal attempts or threats? a. Social isolation b. Level of stress c. Degree of depression d. Desire to punish others

a. Social isolation Social isolation is a significant factor in distinguishing adolescents who will kill themselves from those who will not. It is also more characteristic of those who complete suicide than of those who make attempts or threats. Level of stress, degree of depression, and desire to punish others are contributing factors in suicide, but they are not the most significant factor in distinguishing those who complete suicide from those who attempt suicide.

The nurse notices that a 10-month-old infant being seen in the clinic is wearing expensive, inflexible, high-top shoes. The nurse should explain that: a. Soft and flexible shoes are generally better. b. High-top shoes are necessary for support. c. Inflexible shoes are necessary to prevent in-toeing and out-toeing. d. This type of shoe will encourage the infant to walk sooner.

a. Soft and flexible shoes are generally better. The main purpose of the shoe is protection. Soft, well-constructed, athletic-type shoes are best for infants and children. High-top shoes are not necessary for support but may be helpful keeping the child's foot in the shoe. Inflexible shoes can delay walking, aggravate in-toeing and out-toeing, and impede development of the supportive foot muscles.

A nurse is instructing a nursing assistant on techniques to facilitate lipreading with a hearing-impaired child who lip-reads. Which techniques should the nurse include (select all that apply)? a. Speak at eye level. b. Stand at a distance from the child. c. Speak words in a loud tone. d. Use facial expressions while speaking. e. Keep sentences short.

a. Speak at eye level. d. Use facial expressions while speaking. e. Keep sentences short. To facilitate lipreading for a hearing-impaired child who can lip-read, the speaker should be at eye level, facing the child directly or at a 45-degree angle. Facial expressions should be used to assist in conveying messages, and the sentences should be kept short. The speaker should stand close to the child, not at a distance. Using a loud tone while speaking will not facilitate lipreading.

Which action best facilitates lipreading by the hearing-impaired child? a. Speaking at an even rate b. Exaggerating pronunciation of words c. Avoiding using facial expressions d. Repeating in exactly the same way if child does not understand

a. Speaking at an even rate The child should be helped to learn and understand how to read lips by speaking at an even rate. Exaggerating word pronunciation, avoiding facial expressions, and repeating words are characteristics of communication that would interfere with the child's comprehension of the spoken word.

Which contraceptive method has a failure rate of less than 25%? a. Standard days b. Periodic abstinence c. Postovulation d. Coitus interruptus

a. Standard days The standard days variation on the calendar method has a failure rate of 12%. The periodic abstinence method has a failure rate of 25% or greater. The postovulation method has a failure rate of 25% or greater. The coitus interruptus method has a failure rate of 27% or greater.

An essential component of counseling women regarding safe sex practices includes discussion regarding avoiding the exchange of body fluids. The physical barrier promoted for the prevention of sexually transmitted infections and human immunodeficiency virus is the condom. Nurses can help motivate clients to use condoms by initiating a discussion related to a number of aspects of condom use. The most important of these is: a. Strategies to enhance condom use. b. Choice of colors and special features. c. Leaving the decision up to the male partner. d. Places to carry condoms safely.

a. Strategies to enhance condom use. When the nurse opens discussion on safe sex practices, it gives the woman permission to clear up any concerns or misapprehensions that she may have regarding condom use. The nurse can also suggest ways that the woman can enhance her condom negotiation and communications skills. These include role-playing, rehearsal, cultural barriers, and situations that put the client at risk. Although women can be taught the differences among condoms, such as size ranges, where to purchase, and price, this is not as important as negotiating the use of safe sex practices. Women must address the issue of condom use with every sexual contact. Some men need time to think about this. If they appear reluctant, the woman may want to reconsider the relationship. Although not ideal, women may safely choose to carry condoms in shoes, wallets, or inside their bra. They should be taught to keep the condom away from heat. This information is important; however, it is not germane if the woman cannot even discuss strategies on how to enhance condom use.

The nurse is assessing parental knowledge of temper tantrums. Which are true statements regarding temper tantrums (select all that apply)? a. Temper tantrums are a common response to anger and frustration in toddlers. b. Temper tantrums often include screaming, kicking, throwing things, and head banging. c. Parents can effectively manage temper tantrums by giving in to the child's demands. d. Children having temper tantrums should be safely isolated and ignored. e. Parents can learn to anticipate times when tantrums are more likely to occur.

a. Temper tantrums are a common response to anger and frustration in toddlers. b. Temper tantrums often include screaming, kicking, throwing things, and head banging. d. Children having temper tantrums should be safely isolated and ignored. e. Parents can learn to anticipate times when tantrums are more likely to occur. Temper tantrums are a common response to anger and frustration in toddlers. They occur more often when toddlers are tired, hungry, bored, or excessively stimulated. A nap prior to fatigue or a snack if mealtime is delayed will be helpful in alleviated the times when tantrums are most likely to occur. Tantrums may include screaming, kicking, throwing things, biting themselves, or banging their head. Effective management of tantrums includes safely isolating and ignoring the child. The child should learn that nothing is gained by having a temper tantrum. Giving in to the child's demands only increases the behavior.

A nurse is teaching adolescent boys about pubertal changes. The first sign of pubertal change seen with boys is: a. Testicular enlargement. b. Facial hair. c. Scrotal enlargement. d. Voice deepens.

a. Testicular enlargement. The first sign of pubertal changes in boys is testicular enlargement in response to testosterone secretion, which usually occurs in Tanner stage 2. Slight pubic hair is present and the smooth skin texture of the scrotum is somewhat altered. As testosterone secretion increases, the penis, testes, and scrotum enlarge. During Tanner stages 4 and 5, rising levels of testosterone cause the voice to deepen and facial hair appears at the corners of the upper lip and chin.

What important, immediate postoperative care practice should the nurse remember when caring for a woman who has had a mastectomy? a. The blood pressure (BP) cuff should not be applied to the affected arm. b. Venipuncture for blood work should be performed on the affected arm. c. The affected arm should be used for intravenous (IV) therapy. d. The affected arm should be held down close to the woman's side.

a. The blood pressure (BP) cuff should not be applied to the affected arm. The affected arm should not be used for BP readings, IV therapy, or venipuncture. The affected arm should be elevated with pillows above the level of the right atrium.

Peer victimization is becoming a significant problem for school-age children and adolescents in the United States. Parents should be educated regarding signs that a child is being bullied. These might include (select all that apply): a. The child spends an inordinate amount of time in the nurse's office. b. Belongings frequently go missing or are damaged. c. The child wants to be driven to school. d. School performance improves. e. The child freely talks about his or her day.

a. The child spends an inordinate amount of time in the nurse's office. b. Belongings frequently go missing or are damaged. c. The child wants to be driven to school. Signs that may indicate a child is being bullied are similar to signs of other types of stress and include nonspecific illness or complaints, withdrawal, depression, school refusal, and decreased school performance. Children expressed fear of going to school or riding the school bus, and their belongings often are damaged or missing. Very often, children will not talk about what is happening to them.

The transition phase during which ovarian function and hormone production decline is called: a. The climacteric. b. Menarche. c. Menopause. d. Puberty.

a. The climacteric. The climacteric is a transitional phase during which ovarian function and hormone production decline. Menarche is the term that denotes the first menstruation. Menopause refers only to the last menstrual period. Puberty is a broad term that denotes the entire transitional stage between childhood and sexual maturity.

Because pregnant women may need surgery during pregnancy, nurses should be aware that: a. The diagnosis of appendicitis may be difficult because the normal signs and symptoms mimic some normal changes in pregnancy. b. Rupture of the appendix is less likely in pregnant women because of the close monitoring. c. Surgery for intestinal obstructions should be delayed as long as possible because it usually affects the pregnancy. d. When pregnancy takes over, a woman is less likely to have ovarian problems that require invasive responses.

a. The diagnosis of appendicitis may be difficult because the normal signs and symptoms mimic some normal changes in pregnancy. Both appendicitis and pregnancy are linked with nausea, vomiting, and increased white blood cell count. Rupture of the appendix is two to three times more likely in pregnant women. Surgery to remove obstructions should be done right away. It usually does not affect the pregnancy. Pregnancy predisposes a woman to ovarian problems.

Spontaneous termination of a pregnancy is considered to be an abortion if: a. The pregnancy is less than 20 weeks. b. The fetus weighs less than 1000 g. c. The products of conception are passed intact. d. No evidence exists of intrauterine infection.

a. The pregnancy is less than 20 weeks. An abortion is the termination of pregnancy before the age of viability (20 weeks). The weight of the fetus is not considered because some older fetuses may have a low birth weight. A spontaneous abortion may be complete or incomplete. A spontaneous abortion may be caused by many problems, one being intrauterine infection.

Which demonstrates the school-age child's developing logic in the stage of concrete operations (select all that apply)? a. The school-age child is able to recognize that he can be a son, brother, or nephew at the same time. b. The school-age child understands the principles of adding, subtracting, and reversibility. c. The school-age child understands the principles of adding, subtracting, and reversibility. d. The school-age child has thinking that is characterized by egocentrism and animism.

a. The school-age child is able to recognize that he can be a son, brother, or nephew at the same time. b. The school-age child understands the principles of adding, subtracting, and reversibility. c. The school-age child understands the principles of adding, subtracting, and reversibility. The school-age child understands that the properties of objects do not change when their order, form, or appearance does. Conservation occurs in the concrete operations stage. Comprehension of class inclusion occurs as the school-age child's logic increases. The child begins to understand that a person can be in more than one class at the same time. This is characteristic of concrete thinking and logical reasoning. The school-age child is able to understand principles of adding, subtracting, and the process of reversibility, which occurs in the stage of concrete operations. Thinking that is characterized by egocentrism and animism occurs in the intuitive thought stage, not the concrete operations stage of development.

Which statement characterizes moral development in older school-age children? a. They are able to judge an act by the intentions that prompted it rather than just by the consequences. b. Rules and judgments become more absolute and authoritarian. c. They view rule violations in an isolated context. d. They know the rules but cannot understand the reasons behind them.

a. They are able to judge an act by the intentions that prompted it rather than just by the consequences. Older school-age children are able to judge an act by the intentions that prompted the behavior rather than just by the consequences. Rules and judgments become less absolute and authoritarian. Rule violation is likely to be viewed in relation to the total context in which it appears. Both the situation and the morality of the rule itself influence reactions.

Matt, age 14 years, seems to be always eating, although his weight is appropriate for his height. The best explanation for this is: a. This is normal because of increase in body mass. b. This is abnormal and suggestive of future obesity. c. His caloric intake would have to be excessive. d. He is substituting food for unfilled needs.

a. This is normal because of increase in body mass. In adolescence, nutritional needs are closely related to the increase in body mass. The peak requirements occur in the years of maximal growth. The caloric and protein requirements are higher than at almost any other time of life. This describes the expected eating pattern for young adolescents as long as weight and height are appropriate; obesity and substitution of food for unfilled needs are not concerns.

A parent of an 18-month-old boy tells the nurse that he says "no" to everything and has rapid mood swings. If he is scolded, he shows anger and then immediately wants to be held. The nurse's best interpretation of this behavior is that: a. This is normal behavior for his age. b. This is unusual behavior for his age. c. He is not effectively coping with stress. d. He is showing he needs more attention.

a. This is normal behavior for his age. Toddlers use distinct behaviors in the quest for autonomy. They express their will with continued negativity and the use of the word "no." Children at this age also have rapid mood swings. The nurse should reassure the parents that their child is engaged in expected behavior for an 18-month-old.

A 14-year-old boy and his parents are concerned about bilateral breast enlargement. The nurse's discussion of this should be based on knowing that: a. This is usually benign and temporary. b. This is usually caused by Klinefelter's syndrome. c. Administration of estrogen effectively reduces gynecomastia. d. Administration of testosterone effectively reduces gynecomastia.

a. This is usually benign and temporary. The male breast responds to hormone changes. Some degree of bilateral or unilateral breast enlargement occurs frequently in boys during puberty. This is not a manifestation of Klinefelter's syndrome. Administration of estrogen or testosterone will have no effect on the reduction of breast tissue and may aggravate the condition.

A useful skill that the nurse should expect a 5-year-old child to be able to master is to: a. Tie shoelaces. b. Use a knife to cut meat. c. Hammer a nail. d. Make change from a quarter.

a. Tie shoelaces. Tying shoelaces is a fine motor task typical of 5-year-olds. Using a knife to cut meat is a fine motor task of a 7-year-old. Hammering a nail and making change from a quarter are fine motor tasks of an 8- to 9-year-old.

In terms of fine motor development, the infant of 7 months should be able to: a. Transfer objects from one hand to the other. b. Use thumb and index finger in a crude pincer grasp. c. Hold a crayon and make a mark on paper. d. Release cubes into a cup.

a. Transfer objects from one hand to the other. By age 7 months, infants can transfer objects from one hand to the other, crossing the midline. The crude pincer grasp is apparent at about age 9 months. The infant can scribble spontaneously at age 15 months. At age 12 months, the infant can release cubes into a cup.

A 39-year-old primigravida thinks that she is about 8 weeks pregnant, although she has had irregular menstrual periods all her life. She has a history of smoking approximately one pack of cigarettes a day, but she tells you that she is trying to cut down. Her laboratory data are within normal limits. What diagnostic technique could be used with this pregnant woman at this time? a. Ultrasound examination b. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening c. Amniocentesis d. Nonstress test (NST)

a. Ultrasound examination An ultrasound examination could be done to confirm the pregnancy and determine the gestational age of the fetus. It is too early in the pregnancy to perform MSAFP screening, amniocentesis, or NST. MSAFP screening is performed at 16 to 18 weeks of gestation, followed by amniocentesis if MSAFP levels are abnormal or if fetal/maternal anomalies are detected. NST is performed to assess fetal well-being in the third trimester.

A 39-year-old primigravida thinks that she is about 8 weeks pregnant, although she has had irregular menstrual periods all her life. She has a history of smoking approximately one pack of cigarettes a day, but she tells you that she is trying to cut down. Her laboratory data are within normal limits. What diagnostic technique could be used with this pregnant woman at this time? a. Ultrasound examination b. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening c. Amniocentesis d. Nonstress test (NST)

a. Ultrasound examination An ultrasound examination could be done to confirm the pregnancy and determine the gestational age of the fetus. It is too early in the pregnancy to perform MSAFP screening, amniocentesis, or NST. MSAFP screening is performed at 16 to 18 weeks of gestation, followed by amniocentesis if MSAFP levels are abnormal or if fetal/maternal anomalies are detected. NST is performed to assess fetal well-being in the third trimester.

Which statement best describes a child who is abused by the parent(s)? a. Unintentionally contributes to the abusing situation b. Belongs to a low socioeconomic population c. Is healthier than the nonabused siblings d. Abuses siblings in the same way as child is abused by the parent(s)

a. Unintentionally contributes to the abusing situation A child's temperament, position in the family, additional physical needs, activity level, or degree of sensitivity to parental needs unintentionally contributes to the abusing situation. Socioeconomic status is an environmental characteristic. This child is less likely to be abused than one who is premature, disabled, or very young. The abused child does not in turn abuse his or her siblings.

In terms of cognitive development, the 5-year-old child would be expected to: a. Use magical thinking. b. Think abstractly. c. Understand conservation of matter. d. Be able to comprehend another person's perspective.

a. Use magical thinking. Magical thinking is believing that thoughts can cause events. Abstract thought does not develop until school-age years. The concept of conservation is the cognitive task of school-age children ages 5 to 7 years. Five-year-olds cannot understand another's perspective.

The female reproductive organ(s) responsible for cyclic menstruation is/are the: a. Uterus. b. Ovaries. c. Vaginal vestibule. d. Urethra.

a. Uterus. The uterus is responsible for cyclic menstruation. It also houses and nourishes the fertilized ovum and the fetus. The ovaries are responsible for ovulation and production of estrogen; the uterus is responsible for cyclic menstruation. The vaginal vestibule is an external organ that has openings to the urethra and vagina; the uterus is responsible for cyclic menstruation. The urethra is not a reproductive organ, although it is found in the area.

Prophylaxis of subacute bacterial endocarditis is given before and after birth when a pregnant woman has: a. Valvular disease. b. Congestive heart disease. c. Arrhythmias. d. Postmyocardial infarction.

a. Valvular disease. Prophylaxis for intrapartum endocarditis and pulmonary infection may be provided for women who have mitral valve stenosis. Prophylaxis for intrapartum endocarditis is not indicated for congestive heart disease, arrhythmias, or after myocardial infarction.

Individual irregularities in the ovarian (menstrual) cycle are most often caused by: a. Variations in the follicular (preovulatory) phase. b. An intact hypothalamic-pituitary feedback mechanism. c. A functioning corpus luteum. d. A prolonged ischemic phase.

a. Variations in the follicular (preovulatory) phase Almost all variations in the length of the ovarian cycle are the result of variations in the length of the follicular phase. An intact hypothalamic-pituitary feedback mechanism is regular, not irregular. The luteal phase begins after ovulation. The corpus luteum depends on the ovulatory phase and fertilization. During the ischemic phase, the blood supply to the functional endometrium is blocked, and necrosis develops. The functional layer separates from the basal layer, and menstrual bleeding begins.

A common effect of both smoking and cocaine use in the pregnant woman is: a. Vasoconstriction b. Increased appetite c. Changes in insulin metabolism d. Increased metabolism

a. Vasoconstriction Both smoking and cocaine use cause vasoconstriction, which results in impaired placental blood flow to the fetus. Smoking and cocaine use decrease the appetite. Smoking and cocaine use do not change insulin metabolism. Smoking can increase metabolism.

A 25-year-old single woman comes to the gynecologist's office for a follow-up visit related to her abnormal Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The test revealed that the patient has human papillomavirus (HPV). The client asks, "What is that? Can you get rid of it?" Your best response is: a. "It's just a little lump on your cervix. We can freeze it off." b. "HPV stands for 'human papillomavirus.' It is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that may lead to cervical cancer." c. "HPV is a type of early human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). You will die from this." d. "You probably caught this from your current boyfriend. He should get tested for this."

b. "HPV stands for 'human papillomavirus.' It is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that may lead to cervical cancer." It is important to inform the patient about STIs and the risks involved with HPV. The health care team has a duty to provide proper information to the patient, including information related to STIs. HPV and HIV are both viruses that can be transmitted sexually, but they are not the same virus. The onset of HPV can be insidious. Often STIs go unnoticed. Abnormal bleeding frequently is the initial symptom. The client may have had HPV before her current boyfriend. You cannot make any deductions from this limited information.

Which statement by the patient indicates that she understands breast self-examination? a. "I will examine both breasts in two different positions." b. "I will perform breast self-examination 1 week after my menstrual period starts." c. "I will examine the outer upper area of the breast only." d. "I will use the palm of the hand to perform the examination."

b. "I will perform breast self-examination 1 week after my menstrual period starts." The woman should examine her breasts when hormonal influences are at their lowest level. The patient should be instructed to use four positions: standing with arms at her sides, standing with arms raised above her head, standing with hands pressed against hips, and lying down. The entire breast needs to be examined, including the outer upper area. The patient should use the sensitive pads of the middle three fingers.

The mother of a 14-month-old child is concerned because the child's appetite has decreased. The best response for the nurse to make to the mother is: a. "It is important for your toddler to eat three meals a day and nothing in between." b. "It is not unusual for toddlers to eat less." c. "Be sure to increase your child's milk consumption, which will improve nutrition." d. "Giving your child a multivitamin supplement daily will increase your toddler's appetite."

b. "It is not unusual for toddlers to eat less." Toddlers need small, frequent meals. Nutritious selection throughout the day, rather than quantity, is more important with this age-group. Physiologically, growth slows and appetite decreases during the toddler period. Milk consumption should not exceed 16 to 24 oz daily. Juice should be limited to 4 to 6 oz per day. Increasing the amount of milk will only further decrease solid food intake. Supplemental vitamins are important for all children, but they do not increase appetite.

Which statement, made by a 4-year-old child's father, is true about the care of the preschooler's teeth? a. "Because the 'baby teeth' are not permanent, they are not important to the child." b. "My son can be encouraged to brush his teeth after I have thoroughly cleaned his teeth." c. "My son's 'permanent teeth' will begin to come in at 4 to 5 years of age." d. "Fluoride supplements can be discontinued when my son's 'permanent teeth' erupt."

b. "My son can be encouraged to brush his teeth after I have thoroughly cleaned his teeth." Toddlers and preschoolers lack the manual dexterity to remove plaque adequately, so parents must assume this responsibility. Deciduous teeth are important because they maintain spacing and play an important role in the growth and development of the jaws and face and in speech development. Secondary teeth erupt at about 6 years of age. If the family does not live in an area where fluoride is included in the water supply, fluoride supplements should be continued.

A male client asks the nurse why it is better to purchase condoms that are not lubricated with nonoxynol-9 (a common spermicide). The nurse's most appropriate response is: a. "The lubricant prevents vaginal irritation." b. "Nonoxynol-9 does not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections, as originally thought; it has also been linked to an increase in the transmission of human immunodeficiency virus and can cause genital lesions." c. "The additional lubrication improves sex." d. "Nonoxynol-9 improves penile sensitivity."

b. "Nonoxynol-9 does not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections, as originally thought; it has also been linked to an increase in the transmission of human immunodeficiency virus and can cause genital lesions." The statement "Nonoxynol-9 does not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections, as originally thought; it has also been linked to an increase in the transmission of human immunodeficiency virus and can cause genital lesions" is true. Nonoxynol-9 may cause vaginal irritation, has no effect on the quality of sexual activity, and has no effect on penile sensitivity.

The perinatal nurse is giving discharge instructions to a woman after suction curettage secondary to a hydatidiform mole. The woman asks why she must take oral contraceptives for the next 12 months. The best response from the nurse would be: a. "If you get pregnant within 1 year, the chance of a successful pregnancy is very small. Therefore, if you desire a future pregnancy, it would be better for you to use the most reliable method of contraception available." b. "The major risk to you after a molar pregnancy is a type of cancer that can be diagnosed only by measuring the same hormone that your body produces during pregnancy. If you were to get pregnant, it would make the diagnosis of this cancer more difficult." c. "If you can avoid a pregnancy for the next year, the chance of developing a second molar pregnancy is rare. Therefore, to improve your chance of a successful pregnancy, it is better not to get pregnant at this time." d. "Oral contraceptives are the only form of birth control that will prevent a recurrence of a molar pregnancy."

b. "The major risk to you after a molar pregnancy is a type of cancer that can be diagnosed only by measuring the same hormone that your body produces during pregnancy. If you were to get pregnant, it would make the diagnosis of this cancer more difficult." This is an accurate statement. b-Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels will be drawn for 1 year to ensure that the mole is completely gone. There is an increased chance of developing choriocarcinoma after the development of a hydatidiform mole. The goal is to achieve a "zero" hCG level. If the woman were to become pregnant, it could obscure the presence of the potentially carcinogenic cells. Women should be instructed to use birth control for 1 year after treatment for a hydatidiform mole. The rationale for avoiding pregnancy for 1 year is to ensure that carcinogenic cells are not present. Any contraceptive method except an intrauterine device is acceptable.

A nurse is providing a parent information regarding autism. Which statement made by the parent indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Autism is characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation." b. "The onset of autism usually occurs before 3 years of age." c. "Children with autism have imitation and gesturing skills." d. "Autism can be treated effectively with medication."

b. "The onset of autism usually occurs before 3 years of age." The onset of autism usually occurs before 3 years of age. Autism does not have periods of remission and exacerbation. Autistic children lack imitative skills. Medications are of limited use in children with autism.

The most effective way to clean a toddler's teeth is for the: a. Child to brush regularly with toothpaste of his or her choice. b. Parent to stabilize the chin with one hand and brush with the other. c. Parent to brush the mandibular occlusive surfaces, leaving the rest for the child. d. Parent to brush the front labial surfaces, leaving the rest for the child.

b. Parent to stabilize the chin with one hand and brush with the other. For young children, the most effective cleaning of teeth is done by the parents. Different positions can be used if the child's back is to the adult. The adult should use one hand to stabilize the chin and the other to brush the child's teeth. The child can participate in brushing, but for a thorough cleaning adult intervention is necessary.

A new mother with which of these thyroid disorders would be strongly discouraged from breastfeeding? a. Hyperthyroidism b. Phenylketonuria (PKU) c. Hypothyroidism d. Thyroid storm

b. Phenylketonuria (PKU) PKU is a cause of mental retardation in infants; mothers with PKU pass on phenylalanine. A woman with hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism would have no particular reason not to breastfeed. A thyroid storm is a complication of hyperthyroidism.

Risk factors tend to be interrelated and cumulative in their effect. While planning the care for a laboring client with diabetes mellitus, the nurse is aware that she is at a greater risk for: a. Oligohydramnios. b. Polyhydramnios. c. Postterm pregnancy. d. Chromosomal abnormalities.

b. Polyhydramnios. Polyhydramnios (amniotic fluid >2000 mL) is 10 times more likely to occur in diabetic compared with nondiabetic pregnancies. Polyhydramnios puts the mother at risk for premature rupture of membranes, premature labor, and postpartum hemorrhage. Prolonged rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth restriction, intrauterine fetal death, and renal agenesis (Potter syndrome) all put the client at risk for developing oligohydramnios. Anencephaly, placental insufficiency, and perinatal hypoxia all contribute to the risk for postterm pregnancy. Maternal age older than 35 and balanced translocation (maternal and paternal) are risk factors for chromosome abnormalities.

Risk factors tend to be interrelated and cumulative in their effect. While planning the care for a laboring client with diabetes mellitus, the nurse is aware that she is at a greater risk for: a. Oligohydramnios. b. Polyhydramnios. c. Postterm pregnancy. d. Chromosomal abnormalities.

b. Polyhydramnios. Polyhydramnios (amniotic fluid >2000 mL) is 10 times more likely to occur in diabetic compared with nondiabetic pregnancies. Polyhydramnios puts the mother at risk for premature rupture of membranes, premature labor, and postpartum hemorrhage. Prolonged rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth restriction, intrauterine fetal death, and renal agenesis (Potter syndrome) all put the client at risk for developing oligohydramnios. Anencephaly, placental insufficiency, and perinatal hypoxia all contribute to the risk for postterm pregnancy. Maternal age older than 35 and balanced translocation (maternal and paternal) are risk factors for chromosome abnormalities.

The psychologic effects of being obese during adolescence include: a. Sexual promiscuity. b. Poor body image. c. Memory having no effect on eating behavior. d. Accurate body image but self-deprecating attitude.

b. Poor body image. Common emotional consequences of obesity include poor body image, low self-esteem, social isolation, and feelings of depression and isolation. Sexual promiscuity is an unlikely effect of obesity. The obese adolescent often substitutes food for affection. Eating behaviors are closely related to memory. Memory and appetite are closely linked and can be modified over time with treatment. Obese adolescents most often have a very poor self-image.

What laboratory marker is indicative of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? a. Bleeding time of 10 minutes b. Presence of fibrin split products c. Thrombocytopenia d. Hyperfibrinogenemia

b. Presence of fibrin split products Degradation of fibrin leads to the accumulation of fibrin split products in the blood. Bleeding time in DIC is normal. Low platelets may occur with but are not indicative of DIC because they may result from other coagulopathies. Hypofibrinogenemia would occur with DIC.

Which are characteristic of the physical development of a 30-month-old child (select all that apply)? a. Birth weight has doubled. b. Primary dentition is complete. c. Sphincter control is achieved. d. Anterior fontanel is open. e. Length from birth is doubled.

b. Primary dentition is complete. c. Sphincter control is achieved. Usually by age 30 months, the primary dentition of 20 teeth is completed, and the child has sphincter control in preparation for bowel and bladder control. A doubling of birth weight, opening of the anterior fontanel, and doubling of length are not characteristic of the physical development of a 30-month-old child.

Certain fatty acids classified as hormones that are found in many body tissues and that have roles in many reproductive functions are known as: a. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). b. Prostaglandins (PGs). c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). d. Luteinizing hormone (LH).

b. Prostaglandins (PGs). PGs affect smooth muscle contraction and changes in the cervix. GnRH, FSH, and LH are part of the hypothalamic-pituitary cycle, which responds to the rise and fall of estrogen and progesterone.

The nurse is completing a health history with a 16-year-old male. He informs the nurse that he has started using smokeless tobacco after he plays baseball. Which information regarding smokeless tobacco would be most correct for the nurse to provide to this teen? a. Not addicting. b. Proven to be carcinogenic. c. Easy to stop using. d. A safe alternative to cigarette smoking.

b. Proven to be carcinogenic. Smokeless tobacco is a popular substitute for cigarettes and poses serious health hazards to children and adolescents. Smokeless tobacco is associated with cancer of the mouth and jaw. Smokeless tobacco is just as addictive as cigarettes. Although teens believe that it is easy to stop using smokeless tobacco, this is not the case. A popular belief is that smokeless tobacco is a safe alternative to cigarettes; this has been proven incorrect. Half of all teens who use smokeless tobacco agree that it poses significant health risks.

Appropriate interventions to facilitate socialization of the cognitively impaired child include to: a. Provide age-appropriate toys and play activities. b. Provide peer experiences such as Special Olympics when older. c. Avoid exposure to strangers who may not understand cognitive development. d. Emphasize mastery of physical skills because they are delayed more often than verbal skills.

b. Provide peer experiences such as Special Olympics when older. The acquisition of social skills is a complex task. Children of all ages need peer relationships. Parents should enroll the child in preschool. When older, the child should have peer experiences similar to other children, such as group outings, Boy or Girl Scouts, and Special Olympics. Providing age-appropriate toys and play activities is important, but peer interactions will facilitate social development. Parents should expose the child to strangers so the child can practice social skills. Verbal skills are delayed more than physical skills.

Which predisposes the adolescent to feel an increased need for sleep? a. An inadequate diet b. Rapid physical growth c. Decreased activity that contributes to a feeling of fatigue d. The lack of ambition typical of this age group

b. Rapid physical growth During growth spurts, the need for sleep is increased. Rapid physical growth, the tendency toward overexertion, and the overall increased activity of this age contribute to fatigue.

What describes a toddler's cognitive development at age 20 months? a. Searches for an object only if he or she sees it being hidden b. Realizes that "out of sight" is not out of reach c. Puts objects into a container but cannot take them out d. Understands the passage of time such as "just a minute" and "in an hour"

b. Realizes that "out of sight" is not out of reach At this age the child is in the final sensorimotor stage. Children will now search for an object in several potential places, even though they saw only the original hiding place. Children have a more developed sense of objective permanence. They will search for objects even if they have not seen them hidden. Putting an object in a container but being unable to take it out indicates tertiary circular reactions. An embryonic sense of time exists; although toddlers may behave appropriately to time-oriented phrases, their sense of timing is exaggerated.

The clinic is lending a federally approved car seat to an infant's family. The nurse should explain that the safest place to put the car seat is: a. Front facing in back seat. b. Rear facing in back seat. c. Front facing in front seat if an air bag is on the passenger side. d. Rear facing in front seat if an air bag is on the passenger side.

b. Rear facing in back seat. The rear-facing car seat provides the best protection for an infant's disproportionately heavy head and weak neck. Infants should face the rear from birth to 20 pounds and as close to 1 year of age as possible. The middle of the back seat provides the safest position. Severe injuries and deaths in children have occurred from air bags deploying on impact in the front passenger seat.

A nurse is preparing to administer routine immunizations to a 4-month-old infant. The infant is currently up to date on all previously recommended immunizations. Which immunizations will the nurse prepare to administer (select all that apply)? a. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) b. Rotavirus (RV) c. Diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) d. Varicella e. Haemophilus influenzae type b (HIB) f. Inactivated poliovirus (IPV)

b. Rotavirus (RV) c. Diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) e. Haemophilus influenzae type b (HIB) f. Inactivated poliovirus (IPV) The recommended immunization schedule for a 4-month-old, up to date on immunizations, would be to administer the RV, DTaP, HIB, and IPV vaccinations. The MMR and varicella vaccinations would not be administered until the child is at least 1 year of age.

Distortion of sound and problems in discrimination are characteristic of which type of hearing loss? a. Conductive b. Sensorineural c. Mixed conductive-sensorineural d. Central auditory imperceptive

b. Sensorineural Sensorineural hearing loss, also known as perceptive or nerve deafness, involves damage to the inner ear structures or the auditory nerve. It results in distortion of sounds and problems in discrimination. Conductive hearing loss involves mainly interference with loudness of sound. Mixed conductive-sensorineural hearing loss manifests as a combination of both sensorineural and conductive loss. The central auditory imperceptive category includes all hearing losses that do not demonstrate defects in the conduction or sensory structures.

Which play item should the nurse bring from the playroom to a hospitalized toddler in isolation? a. Small plastic Legos b. Set of large plastic building blocks c. Brightly colored balloon d. Coloring book and crayons

b. Set of large plastic building blocks Large plastic blocks are appropriate for a toddler in isolation. Play objects for toddlers must still be chosen with an awareness of danger from small parts. Large, sturdy toys without sharp edges or removable parts are safest. Small plastic toys such as Legos can cause choking or can be aspirated. Balloons can cause significant harm if swallowed or aspirated. Coloring book and crayons would be too advanced for a toddler.

While interviewing a 31-year-old woman before her routine gynecologic examination, the nurse collects data about the client's recent menstrual cycles. The nurse should collect additional information with which statement? a. The woman says her menstrual flow lasts 5 to 6 days. b. She describes her flow as very heavy. c. She reports that she has had a small amount of spotting midway between her periods for the past 2 months. d. She says the length of her menstrual cycle varies from 26 to 29 days.

b. She describes her flow as very heavy. Menorrhagia is defined as excessive menstrual bleeding, in either duration or amount. Heavy bleeding can have many causes. The amount of bleeding and its effect on daily activities should be evaluated. A menstrual flow lasting 5 to 6 days is a normal finding. Mittlestaining, a small amount of bleeding or spotting that occurs at the time of ovulation (14 days before onset of the next menses), is considered normal. During her reproductive years, a woman may have physiologic variations in her menstrual cycle. Variations in the length of a menstrual cycle are considered normal.

A normal characteristic of the language development of a preschool-age child is: a. Lisp. b. Stammering. c. Echolalia. d. Repetition without meaning.

b. Stammering. Stammering and stuttering are normal dysfluencies in preschool-age children. Lisps are not a normal characteristic of language development. Echolalia and repetition are traits of toddlers' language.

Which behavior by parents or teachers will best assist the child in negotiating the developmental task of industry? a. Identifying failures immediately and asking the child's peers for feedback b. Structuring the environment so the child can master tasks c. Completing homework for children who are having difficulty in completing assignments d. Decreasing expectations to eliminate potential failures

b. Structuring the environment so the child can master tasks The task of the caring teacher or parent is to identify areas in which a child is competent and to build on successful experiences to foster feelings of mastery and success. Structuring the environment to enhance self-confidence and to provide the opportunity to solve increasingly more complex problems will promote a sense of mastery. Asking peers for feedback reinforces the child's feelings of failure. When teachers or parents complete children's homework for them, it sends the message that they do not trust the children to do a good job. Providing assistance and suggestions and praising their best efforts are more appropriate. Decreasing expectations to eliminate failures will not promote a sense of achievement or mastery.

The parent of a 4-year-old son tells the nurse that the child believes "monsters and the boogeyman" are in his bedroom at night. The nurse's best suggestion for coping with this problem is to: a. Insist that the child sleep with his parents until the fearful phase passes. b. Suggest involving the child to find a practical solution such as a night-light. c. Help the child understand that these fears are illogical. d. Tell the child frequently that monsters and the boogeyman do not exist.

b. Suggest involving the child to find a practical solution such as a night-light. A night-light shows a child that imaginary creatures do not lurk in the darkness. Letting the child sleep with parents or telling the child that these creatures do not exist will not get rid of the fears. A 4-year-old is in the preconceptual age and cannot understand logical thought.

Autoimmune disorders often occur during pregnancy because a large percentage of women with an autoimmune disorder are of childbearing age. Identify all disorders that fall into the category of collagen vascular disease. a. Multiple sclerosis b. Systemic lupus erythematosus c. Antiphospholipid syndrome d. Rheumatoid arthritis e. Myasthenia gravis

b. Systemic lupus erythematosus c. Antiphospholipid syndrome d. Rheumatoid arthritis e. Myasthenia gravis Multiple sclerosis is not an autoimmune disorder. This patchy demyelinization of the spinal cord may be a viral disorder. Autoimmune disorders (collagen vascular disease) make up a large group of conditions that disrupt the function of the immune system of the body. They include those listed, as well as systemic sclerosis.

When teaching injury prevention during the school-age years, the nurse should include: a. Teaching the need to fear strangers. b. Teaching basic rules of water safety. c. Avoiding letting children cook in microwave ovens. d. Cautioning children against engaging in competitive sports.

b. Teaching basic rules of water safety. Water safety instruction is an important source of injury prevention at this age. The child should be taught to swim, select safe and supervised places to swim, swim with a companion, check sufficient water depth for diving, and use an approved flotation device. Teach stranger safety, not fearing strangers. This includes not going with strangers, not having personalized clothing in public places, having children tell parents if anyone makes them uncomfortable, and teaching children to say "no" in uncomfortable situations. Teach children safe cooking methods. Caution against engaging in hazardous sports, such as those involving trampolines.

Which behavior suggests appropriate psychosocial development in the adolescent? a. The adolescent seeks validation for socially acceptable behavior from older adults. b. The adolescent is self-absorbed and self-centered and has sudden mood swings. c. Adolescents move from peers and enjoy spending time with family members. d. Conformity with the peer group increases in late adolescence.

b. The adolescent is self-absorbed and self-centered and has sudden mood swings. During adolescence, energy is focused within. Adolescents concentrate on themselves in an effort to determine who they are or who they will be. Adolescents are likely to be impulsive and impatient. Parents often describe their teenager as being "self-centered" or "lazy." The peer group validates acceptable behavior during adolescence. Adolescents move from family and enjoy spending time with peers. Adolescents also spend time alone; they need this time to think and concentrate on themselves. Conformity becomes less important in late adolescence.

A parent asks the nurse why a developmental assessment is being conducted for a child during a routine well-child visit. The nurse answers based on the knowledge that routine developmental assessments during well-child visits are: a. Not necessary unless the parents request them. b. The best method for early detection of cognitive disorders. c. Frightening to parents and children and should be avoided. d. Valuable in measuring intelligence in children.

b. The best method for early detection of cognitive disorders. Early detection of cognitive disorders can be facilitated through assessment of development at each well-child examination. Developmental assessment is a component of all well-child examinations; however, they are not intended to measure intelligence. Developmental assessments are not frightening when the parent and child are educated about the purpose of the assessment.

A nurse is assessing an older school-age child recently admitted to the hospital. Which assessment indicates that the child is in an appropriate stage of cognitive development? a. The child's addition and subtraction ability b. The child's ability to classify c. The child's vocabulary d. The child's play activity

b. The child's ability to classify The ability to classify things from simple to complex and the ability to identify differences and similarities are cognitive skills of the older school-age child; this demonstrates use of classification and logical thought processes. Subtraction and addition are appropriate cognitive activities for the young school-age child. Vocabulary is not as valid an assessment of cognitive ability as is the child's ability to classify. Play activity is not as valid an assessment of cognitive function as is the ability to classify.

Maternal phenylketonuria (PKU) is an important health concern during pregnancy because: a. It is a recognized cause of preterm labor. b. The fetus may develop neurologic problems. c. A pregnant woman is more likely to die without dietary control. d. Women with PKU are usually retarded and should not reproduce.

b. The fetus may develop neurologic problems. Children born to women with untreated PKU are more likely to be born with mental retardation, microcephaly, congenital heart disease, and low birth weight. Maternal PKU has no effect on labor. Women without dietary control of PKU are more likely to miscarry or bear a child with congenital anomalies. Screening for undiagnosed maternal PKU at the first prenatal visit may be warranted, especially in individuals with a family history of the disorder, with low intelligence of uncertain etiology, or who have given birth to microcephalic infants.

With regard to the assessment of female, male, and couple infertility, nurses should be aware that: a. The couple's religious, cultural, and ethnic backgrounds provide emotional clutter that does not affect the clinical scientific diagnosis. b. The investigation takes 3 to 4 months and a significant financial investment. c. The woman is assessed first; if she is not the problem, the male partner is analyzed. d. Semen analysis is for men; the postcoital test is for women.

b. The investigation takes 3 to 4 months and a significant financial investment. Fertility assessment and diagnosis take time, money, and commitment from the couple. Religious, cultural, and ethnic-bred attitudes about fertility and related issues always have an impact on diagnosis and assessment. Both partners are assessed systematically and simultaneously, as individuals and as a couple. Semen analysis is for men, but the postcoital test is for the couple.

Diabetes in pregnancy puts the fetus at risk in several ways. Nurses should be aware that: a. With good control of maternal glucose levels, sudden and unexplained stillbirth is no longer a major concern. b. The most important cause of perinatal loss in diabetic pregnancy is congenital malformations. c. Infants of mothers with diabetes have the same risks for respiratory distress syndrome because of the careful monitoring. d. At birth the neonate of a diabetic mother is no longer in any risk.

b. The most important cause of perinatal loss in diabetic pregnancy is congenital malformations. Congenital malformations account for 30% to 50% of perinatal deaths. Even with good control, sudden and unexplained stillbirth remains a major concern. Infants of diabetic mothers are at increased risk for respiratory distress syndrome. The transition to extrauterine life often is marked by hypoglycemia and other metabolic abnormalities.

A woman who is 6 months pregnant has sought medical attention, saying she fell down the stairs. What scenario would cause an emergency department nurse to suspect that the woman has been a victim of intimate partner violence (IPV)? a. The woman and her partner are having an argument that is loud and hostile. b. The woman has injuries on various parts of her body that are in different stages of healing. c. Examination reveals a fractured arm and fresh bruises. d. She avoids making eye contact and is hesitant to answer questions.

b. The woman has injuries on various parts of her body that are in different stages of healing. The patient may have multiple injuries in various stages of healing that indicates a pattern of violence. An argument is not always an indication of battering. A fractured arm and fresh bruises could be caused by the reported fall and doesn't necessarily indicate IPV. It is normal for the woman to have a flat affect.

Which statement is most descriptive of central nervous system stimulants? a. They produce strong physical dependence. b. They can result in strong psychologic dependence. c. Withdrawal symptoms are life threatening. d. Acute intoxication can lead to coma.

b. They can result in strong psychologic dependence. Central nervous system stimulants such as amphetamines and cocaine produce a strong psychologic dependence. This class of drugs does not produce strong physical dependence and can be withdrawn without much danger. Acute intoxication leads to violent, aggressive behavior or psychotic episodes characterized by paranoia, uncontrollable agitation, and restlessness.

Two toddlers are playing in a sandbox when one child suddenly grabs a toy from the other child. The best interpretation of this behavior is that: a. This is typical behavior because toddlers are aggressive. b. This is typical behavior because toddlers are egocentric. c. Toddlers should know that sharing toys is expected of them. d. Toddlers should have the cognitive ability to know right from wrong.

b. This is typical behavior because toddlers are egocentric. Play develops from the solitary play of infancy to the parallel play of toddlers. The toddler plays alongside other children, not with them. This typical behavior of the toddler is not intentionally aggressive. Shared play is not within their cognitive development. Toddlers do not conceptualize shared play. Because the toddler cannot view the situation from the perspective of the other child, it is okay to take the toy. Therefore, no right or wrong is associated with taking a toy.

The U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends that HPV be treated with client-applied: a. Miconazole ointment. b. Topical podofilox 0.5% solution or gel. c. Penicillin given intramuscularly for two doses. d. Metronidazole by mouth.

b. Topical podofilox 0.5% solution or gel. Available treatments are imiquimod, podophyllin, and podofilox. Miconazole ointment is used to treat athlete's foot. Intramuscular penicillin is used to treat syphilis. Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis.

Which maternal condition always necessitates delivery by cesarean section? a. Partial abruptio placentae b. Total placenta previa c. Ectopic pregnancy d. Eclampsia

b. Total placenta previa In total placenta previa, the placenta completely covers the cervical os. The fetus would die if a vaginal delivery occurred. If the mother has stable vital signs and the fetus is alive, a vaginal delivery can be attempted in cases of partial abruptio placentae. If the fetus has died, a vaginal delivery is preferred. The most common ectopic pregnancy is a tubal pregnancy, which is usually detected and treated in the first trimester. Labor can be safely induced if the eclampsia is under control.

In terms of the incidence and classification of diabetes, maternity nurses should know that: a. Type 1 diabetes is most common. b. Type 2 diabetes often goes undiagnosed. c. Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) means that the woman will be receiving insulin treatment until 6 weeks after birth. d. Type 1 diabetes may become type 2 during pregnancy.

b. Type 2 diabetes often goes undiagnosed. Type 2 diabetes often goes undiagnosed because hyperglycemia develops gradually and often is not severe. Type 2 diabetes, sometimes called adult onset diabetes, is the most common. GDM refers to any degree of glucose intolerance first recognized during pregnancy. Insulin may or may not be needed. People do not go back and forth between types 1 and 2 diabetes.

Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening indicates an elevated level. MSAFP screening is repeated and again is reported as higher than normal. What would be the next step in the assessment sequence to determine the well-being of the fetus? a. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) b. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies c. Biophysical profile (BPP) for fetal well-being d. Amniocentesis for genetic anomalies

b. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies If MSAFP findings are abnormal, follow-up procedures include genetic counseling for families with a history of neural tube defect, repeated MSAFP screening, ultrasound examination, and possibly amniocentesis. Indications for use of PUBS include prenatal diagnosis of inherited blood disorders, karyotyping of malformed fetuses, detection of fetal infection, determination of the acid-base status of fetuses with intrauterine growth restriction, and assessment and treatment of isoimmunization and thrombocytopenia in the fetus. BPP is a method of assessing fetal well-being in the third trimester. Before amniocentesis is considered, the client first would have an ultrasound for direct visualization of the fetus.

Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening indicates an elevated level. MSAFP screening is repeated and again is reported as higher than normal. What would be the next step in the assessment sequence to determine the well-being of the fetus? a. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) b. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies c. Biophysical profile (BPP) for fetal well-being d. Amniocentesis for genetic anomalies

b. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies If MSAFP findings are abnormal, follow-up procedures include genetic counseling for families with a history of neural tube defect, repeated MSAFP screening, ultrasound examination, and possibly amniocentesis. Indications for use of PUBS include prenatal diagnosis of inherited blood disorders, karyotyping of malformed fetuses, detection of fetal infection, determination of the acid-base status of fetuses with intrauterine growth restriction, and assessment and treatment of isoimmunization and thrombocytopenia in the fetus. BPP is a method of assessing fetal well-being in the third trimester. Before amniocentesis is considered, the client first would have an ultrasound for direct visualization of the fetus.

A 26-year-old pregnant woman, gravida 2, para 1-0-0-1 is 28 weeks pregnant when she experiences bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. On her arrival at the hospital, what would be an expected diagnostic procedure? a. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity b. Ultrasound for placental location c. Contraction stress test (CST) d. Internal fetal monitoring

b. Ultrasound for placental location The presence of painless bleeding should always alert the health care team to the possibility of placenta previa. This can be confirmed through ultrasonography. Amniocentesis would not be performed on a woman who is experiencing bleeding. In the event of an imminent delivery, the fetus would be presumed to have immature lungs at this gestational age, and the mother would be given corticosteroids to aid in fetal lung maturity. A CST would not be performed at a preterm gestational age. Furthermore, bleeding would be a contraindication to this test. Internal fetal monitoring would be contraindicated in the presence of bleeding.

The nurse should be aware that the criteria used to make decisions and solve problems within families are based primarily on family: a. Rituals and customs. b. Values and beliefs. c. Boundaries and channels. d. Socialization processes.

b. Values and beliefs. Values and beliefs are the most prevalent factors in the decision-making and problem-solving techniques of families. Although culture may play a part in the decision-making process of a family, ultimately values and beliefs dictate the course of action taken by family members. Boundaries and channels affect the relationship between the family members and the health care team, not the decisions within the family. Socialization processes may help families with interactions with the community, but they are not the criteria used for decision making within the family.

A laboring woman with no known risk factors suddenly experiences spontaneous rupture of membranes (ROM). The fluid consists of bright red blood. Her contractions are consistent with her current stage of labor. There is no change in uterine resting tone. The fetal heart rate begins to decline rapidly after the ROM. The nurse should suspect the possibility of: a. Placenta previa. b. Vasa previa. c. Severe abruptio placentae. d. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

b. Vasa previa. Vasa previa is the result of a velamentous insertion of the umbilical cord. The umbilical vessels are not surrounded by Wharton jelly and have no supportive tissue. They are at risk for laceration at any time, but laceration occurs most frequently during ROM. The sudden appearance of bright red blood at the time of ROM and a sudden change in the fetal heart rate without other known risk factors should immediately alert the nurse to the possibility of vasa previa. The presence of placenta previa most likely would be ascertained before labor and would be considered a risk factor for this pregnancy. In addition, if the woman had a placenta previa, it is unlikely that she would be allowed to pursue labor and a vaginal birth. With the presence of severe abruptio placentae, the uterine tonicity would typically be tetanus (i.e., a boardlike uterus). DIC is a pathologic form of diffuse clotting that consumes large amounts of clotting factors and causes widespread external bleeding, internal bleeding, or both. DIC is always a secondary diagnosis, often associated with obstetric risk factors such as HELLP syndrome. This woman did not have any prior risk factors.

Which statement about toilet training is correct? a. Bladder training is usually accomplished before bowel training. b. Wanting to please the parent helps motivate the child to use the toilet. c. Watching older siblings use the toilet confuses the child. d. Children must be forced to sit on the toilet when first learning.

b. Wanting to please the parent helps motivate the child to use the toilet. Voluntary control of the anal and urethral sphincters is achieved sometime after the child is walking. The child must be able to recognize the urge to let go and to hold on. The child must want to please the parent by holding on rather than pleasing self by letting go. Bowel training precedes bladder training. Watching older siblings provides role modeling and facilitates imitation for the toddler. The child should be introduced to the potty chair or toilet in a nonthreatening manner.

When is a child with chickenpox considered to be no longer contagious? a. When fever is absent b. When lesions are crusted c. 24 hours after lesions erupt d. 8 days after onset of illness

b. When lesions are crusted When the lesions are crusted, the chickenpox is no longer contagious. This may be a week after onset of disease. The child is still contagious once the fever has subsided and after the lesions erupt, and may or may not be contagious any time after 6 days as long as all lesions are crusted over.

Nurses caring for antepartum women with cardiac conditions should be aware that: a. Stress on the heart is greatest in the first trimester and the last 2 weeks before labor. b. Women with class II cardiac disease should avoid heavy exertion and any activity that causes even minor symptoms. c. Women with class III cardiac disease should have 8 to 10 hours of sleep every day and limit housework, shopping, and exercise. d. Women with class I cardiac disease need bed rest through most of the pregnancy and face the possibility of hospitalization near term.

b. Women with class II cardiac disease should avoid heavy exertion and any activity that causes even minor symptoms. Class II cardiac disease is symptomatic with ordinary activity. Women in this category need to avoid heavy exertion and limit regular activities as symptoms dictate. Stress is greatest between weeks 28 and 32, when homodynamic changes reach their maximum. Class III cardiac disease is symptomatic with less than ordinary activity. These women need bed rest most of the day and face the possibility of hospitalization near term. Class I cardiac disease is asymptomatic at normal levels of activity. These women can carry on limited normal activities with discretion, although they still need a good amount of sleep.

A patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs are an indication of: a. Anxiety due to hospitalization. b. Worsening disease and impending convulsion. c. Effects of magnesium sulfate. d. Gastrointestinal upset.

b. Worsening disease and impending convulsion. Headache and visual disturbances are caused by increased cerebral edema. Epigastric pain indicates distention of the hepatic capsules and often warns that a convulsion is imminent. These are danger signs showing increased cerebral edema and impending convulsion and should be treated immediately. The patient has not been started on magnesium sulfate treatment yet. Also, these are not anticipated effects of the medication.

The parents of a 15-year-old girl are concerned that their adolescent spends too much time looking in the mirror. Which statement is the most appropriate for the nurse to make? a. "Your teenager needs clearer and stricter limits about her behavior." b. "Your teenager needs more responsibility at home." c. "During adolescence this behavior is not unusual." d. "The behavior is abnormal and needs further investigation."

c. "During adolescence this behavior is not unusual." Egocentric and narcissistic behavior is normal during this period of development. The teenager is seeking a personal identity. Stricter limits are not an appropriate response for a behavior that is part of normal development. More responsibility at home is not an appropriate response for this situation. The behavior is normal and needs no further investigation.

A couple is trying to cope with an infertility problem. They want to know what they can do to preserve their emotional equilibrium. The nurse's most appropriate response is: a. "Tell your friends and family so they can help you." b. "Talk only to other friends who are infertile because only they can help." c. "Get involved with a support group. I'll give you some names." d. "Start adoption proceedings immediately because it is very difficult to obtain an infant."

c. "Get involved with a support group. I'll give you some names." Venting negative feelings may unburden the couple. A support group may provide a safe haven for the couple to share their experiences and gain insight from others' experiences. Although talking about their feelings may unburden them of negative feelings, infertility can be a major stressor that affects the couple's relationships with family and friends. Limiting their interactions to other infertile couples may be a beginning point for addressing psychosocial needs, but depending on where the other couple is in their own recovery process, this may or may not help them. The statement about adoption proceedings is not supportive of the psychosocial needs of this couple and may be detrimental to their well-being.

As a girl progresses through development, she may be at risk for a number of age-related conditions. While preparing a 21-year-old client for her first adult physical examination and Papanicolaou (Pap) test, the nurse is aware of excessiveness shyness. The young woman states that she will not remove her bra because, "There is something wrong with my breasts; one is way bigger." What is the best response by the nurse in this situation? a. "Please reschedule your appointment until you are more prepared." b. "It is okay; the provider will not do a breast examination." c. "I will explain normal growth and breast development to you." d. "That is unfortunate; this must be very stressful for you."

c. "I will explain normal growth and breast development to you." During adolescence, one breast may grow faster than the other. Discussion regarding this aspect of growth and development with the patient will reassure her that there may be nothing wrong with her breasts. Young women usually enter the health system for screening (Pap tests begin at age 21 or 3 years after first sexual activity). Situations such as these can produce great stress for the young woman, and the nurse and health care provider should treat her carefully. Asking her to reschedule would likely result in the client's not returning for her appointment at all. A breast examination at her age is part of the complete physical examination. Young women should be taught about normal breast development and begin doing breast self-examinations. Although the last response shows empathy on the part of the nurse and acknowledges the patient's stress, it does not correct the patient's deficient knowledge related to normal growth and development.

A 20-year-old patient calls the clinic to report that she has found a lump in her breast. The nurse's best response is: a. "Don't worry about it. I'm sure it's nothing." b. "Wear a tight bra, and it should shrink." c. "Many women have benign lumps and bumps in their breasts. However, to make sure that it's benign, you should come in for an examination by your physician." d. "Check it again in 1 month and call me back if it's still there."

c. "Many women have benign lumps and bumps in their breasts. However, to make sure that it's benign, you should come in for an examination by your physician." The nurse should try to ease the client's fear, but provide a time for a thorough evaluation of the lump because it may indicate abnormal changes in the breast. Discrediting the patient's findings may discourage her from continuing with breast self-examination. Wearing a tight bra may irritate the skin and would not cause the lump to shrink. Delaying treatment may allow proliferation of abnormal cells.

The parent of 2-week-old Sarah asks the nurse if Sarah needs fluoride supplements because she is exclusively breastfed. The nurse's best response is: a. "She needs to begin taking them now." b. "They are not needed if you drink fluoridated water." c. "She may need to begin taking them at age 6 months." d. "She can have infant cereal mixed with fluoridated water instead of supplements."

c. "She may need to begin taking them at age 6 months." Fluoride supplementation is recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics beginning at age 6 months if the child is not drinking adequate amounts of fluoridated water. The recommendation is to begin supplementation at 6 months, not at 2 weeks. The amount of water that is ingested and the amount of fluoride in the water are evaluated when supplementation is being considered.

The nurse guides a woman to the examination room and asks her to remove her clothes and put on an examination gown with the front open. The woman states, "I have special undergarments that I do not remove for religious reasons." The most appropriate response from the nurse would be: a. "You can't have an examination without removing all your clothes." b. "I'll ask the doctor to modify the examination." c. "Tell me about your undergarments. I'll explain the examination procedure, and then we can discuss how you can have your examination comfortably." d. "What? I've never heard of such a thing! That sounds different and strange."

c. "Tell me about your undergarments. I'll explain the examination procedure, and then we can discuss how you can have your examination comfortably." This statement reflects cultural competence by the nurse and shows respect for the woman's religious practices. The nurse must respect the rich and unique qualities that cultural diversity brings to individuals. In recognizing the value of these differences, the nurse can modify the plan of care to meet the needs of each woman.

An infant experienced an apparent life-threatening event and is being placed on home apnea monitoring. The parents have understood the instructions for use of a home apnea monitor when they state: a. "We can adjust the monitor to eliminate false alarms." b. "We should sleep in the same bed as our monitored infant." c. "We will check the monitor several times a day to be sure the alarm is working." d. "We will place the monitor in the crib with our infant."

c. "We will check the monitor several times a day to be sure the alarm is working." The parents should check the monitor several times a day to be sure the alarm is working and that it can be heard from room to room. The parents should not adjust the monitor to eliminate false alarms. Adjustments could compromise the monitor's effectiveness. The monitor should be placed on a firm surface away from the crib and drapes. The parents should not sleep in the same bed as the monitored infant.

A nurse is teaching parents of first-grade children general guidelines to assist their children in adapting to school. Which statement by the parents indicates they understand the teaching? a. "We will only meet with the teacher if problems occur." b. "We will discourage hobbies so our child focuses on schoolwork." c. "We will plan a trip to the library as often as possible." d. "We will expect our child to make all As in school."

c. "We will plan a trip to the library as often as possible." General guidelines for parents to help their child in school include sharing an interest in reading. The library should be used frequently and books the child is reading should be discussed. Hobbies should be encouraged. The parents should not expect all As. They should focus on growth more than grades.

Parents need further teaching about the use of car safety seats if they make which statement? a. "Even if our toddler helps buckle the straps, we will double-check the fastenings." b. "We won't start the car until everyone is properly restrained." c. "We won't need to use the car seat on short trips to the store." d. "We will anchor the car seat to the car's anchoring system."

c. "We won't need to use the car seat on short trips to the store." Parents need to be taught to always use the restraint even for short trips. Further teaching is needed if they make this statement. Parents have understood the teaching if they encourage the child to help attach buckles, straps, and shields but always double-check fastenings; do not start the car until everyone is properly restrained; and anchor the car safety seat securely to the car's anchoring system and apply the harness snugly to the child.

An infant has been pronounced dead from sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) in the emergency department. Which is an appropriate question to ask the parents? a. "Did you hear the infant cry out?" b. "Why didn't you check on the infant earlier?" c. "What time did you find the infant?" d. "Was the head buried in a blanket?"

c. "What time did you find the infant?" During a SIDS incident, if the infant is not pronounced dead at the scene, he or she may be transported to the emergency department to be pronounced dead by a physician. While they are in the emergency department, the parents are asked only factual questions, such as when they found the infant, how he or she looked, and whom they called for help. The nurse avoids any remarks that may suggest responsibility, such as "Why didn't you go in earlier?" "Didn't you hear the infant cry out?" or "Was the head buried in a blanket?"

Which statement by a parent about a child's conjunctivitis indicates that further teaching is needed? a. "I'll have separate towels and washcloths for each family member." b. "I'll notify my doctor if the eye gets redder or the drainage increases." c. "When the eye drainage improves, we'll stop giving the antibiotic ointment." d. "After taking the antibiotic for 24 hours, my child can return to school."

c. "When the eye drainage improves, we'll stop giving the antibiotic ointment." The antibiotic should be continued for the full prescription. Maintaining separate towels and washcloths will prevent the other family members from acquiring the infection. If the infection proliferates, the physician should be contacted. The child should be kept home from school or day care until the child receives the antibiotic for 24 hours.

Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate to a 15-year-old whose friend has mentioned suicide? a. "Tell your friend to come to the clinic immediately." b. "You need to gather details about your friend's suicide plan." c. "Your friend's threat needs to be taken seriously and immediate help for your friend is important." d. "If your friend mentions suicide a second time, you will want to get your friend some help."

c. "Your friend's threat needs to be taken seriously and immediate help for your friend is important." Suicide is the third most common cause of death among American adolescents. A suicide threat from an adolescent serves as a dramatic message to others and should be taken seriously. Adolescents at risk should be targeted for supportive guidance and counseling before a crisis occurs. Instructing a 15-year-old to tell a friend to come to the clinic immediately provides the teen with limited information and does not address the concern. It is important to determine whether a person threatening suicide has a plan of action; however, the best information for the 15-year-old to have is that all threats of suicide should be taken seriously and immediate help is important. Taking time to gather details or waiting until the teen discusses it a second time may be too late.

While working with the pregnant woman in her first trimester, the nurse is aware that chorionic villus sampling (CVS) can be performed during pregnancy at: a. 4 weeks b. 8 weeks c. 10 weeks d. 14 weeks

c. 10 weeks CVS can be performed in the first or second trimester, ideally between 10 and 13 weeks of gestation. During this procedure, a small piece of tissue is removed from the fetal portion of the placenta. If performed after 9 completed weeks of gestation, the risk of limb reduction is no greater than in the general population.

Generally the earliest age at which puberty begins is: a. 13 years in girls, 13 years in boys. b. 11 years in girls, 11 years in boys. c. 10 years in girls, 12 years in boys. d. 12 years in girls, 10 years in boys.

c. 10 years in girls, 12 years in boys. Puberty signals the beginning of the development of secondary sex characteristics. This begins in girls earlier than in boys. Usually a 2-year difference occurs in the age at onset. Girls and boys do not usually begin puberty at the same age; girls usually begin earlier than boys do.

The nurse should teach parents that which age is safe to give infants whole milk instead of commercial infant formula? a. 6 months b. 9 months c. 12 months d. 18 months

c. 12 months The American Academy of Pediatrics does not recommend the use of cow's milk for children younger than 12 months. At 6 and 9 months, the infant should be receiving commercial infant formula or breast milk. At age 18 months, milk and formula are supplemented with solid foods, water, and some fruit juices.

A parent asks the nurse "At what age do most babies begin to fear strangers?" The nurse responds that most infants begin to fear strangers at age: a. 2 months. b. 4 months. c. 6 months. d. 12 months.

c. 6 months. Between ages 6 and 8 months, fear of strangers and stranger anxiety become prominent and are related to the infant's ability to discriminate between familiar and nonfamiliar people. At age 2 months, the infant is just beginning to respond differentially to the mother. At age 4 months, the infant is beginning the process of separation individuation when the infant begins to recognize self and mother as separate beings. Twelve months is too late and requires referral for evaluation if the infant does not fear strangers at this age.

The nurse should know that once human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) enters the body, seroconversion to HIV positivity usually occurs within: a. 6 to 10 days. b. 2 to 4 weeks. c. 6 to 8 weeks. d. 6 months.

c. 6 to 8 weeks. Seroconversion to HIV positivity usually occurs within 6 to 8 weeks after the virus has entered the body.

At which age can most infants sit steadily unsupported? a. 4 months b. 6 months c. 8 months d. 10 months

c. 8 months Sitting erect without support is a developmental milestone usually achieved by 8 months. At age 4 months, an infant can sit with support. At age 6 months, the infant will maintain a sitting position if propped. By 10 months, the infant can maneuver from a prone to a sitting position.

Which patient is most at risk for fibroadenoma of the breast? a. A 38-year-old woman b. A 50-year-old woman c. A 16-year-old girl d. A 27-year-old woman

c. A 16-year-old girl Although it may occur at any age, fibroadenoma is most common in the teenage years. Ductal ectasia and intraductal papilloma become more common as a woman approaches menopause. Fibrocystic breast changes are more common during the reproductive years.

The microscopic examination of scrapings from the cervix, endocervix, or other mucous membranes to detect premalignant or malignant cells is called: a. Bimanual palpation. b. Rectovaginal palpation. c. A Papanicolaou (Pap) test. d. A four As procedure.

c. A Papanicolaou (Pap) test. The Pap test is a microscopic examination for cancer that should be performed regularly, depending on the client's age. Bimanual palpation is a physical examination of the vagina. Rectovaginal palpation is a physical examination performed through the rectum. The four As is an intervention procedure to help a patient stop smoking.

A primigravida is being monitored in her prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. What finding should concern her nurse? a. Blood pressure (BP) increase to 138/86 mm Hg b. Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks c. A dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine d. Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day

c. A dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine Proteinuria is defined as a concentration of 1+ or greater via dipstick measurement. A dipstick value of 3+ should alert the nurse that additional testing or assessment should be made. Generally, hypertension is defined as a BP of 140/90 or an increase in systolic pressure of 30 mm Hg or in diastolic pressure of 15 mm Hg. Preeclampsia may be manifested as a rapid weight gain of more than 2 kg in 1 week. Edema occurs in many normal pregnancies and in women with preeclampsia. Therefore, the presence of edema is no longer considered diagnostic of preeclampsia.

A nurse planning care for a school-age child should take into account that which thought process is seen at this age? a. Animism b. Magical thinking c. Ability to conserve d. Thoughts are all-powerful

c. Ability to conserve One cognitive task of school-age children is mastering the concept of conservation. At an early age (5 to 7 years), children grasp the concept of reversibility of numbers as a basis for simple mathematics problems (e.g., 2 + 4 = 6 and 6 - 4 = 2). They learn that simply altering their arrangement in space does not change certain properties of the environment, and they are able to resist perceptual cues that suggest alterations in the physical state of an object. Animism, magical thinking, and believing that thoughts are all-powerful are thought processes seen in preschool children.

A 10-year-old patient is talking to the nurse about wanting to try contact lenses instead of wearing glasses. She states that the other children at her school call her "four-eyes." Contact lenses should be prescribed for a child who is: a. At least 12 years of age. b. Able to read all the written information and instructions. c. Able to independently care for the lenses in a responsible manner. d. Confident that she really wants contact lenses.

c. Able to independently care for the lenses in a responsible manner. The child must be able to care for the lenses independently. Serious eye damage can occur with irresponsible use of contact lenses. Chronologic age is not the major determinant. A responsible 10-year-old child might be permitted to wear contact lenses. The ability to read does not indicate understanding of the instructions. Confidence and "wanting" do not equal responsibility.

Which behavior indicates that an infant has developed object permanence? a. Recognizes familiar face such as the mother b. Recognizes familiar object such as a bottle c. Actively searches for a hidden object d. Secures objects by pulling on a string

c. Actively searches for a hidden object During the first 6 months of life, infants believe that objects exist only as long as they can see them. When infants search for an object that is out of sight, this signals the attainment of object permanence, whereby an infant knows that an object exists even when it is not visible. Between ages 8 and 12 weeks, infants begin to respond differentially to their mothers. They cry, smile, vocalize, and show distinct preference for their mothers. This preference is one of the stages that influence the attachment process, but it is too early for object permanence. Recognizing familiar objects is an important transition for the infant, but it does not signal object permanence. The ability to understand cause and effect, such as pulling on a string to secure an object, is part of secondary schema development.

At 35 weeks of pregnancy a woman experiences preterm labor. Tocolytics are administered and she is placed on bed rest, but she continues to experience regular uterine contractions, and her cervix is beginning to dilate and efface. What would be an important test for fetal well-being at this time? a. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) b. Ultrasound for fetal size c. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity d. Nonstress test (NST)

c. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity Amniocentesis would be performed to assess fetal lung maturity in the event of a preterm birth. Indications for PUBS include prenatal diagnosis or inherited blood disorders, karyotyping of malformed fetuses, detection of fetal infection, determination of the acid-base status of a fetus with intrauterine growth restriction, and assessment and treatment of isoimmunization and thrombocytopenia in the fetus. Typically, fetal size is determined by ultrasound during the second trimester and is not indicated in this scenario. NST measures the fetal response to fetal movement in a noncontracting mother.

At 35 weeks of pregnancy a woman experiences preterm labor. Tocolytics are administered and she is placed on bed rest, but she continues to experience regular uterine contractions, and her cervix is beginning to dilate and efface. What would be an important test for fetal well-being at this time? a. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) b. Ultrasound for fetal size c. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity d. Nonstress test (NST)

c. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity Amniocentesis would be performed to assess fetal lung maturity in the event of a preterm birth. Indications for PUBS include prenatal diagnosis or inherited blood disorders, karyotyping of malformed fetuses, detection of fetal infection, determination of the acid-base status of a fetus with intrauterine growth restriction, and assessment and treatment of isoimmunization and thrombocytopenia in the fetus. Typically, fetal size is determined by ultrasound during the second trimester and is not indicated in this scenario. NST measures the fetal response to fetal movement in a noncontracting mother.

Preeclampsia is a unique disease process related only to human pregnancy. The exact cause of this condition continues to elude researchers. The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists has developed a comprehensive list of risk factors associated with the development of preeclampsia. Which client exhibits the greatest number of these risk factors? a. A 30-year-old obese Caucasian with her third pregnancy b. A 41-year-old Caucasian primigravida c. An African-American client who is 19 years old and pregnant with twins d. A 25-year-old Asian-American whose pregnancy is the result of donor insemination

c. An African-American client who is 19 years old and pregnant with twins Three risk factors are present for this woman. She is of African-American ethnicity, is at the young end of the age distribution, and has a multiple pregnancy. In planning care for this client the nurse must monitor blood pressure frequently and teach the woman regarding early warning signs. The 30-year-old client only has one known risk factor, obesity. Age distribution appears to be U-shaped, with women less than 20 years and more than 40 years being at greatest risk. Preeclampsia continues to be seen more frequently in primigravidas; this client is a multigravida woman. Two risk factors are present for the 41-year-old client. Her age and status as a primigravida put her at increased risk for preeclampsia. Caucasian women are at a lower risk than African-American women. The Asian-American client exhibits only one risk factor. Pregnancies that result from donor insemination, oocyte donation, and embryo donation are at an increased risk of developing preeclampsia.

A woman had unprotected intercourse 36 hours ago and is concerned that she may become pregnant because it is her "fertile" time. She asks the nurse about emergency contraception. The nurse tells her that: a. It is too late; she needed to begin treatment within 24 hours after intercourse. b. Preven, an emergency contraceptive method, is 98% effective at preventing pregnancy. c. An over-the-counter antiemetic can be taken 1 hour before each contraceptive dose to prevent nausea and vomiting. d. The most effective approach is to use a progestin-only preparation.

c. An over-the-counter antiemetic can be taken 1 hour before each contraceptive dose to prevent nausea and vomiting. To minimize the side effect of nausea that occurs with high doses of estrogen and progestin, the woman can take an over-the-counter antiemetic 1 hour before each dose. Emergency contraception is used within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse to prevent pregnancy. Postcoital contraceptive use is 74% to 90% effective at preventing pregnancy. Oral emergency contraceptive regimens may include progestin-only and estrogen-progestin pills. Women with contraindications to estrogen use should use progestin-only pills.

A nurse is reviewing hormone changes that occur during adolescence. The hormone that is responsible for the growth of beard, mustache, and body hair in the male is: a. Estrogen. b. Pituitary hormone. c. Androgen. d. Progesterone.

c. Androgen. Beard, mustache, and body hair on the chest, upward along the linea alba, and sometimes on other areas (e.g., back and shoulders) appears in males and is androgen dependent. Estrogen and progesterone are produced by the ovaries in the female and do not contribute to body hair appearance in the male. The pituitary hormone does not have any relationship to body hair appearance in the male.

A woman arrives at the clinic for her annual examination. She tells the nurse that she thinks she has a vaginal infection and she has been using an over-the-counter cream for the past 2 days to treat it. The nurse's initial response should be to: a. Inform the woman that vaginal creams may interfere with the Papanicolaou (Pap) test for which she is scheduled. b. Reassure the woman that using vaginal cream is not a problem for the examination. c. Ask the woman to describe the symptoms that indicate to her that she has a vaginal infection. d. Ask the woman to reschedule the appointment for the examination.

c. Ask the woman to describe the symptoms that indicate to her that she has a vaginal infection. An important element of the history and physical examination is the client's description of any symptoms she may be experiencing. Although vaginal creams may interfere with the Pap test, the best response is for the nurse to inquire about the symptoms the patient is experiencing. Women should not douche, use vaginal medications, or have sexual intercourse for 24 to 48 hours before obtaining a Pap test. Although the woman may need to reschedule a visit for her Pap test, her current symptoms should still be addressed.

Which type of play is most typical of the preschool period? a. Solitary b. Parallel c. Associative d. Team

c. Associative Associative play is group play in similar or identical activities but without rigid organization or rules. Solitary play is that of infants. Parallel play is that of toddlers. School-age children play in teams.

The child with Down syndrome should be evaluated for what characteristic before participating in some sports? a. Hyperflexibility b. Cutis marmorata c. Atlantoaxial instability d. Speckling of iris (Brushfield's spots)

c. Atlantoaxial instability Children with Down syndrome are at risk for atlantoaxial instability. Before participating in sports that put stress on the head and neck, a radiologic examination should be done. Although hyperflexibility, cutis marmorata, and Brushfield's spots are characteristics of Down syndrome, they do not affect the child's ability to participate in sports.

Imaginary playmates are beneficial to the preschool child because they: a. Take the place of social interactions. b. Take the place of pets and other toys. c. Become friends in times of loneliness. d. Accomplish what the child has already successfully accomplished.

c. Become friends in times of loneliness. One purpose of an imaginary friend is to be a friend in time of loneliness. Imaginary friends do not take the place of social interactions but may encourage conversation. Imaginary friends do not take the place of pets or toys. They accomplish what the child is still attempting, not what has already been accomplished.

Which statement best describes the infant's physical development? a. Anterior fontanel closes by age 6 to 10 months. b. Binocularity is well established by age 8 months. c. Birth weight doubles by age 5 months and triples by age 1 year. d. Maternal iron stores persist during the first 12 months of life.

c. Birth weight doubles by age 5 months and triples by age 1 year. Growth is very rapid during the first year of life. The birth weight approximately doubles by age 5 to 6 months and triples by age 1 year. The anterior fontanel closes at age 12 to 18 months. Binocularity is not established until age 15 months. Maternal iron stores are usually depleted by age 6 months.

Which term refers to opacity of the crystalline lens that prevents light rays from entering the eye and refracting on the retina? a. Myopia b. Amblyopia c. Cataract d. Glaucoma

c. Cataract A cataract refers to opacity of the crystalline lens that prevents light rays from entering the eye and refracting on the retina. Myopia, or nearsightedness, refers to the ability to see objects clearly at close range but not at a distance. Amblyopia, or lazy eye, is reduced visual acuity in one eye. Glaucoma is a group of eye diseases characterized by increased intraocular pressure.

The drug of choice for treatment of gonorrhea is: a. Penicillin G. b. Tetracycline. c. Ceftriaxone. d. Acyclovir.

c. Ceftriaxone. Ceftriaxone is effective for treatment of all gonococcal infections. Penicillin is used to treat syphilis. Tetracycline is prescribed for chlamydial infections. Acyclovir is used to treat herpes genitalis.

Parent guidelines for relieving colic in an infant include: a. Avoiding touching the abdomen. b. Avoiding using a pacifier. c. Changing the infant's position frequently. d. Placing the infant where the family cannot hear the crying.

c. Changing the infant's position frequently. Changing the infant's position frequently may be beneficial. The parent can walk holding the infant face down and with the infant's chest across the parent's arm. The parent's hand can support the infant's abdomen, applying gentle pressure. Gently massaging the abdomen is effective in some infants. Pacifiers can be used for meeting additional sucking needs. The infant should not be placed where monitoring cannot be done. The infant can be placed in the crib and allowed to cry. Periodically, the infant should be picked up and comforted.

A group of boys ages 9 and 10 years have formed a "boys-only" club that is open to neighborhood and school friends who have skateboards. This should be interpreted as: a. Behavior that encourages bullying and sexism. b. Behavior that reinforces poor peer relationships. c. Characteristic of social development of this age. d. Characteristic of children who later are at risk for membership in gangs.

c. Characteristic of social development of this age. One of the outstanding characteristics of middle childhood is the creation of formalized groups or clubs. Peer-group identification and association are essential to a child's socialization. Poor relationships with peers and a lack of group identification can contribute to bullying. A boys-only club does not have a direct correlation with later gang activity.

When evaluating a patient for sexually transmitted infections (STIs), the nurse should be aware that the most common bacterial STI is: a. Gonorrhea. b. Syphilis. c. Chlamydia. d. Candidiasis.

c. Chlamydia. Chlamydia is the most common and fastest spreading STI among American women, with an estimated 3 million new cases each year. Gonorrhea and syphilis are bacterial STIs, but they are not the most common ones among American women. Candidiasis is caused by a fungus, not by bacteria.

A mother tells the nurse that she is discontinuing breastfeeding her 5-month-old infant. The nurse should recommend that the infant be given: a. Skim milk. b. Whole cow's milk. c. Commercial iron-fortified formula. d. Commercial formula without iron.

c. Commercial iron-fortified formula. For children younger than 1 year, the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the use of breast milk. If breastfeeding has been discontinued, iron-fortified commercial formula should be used. Cow's milk should not be used in children younger than 12 months. Maternal iron stores are almost depleted by this age; the iron-fortified formula will help prevent the development of iron deficiency anemia.

Young people with anorexia nervosa are often described as being: a. Independent. b. Disruptive. c. Conforming. d. Low achieving.

c. Conforming. Individuals with anorexia nervosa are described as perfectionist, academically high achievers, conforming, and conscientious. Independent, disruptive, and low achieving are not part of the behavioral characteristics of anorexia nervosa.

A woman arrives for evaluation of her symptoms, which include a missed period, adnexal fullness, tenderness, and dark red vaginal bleeding. On examination the nurse notices an ecchymotic blueness around the woman's umbilicus and recognizes this assessment finding as: a. Normal integumentary changes associated with pregnancy. b. Turner's sign associated with appendicitis. c. Cullen's sign associated with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. d. Chadwick's sign associated with early pregnancy.

c. Cullen's sign associated with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Cullen's sign, the blue ecchymosis seen in the umbilical area, indicates hematoperitoneum associated with an undiagnosed ruptured intraabdominal ectopic pregnancy. Linea nigra on the abdomen is the normal integumentary change associated with pregnancy. It manifests as a brown, pigmented, vertical line on the lower abdomen. Turner's sign is ecchymosis in the flank area, often associated with pancreatitis. Chadwick's sign is the blue-purple color of the cervix that may be seen during or around the eighth week of pregnancy.

A nurse is preparing to perform a dressing change on a 6-year-old child with mild cognitive impairment (CI) who sustained a minor burn. Which strategy should the nurse use to prepare the child for this procedure? a. Verbally explain what will be done. b. Have the child watch a video on dressing changes. c. Demonstrate a dressing change on a doll. d. Explain the importance of keeping the burn area clean.

c. Demonstrate a dressing change on a doll. Children with CI have a marked deficit in their ability to discriminate between two or more stimuli because of difficulty in recognizing the relevance of specific cues. However, these children can learn to discriminate if the cues are presented in an exaggerated, concrete form and if all extraneous stimuli are eliminated. Therefore, demonstration is preferable to verbal explanation, and learning should be directed toward mastering a skill rather than understanding the scientific principles underlying a procedure. Watching a video would require the use of both visual and auditory stimulation and might produce overload in the child with mild CI. Explaining the importance of keeping the burn area clean would be too abstract for the child.

A pregnant woman has been receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion for treatment of severe preeclampsia for 24 hours. On assessment the nurse finds the following vital signs: temperature of 37.3° C, pulse rate of 88 beats/min, respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min, blood pressure (BP) of 148/90 mm Hg, absent deep tendon reflexes, and no ankle clonus. The client complains, "I'm so thirsty and warm." The nurse: a. Calls for a stat magnesium sulfate level. b. Administers oxygen. c. Discontinues the magnesium sulfate infusion. d. Prepares to administer hydralazine.

c. Discontinues the magnesium sulfate infusion. The client is displaying clinical signs and symptoms of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium should be discontinued immediately. In addition, calcium gluconate, the antidote for magnesium, may be administered. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive commonly used to treat hypertension in severe preeclampsia. Typically it is administered for a systolic BP greater than 160 mm Hg or a diastolic BP greater than 110 mm Hg.

Metabolic changes throughout pregnancy that affect glucose and insulin in the mother and the fetus are complicated but important to understand. Nurses should understand that: a. Insulin crosses the placenta to the fetus only in the first trimester, after which the fetus secretes its own. b. Women with insulin-dependent diabetes are prone to hyperglycemia during the first trimester because they are consuming more sugar. c. During the second and third trimesters, pregnancy exerts a diabetogenic effect that ensures an abundant supply of glucose for the fetus. d. Maternal insulin requirements steadily decline during pregnancy.

c. During the second and third trimesters, pregnancy exerts a diabetogenic effect that ensures an abundant supply of glucose for the fetus. Pregnant women develop increased insulin resistance during the second and third trimesters. Insulin never crosses the placenta; the fetus starts making its own insulin around the tenth week. As a result of normal metabolic changes during pregnancy, insulin-dependent women are prone to hypoglycemia (low levels). Maternal insulin requirements may double or quadruple by the end of pregnancy.

Developmentally, most children at age 12 months: a. Use a spoon adeptly. b. Relinquish the bottle voluntarily. c. Eat the same food as the rest of the family. d. Reject all solid food in preference to the bottle.

c. Eat the same food as the rest of the family. By age 12 months, most children are eating the same food that is prepared for the rest of the family. Using a spoon usually is not mastered until age 18 months. The parents should be engaged in weaning a child from a bottle if that is the source of liquid. Toddlers should be encouraged to drink from a cup at the first birthday and weaned totally by 14 months. The child should be weaned from a milk/formula-based diet to a balanced diet that includes iron-rich sources of food.

To manage her diabetes appropriately and ensure a good fetal outcome, the pregnant woman with diabetes will need to alter her diet by: a. Eating six small equal meals per day. b. Reducing carbohydrates in her diet. c. Eating her meals and snacks on a fixed schedule. d. Increasing her consumption of protein.

c. Eating her meals and snacks on a fixed schedule Having a fixed meal schedule will provide the woman and the fetus with a steadier blood sugar level, provide better balance with insulin administration, and help prevent complications. It is more important to have a fixed meal schedule than equal division of food intake. Approximately 45% of the food eaten should be in the form of carbohydrates.

During the preschool period, the emphasis of injury prevention should be placed on: a. Constant vigilance and protection. b. Punishment for unsafe behaviors. c. Education for safety and potential hazards. d. Limitation of physical activities.

c. Education for safety and potential hazards. Education for safety and potential hazards is appropriate for preschoolers because they can begin to understand dangers. Constant vigilance and protection is not practical at this age since preschoolers are becoming more independent. Punishment may make children scared of trying new things. Limitation of physical activities is not appropriate.

Which action is contraindicated when a child with Down syndrome is hospitalized? a. Determine the child's vocabulary for specific body functions. b. Assess the child's hearing and visual capabilities. c. Encourage parents to leave the child alone for extended periods of time. d. Have meals served at the child's usual mealtimes.

c. Encourage parents to leave the child alone for extended periods of time. The child with Down syndrome needs routine schedules and consistency. Having familiar people present, especially parents, helps to decrease the child's anxiety. To communicate effectively with the child, it is important to know the child's particular vocabulary for specific body functions. Children with Down syndrome have a high incidence of hearing loss and vision problems and should have hearing and vision assessed whenever they are in a health care facility. Meals should be served at the usual mealtimes because routine schedules and consistency are important to children with Down syndrome.

The most common neurologic disorder accompanying pregnancy is: a. Eclampsia. b. Bell's palsy. c. Epilepsy. d. Multiple sclerosis.

c. Epilepsy. The effects of pregnancy on epilepsy are unpredictable. Eclampsia sometimes may be confused with epilepsy, which is the most common neurologic disorder accompanying pregnancy. Bell's palsy is a form of facial paralysis. Multiple sclerosis is a patchy demyelinization of the spinal cord that does not affect the normal course of pregnancy or birth.

In which culture is the father more likely to be expected to participate in the labor and delivery? a. Asian-American b. African-American c. European-American d. Hispanic

c. European-American European-Americans expect the father to take a more active role in the labor and delivery than the other cultures.

In caring for a pregnant woman with sickle cell anemia, the nurse is aware that signs and symptoms of sickle cell crisis include: a. Anemia. b. Endometritis. c. Fever and pain. d. Urinary tract infection.

c. Fever and pain. Women with sickle cell anemia have recurrent attacks (crisis) of fever and pain, most often in the abdomen, joints, and extremities. These attacks are attributed to vascular occlusion when RBCs assume the characteristic sickled shape. Crises are usually triggered by dehydration, hypoxia, or acidosis. Women with sickle cell anemia are not iron deficient. Therefore, routine iron supplementation, even that found in prenatal vitamins, should be avoided in order to prevent iron overload. Women with sickle cell trait usually are at greater risk for postpartum endometritis (uterine wall infection); however, this is not likely to occur in pregnancy and is not a sign of crisis. These women are at an increased risk for UTIs; however, this is not an indication of sickle cell crisis.

Which diagnostic test is used to confirm a suspected diagnosis of breast cancer? a. Mammogram b. Ultrasound c. Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) d. CA 15.3

c. Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) When a suspicious mammogram is noted or a lump is detected, diagnosis is confirmed by FNA, core needle biopsy, or needle localization biopsy. Mammography is a clinical screening tool that may aid early detection of breast cancers. Transillumination, thermography, and ultrasound breast imaging are being explored as methods of detecting early breast carcinoma. CA 15.3 is a serum tumor marker that is used to test for residual disease.

A couple comes in for an infertility workup, having attempted to get pregnant for 2 years. The woman, 37, has always had irregular menstrual cycles but is otherwise healthy. The man has fathered two children from a previous marriage and had a vasectomy reversal 2 years ago. The man has had two normal semen analyses, but the sperm seem to be clumped together. What additional test is needed? a. Testicular biopsy b. Antisperm antibodies c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level d. Examination for testicular infection

c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level The woman has irregular menstrual cycles. The scenario does not indicate that she has had any testing related to this irregularity. Hormone analysis is performed to assess endocrine function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis when menstrual cycles are absent or irregular. Determination of blood levels of prolactin, FSH, luteinizing hormone (LH), estradiol, progesterone, and thyroid hormones may be necessary to diagnose the cause of irregular menstrual cycles. A testicular biopsy would be indicated only in cases of azoospermia (no sperm cells) or severe oligospermia (low number of sperm cells). Antisperm antibodies are produced by a man against his own sperm. This is unlikely to be the case here because the man has already produced children. Examination for testicular infection would be done before semen analysis. Infection would affect spermatogenesis.

What finding on a prenatal visit at 10 weeks could suggest a hydatidiform mole? a. Complaint of frequent mild nausea b. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg c. Fundal height measurement of 18 cm d. History of bright red spotting for 1 day, weeks ago

c. Fundal height measurement of 18 cm The uterus in a hydatidiform molar pregnancy is often larger than would be expected on the basis of the duration of the pregnancy. Nausea increases in a molar pregnancy because of the increased production of hCG. A woman with a molar pregnancy may have early-onset pregnancy-induced hypertension. In the patient's history, bleeding is normally described as brownish.

In the past, factors to determine whether a woman was likely to develop a high risk pregnancy were evaluated primarily from a medical point of view. A broader, more comprehensive approach to high-risk pregnancy has been adopted today. There are now four categories based on threats to the health of the woman and the outcome of pregnancy. Which of the following is not one of these categories? a. Biophysical b. Psychosocial c. Geographic d. Environmental

c. Geographic This category is correctly referred to as sociodemographic risk. These factors stem from the mother and her family. Ethnicity may be one of the risks to pregnancy; however, it is not the only factor in this category. Low income, lack of prenatal care, age, parity, and marital status also are included. Biophysical is one of the broad categories used for determining risk. These include genetic considerations, nutritional status, and medical and obstetric disorders. Psychosocial risks include smoking, caffeine, drugs, alcohol, and psychologic status. All of these adverse lifestyles can have a negative effect on the health of the mother or fetus. Environmental risks are risks that can affect both fertility and fetal development. These include infections, chemicals, radiation, pesticides, illicit drugs, and industrial pollutants.

In the past, factors to determine whether a woman was likely to develop a high risk pregnancy were evaluated primarily from a medical point of view. A broader, more comprehensive approach to high-risk pregnancy has been adopted today. There are now four categories based on threats to the health of the woman and the outcome of pregnancy. Which of the following is not one of these categories? a. Biophysical b. Psychosocial c. Geographic d. Environmental

c. Geographic This category is correctly referred to as sociodemographic risk. These factors stem from the mother and her family. Ethnicity may be one of the risks to pregnancy; however, it is not the only factor in this category. Low income, lack of prenatal care, age, parity, and marital status also are included. Biophysical is one of the broad categories used for determining risk. These include genetic considerations, nutritional status, and medical and obstetric disorders. Psychosocial risks include smoking, caffeine, drugs, alcohol, and psychologic status. All of these adverse lifestyles can have a negative effect on the health of the mother or fetus. Environmental risks are risks that can affect both fertility and fetal development. These include infections, chemicals, radiation, pesticides, illicit drugs, and industrial pollutants.

The labor of a pregnant woman with preeclampsia is going to be induced. Before initiating the Pitocin infusion, the nurse reviews the woman's latest laboratory test findings, which reveal a platelet count of 90,000, an elevated aspartate transaminase (AST) level, and a falling hematocrit. The nurse notifies the physician because the laboratory results are indicative of: a. Eclampsia. b. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). c. HELLP syndrome. d. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia.

c. HELLP syndrome. HELLP syndrome is a laboratory diagnosis for a variant of severe preeclampsia that involves hepatic dysfunction characterized by hemolysis (H), elevated liver enzymes (EL), and low platelets (LP). Eclampsia is determined by the presence of seizures. DIC is a potential complication associated with HELLP syndrome. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia is the presence of low platelets of unknown cause and is not associated with preeclampsia.

What condition indicates concealed hemorrhage when the patient experiences an abruptio placentae? a. Decrease in abdominal pain b. Bradycardia c. Hard, boardlike abdomen d. Decrease in fundal height

c. Hard, boardlike abdomen Concealed hemorrhage occurs when the edges of the placenta do not separate. The formation of a hematoma behind the placenta and subsequent infiltration of the blood into the uterine muscle results in a very firm, boardlike abdomen. Abdominal pain may increase. The patient will have shock symptoms that include tachycardia. As bleeding occurs, the fundal height will increase.

Injectable progestins (DMPA, Depo-Provera) are a good contraceptive choice for women who: a. Want menstrual regularity and predictability. b. Have a history of thrombotic problems or breast cancer. c. Have difficulty remembering to take oral contraceptives daily. d. Are homeless or mobile and rarely receive health care.

c. Have difficulty remembering to take oral contraceptives daily. Advantages of DMPA include a contraceptive effectiveness comparable to that of combined oral contraceptives with the requirement of only four injections a year. Disadvantages of injectable progestins are prolonged amenorrhea and uterine bleeding. Use of injectable progestin carries an increased risk of venous thrombosis and thromboembolism. To be effective, DMPA injections must be administered every 11 to 13 weeks. Access to health care is necessary to prevent pregnancy or potential complications.

Which heart condition is not a contraindication for pregnancy? a. Peripartum cardiomyopathy b. Eisenmenger syndrome c. Heart transplant d. All of these contraindicate pregnancy.

c. Heart transplant Pregnancy is contraindicated for peripartum cardiomyopathy and Eisenmenger syndrome. Women who have had heart transplants are successfully having babies. However, conception should be postponed for at least 1 year after transplantation.

A woman who is older than 35 years may have difficulty achieving pregnancy primarily because: a. Personal risk behaviors influence fertility b. She has used contraceptives for an extended time c. Her ovaries may be affected by the aging process d. Prepregnancy medical attention is lacking

c. Her ovaries may be affected by the aging process Once the mature woman decides to conceive, a delay in becoming pregnant may occur because of the normal aging of the ovaries. Older adults participate in fewer risk behaviors than younger adults. The past use of contraceptives is not the problem. Prepregnancy medical care is both available and encouraged.

A toddler's parent asks the nurse for suggestions on dealing with temper tantrums. The most appropriate recommendation is to: a. Punish the child. b. Leave the child alone until the tantrum is over. c. Ignore the behavior, provided that it is not injurious. d. Explain to child that this is wrong.

c. Ignore the behavior, provided that it is not injurious. The parent should be told that the best way to deal with temper tantrums is to ignore the behaviors, provided that the actions are not dangerous to the child. Tantrums are common during this age-group as the child becomes more independent and increasingly complex tasks overwhelm him or her. The parents and caregivers need to have consistent and developmentally appropriate expectations. Punishment and explanations will not be beneficial.

The school nurse tells adolescents in the clinic that confidentiality and privacy will be maintained unless a life-threatening situation arises. This practice is: a. Not appropriate in a school setting. b. Never appropriate because adolescents are minors. c. Important in establishing trusting relationships. d. Suggestive that the nurse is meeting his or her own needs.

c. Important in establishing trusting relationships. Health professionals who work with adolescents should consider the adolescents' increasing independence and responsibility while maintaining privacy and ensuring confidentiality. However, circumstances may occur in which they are not able to maintain confidentiality, such as self-destructive behavior or maltreatment by others. Confidentiality and privacy are necessary to facilitate trust with this age group. The nurse must be aware of the limits placed on confidentiality by local jurisdiction.

The nurse is discussing sexuality with the parents of an adolescent girl with moderate cognitive impairment. Which should the nurse consider when dealing with this issue? a. Sterilization is recommended for any adolescent with cognitive impairment. b. Sexual drive and interest are limited in individuals with cognitive impairment. c. Individuals with cognitive impairment need a well-defined, concrete code of sexual conduct. d. Sexual intercourse rarely occurs unless the individual with cognitive impairment is sexually abused.

c. Individuals with cognitive impairment need a well-defined, concrete code of sexual conduct. Adolescents with moderate cognitive impairment may be easily persuaded and lack judgment. A well-defined, concrete code of conduct with specific instructions for handling certain situations should be laid out for the adolescent. Permanent contraception by sterilization presents moral and ethical issues and may have psychologic effects on the adolescent. It may be prohibited in some states. The adolescent needs to have practical sexual information regarding physical development and contraception. Cognitively impaired individuals may desire to marry and have families. The adolescent needs to be protected from individuals who may make intimate advances.

In providing nutritional counseling for the pregnant woman experiencing cholecystitis, the nurse would: a. Assess the woman's dietary history for adequate calories and proteins. b. Instruct the woman that the bulk of calories should come from proteins. c. Instruct the woman to eat a low-fat diet and avoid fried foods. d. Instruct the woman to eat a low-cholesterol, low-salt diet.

c. Instruct the woman to eat a low-fat diet and avoid fried foods. Instructing the woman to eat a low-fat diet and avoid fried foods is appropriate nutritional counseling for this client. Caloric and protein intake do not predispose a woman to the development of cholecystitis. The woman should be instructed to limit protein intake and choose foods that are high in carbohydrates. A low-cholesterol diet may be the result of limiting fats. However, a low-salt diet is not indicated.

A woman has a breast mass that is not well delineated and is nonpalpable, immobile, and nontender. This is most likely: a. Fibroadenoma. b. Lipoma. c. Intraductal papilloma. d. Mammary duct ectasia.

c. Intraductal papilloma. Intraductal papilloma is the only benign breast mass that is nonpalpable. Fibroadenoma is well delineated, palpable, and movable. Lipoma is palpable and movable. Mammary duct ectasia is not well delineated and is immobile, but it is palpable and painful.

A father calls the emergency department nurse saying that his daughter's eyes burn after getting some dishwasher detergent in them. The nurse recommends that the child be seen in the emergency department or by an ophthalmologist. What should the nurse recommend before the child is transported? a. Keep the eyes closed. b. Apply cold compresses. c. Irrigate eyes copiously with tap water for 20 minutes. d. Prepare a normal saline solution (salt and water) and irrigate eyes for 20 minutes.

c. Irrigate eyes copiously with tap water for 20 minutes. The first action is to flush the eyes with clean tap water. This will rinse the detergent from the eyes. Keeping the eyes closed and applying cold compresses may allow the detergent to do further harm to the eyes during transport. Normal saline is not necessary. The delay during preparation can allow the detergent to cause continued injury to the eyes.

Nurses should be aware that HELLP syndrome: a. Is a mild form of preeclampsia. b. Can be diagnosed by a nurse alert to its symptoms. c. Is characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. d. Is associated with preterm labor but not perinatal mortality.

c. Is characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. The acronym HELLP stands for hemolysis (H), elevated liver enzymes (EL), and low platelets (LP). HELLP syndrome is a variant of severe preeclampsia. HELLP syndrome is difficult to identify because the symptoms often are not obvious. It must be diagnosed in the laboratory. Preterm labor is greatly increased, and so is perinatal mortality.

The nurse providing care for the antepartum woman should understand that contraction stress test (CST): a. Sometimes uses vibroacoustic stimulation. b. Is an invasive test; however, contractions are stimulated. c. Is considered negative if no late decelerations are observed with the contractions. d. Is more effective than nonstress test (NST) if the membranes have already been ruptured.

c. Is considered negative if no late decelerations are observed with the contractions. No late decelerations is good news. Vibroacoustic stimulation is sometimes used with NST. CST is invasive if stimulation is by intravenous oxytocin but not if by nipple stimulation and is contraindicated if the membranes have ruptured.

The nurse providing care for the antepartum woman should understand that contraction stress test (CST): a. Sometimes uses vibroacoustic stimulation. b. Is an invasive test; however, contractions are stimulated. c. Is considered negative if no late decelerations are observed with the contractions. d. Is more effective than nonstress test (NST) if the membranes have already been ruptured.

c. Is considered negative if no late decelerations are observed with the contractions. No late decelerations is good news. Vibroacoustic stimulation is sometimes used with NST. CST is invasive if stimulation is by intravenous oxytocin but not if by nipple stimulation and is contraindicated if the membranes have ruptured.

While instructing a couple regarding birth control, the nurse should be aware that the method called natural family planning: a. Is the same as coitus interruptus, or "pulling out." b. Uses the calendar method to align the woman's cycle with the natural phases of the moon. c. Is the only contraceptive practice acceptable to the Roman Catholic church. d. Relies on barrier methods during fertility phases.

c. Is the only contraceptive practice acceptable to the Roman Catholic church. Natural family planning is another name for periodic abstinence, which is the accepted way to pass safely through the fertility phases without relying on chemical or physical barriers. Natural family planning is the only contraceptive practice acceptable to the Roman Catholic church. "Pulling out" is not the same as periodic abstinence, another name for natural family planning. The phases of the moon are not part of the calendar method or any method.

What is the primary purpose of a transitional object? a. It helps the parents deal with the guilt they feel when they leave the child. b. It keeps the child quiet at bedtime. c. It is effective in decreasing anxiety in the toddler. d. It decreases negativism and tantrums in the toddler.

c. It is effective in decreasing anxiety in the toddler. Decreasing anxiety, particularly separation anxiety, is the function of a transitional object; it provides comfort to the toddler in stressful situations and helps make the transition from dependence to autonomy. A decrease in parental guilt (distress) is an indirect benefit of a transitional object. A transitional object may be part of a bedtime ritual, but it may not keep the child quiet at bedtime. A transitional object does not significantly affect negativity and tantrums, but it can comfort a child after tantrums.

With regard to endometriosis, nurses should be aware that: a. It is characterized by the presence and growth of endometrial tissue inside the uterus. b. It is found more often in African-American women than in white or Asian women. c. It may worsen with repeated cycles or remain asymptomatic and disappear after menopause. d. It is unlikely to affect sexual intercourse or fertility.

c. It may worsen with repeated cycles or remain asymptomatic and disappear after menopause. Symptoms vary among women, ranging from nonexistent to incapacitating. With endometriosis, the endometrial tissue is outside the uterus. Symptoms vary among women, ranging from nonexistent to incapacitating. Endometriosis is found equally in white and African-American women and is slightly more prevalent in Asian women. Women can experience painful intercourse and impaired fertility.

When assessing a patient for amenorrhea, the nurse should be aware that this is unlikely to be caused by: a. Anatomic abnormalities. b. Type 1 diabetes mellitus. c. Lack of exercise. d. Hysterectomy.

c. Lack of exercise. Lack of exercise is not a cause of amenorrhea. Strenuous exercise may cause amenorrhea. Anatomic abnormalities, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and hysterectomy all are possible causes of amenorrhea.

The nurse providing education regarding breast care should explain to the woman that fibrocystic changes in breasts are: a. A disease of the milk ducts and glands in the breasts. b. A premalignant disorder characterized by lumps found in the breast tissue. c. Lumpiness with pain and tenderness found in varying degrees in the breast tissue of healthy women during menstrual cycles. d. Lumpiness accompanied by tenderness after menses.

c. Lumpiness with pain and tenderness found in varying degrees in the breast tissue of healthy women during menstrual cycles. Fibrocystic changes are palpable thickenings in the breast usually associated with pain and tenderness. The pain and tenderness fluctuate with the menstrual cycle. Fibrocystic changes are not premalignant changes.

Vitamin A supplementation may be recommended for the young child who has: a. Mumps. b. Rubella. c. Measles (rubeola). d. Erythema infectiosum.

c. Measles (rubeola). Evidence shows that vitamin A decreases morbidity and mortality associated with measles. Vitamin A will not lessen the effects of mumps, rubella, or fifth disease.

Health care functions carried out by families to meet their members' needs include: a. Developing family budgets. b. Socializing children. c. Meeting nutritional requirements. d. Teaching family members about birth control.

c. Meeting nutritional requirements Meeting nutritional requirements is a fundamental health promotion behavior. Although creating a family budget may be helpful, it does not indicate that funds will be allotted to meet health needs if money is scarce. Often families cannot afford preventive care and rely on emergency departments for their health care needs. Socialization of children may be important, but it is not directly related to the health care of individuals in a family unit. Birth control may be important, but it is not a basic survival health care function.

A 36-year-old woman has been given a diagnosis of uterine fibroids. When planning care for this patient, the nurse should know that: a. Fibroids are malignant tumors of the uterus that require radiation or chemotherapy. b. Fibroids increase in size during the perimenopausal period. c. Menorrhagia is a common finding. d. The woman is unlikely to become pregnant as long as the fibroids are in her uterus.

c. Menorrhagia is a common finding. The major symptoms associated with fibroids are menorrhagia and the physical effects produced by large myomas. Fibroids are benign tumors of the smooth muscle of the uterus, and their etiology is unknown. Fibroids are estrogen sensitive and shrink as levels of estrogen decline. Fibroids occur in 25% of women of reproductive age and are seen in 2% of pregnant women.

Prostaglandins are produced in most organs of the body, including the uterus. Other source(s) of prostaglandins is/are: a. Ovaries. b. Breast milk. c. Menstrual blood. d. The vagina.

c. Menstrual blood. Menstrual blood is a potent source of prostaglandins. Prostaglandins are produced in most organs of the body and in menstrual blood. The ovaries, breast milk, and vagina are neither organs nor a source of prostaglandins.

A young child who has an intelligence quotient (IQ) of 45 would be described as: a. Within the lower limits of the range of normal intelligence. b. Mildly cognitively impaired but educable. c. Moderately cognitively impaired but trainable. d. Severely cognitively impaired and completely dependent on others for care.

c. Moderately cognitively impaired but trainable. Moderately cognitively impaired IQs range from 35 to 55. The lower limit of normal intelligence is approximately 70 to 75. Individuals with IQs of 50 to 70 are considered mildly cognitively impaired but educable. An IQ of 20 to 40 results in severe cognitive impairment.

Management of primary dysmenorrhea often requires a multifaceted approach. The nurse who provides care for a client with this condition should be aware that the optimal pharmacologic therapy for pain relief is: a. Acetaminophen. b. Oral contraceptives (OCPs). c. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). d. Aspirin.

c. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). NSAIDs are prostaglandin inhibitors and show the strongest research results for pain relief. Often if one NSAID is not effective, another one can provide relief. Approximately 80% of women find relief from NSAIDs. Preparations containing acetaminophen are less effective for dysmenorrhea because they lack the antiprostaglandin properties of NSAIDs. OCPs are a reasonable choice for women who also want birth control. The benefit of OCPs is the reduction of menstrual flow and irregularities. OCPs may be contraindicated for some women and have numerous potential side effects. NSAIDs are the drug of choice. If a woman is taking a NSAID, she should avoid taking aspirin.

A nurse is caring for an adolescent hospitalized for cellulitis. The nurse notes that the adolescent experiences many "mood swings" throughout the day. The nurse interprets this behavior as: a. Requiring a referral to a mental health counselor. b. Requiring some further lab testing. c. Normal behavior. d. Related to feelings of depression.

c. Normal behavior. Adolescents vacillate in their emotional states between considerable maturity and childlike behavior. One minute they are exuberant and enthusiastic; the next minute they are depressed and withdrawn. Because of these mood swings, adolescents are frequently labeled as unstable, inconsistent, and unpredictable, but the behavior is normal. The behavior would not require a referral to a mental health counselor or further lab testing. The mood swings do not indicate depression.

A traditional family structure in which male and female partners and their children live as an independent unit is known as a(n): a. Extended family. b. Binuclear family. c. Nuclear family. d. Blended family.

c. Nuclear family. About two thirds of U.S. households meet the definition of a nuclear family. Extended families include additional blood relatives other than the parents. A binuclear family involves two households. A blended family is reconstructed after divorce and involves the merger of two families.

The nurse is explaining Tanner staging to an adolescent and her mother. Which statement best describes Tanner staging? a. Predictable stages of puberty that are based on chronologic age b. Staging of puberty based on the initiation of menarche and nocturnal emissions c. Predictable stages of puberty that are based on primary and secondary sexual characteristics d. Staging of puberty based on the initiation of primary sexual characteristics

c. Predictable stages of puberty that are based on primary and secondary sexual characteristics Tanner sexual-maturing ratings are based on the development of stages of primary and secondary sexual characteristics. Tanner stages are not based on chronologic age. The age at which an adolescent enters puberty is variable. The puberty stage in girls begins with breast development. The puberty stage in boys begins with genital enlargement. Primary sexual characteristics are not the sole basis of Tanner staging.

Which statement concerning cyclic perimenstrual pain and discomfort (CPPD) is accurate? a. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is a milder form of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) and more common in younger women. b. Secondary dysmenorrhea is more intense and medically significant than primary dysmenorrhea. c. Premenstrual syndrome is a complex, poorly understood condition that may include any of a hundred symptoms. d. The causes of PMS have been well established.

c. Premenstrual syndrome is a complex, poorly understood condition that may include any of a hundred symptoms. PMS may manifest with one or more of a hundred or so physical and psychologic symptoms. PMDD is a more severe variant of PMS. Secondary dysmenorrhea is characterized by more muted pain than that seen in primary dysmenorrhea; the medical treatment is much the same. The cause of PMS is unknown. It may be a collection of different problems.

A 4-year-old child tells the nurse that she does not want another blood sample drawn because "I need all my insides, and I don't want anyone taking them out." Which is the nurse's best interpretation of this? a. Child is being overly dramatic. b. Child has a disturbed body image. c. Preschoolers have poorly defined body boundaries. d. Preschoolers normally have a good understanding of their bodies.

c. Preschoolers have poorly defined body boundaries. Preschoolers have little understanding of body boundaries, which leads to fears of mutilation. The child is not capable of being dramatic at 4 years of age. She truly has fear. Body image is just developing in the school-age child. Preschoolers do not have good understanding of their bodies.

Magnesium sulfate is given to women with preeclampsia and eclampsia to: a. Improve patellar reflexes and increase respiratory efficiency. b. Shorten the duration of labor. c. Prevent and treat convulsions. d. Prevent a boggy uterus and lessen lochial flow.

c. Prevent and treat convulsions Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice to prevent convulsions, although it can generate other problems. Loss of patellar reflexes and respiratory depression are signs of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate can increase the duration of labor. Women are at risk for a boggy uterus and heavy lochial flow as a result of magnesium sulfate therapy.

Which factor is known to increase the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus? a. Underweight before pregnancy b. Maternal age younger than 25 years c. Previous birth of large infant d. Previous diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus

c. Previous birth of large infant Previous birth of a large infant suggests gestational diabetes mellitus. Obesity (BMI of 30 or greater) creates a higher risk for gestational diabetes. A woman younger than 25 years generally is not at risk for gestational diabetes mellitus. The person with type 2 diabetes mellitus already has diabetes and will continue to have it after pregnancy. Insulin may be required during pregnancy because oral hypoglycemia drugs are contraindicated during pregnancy.

Latasha is a breastfed infant being seen in the clinic for her 6-month checkup. Her mother tells the nurse that Latasha recently began to suck her thumb. The best nursing intervention is to: a. Recommend that the mother substitute a pacifier for Latasha's thumb. b. Assess Latasha for other signs of sensory deprivation. c. Reassure the mother that this is very normal at this age. d. Suggest that the mother breastfeed Latasha more often to satisfy sucking needs.

c. Reassure the mother that this is very normal at this age. Sucking is an infant's chief pleasure, and she may not be satisfied by bottle-feeding or breastfeeding alone. During infancy and early childhood, there is no need to restrict nonnutritive sucking. Dental damage does not appear to occur unless the use of the pacifier or finger persists after age 4 to 6 years. The nurse should explore with the mother her feelings about pacifier vs. thumb. This is a normal behavior to meet nonnutritive sucking needs. No data support that Latasha has sensory deprivation.

An appropriate nursing diagnosis for a child with a cognitive dysfunction who has a limited ability to anticipate danger is: a. Impaired Social Interaction. b. Deficient Knowledge. c. Risk for Injury. d. Ineffective Coping.

c. Risk for Injury. The nurse needs to know that limited cognitive abilities to anticipate danger lead to risk for injury. Impaired social interaction is indeed a concern for the child with a cognitive disorder but does not address the limited ability to anticipate danger. Because of the child's cognitive deficit, knowledge will not be retained and will not decrease the risk for injury. Ineffective individual coping does not address the limited ability to anticipate danger.

According to Piaget, the 6-month-old infant would be in what stage of the sensorimotor phase? a. Use of reflexes b. Primary circular reactions c. Secondary circular reactions d. Coordination of secondary schemata

c. Secondary circular reactions Infants are usually in the secondary circular reaction stage from age 4 months to 8 months. This stage is characterized by a continuation of the primary circular reaction for the response that results. For example, shaking of a rattle is performed to hear the noise of the rattle, not just for shaking. The use of reflexes is primarily during the first month of life. The primary circular reaction stage marks the replacement of reflexes with voluntary acts. The infant is in this stage from age 1 month to 4 months. The fourth sensorimotor stage is coordination of secondary schemata. This is a transitional stage in which increasing motor skills enable greater exploration of the environment.

A fully matured endometrium that has reached the thickness of heavy, soft velvet describes the _____ phase of the endometrial cycle. a. Menstrual b. Proliferative c. Secretory d. Ischemic

c. Secretory The secretory phase extends from the day of ovulation to approximately 3 days before the next menstrual cycle. During this phase, the endometrium becomes fully mature. During the menstrual phase, the endometrium is being shed; the endometrium is fully mature again during the secretory phase. The proliferative phase is a period of rapid growth, but the endometrium becomes fully mature again during the secretory phase. During the ischemic phase, the blood supply is blocked, and necrosis develops. The endometrium is fully mature during the secretory phase.

A pregnant woman who abuses cocaine admits to exchanging sex for her drug habit. This behavior places her at a greater risk for: a. Depression of the central nervous system b. Hypotension and vasodilation c. Sexually transmitted diseases d. Postmature birth

c. Sexually transmitted diseases Sex acts exchanged for drugs places the woman at increased risk for sexually transmitted diseases because of multiple partners and lack of protection. Cocaine is a central nervous system stimulant that causes hypertension and vasoconstriction. Premature delivery of the infant is one of the most common problems associated with cocaine use during pregnancy.

Which condition would not be classified as a bleeding disorder in late pregnancy? a. Placenta previa. b. Abruptio placentae. c. Spontaneous abortion d. Cord insertion.

c. Spontaneous abortion Spontaneous abortion is another name for miscarriage; by definition it occurs early in pregnancy. Placenta previa is a cause of bleeding disorders in later pregnancy. Abruptio placentae is a cause of bleeding disorders in later pregnancy. Cord insertion is a cause of bleeding disorders in later pregnancy.

The nurse is talking with a 10-year-old boy who wears bilateral hearing aids. The left hearing aid is making an annoying whistling sound that the child cannot hear. The most appropriate nursing action is to: a. Ignore the sound. b. Ask him to reverse the hearing aids in his ears. c. Suggest that he reinsert the hearing aid. d. Suggest that he raise the volume of the hearing aid.

c. Suggest that he reinsert the hearing aid. The whistling sound is acoustic feedback. The nurse should have the child remove the hearing aid and reinsert it, making sure that no hair is caught between the ear mold and the ear canal. Ignoring the sound and suggesting that he raise the volume of the hearing aid would be annoying to others. The hearing aids are molded specifically for each ear.

A woman will be taking oral contraceptives using a 28-day pack. The nurse should advise this woman to protect against pregnancy by: a. Limiting sexual contact for one cycle after starting the pill. b. Using condoms and foam instead of the pill for as long as she takes an antibiotic. c. Taking one pill at the same time every day. d. Throwing away the pack and using a backup method if she misses two pills during week 1 of her cycle.

c. Taking one pill at the same time every day. To maintain adequate hormone levels for contraception and to enhance compliance, clients should take oral contraceptives at the same time each day. If contraceptives are to be started at any time other than during normal menses or within 3 weeks after birth or abortion, another method of contraception should be used through the first week to prevent the risk of pregnancy. Taken exactly as directed, oral contraceptives prevent ovulation, and pregnancy cannot occur. No strong pharmacokinetic evidence indicates a link between the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics and altered hormone levels in oral contraceptive users. If the client misses two pills during week 1, she should take two pills a day for 2 days, finish the package, and use a backup method the next 7 consecutive days.

The school nurse is discussing testicular self-examination with adolescent boys. Why is this important? a. Epididymitis is common during adolescence. b. Asymptomatic sexually transmitted diseases may be present. c. Testicular tumors during adolescence are generally malignant. d. Testicular tumors, although usually benign, are common during adolescence.

c. Testicular tumors during adolescence are generally malignant. Tumors of the testes are not common, but when manifested in adolescence, they are generally malignant and demand immediate evaluation. Epididymitis is not common in adolescence. Asymptomatic sexually transmitted disease would not be evident during testicular self-examination. The focus of this examination is on testicular cancer. Testicular tumors are most commonly malignant.

Menstruation is periodic uterine bleeding: a. That occurs every 28 days. b. In which the entire uterine lining is shed. c. That is regulated by ovarian hormones. d. That leads to fertilization.

c. That is regulated by ovarian hormones. Menstruation is periodic uterine bleeding that is controlled by a feedback system involving three cycles: endometrial, hypothalamic-pituitary, and ovarian. The average length of a menstrual cycle is 28 days, but variations are normal. During the endometrial cycle, the functional two thirds of the endometrium is shed. Lack of fertilization leads to menstruation.

What should the nurse keep in mind when planning to communicate with a child who has autism? a. The child has normal verbal communication. b. The child is expected to use sign language. c. The child may exhibit monotone speech and echolalia. d. The child is not listening if she is not looking at the nurse.

c. The child may exhibit monotone speech and echolalia. Children with autism have abnormalities in the production of speech, such as a monotone voice or echolalia, or inappropriate volume, pitch, rate, rhythm, or intonation. The child has impaired verbal communication and abnormalities in the production of speech. Some autistic children may use sign language, but it is not assumed. Children with autism often are reluctant to initiate direct eye contact.

Using the family stress theory as an intervention approach for working with families experiencing parenting, the nurse can help the family change internal context factors. These include: a. Biologic and genetic makeup. b. Maturation of family members. c. The family's perception of the event. d. The prevailing cultural beliefs of society.

c. The family's perception of the event. The family stress theory is concerned with the family's reaction to stressful events; internal context factors include elements that a family can control such as psychologic defenses. It is not concerned with biologic and genetic makeup, maturation of family members, or the prevailing cultural beliefs of society.

When nurses help their expectant mothers assess the daily fetal movement counts, they should be aware that: a. Alcohol or cigarette smoke can irritate the fetus into greater activity. b. "Kick counts" should be taken every half hour and averaged every 6 hours, with every other 6-hour stretch off. c. The fetal alarm signal should go off when fetal movements stop entirely for 12 hours. d. Obese mothers familiar with their bodies can assess fetal movement as well as average-size women.

c. The fetal alarm signal should go off when fetal movements stop entirely for 12 hours. No movement in a 12-hour period is cause for investigation and possibly intervention. Alcohol and cigarette smoke temporarily reduce fetal movement. The mother should count fetal activity ("kick counts") two or three times daily for 60 minutes each time. Obese women have a harder time assessing fetal movement.

When nurses help their expectant mothers assess the daily fetal movement counts, they should be aware that: a. Alcohol or cigarette smoke can irritate the fetus into greater activity. b. "Kick counts" should be taken every half hour and averaged every 6 hours, with every other 6-hour stretch off. c. The fetal alarm signal should go off when fetal movements stop entirely for 12 hours. d. Obese mothers familiar with their bodies can assess fetal movement as well as average-size women.

c. The fetal alarm signal should go off when fetal movements stop entirely for 12 hours. No movement in a 12-hour period is cause for investigation and possibly intervention. Alcohol and cigarette smoke temporarily reduce fetal movement. The mother should count fetal activity ("kick counts") two or three times daily for 60 minutes each time. Obese women have a harder time assessing fetal movement.

A patient at 24 weeks of gestation says she has a glass of wine with dinner every evening. The nurse will counsel her to eliminate all alcohol intake because: a. A daily consumption of alcohol indicates a risk for alcoholism. b. She will be at risk for abusing other substances as well. c. The fetus is placed at risk for altered brain growth. d. The fetus is at risk for multiple organ anomalies.

c. The fetus is placed at risk for altered brain growth. There is no period during pregnancy when it is safe to consume alcohol. The documented effects of alcohol consumption during pregnancy include mental retardation, learning disabilities, high activity level, and short attention span. The brain grows most rapidly in the third trimester and is vulnerable to alcohol exposure during this time. Abuse of other substances has not been linked to alcohol use.

The nurse's care of a Hispanic family includes teaching about infant care. When developing a plan of care, the nurse bases interventions on the knowledge that in traditional Hispanic families: a. Breastfeeding is encouraged immediately after birth. b. Male infants typically are circumcised. c. The maternal grandmother participates in the care of the mother and her infant. d. Special herbs mixed in water are used to stimulate the passage of meconium.

c. The maternal grandmother participates in the care of the mother and her infant. In Hispanic families, the expectant mother is influenced strongly by her mother or mother-in-law. Breastfeeding often is delayed until the third postpartum day. Hispanic male infants usually are not circumcised. Olive or castor oil may be given to stimulate the passage of meconium.

Which statement regarding female sexual response is inaccurate? a. Women and men are more alike than different in their physiologic response to sexual arousal and orgasm. b. Vasocongestion is the congestion of blood vessels. c. The orgasmic phase is the final state of the sexual response cycle. d. Facial grimaces and spasms of hands and feet are often part of arousal.

c. The orgasmic phase is the final state of the sexual response cycle. The final state of the sexual response cycle is the resolution phase after orgasm. Men and women are surprisingly alike. Vasocongestion causes vaginal lubrication and engorgement of the genitals. Arousal is characterized by increased muscular tension (myotonia).

In providing anticipatory guidance to parents whose child will soon be entering kindergarten, which is a critical factor in preparing a child for kindergarten entry? a. The child's ability to sit still b. The child's sense of learned helplessness c. The parent's interactions and responsiveness to the child d. Attending a preschool program

c. The parent's interactions and responsiveness to the child Interactions between the parent and child are an important factor in the development of academic competence. Parental encouragement and support maximize a child's potential. The child's ability to sit still is important to learning; however, parental responsiveness and involvement are more important factors. Learned helplessness is the result of a child feeling that he or she has no effect on the environment and that his or her actions do not matter. Parents who are actively involved in a supportive learning environment will demonstrate a more positive approach to learning. Preschool and day care programs can supplement the developmental opportunities provided by parents at home, but they are not critical in preparing a child for entering kindergarten.

Identify the statement that is the most accurate about moral development in the 9-year-old school-age child. a. Right and wrong are based on physical consequences of behavior. b. The child obeys parents because of fear of punishment. c. The school-age child conforms to rules to please others. d. Parents are the determiners of right and wrong for the school-age child.

c. The school-age child conforms to rules to please others. The 7- to 12-year-old child bases right and wrong on a good-boy or good-girl orientation in which the child conforms to rules to please others and avoid disapproval. Children 4 to 7 years of age base right and wrong on consequences, the most important consideration for this age-group. Parents determine right and wrong for the child younger than 4 years of age.

The pediatric nurse understands that fragile X syndrome is: a. A chromosome defect affecting only females. b. A chromosome defect that follows the pattern of X-linked recessive disorders. c. The second most common genetic cause of cognitive impairment. d. The most common cause of noninherited cognitive impairment.

c. The second most common genetic cause of cognitive impairment. Fragile X syndrome is the most common inherited cause of cognitive impairment and the second most common genetic cause of cognitive impairment after Down syndrome. Fragile X primarily affects males and follows the pattern of X-linked dominant disorders with reduced penetrance.

With regard to amniocentesis, nurses should be aware that: a. Because of new imaging techniques, amniocentesis is now possible in the first trimester. b. Despite the use of ultrasound, complications still occur in the mother or infant in 5% to 10% of cases. c. The shake test, or bubble stability test, is a quick means of determining fetal maturity. d. The presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid is always cause for concern.

c. The shake test, or bubble stability test, is a quick means of determining fetal maturity. Diluted fluid is mixed with ethanol and shaken. After 15 minutes, the bubbles tell the story. Amniocentesis is possible after the fourteenth week of pregnancy when the uterus becomes an abdominal organ. Complications occur in less than 1% of cases; many have been minimized or eliminated through the use of ultrasound. Meconium in the amniotic fluid before the beginning of labor is not usually a problem.

What describes moral development in younger school-age children? a. The standards of behavior now come from within themselves. b. They do not yet experience a sense of guilt when they misbehave. c. They know the rules and behaviors expected of them but do not understand the reasons behind them. d. They no longer interpret accidents and misfortunes as punishment for misdeeds.

c. They know the rules and behaviors expected of them but do not understand the reasons behind them. Children who are ages 6 and 7 years know the rules and behaviors expected of them but do not understand the reasons for them. Young children do not believe that standards of behavior come from within themselves but that rules are established and set down by others. Younger school-age children learn standards for acceptable behavior, act according to these standards, and feel guilty when they violate them. Misfortunes and accidents are viewed as punishment for bad acts.

The parents of a 14-year-old girl express concerns about the number of hours their daughter spends with her friends. The nurse explains that peer relationships become more important during adolescence because: a. Adolescents dislike their parents. b. Adolescents no longer need parental control. c. They provide adolescents with a feeling of belonging. d. They promote a sense of individuality in adolescents.

c. They provide adolescents with a feeling of belonging. The peer group serves as a strong support to teenagers, providing them with a sense of belonging and strength and power. During adolescence, the parent-child relationship changes from one of protection-dependency to one of mutual affection and quality. Parents continue to play an important role in personal and health-related decisions. The peer group forms the transitional world between dependence and autonomy.

Although a 14-month-old girl received a shock from an electrical outlet recently, her parents find her about to place a paper clip in another outlet. The best interpretation of this behavior is that: a. Her cognitive development is delayed. b. This is typical behavior because toddlers are not very developed. c. This is typical behavior because of inability to transfer knowledge to new situations. d. This is not typical behavior because toddlers should know better than to repeat an act that caused pain.

c. This is typical behavior because of inability to transfer knowledge to new situations. During the tertiary circular reactions stage, children have only a rudimentary sense of the classification of objects. The appearance of an object denotes its function for these children. The slot of an outlet is for putting things into. Her cognitive development is appropriate for her age and represents typical behavior for a toddler. Only some awareness exists of a causal relation between events.

A woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of bleeding and cramping. The initial nursing history is significant for a last menstrual period 6 weeks ago. On sterile speculum examination, the primary care provider finds that the cervix is closed. The anticipated plan of care for this woman would be based on a probable diagnosis of which type of spontaneous abortion? a. Incomplete b. Inevitable c. Threatened d. Septic

c. Threatened A woman with a threatened abortion presents with spotting, mild cramps, and no cervical dilation. A woman with an incomplete abortion would present with heavy bleeding, mild to severe cramping, and cervical dilation. An inevitable abortion manifests with the same symptoms as an incomplete abortion: heavy bleeding, mild to severe cramping, and cervical dilation. A woman with a septic abortion presents with malodorous bleeding and typically a dilated cervix.

_____ use/abuse during pregnancy causes vasoconstriction and decreased placental perfusion, resulting in maternal and neonatal complications. a. Alcohol b. Caffeine c. Tobacco d. Chocolate

c. Tobacco Smoking in pregnancy is known to cause a decrease in placental perfusion and has serious health risks, including bleeding complications, low birth weight, prematurity, miscarriage, stillbirth, and sudden infant death syndrome. Prenatal alcohol exposure is the single greatest preventable cause of mental retardation. Alcohol use during pregnancy can cause high blood pressure, miscarriage, premature birth, stillbirth, and anemia. Caffeine and chocolate may safely be consumed in small quantities during pregnancy.

In the clinic waiting room, a nurse observes a parent showing an 18-month-old child how to make a tower out of blocks. In this situation the nurse should recognize that: a. Blocks at this age are used primarily for throwing. b. Toddlers are too young to imitate the behavior of others. c. Toddlers are capable of building a tower of blocks. d. Toddlers are too young to build a tower of blocks.

c. Toddlers are capable of building a tower of blocks. This is a good parent-child interaction. The 18-month-old is capable of building a tower of 3 or 4 blocks. The ability to build towers of blocks usually begins at age 15 months. With ongoing development, the child is able to build taller towers. At this age, children imitate others around them and no longer throw blocks.

Methotrexate is recommended as part of the treatment plan for which obstetric complication? a. Complete hydatidiform mole b. Missed abortion c. Unruptured ectopic pregnancy d. Abruptio placentae

c. Unruptured ectopic pregnancy Methotrexate is an effective, nonsurgical treatment option for a hemodynamically stable woman whose ectopic pregnancy is unruptured and less than 4 cm in diameter. Methotrexate is not indicated or recommended as a treatment option for complete hydatidiform mole, missed abortion, and abruptio placentae.

Nursing intervention for the pregnant diabetic patient is based on the knowledge that the need for insulin: a. Increases throughout pregnancy and the postpartum period. b. Decreases throughout pregnancy and the postpartum period. c. Varies depending on the stage of gestation. d. Should not change because the fetus produces its own insulin.

c. Varies depending on the stage of gestation. Insulin needs decrease during the first trimester, when nausea, vomiting, and anorexia are a factor. They increase during the second and third trimesters, when the hormones of pregnancy create insulin resistance in maternal cells. Insulin needs increase during the second and third trimesters, when the hormones of pregnancy create insulin resistance in maternal cells. The insulin needs change throughout the different stages of pregnancy.

Which teaching guideline helps prevent eye injuries during sports and play activities? a. Restrict helmet use to those who wear eyeglasses or contact lenses. b. Discourage the use of goggles with helmets. c. Wear eye protection when participating in high-risk sports such as paintball. d. Wear a face mask when playing any sport or playing roughly.

c. Wear eye protection when participating in high-risk sports such as paintball High-risk sports such as paintball can cause penetrating eye injuries. Eye protection should be worn. All children who participate in sports should be protected by the appropriate headgear. Goggles and helmets can and should be used concurrently. A face mask does not prevent damage to the child's head.

After a mastectomy a woman should be instructed to perform all of the following except: a. Emptying surgical drains twice a day and as needed. b. Avoiding lifting more than 4.5 kg (10 lb) or reaching above her head until given permission by her surgeon. c. Wearing clothing with snug sleeves to support the tissue of the arm on the operative side. d. Reporting immediately if inflammation develops at the incision site or in the affected arm.

c. Wearing clothing with snug sleeves to support the tissue of the arm on the operative side. The woman should not be advised to wear snug clothing. Rather, she should be advised to avoid tight clothing, tight jewelry, and other causes of decreased circulation in the affected arm. As part of the teaching plan, the woman should be instructed to empty surgical drains, to avoid lifting more than 10 lb or reaching above her head, and to report the development of incision site inflammation.

Which comment is most developmentally typical of a 7-year-old boy? a. "I am a Power Ranger, so don't make me angry." b. "I don't know whether I like Mary or Joan better." c. "My mom is my favorite person in the world." d. "Jimmy is my best friend."

d. "Jimmy is my best friend." School-age children form friendships with peers of the same sex, those who live nearby, and other children who have toys that they enjoy sharing. Magical thinking is developmentally appropriate for the preschooler. Opposite-sex friendships are not typical for the 7-year-old child. Seven-year-old children socialize with their peers, not their parents.

A man smokes two packs of cigarettes a day. He wants to know if smoking is contributing to the difficulty he and his wife are having getting pregnant. The nurse's most appropriate response is: a. "Your sperm count seems to be okay in the first semen analysis." b. "Only marijuana cigarettes affect sperm count." c. "Smoking can give you lung cancer, even though it has no effect on sperm." d. "Smoking can reduce the quality of your sperm."

d. "Smoking can reduce the quality of your sperm." Use of tobacco, alcohol, and marijuana may affect sperm counts. "Your sperm count seems to be okay in the first semen analysis" is inaccurate. Sperm counts vary from day to day and depend on emotional and physical status and sexual activity. A single analysis may be inconclusive. A minimum of two analyses must be performed several weeks apart to assess male fertility.

The parents of a newborn say that their toddler "hates the baby . . . he suggested that we put him in the trash can so the trash truck could take him away." The nurse's best reply is: a. "Let's see if we can figure out why he hates the new baby." b. "That's a strong statement to come from such a small boy." c. "Let's refer him to counseling to work this hatred out. It's not a normal response." d. "That is a normal response to the birth of a sibling. Let's look at ways to deal with this."

d. "That is a normal response to the birth of a sibling. Let's look at ways to deal with this." The arrival of a new infant represents a crisis for even the best-prepared toddler. Toddlers have their entire schedule and routines disrupted because of the new family member. The nurse should work with parents on ways to involve the toddler in the newborn's care and help focus attention on the toddler. The toddler does not hate the infant. This is an expected response to the changes in routines and attention that affect the toddler. This is a normal response. The toddler can be provided with a doll to tend to its needs when the parent is performing similar care for the newborn.

A woman currently uses a diaphragm and spermicide for contraception. She asks the nurse what the major differences are between the cervical cap and diaphragm. The nurse's most appropriate response is: a. "No spermicide is used with the cervical cap, so it's less messy." b. "The diaphragm can be left in place longer after intercourse." c. "Repeated intercourse with the diaphragm is more convenient." d. "The cervical cap can safely be used for repeated acts of intercourse without adding more spermicide later."

d. "The cervical cap can safely be used for repeated acts of intercourse without adding more spermicide later." The cervical cap can be inserted hours before sexual intercourse without the need for additional spermicide later. No additional spermicide is required for repeated acts of intercourse. Spermicide should be used inside the cap as an additional chemical barrier. The cervical cap should remain in place for 6 hours after the last act of intercourse. Repeated intercourse with the cervical cap is more convenient because no additional spermicide is needed.

A healthy 60-year-old African-American woman regularly receives her health care at the clinic in her neighborhood. She is due for a mammogram. At her previous clinic visit, her physician, concerned about the 3-week wait at the neighborhood clinic, made an appointment for her to have a mammogram at a teaching hospital across town. She did not keep her appointment and returned to the clinic today to have the nurse check her blood pressure. What would be the most appropriate statement for the nurse to make to this patient? a. "Do you have transportation to the teaching hospital so that you can get your mammogram?" b. "I'm concerned that you missed your appointment; let me make another one for you." c. "It's very dangerous to skip your mammograms; your breasts need to be checked." d. "Would you like me to make an appointment for you to have your mammogram here?"

d. "Would you like me to make an appointment for you to have your mammogram here?" This statement is nonjudgmental and gives the patient options as to where she may have her mammogram. Furthermore, it is an innocuous way to investigate the reasons the patient missed her previous appointment. African-American women often have the perception that they are treated with prejudice by health care providers. Questioning the potential lack of transportation may promote this perception. African-American women report not participating in early breast cancer screening because breast cancer comes by chance and getting it is determined by a higher power. Expressing concern and offering to schedule another appointment is a reflection of the nurse's beliefs, not those of the client. Suggesting that it is dangerous to skip a mammogram can be perceived as judgmental and derogatory. It may alienate and embarrass the patient.

A woman is using the basal body temperature (BBT) method of contraception. She calls the clinic and tells the nurse, "My period is due in a few days, and my temperature has not gone up." The nurse's most appropriate response is: a. "This probably means that you're pregnant." b. "Don't worry; it's probably nothing." c. "Have you been sick this month?" d. "You probably didn't ovulate during this cycle."

d. "You probably didn't ovulate during this cycle." The absence of a temperature decrease most likely is the result of lack of ovulation. Pregnancy cannot occur without ovulation (which is being measured using the BBT method). A comment such as "Don't worry; it's probably nothing" discredits the client's concerns. Illness would most likely cause an increase in BBT.

Since the gene for cystic fibrosis was identified in 1989, data can be collected for the purposes of genetic counseling for couples regarding carrier status. According to statistics, how often does cystic fibrosis occur in Caucasian live births? a. 1 in 100 b. 1 in 1200 c. 1 in 2500 d. 1 in 3000

d. 1 in 3000 Cystic fibrosis occurs in about 1 in 3000 Caucasian live births.

By what age should concerns about pubertal delay be considered in boys? a. 12 to 12.5 years b. 12.5 to 13 years c. 13 to 13.5 years d. 13.5 to 14 years

d. 13.5 to 14 years Concerns about pubertal delay should be considered for boys who exhibit no enlargement of the testes or scrotal changes by 13.5 to 14 years of age. Ages younger than 13.5 years are too young for initial concern.

By what age would the nurse expect that most children could understand prepositional phrases such as "under," "on top of," "beside," and "in back of"? a. 18 months b. 24 months c. 3 years d. 4 years

d. 4 years At 4 years, children can understand directional phrases. Children 18 to 24 months and 3 years of age are too young.

A woman with gestational diabetes has had little or no experience reading and interpreting glucose levels. She shows the nurse her readings for the past few days. Which one should the nurse tell her indicates a need for adjustment (insulin or sugar)? a. 75 mg/dL before lunch. This is low; better eat now. b. 115 mg/dL 1 hour after lunch. This is a little high; maybe eat a little less next time. c. 115 mg/dL 2 hours after lunch; This is too high; it is time for insulin. d. 60 mg/dL just after waking up from a nap. This is too low; maybe eat a snack before going to sleep.

d. 60 mg/dL just after waking up from a nap. This is too low; maybe eat a snack before going to sleep. 60 mg/dL after waking from a nap is too low. During hours of sleep glucose levels should not be less than 70 mg/dL. Snacks before sleeping can be helpful. The premeal acceptable range is 65 to 95 mg/dL. The readings 1 hour after a meal should be less than 140 mg/dL. Two hours after eating, the readings should be less than 120 mg/dL.

Your patient has been receiving magnesium sulfate for 20 hours for treatment of preeclampsia. She just delivered a viable infant girl 30 minutes ago. What uterine findings would you expect to observe/assess in this client? a. Absence of uterine bleeding in the postpartum period b. A fundus firm below the level of the umbilicus c. Scant lochia flow d. A boggy uterus with heavy lochia flow

d. A boggy uterus with heavy lochia flow Because of the tocolytic effects of magnesium sulfate, this patient most likely would have a boggy uterus with increased amounts of bleeding and a heavy lochia flow in the postpartum period.

A nurse practitioner performs a clinical breast examination on a woman diagnosed with fibroadenoma. The nurse knows that fibroadenoma is characterized by: a. Inflammation of the milk ducts and glands behind the nipples. b. Thick, sticky discharge from the nipple of the affected breast. c. Lumpiness in both breasts that develops 1 week before menstruation. d. A single lump in one breast that can be expected to shrink as the woman ages.

d. A single lump in one breast that can be expected to shrink as the woman ages. Fibroadenomas are characterized by discrete, usually solitary lumps smaller than 3 cm in diameter. Fibroadenomas increase in size during pregnancy and shrink as the woman ages. Inflammation of the milk ducts is associated with mammary duct ectasia, not fibroadenoma. A thick, sticky discharge is associated with galactorrhea, not fibroadenoma. Lumpiness before menstruation is associated with fibrocystic changes of the breast.

A mother tells the nurse that she doesn't want her infant immunized because of the discomfort associated with injections. The nurse should explain that: a. This cannot be prevented. b. Infants do not feel pain as adults do. c. This is not a good reason for refusing immunizations. d. A topical anesthetic, eutectic mixture of local anesthetic (EMLA), can be applied before injections are given.

d. A topical anesthetic, eutectic mixture of local anesthetic (EMLA), can be applied before injections are given. Several topical anesthetic agents can be used to minimize the discomfort associated with immunization injections. These include EMLA and vapor coolant sprays. Pain associated with many procedures can be prevented or minimized by using the principles of atraumatic care. With preparation, the injection site can be properly anesthetized to decrease the amount of pain felt by the infant. Infants have the neural pathways to sense pain. Numerous research studies have indicated that infants perceive and react to pain in the same manner as do children and adults. The mother should be allowed to discuss her concerns and the alternatives available. This is part of the informed consent process.

The psychosocial developmental tasks of toddlerhood include: a. Development of a conscience. b. Recognition of sex differences. c. Ability to get along with age mates. d. Ability to withstand delayed gratification.

d. Ability to withstand delayed gratification. If the need for basic trust has been satisfied, toddlers can give up dependence for control, independence, and autonomy. One of the tasks that the toddler is concerned with is the ability to withstand delayed gratification. Development of a conscience occurs during the preschool years. The recognition of sex differences occurs during the preschool years. The ability to get along with age mates develops during the preschool and school-age years.

The parents of a 3-month-old infant report that their infant sleeps supine (face up) but is often prone (face down) while awake. The nurse's response should be based on knowledge that this is: a. Unacceptable because of the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). b. Unacceptable because it does not encourage achievement of developmental milestones. c. Unacceptable to encourage fine motor development. d. Acceptable to encourage head control and turning over.

d. Acceptable to encourage head control and turning over. These parents are implementing the guidelines to reduce the risk of SIDS. Infants should sleep on their backs and then be placed on their abdomens when awake to enhance development of milestones such as head control. The face-down position while awake and positioning on the back for sleep are acceptable because they reduce risk of SIDS and allow achievement of developmental milestones. These position changes encourage gross motor, not fine motor, development.

A school nurse is teaching dental health practices to a group of sixth-grade children. How often should the nurse recommend the children brush their teeth? a. Twice a day b. Three times a day c. After meals d. After meals and snacks, and at bedtime

d. After meals and snacks, and at bedtime Teeth should be brushed after meals, after snacks, and at bedtime. Children who brush their teeth frequently and become accustomed to the feel of a clean mouth at an early age usually maintain the habit throughout life. Twice a day, three times a day, or only after meals would not be often enough.

Steve, 14 years old, mentions that he now has to use deodorant but never had to before. The nurse's response should be based on knowledge that: a. Eccrine sweat glands in the axillae become fully functional during puberty. b. Sebaceous glands become extremely active during puberty. c. New deposits of fatty tissue insulate the body and cause increased sweat production. d. Apocrine sweat glands reach secretory capacity during puberty.

d. Apocrine sweat glands reach secretory capacity during puberty. The apocrine sweat glands, nonfunctional in children, reach secretory capacity during puberty. They secrete a thick substance as a result of emotional stimulation that, when acted on by surface bacteria, becomes highly odoriferous. They are limited in distribution and grow in conjunction with hair follicles in the axillae, genital and anal areas, and other areas. Eccrine sweat glands are present almost everywhere on the skin and become fully functional and respond to emotional and thermal stimulation. Sebaceous glands become extremely active at this time, especially those on the genitals and the "flush" areas of the body, such as face, neck, shoulders, upper back, and chest. This increased activity is important in the development of acne. New deposits of fatty tissue insulate the body and cause increased sweat production, but this is not the etiology of apocrine sweat gland activity.

The nurse should be aware that during the childbearing experience an African-American woman is most likely to: a. Seek prenatal care early in her pregnancy. b. Avoid self-treatment of pregnancy-related discomfort. c. Request liver in the postpartum period to prevent anemia. d. Arrive at the hospital in advanced labor.

d. Arrive at the hospital in advanced labor. African-American women often arrive at the hospital in far-advanced labor. These women may view pregnancy as a state of wellness, which is often the reason for delay in seeking prenatal care. African-American women practice many self-treatment options for various discomforts of pregnancy, and they may request liver in the postpartum period, but this is based on a belief that the liver has a high blood content.

In girls, the initial indication of puberty is: a. Menarche. b. Growth spurt. c. Growth of pubic hair. d. Breast development.

d. Breast development. In most girls, the initial indication of puberty is the appearance of breast buds, an event known as the larche. The usual sequence of secondary sexual characteristic development in girls is breast changes, rapid increase in height and weight, growth of pubic hair, appearance of axillary hair, menstruation, and abrupt deceleration of linear growth.

Nafarelin is currently used as a treatment for mild-to-severe endometriosis. The nurse should tell a woman taking this medication that the drug: a. Stimulates the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), thereby stimulating ovarian activity. b. Should be sprayed into one nostril every other day. c. Should be injected into subcutaneous tissue BID. d. Can cause her to experience some hot flashes and vaginal dryness.

d. Can cause her to experience some hot flashes and vaginal dryness. Nafarelin is a GnRH agonist, and its side effects are similar to effects of menopause. The hypoestrogenism effect results in hot flashes and vaginal dryness. Nafarelin is a GnRH agonist that suppresses the secretion of GnRH and is administered twice daily by nasal spray.

Nurses should be aware that chronic hypertension: a. Is defined as hypertension that begins during pregnancy and lasts for the duration of pregnancy. b. Is considered severe when the systolic blood pressure (BP) is greater than 140 mm Hg or the diastolic BP is greater than 90 mm Hg. c. Is general hypertension plus proteinuria. d. Can occur independently of or simultaneously with gestational hypertension.

d. Can occur independently of or simultaneously with gestational hypertension. Hypertension is present before pregnancy or diagnosed before 20 weeks of gestation and persists longer than 6 weeks postpartum. The range for hypertension is systolic BP greater than 140 mm Hg or diastolic BP greater than 90 mm Hg. It becomes severe with a diastolic BP of 110 mm Hg or higher. Proteinuria is an excessive concentration of protein in the urine. It is a complication of hypertension, not a defining characteristic.

During a physical assessment of an at-risk client, the nurse notes generalized edema, crackles at the base of the lungs, and some pulse irregularity. These are most likely signs of: a. Euglycemia. b. Rheumatic fever. c. Pneumonia. d. Cardiac decompensation.

d. Cardiac decompensation. Symptoms of cardiac decompensation may appear abruptly or gradually. Euglycemia is a condition of normal glucose levels. These symptoms indicate cardiac decompensation. Rheumatic fever can cause heart problems, but it does not manifest with these symptoms, which indicate cardiac decompensation. Pneumonia is an inflammation of the lungs and would not likely generate these symptoms, which indicate cardiac decompensation.

The nurse providing care in a women's health care setting must be aware regarding which sexually transmitted infection that can be successfully treated and cured? a. Herpes b. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) c. Venereal warts d. Chlamydia

d. Chlamydia The usual treatment for infection by the bacterium Chlamydia is doxycycline or azithromycin. Concurrent treatment of all sexual partners is needed to prevent recurrence. There is no known cure for herpes, and treatment focuses on pain relief and preventing secondary infections. Because there is no known cure for AIDS, prevention and early detection are the primary focus of care management. Condylomata acuminata are caused by human papillomavirus. No treatment eradicates the virus.

A nurse is preparing a teaching session for parents on prevention of childhood hearing loss. The nurse should include that the most common cause of hearing impairment in children is: a. Auditory nerve damage. b. Congenital ear defects. c. Congenital rubella. d. Chronic otitis media.

d. Chronic otitis media. Chronic otitis media is the most common cause of hearing impairment in children. It is essential that appropriate measures be instituted to treat existing infections and prevent recurrences. Auditory nerve damage, congenital ear defects, and congenital rubella are rarer causes of hearing impairment.

As a powerful central nervous system stimulant, which of these substances can lead to miscarriage, preterm labor, placental separation (abruption), and stillbirth? a. Heroin b. Alcohol c. PCP d. Cocaine

d. Cocaine Cocaine is a powerful CNS stimulant. Effects on pregnancy associated with cocaine use include abruptio placentae, preterm labor, precipitous birth, and stillbirth. Heroin is an opiate. Its use in pregnancy is associated with preeclampsia, intrauterine growth restriction, miscarriage, premature rupture of membranes, infections, breech presentation, and preterm labor. The most serious effect of alcohol use in pregnancy is fetal alcohol syndrome. The major concerns regarding PCP use in pregnant women are its association with polydrug abuse and the neurobehavioral effects on the neonate.

In terms of fine motor development, what could the 3-year-old child be expected to do? a. Tie shoelaces. b. Use scissors or a pencil very well. c. Draw a person with seven to nine parts. d. Copy (draw) a circle.

d. Copy (draw) a circle. Three-year-olds are able to accomplish the fine motor skill of drawing a circle. Tying shoelaces, using scissors or a pencil very well, and drawing a person with multiple parts are fine motor skills of 5-year-old children.

The nurse must watch for what common complications in a patient who has undergone a transverse rectus abdominis myocutaneous (TRAM) flap? a. Axillary edema and tissue necrosis b. Delayed wound healing and muscle contractions c. Delayed wound healing and axillary edema d. Delayed wound healing and hematoma

d. Delayed wound healing and hematoma Postoperative care focuses on monitoring the skin flap for signs of decreased capillary refill, hematoma, infection, and necrosis. Axillary edema and muscle contractions are not common complications of TRAM flaps.

The nurse is discussing with a parent group the importance of fluoride for healthy teeth. The nurse should recommend that the parents: a. Use fluoridated mouth rinses in children older than 1 year. b. Have children brush teeth with fluoridated toothpaste unless fluoride content of water supply is adequate. c. Give fluoride supplements to breastfed infants beginning at age 1 month. d. Determine whether water supply is fluoridated.

d. Determine whether water supply is fluoridated. The decision about fluoride supplementation cannot be made until it is known whether the water supply contains fluoride and the amount. It is difficult to teach this age-group to spit out the mouthwash. Swallowing fluoridated mouthwashes can contribute to fluorosis. Fluoridated toothpaste is still indicated, but very small amounts are used. Fluoride supplementation is not recommended until after age 6 months.

In their role of implementing a plan of care for infertile couples, nurses should: a. Be comfortable with their sexuality and nonjudgmental about others to counsel their clients effectively. b. Know about such nonmedical remedies as diet, exercise, and stress management. c. Be able to direct clients to sources of information about what herbs to take that might help and which ones to avoid. d. Do all of the above plus be knowledgeable about potential drug and surgical remedies.

d. Do all of the above plus be knowledgeable about potential drug and surgical remedies. Nurses should be open to and ready to help with a variety of medical and nonmedical approaches.

When caring for a pregnant woman with cardiac problems, the nurse must be alert for signs and symptoms of cardiac decompensation, which include: a. A regular heart rate and hypertension. b. An increased urinary output, tachycardia, and dry cough. c. Shortness of breath, bradycardia, and hypertension. d. Dyspnea; crackles; and an irregular, weak pulse.

d. Dyspnea; crackles; and an irregular, weak pulse. Signs of cardiac decompensation include dyspnea; crackles; an irregular, weak, rapid pulse; rapid respirations; a moist, frequent cough; generalized edema; increasing fatigue; and cyanosis of the lips and nail beds. A regular heart rate and hypertension are not generally associated with cardiac decompensation. Tachycardia would indicate cardiac decompensation, but increased urinary output and a dry cough would not. Shortness of breath would indicate cardiac decompensation, but bradycardia and hypertension would not.

Austin, age 6 months, has six teeth. The nurse should recognize that this is: a. Normal tooth eruption. b. Delayed tooth eruption. c. Unusual and dangerous. d. Earlier-than-normal tooth eruption.

d. Earlier-than-normal tooth eruption. This is earlier than expected. Most infants at age 6 months have two teeth. Six teeth at 6 months is not delayed; it is early tooth eruption. Although unusual, it is not dangerous.

Which behavior is not normally demonstrated in the 8-year-old child? a. Understands that his or her point of view is not the only one b. Enjoys telling riddles and silly jokes c. Understands that pouring liquid from a small to a large container does not change the amount d. Engages in fantasy and magical thinking

d. Engages in fantasy and magical thinking The preschool child engages in fantasy and magical thinking. The school-age child moves away from this type of thinking and becomes more skeptical and logical. Belief in Santa Claus or the Easter Bunny ends in this period of development. School-age children enter the stage of concrete operations. They learn that their point of view is not the only one. The school-age child has a sense of humor. The child's increased language mastery and increased logic allow for appreciation of plays on words, jokes, and incongruities. The school-age child understands that properties of objects do not change when their order, form, or appearance does.

An adolescent teen has bulimia. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect? a. Diarrhea b. Amenorrhea c. Cold intolerance d. Erosion of tooth enamel

d. Erosion of tooth enamel Some of the signs of bulimia include erosion of tooth enamel, increased dental caries from vomited gastric acid, throat complaints, fluid and electrolyte disturbances, and abdominal complaints from laxative abuse. Diarrhea is not a result of the vomiting. It may occur in patients with bulimia who also abuse laxatives. Amenorrhea and cold intolerance are characteristics of anorexia nervosa, which some bulimics have. These symptoms are related to the extreme low weight.

The father of 12-year-old Ryan tells the nurse that he is concerned about his son getting "fat." Ryan's body mass index for age is at the 60th percentile. The most appropriate nursing action is to: a. Reassure the father that Ryan is not "fat." b. Reassure the father that Ryan is just a growing child. c. Suggest a low-calorie, low-fat diet. d. Explain that this is typical of the growth pattern of boys at this age.

d. Explain that this is typical of the growth pattern of boys at this age. This is a characteristic pattern of growth in preadolescent boys, in which the growth in height has slowed in preparation for the pubertal growth spurt but weight is still gained. This should be reviewed with both the father and Ryan, and a plan should be developed to maintain physical exercise and a balanced diet. Saying that Ryan is not "fat" is false reassurance. His weight is high for his height. Ryan needs to maintain his physical activity. The father is concerned; an explanation is required. A nutritional diet with physical activity should be sufficient to maintain his balance.

A woman arrives at the clinic seeking confirmation that she is pregnant. The following information is obtained: She is 24 years old with a body mass index (BMI) of 17.5. She admits to having used cocaine "several times" during the past year and drinks alcohol occasionally. Her blood pressure (BP) is 108/70 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 72 beats/min, and her respiratory rate is 16 breaths/min. The family history is positive for diabetes mellitus and cancer. Her sister recently gave birth to an infant with a neural tube defect (NTD). Which characteristics place the woman in a high risk category? a. Blood pressure, age, BMI b. Drug/alcohol use, age, family history c. Family history, blood pressure, BMI d. Family history, BMI, drug/alcohol abuse

d. Family history, BMI, drug/alcohol abuse Her family history of NTD, low BMI, and substance abuse all are high risk factors of pregnancy. The woman's BP is normal, and her age does not put her at risk. Her BMI is low and may indicate poor nutritional status, which would be a high risk. The woman's drug/alcohol use and family history put her in a high risk category, but her age does not. The woman's family history puts her in a high risk category. Her BMI is low and may indicate poor nutritional status, which would be high risk. Her BP is normal.

A woman arrives at the clinic seeking confirmation that she is pregnant. The following information is obtained: She is 24 years old with a body mass index (BMI) of 17.5. She admits to having used cocaine "several times" during the past year and drinks alcohol occasionally. Her blood pressure (BP) is 108/70 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 72 beats/min, and her respiratory rate is 16 breaths/min. The family history is positive for diabetes mellitus and cancer. Her sister recently gave birth to an infant with a neural tube defect (NTD). Which characteristics place the woman in a high risk category? a. Blood pressure, age, BMI b. Drug/alcohol use, age, family history c. Family history, blood pressure, BMI d. Family history, BMI, drug/alcohol abuse

d. Family history, BMI, drug/alcohol abuse Her family history of NTD, low BMI, and substance abuse all are high risk factors of pregnancy. The woman's BP is normal, and her age does not put her at risk. Her BMI is low and may indicate poor nutritional status, which would be a high risk. The woman's drug/alcohol use and family history put her in a high risk category, but her age does not. The woman's family history puts her in a high risk category. Her BMI is low and may indicate poor nutritional status, which would be high risk. Her BP is normal.

Although remarkable developments have occurred in reproductive medicine, assisted reproductive therapies are associated with numerous legal and ethical issues. Nurses can provide accurate information about the risks and benefits of treatment alternatives so couples can make informed decisions about their choice of treatment. Which issue would not need to be addressed by an infertile couple before treatment? a. Risks of multiple gestation b. Whether or how to disclose the facts of conception to offspring c. Freezing embryos for later use d. Financial ability to cover the cost of treatment

d. Financial ability to cover the cost of treatment Although the method of payment is important, obtaining this information is not the responsibility of the nurse. Many states have mandated some form of insurance to assist couples with coverage for infertility. Risk of multiple gestation is a risk of treatment of which the couple needs to be aware. To minimize the chance of multiple gestation, generally only three or fewer embryos are transferred. The couple should be informed that there may be a need for multifetal reduction. Nurses can provide anticipatory guidance on this matter. Depending on the therapy chosen, there may be a need for donor oocytes, sperm, embryos, or a surrogate mother. Couples who have excess embryos frozen for later transfer must be fully informed before consenting to the procedure. A decision must be made regarding the disposal of embryos in the event of death or divorce or if the couple no longer wants the embryos at a future time.

Which is the most appropriate action when an infant becomes apneic? a. Shake vigorously. b. Roll head side to side. c. Hold by feet upside down with head supported. d. Gently stimulate trunk by patting or rubbing.

d. Gently stimulate trunk by patting or rubbing. If the infant is apneic, the infant's trunk should be gently stimulated by patting or rubbing. If the infant is prone, turn onto the back. The infant should not be shaken vigorously, have the head rolled side to side, or be held by the feet upside down with the head supported. These actions can cause injury.

When planning care for adolescents, the nurse should: a. Teach parents first, and they, in turn, will teach the teenager. b. Provide information for their long-term health needs because teenagers respond best to long-range planning. c. Maintain the parents' role by providing explanations for treatment and procedures to the parents only. d. Give information privately to adolescents about how they can manage the specific problems that they identify.

d. Give information privately to adolescents about how they can manage the specific problems that they identify. Problems that teenagers identify and are interested in are typically the problems that they are the most willing to address. Confidentiality is important to adolescents. Adolescents prefer to confer privately (without parents) with the nurse and health care provider. Teenagers are socially and cognitively at the developmental stage where the health care provider can teach them. The nurse must keep in mind that teenagers are more interested in immediate health care needs than in long-term needs.

Which is the causative agent of scarlet fever? a. Enteroviruses b. Corynebacterium organisms c. Scarlet fever virus d. Group A b-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS)

d. Group A b-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS) GABHS infection causes scarlet fever. Enteroviruses do not cause the same complications. Corynebacterium organisms cause diphtheria. Scarlet fever is not caused by a virus.

Informed consent concerning contraceptive use is important because some of the methods: a. Are invasive procedures that require hospitalization b. Require a surgical procedure to insert c. May not be reliable d. Have potentially dangerous side effects

d. Have potentially dangerous side effects To make an informed decision about the use of contraceptives, it is important for couples to be aware of potential side effects. The only contraceptive method that is a surgical procedure and requires hospitalization is sterilization. Some methods have greater efficacy than others, and this should be included in the teaching.

What describes the cognitive abilities of school-age children? a. Have developed the ability to reason abstractly b. Become capable of scientific reasoning and formal logic c. Progress from making judgments based on what they reason to making judgments based on what they see d. Have the ability to classify, group and sort, and hold a concept in their minds while making decisions based on that concept

d. Have the ability to classify, group and sort, and hold a concept in their minds while making decisions based on that concept In Piaget's stage of concrete operations, children have the ability to group and sort and make conceptual decisions. Children cannot reason abstractly until late adolescence. Scientific reasoning and formal logic are skills of adolescents. Making judgments on what the child sees versus what he or she reasons is not a developmental skill.

As part of their participation in the gynecologic portion of the physical examination, nurses should: a. Take a firm approach that encourages the client to facilitate the examination by following the physician's instructions exactly. b. Explain the procedure as it unfolds and continue to question the client to get information in a timely manner. c. Take the opportunity to explain that the trendy vulvar self-examination is only for women at risk for cancer. d. Help the woman relax through proper placement of her hands and proper breathing during the examination.

d. Help the woman relax through proper placement of her hands and proper breathing during the examination. Breathing techniques are important relaxation techniques that can help the client during the examination. The nurse should encourage the patient to participate in an active partnership with the care provider. Explanations during the procedure are fine, but many women are uncomfortable answering questions in the exposed and awkward position of the examination. Vulvar self-examination on a regular basis should be encouraged and taught during the examination.

A 32-year-old primigravida is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that: a. Bed rest and analgesics are the recommended treatment. b. She will be unable to conceive in the future. c. A D&C will be performed to remove the products of conception. d. Hemorrhage is the major concern.

d. Hemorrhage is the major concern. Severe bleeding occurs if the fallopian tube ruptures. The recommended treatment is to remove the pregnancy before rupture in order to prevent hemorrhaging. If the tube must be removed, the woman's fertility will decrease; however, she will not be infertile. D&C is performed on the inside of the uterine cavity. The ectopic pregnancy is located within the tubes.

The parents of a 12-month-old child ask the nurse if the child can eat hot dogs. The nurse's reply should be based on knowing that: a. The child is too young to digest hot dogs. b. The child is too young to eat hot dogs safely. c. Hot dogs must be sliced into sections to prevent aspiration. d. Hot dogs must be cut into small, irregular pieces to prevent aspiration.

d. Hot dogs must be cut into small, irregular pieces to prevent aspiration. Hot dogs are of a consistency, diameter, and round shape that may cause complete obstruction of the child's airway. If given to young children, the hot dog should be cut into small irregular pieces rather than served whole or in slices. The child's digestive system is mature enough to digest hot dogs. To eat the hot dog safely, the child should be sitting down, and the hot dog should be appropriately cut into irregularly shaped pieces.

The stimulated release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone is part of the: a. Menstrual cycle. b. Endometrial cycle. c. Ovarian cycle. d. Hypothalamic-pituitary cycle.

d. Hypothalamic-pituitary cycle. The menstrual, endometrial, and ovarian cycles are interconnected. However, the cyclic release of hormones is the function of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands.

As related to the care of the patient with miscarriage, nurses should be aware that: a. It is a natural pregnancy loss before labor begins. b. It occurs in fewer than 5% of all clinically recognized pregnancies. c. It often can be attributed to careless maternal behavior such as poor nutrition or excessive exercise. d. If it occurs before the twelfth week of pregnancy, it may manifest only as moderate discomfort and blood loss.

d. If it occurs before the twelfth week of pregnancy, it may manifest only as moderate discomfort and blood loss. Before the sixth week the only evidence may be a heavy menstrual flow. After the twelfth week more severe pain, similar to that of labor, is likely. Miscarriage is a natural pregnancy loss, but by definition it occurs before 20 weeks of gestation, before the fetus is viable. Miscarriages occur in approximately 10% to 15% of all clinically recognized pregnancies. Miscarriage can be caused by a number of disorders or illnesses outside of the mother's control or knowledge.

Which is probably the most important criterion on which to base the decision to report suspected child abuse? a. Inappropriate parental concern for the degree of injury b. Absence of parents for questioning about child's injuries c. Inappropriate response of child d. Incompatibility between the history and injury observed

d. Incompatibility between the history and injury observed Conflicting stories about the "accident" are the most indicative red flags of abuse. Inappropriate response of caregiver or child may be present, but is subjective. Parents should be questioned at some point during the investigation.

While working in the prenatal clinic, you care for a very diverse group of patients. When planning interventions for these families, you realize that acceptance of the interventions will be most influenced by: a. Educational achievement. b. Income level. c. Subcultural group. d. Individual beliefs.

d. Individual beliefs The patient's beliefs are ultimately the key to acceptance of health care interventions. However, these beliefs may be influenced by factors such as educational level, income level, and ethnic background. Educational achievement, income level, and subcultural group all are important factors. However, the nurse must understand that a woman's concerns from her own point of view will have the most influence on her compliance.

A 2-year-old girl has excessive tearing and corneal haziness. The nurse knows that these symptoms may indicate: a. Viral conjunctivitis. b. Paralytic strabismus. c. Congenital cataract. d. Infantile glaucoma.

d. Infantile glaucoma. Excessive tearing and corneal haziness are indicative of glaucoma. Because the child is younger than 3 years of age, it would be classified as "infantile." Discharge is noted with conjunctivitis. Corneal haziness is not a symptom of conjunctivitis. Paralytic strabismus is caused by weakness or paralysis of one or more of the extraocular muscles. Neither tearing nor corneal haziness is a symptom of paralytic strabismus. Congenital cataract will present as an opacity, but not excessive tearing.

The most dangerous effect on the fetus of a mother who smokes cigarettes while pregnant is: a. Genetic changes and anomalies b. Extensive central nervous system damage c. Fetal addiction to the substance inhaled d. Intrauterine growth restriction

d. Intrauterine growth restriction The major consequences of smoking tobacco during pregnancy are low-birth-weight infants, prematurity, and increased perinatal loss. Cigarettes normally will not cause genetic changes or extensive central nervous system damage. Addiction to tobacco is not a usual concern related to the neonate.

Which statement is true about the term contraceptive failure rate? a. It refers to the percentage of users expected to have an accidental pregnancy over a 5-year span. b. It refers to the minimum level that must be achieved to receive a government license. c. It increases over time as couples become more careless. d. It varies from couple to couple, depending on the method and the users.

d. It varies from couple to couple, depending on the method and the users. Contraceptive effectiveness varies from couple to couple, depending on how well a contraceptive method is used and how well it suits the couple. The contraceptive failure rate measures the likelihood of accidental pregnancy in the first year only. Failure rates decline over time because users gain experience.

Which symptoms should the nurse expect to observe during the physical assessment of an adolescent girl with severe weight loss and disrupted metabolism associated with anorexia nervosa? a. Dysmenorrhea and oliguria b. Tachycardia and tachypnea c. Heat intolerance and increased blood pressure d. Lowered body temperature and brittle nails

d. Lowered body temperature and brittle nails Symptoms of anorexia nervosa include lower body temperature, severe weight loss, decreased blood pressure, dry skin, brittle nails, altered metabolic activity, and presence of lanugo hair. Amenorrhea, rather than dysmenorrhea, and cold intolerance are manifestations of anorexia nervosa. Bradycardia, rather than tachycardia, may be present.

Nurses should be aware of the strengths and limitations of various biochemical assessments during pregnancy, including that: a. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is becoming more popular because it provides early diagnosis. b. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is recommended only for women at risk for neural tube defects. c. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) is one of the triple-marker tests for Down syndrome. d. MSAFP is a screening tool only; it identifies candidates for more definitive procedures.

d. MSAFP is a screening tool only; it identifies candidates for more definitive procedures MSAFP is a screening tool, not a diagnostic tool. CVS provides a rapid result, but it is declining in popularity because of advances in noninvasive screening techniques. MSAFP screening is recommended for all pregnant women. MSAFP screening, not PUBS, is part of the triple-marker tests for Down syndrome.

Nurses should be aware of the strengths and limitations of various biochemical assessments during pregnancy, including that: a. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is becoming more popular because it provides early diagnosis. b. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is recommended only for women at risk for neural tube defects. c. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) is one of the triple-marker tests for Down syndrome. d. MSAFP is a screening tool only; it identifies candidates for more definitive procedures.

d. MSAFP is a screening tool only; it identifies candidates for more definitive procedures MSAFP is a screening tool, not a diagnostic tool. CVS provides a rapid result, but it is declining in popularity because of advances in noninvasive screening techniques. MSAFP screening is recommended for all pregnant women. MSAFP screening, not PUBS, is part of the triple-marker tests for Down syndrome.

An important nursing responsibility when dealing with a family experiencing the loss of an infant from sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is to: a. Explain how SIDS could have been predicted and prevented. b. Interview parents in depth concerning the circumstances surrounding the infant's death. c. Discourage parents from making a last visit with the infant. d. Make a follow-up home visit to parents as soon as possible after the infant's death.

d. Make a follow-up home visit to parents as soon as possible after the infant's death. A competent, qualified professional should visit the family at home as soon as possible after the death and provide the family with printed information about SIDS. An explanation of how SIDS could have been predicted and prevented is inappropriate. SIDS cannot be prevented or predicted. Discussions about the cause will only increase parental guilt. The parents should be asked only factual questions to determine the cause of death. Parents should be allowed and encouraged to make a last visit with their infant.

A placenta previa in which the placental edge just reaches the internal os is more commonly known as: a. Total b. Partial c. Complete d. Marginal

d. Marginal A placenta previa that does not cover any part of the cervix is termed marginal. With a total placenta previa, the placenta completely covers the os. When the patient experiences a partial placenta previa, the lower border of the placenta is within 3 cm of the internal cervical os but does not completely cover the os. A complete placenta previa is termed total. The placenta completely covers the internal cervical os.

What form of heart disease in women of childbearing years usually has a benign effect on pregnancy? a. Cardiomyopathy b. Rheumatic heart disease c. Congenital heart disease d. Mitral valve prolapse

d. Mitral valve prolapse Mitral valve prolapse is a benign condition that is usually asymptomatic. Cardiomyopathy produces congestive heart failure during pregnancy. Rheumatic heart disease can lead to heart failure during pregnancy. Some congenital heart diseases produce pulmonary hypertension or endocarditis during pregnancy.

A parent asks the nurse whether her infant is susceptible to pertussis. The nurse's response should be based on which statement concerning susceptibility to pertussis? a. Neonates will be immune the first few months. b. If the mother has had the disease, the infant will receive passive immunity. c. Children younger than 1 year seldom contract this disease. d. Most children are highly susceptible from birth.

d. Most children are highly susceptible from birth. The acellular pertussis vaccine is recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics beginning at age 6 weeks. Infants are at greater risk for complications of pertussis. The vaccine is not given after age 7 years, when the risks of the vaccine become greater than those of pertussis. The infant is highly susceptible to pertussis, which can be a life-threatening illness in this age-group.

The most common cause of death in the adolescent age-group involves: a. Drownings. b. Firearms. c. Drug overdoses. d. Motor vehicles.

d. Motor vehicles. The leading cause of all adolescent deaths in the United States is motor vehicle accidents. Drownings, firearms, and drug overdoses are major concerns in adolescence but do not cause the majority of deaths.

An adolescent male visits his primary care provider complaining of difficulty with his vision. When the nurse asks the adolescent to explain what visual deficits he is experiencing, the adolescent states, "I am having difficulty seeing distant objects; they are less clear than things that are close." What disorder does the nurse suspect the adolescent has? a. Hyphema b. Astigmatism c. Amblyopia d. Myopia

d. Myopia Myopic patients have the ability to see near objects more clearly than those at a distance; it is caused by the image focusing beyond the retina. Hyphema includes hemorrhage in the anterior chamber and is not a refractive disorder. Astigmatism is caused by an abnormal curvature of the cornea or lens. Amblyopia is a problem of reduced visual acuity not correctable by refraction.

An adolescent gets hit in the eye during a fight. The school nurse, using a flashlight, notes the presence of gross hyphema (hemorrhage into anterior chamber). The nurse should: a. Apply a Fox shield. b. Instruct the adolescent to apply ice for 24 hours. c. Have adolescent rest with eye closed and ice applied. d. Notify parents that adolescent needs to see an ophthalmologist.

d. Notify parents that adolescent needs to see an ophthalmologist. The parents should be notified that the adolescent must see an ophthalmologist as soon as possible. Applying a Fox shield, instructing the adolescent to apply ice for 24 hours, and having the adolescent rest with the eye closed and ice applied may cause further damage.

The two primary functions of the ovary are: a. Normal female development and sex hormone release. b. Ovulation and internal pelvic support. c. Sexual response and ovulation. d. Ovulation and hormone production.

d. Ovulation and hormone production The two functions of the ovaries are ovulation and hormone production. The presence of ovaries does not guarantee normal female development. The ovaries produce estrogen, progesterone, and androgen. Ovulation is the release of a mature ovum from the ovary; the ovaries are not responsible for internal pelvic support. Sexual response is a feedback mechanism involving the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary gland, and the ovaries. Ovulation does occur in the ovaries.

With regard to dysmenorrhea, nurses should be aware that: a. It is more common in older women. b. It is more common in leaner women who exercise strenuously. c. Symptoms can begin at any point in the ovulatory cycle. d. Pain usually occurs in the suprapubic area or lower abdomen.

d. Pain usually occurs in the suprapubic area or lower abdomen Pain is described as sharp and cramping or sometimes as a dull ache. It may radiate to the lower back or upper thighs. Dysmenorrhea is more common in women 17 to 24 years old, women who smoke, and women who are obese. Symptoms begin with menstruation or sometimes a few hours before the onset of flow.

A woman at 39 weeks of gestation with a history of preeclampsia is admitted to the labor and birth unit. She suddenly experiences increased contraction frequency of every 1 to 2 minutes; dark red vaginal bleeding; and a tense, painful abdomen. The nurse suspects the onset of: a. Eclamptic seizure. b. Rupture of the uterus. c. Placenta previa. d. Placental abruption.

d. Placental abruption. Uterine tenderness in the presence of increasing tone may be the earliest finding of premature separation of the placenta (abruptio placentae or placental abruption). Women with hypertension are at increased risk for an abruption. Eclamptic seizures are evidenced by the presence of generalized tonic-clonic convulsions. Uterine rupture manifests as hypotonic uterine activity, signs of hypovolemia, and in many cases the absence of pain. Placenta previa manifests with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding.

Glucose metabolism is profoundly affected during pregnancy because: a. Pancreatic function in the islets of Langerhans is affected by pregnancy. b. The pregnant woman uses glucose at a more rapid rate than the nonpregnant woman. c. The pregnant woman increases her dietary intake significantly. d. Placental hormones are antagonistic to insulin, thus resulting in insulin resistance.

d. Placental hormones are antagonistic to insulin, thus resulting in insulin resistance. Placental hormones, estrogen, progesterone, and human placental lactogen (HPL) create insulin resistance. Insulin also is broken down more quickly by the enzyme placental insulinase. Pancreatic functioning is not affected by pregnancy. The glucose requirements differ because of the growing fetus. The pregnant woman should increase her intake by 200 calories a day.

The hormone responsible for maturation of mammary gland tissue is: a. Estrogen. b. Testosterone. c. Prolactin. d. Progesterone.

d. Progesterone. Progesterone causes maturation of the mammary gland tissue, specifically acinar structures of the lobules. Estrogen increases the vascularity of the breast tissue. Testosterone has no bearing on breast development. Prolactin is produced after birth and released from the pituitary gland. It is produced in response to infant suckling and emptying of the breasts.

When attempting to communicate with a patient who speaks a different language, the nurse should: a. Respond promptly and positively to project authority. b. Never use a family member as an interpreter. c. Talk to the interpreter to avoid confusing the patient. d. Provide as much privacy as possible.

d. Provide as much privacy as possible. Providing privacy creates an atmosphere of respect and puts the patient at ease. The nurse should not rush to judgment and should make sure that he or she understands the patient's message clearly. In crisis situations, the nurse may need to use a family member or neighbor as a translator. The nurse should talk directly to the patient to create an atmosphere of respect.

The role of the peer group in the life of school-age children is that it: a. Gives them an opportunity to learn dominance and hostility. b. Allows them to remain dependent on their parents for a longer time. c. Decreases their need to learn appropriate sex roles. d. Provides them with security as they gain independence from their parents.

d. Provides them with security as they gain independence from their parents. Peer-group identification is an important factor in gaining independence from parents. Through peer relationships, children learn ways to deal with dominance and hostility. They also learn how to relate to people in positions of leadership and authority and explore ideas and the physical environment. Peer-group identification helps in gaining independence rather than remaining dependent. A child's concept of appropriate sex roles is influenced by relationships with peers.

The nurse recognizes that a nonstress test (NST) in which two or more fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations of 15 beats/min or more occur with fetal movement in a 20-minute period is: a. Nonreactive b. Positive c. Negative d. Reactive

d. Reactive The NST is reactive (normal) when two or more FHR accelerations of at least 15 beats/min (each with a duration of at least 15 seconds) occur in a 20-minute period. A nonreactive result means that the heart rate did not accelerate during fetal movement. A positive result is not used with NST. Contraction stress test (CST) uses positive as a result term. A negative result is not used with NST. CST uses negative as a result term.

The nurse recognizes that a nonstress test (NST) in which two or more fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations of 15 beats/min or more occur with fetal movement in a 20-minute period is: a. Nonreactive b. Positive c. Negative d. Reactive

d. Reactive The NST is reactive (normal) when two or more FHR accelerations of at least 15 beats/min (each with a duration of at least 15 seconds) occur in a 20-minute period. A nonreactive result means that the heart rate did not accelerate during fetal movement. A positive result is not used with NST. Contraction stress test (CST) uses positive as a result term. A negative result is not used with NST. CST uses negative as a result term.

A parent asks the nurse about how to respond to negativism in toddlers. The most appropriate recommendation is to: a. Punish the child. b. Provide more attention. c. Ask child not always to say "no." d. Reduce the opportunities for a "no" answer.

d. Reduce the opportunities for a "no" answer. The nurse should suggest to the parent that questions should be phrased with realistic choices rather than "yes" or "no" answers. This provides a sense of control for the toddler and reduces the opportunity for negativism. Negativism is not an indication of stubbornness or insolence and should not be punished. The negativism is not a function of attention; the child is testing limits to gain an understanding of the world. The toddler is too young to be asked to not always say "no."

The long-term treatment plan for an adolescent with an eating disorder focuses on: a. Managing the effects of malnutrition. b. Establishing sufficient caloric intake. c. Improving family dynamics. d. Restructuring perception of body image.

d. Restructuring perception of body image. The treatment of eating disorders is initially focused on reestablishing physiologic homeostasis. Once body systems are stabilized, the next goal of treatment for eating disorders is maintaining adequate caloric intake. Although family therapy is indicated when dysfunctional family relationships exist, the primary focus of therapy for eating disorders is to help the adolescent cope with complex issues. The focus of treatment in individual therapy for an eating disorder involves restructuring cognitive perceptions about the individual's body image.

Anorexia nervosa may best be described as: a. Occurring most frequently in adolescent males. b. Occurring most frequently in adolescents from lower socioeconomic groups. c. Resulting from a posterior pituitary disorder. d. Resulting in severe weight loss in the absence of obvious physical causes.

d. Resulting in severe weight loss in the absence of obvious physical causes. The etiology of anorexia remains unclear, but a distinct psychologic component is present. The diagnosis is based primarily on psychologic and behavioral criteria. Anorexia nervosa is observed more commonly in adolescent girls and young women. It does not occur most frequently in adolescents from a lower socioeconomic group. In reality, anorexic adolescents are often from families of means who have high parental expectations for achievement. Anorexia is a psychiatric disorder.

The two primary areas of risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are: a. Sexual orientation and socioeconomic status. b. Age and educational level. c. Large number of sexual partners and race. d. Risky sexual behaviors and inadequate preventive health behaviors.

d. Risky sexual behaviors and inadequate preventive health behaviors. Risky sexual behaviors and inadequate preventive health behaviors put a person at risk for acquiring or transmitting an STI. Although low socioeconomic status may be a factor in avoiding purchasing barrier protection, sexual orientation does not put one at higher risk. Younger individuals and individuals with less education may be unaware of proper prevention techniques; however, these are not the primary areas of risk for STIs. Having a large number of sexual partners is a risk-taking behavior, but race does not increase the risk for STIs.

A father tells the nurse that his daughter wants the same plate and cup used at every meal, even if they go to a restaurant. The nurse should explain that this is: a. A sign that the child is spoiled. b. A way to exert unhealthy control. c. Regression, common at this age. d. Ritualism, common at this age.

d. Ritualism, common at this age. The child is exhibiting the ritualism that is characteristic at this age. Ritualism is the need to maintain sameness and reliability. It provides a sense of comfort to the toddler. It will dictate certain principles in feeding practices, including rejecting a favorite food because it is served in a different container. This does not indicate a child who has unreasonable expectations or a need to exert control, but rather normal development. Toddlers use ritualistic behaviors to maintain necessary structure in their lives. This is not regression, which is a retreat from a present pattern of functioning.

Which common childhood communicable disease may cause severe defects in the fetus when it occurs in its congenital form? a. Erythema infectiosum b. Roseola c. Rubeola d. Rubella

d. Rubella Rubella causes teratogenic effects on the fetus. There is a low risk of fetal death to those in contact with children affected with fifth disease. Roseola and rubeola are not dangerous to the fetus.

The school nurse has been asked to begin teaching sex education in the 5th grade. The nurse should recognize that: a. Children in 5th grade are too young for sex education. b. Children should be discouraged from asking too many questions. c. Correct terminology should be reserved for children who are older. d. Sex can be presented as a normal part of growth and development.

d. Sex can be presented as a normal part of growth and development. When sex information is presented to school-age children, sex should be treated as a normal part of growth and development. Fifth graders are usually 10 to 11 years old. This age is not too young to speak about physiologic changes in their bodies. They should be encouraged to ask questions. Preadolescents need precise and concrete information.

Which factor is most important in predisposing toddlers to frequent infections such as otitis media, tonsillitis, and upper respiratory tract infections? a. Respirations are abdominal. b. Pulse and respiratory rates are slower than those in infancy. c. Defense mechanisms are less efficient than those during infancy. d. Short, straight internal ear/throat structures and large tonsil/adenoid lymph tissue are present.

d. Short, straight internal ear/throat structures and large tonsil/adenoid lymph tissue are present. Toddlers continue to have the short, straight internal ear canal of infants. The lymphoid tissue of the tonsils and adenoids continues to be relatively large. These two anatomic conditions combine to predispose the toddler to frequent infections. The abdominal respirations and lowered pulse and respiratory rate of toddlers do not affect their susceptibility to infection. The defense mechanisms are more efficient compared with those of infancy.

In what form do families tend to be most socially vulnerable? a. Married-blended family b. Extended family c. Nuclear family d. Single-parent family

d. Single-parent family The single-parent family tends to be vulnerable economically and socially, creating an unstable and deprived environment for the growth potential of children. The married-blended family, the extended family, and the nuclear family are not the most socially vulnerable.

A woman with preeclampsia has a seizure. The nurse's primary duty during the seizure is to: a. Insert an oral airway. b. Suction the mouth to prevent aspiration. c. Administer oxygen by mask. d. Stay with the client and call for help.

d. Stay with the client and call for help. If a client becomes eclamptic, the nurse should stay her and call for help. Insertion of an oral airway during seizure activity is no longer the standard of care. The nurse should attempt to keep the airway patent by turning the client's head to the side to prevent aspiration. Once the seizure has ended, it may be necessary to suction the client's mouth. Oxygen would be administered after the convulsion has ended.

Which characteristic best describes the language of a 3-year-old child? a. Asks meanings of words b. Follows directional commands c. Can describe an object according to its composition d. Talks incessantly, regardless of whether anyone is listening

d. Talks incessantly, regardless of whether anyone is listening Because of the dramatic vocabulary increase at this age, 3-year-olds are known to talk incessantly, regardless of whether anyone is listening. A 4- to 5-year-old asks lots of questions and can follow simple directional commands. A 6-year-old can describe an object according to its composition.

The nurse is guiding parents in selecting a day care facility for their child. When making the selection, it is especially important to consider: a. Structured learning environment. b. Socioeconomic status of children. c. Cultural similarities of children. d. Teachers knowledgeable about development.

d. Teachers knowledgeable about development. A teacher knowledgeable about development will structure activities for learning. A structured learning environment is not necessary at this age. Socioeconomic status is not the most important factor in selecting a preschool. Preschool is about expanding experiences with others; cultural similarities are not necessary.

The nurse is planning care for a 17-month-old child. According to Piaget, in what stage would the nurse expect the child to be? a. Trust b. Preoperations c. Secondary circular reaction d. Tertiary circular reaction

d. Tertiary circular reaction The 17-month-old is in the fifth stage of the sensorimotor phase: tertiary circular reactions. The child uses active experimentation to achieve previously unattainable goals. Trust is Erikson's first stage. Preoperations is the stage of cognitive development, usually present in older toddlers and preschoolers. Secondary circular reactions last from about ages 4 to 8 months.

An adolescent boy tells the nurse that he has recently had homosexual feelings. The nurse's response should be based on knowledge that: a. This indicates that the adolescent is homosexual. b. This indicates that the adolescent will become homosexual as an adult. c. The adolescent should be referred for psychotherapy. d. The adolescent should be encouraged to share his feelings and experiences.

d. The adolescent should be encouraged to share his feelings and experiences. These adolescents are at increased risk for health-damaging behaviors, not because of the sexual behavior itself, but because of society's reaction to the behavior. The nurse's first priority is to give the young man permission to discuss his feelings about this topic, knowing that the nurse will maintain confidentially, appreciate his feelings, and remain sensitive to his need to talk it. In recent studies among self-identified gay, lesbian, and bisexual adolescents, many of the adolescents report changing their self-labels one or more times during their adolescence.

With regard to the noncontraceptive medical effects of combined oral contraceptive pills (COCs), nurses should be aware that: a. COCs can cause toxic shock syndrome if the prescription is wrong. b. Hormonal withdrawal bleeding usually is a bit more profuse than in normal menstruation and lasts a week. c. COCs increase the risk of endometrial and ovarian cancer. d. The effectiveness of COCs can be altered by some over-the-counter medications and herbal supplements.

d. The effectiveness of COCs can be altered by some over-the-counter medications and herbal supplements. The effectiveness of COCs can be altered by some over-the-counter medications and herbal supplements. Toxic shock syndrome can occur in some diaphragm users, but it is not a consequence of taking oral contraceptive pills. Hormonal withdrawal bleeding usually is lighter than in normal menstruation and lasts a couple of days. Oral contraceptive pills offer protection against the risk of endometrial and ovarian cancers.

The nurse who is teaching a group of women about breast cancer would tell the women that: a. Risk factors identify more than 50% of women who will develop breast cancer. b. Nearly 90% of lumps found by women are malignant. c. One in 10 women in the United States will develop breast cancer in her lifetime. d. The exact cause of breast cancer is unknown.

d. The exact cause of breast cancer is unknown. The exact cause of breast cancer is unknown. Risk factors help to identify less than 30% of women in whom breast cancer eventually will develop. Women detect about 90% of all breast lumps. Of this 90%, only 20% to 25% are malignant. One in eight women in the United States will develop breast cancer in her lifetime.

The patient's family is important to the maternity nurse because: a. They pay the bills. b. The nurse will know which family member to avoid. c. The nurse will know which mothers will really care for their children. d. The family culture and structure will influence nursing care decisions.

d. The family culture and structure will influence nursing care decisions. Family structure and culture influence the health decisions of mothers.

In comparing the abdominal and transvaginal methods of ultrasound examination, nurses should explain to their clients that: a. Both require the woman to have a full bladder. b. The abdominal examination is more useful in the first trimester. c. Initially the transvaginal examination can be painful. d. The transvaginal examination allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail.

d. The transvaginal examination allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail. The transvaginal examination allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail and allows intrauterine pregnancies to be diagnosed earlier. The abdominal examination requires a full bladder; the transvaginal examination requires an empty bladder. The transvaginal examination is more useful in the first trimester; the abdominal examination works better after the first trimester. Neither method should be painful, although with the transvaginal examination the woman feels pressure as the probe is moved.

The nurse recommends to parents that peanuts are not a good snack food for toddlers. The nurse's rationale for this action is that: a. They are low in nutritive value. b. They are very high in sodium. c. They cannot be entirely digested. d. They can be easily aspirated.

d. They can be easily aspirated. Foreign-body aspiration is common during the second year of life. Although they chew well, children at this age may have difficulty with large pieces of food such as meat and whole hot dogs and with hard foods such as nuts or dried beans. Peanuts have many beneficial nutrients but should be avoided because of the risk of aspiration in this age-group. The sodium level may be a concern, but the risk of aspiration is more important. Many foods pass through the gastrointestinal tract incompletely digested. This is not necessarily detrimental to the child.

Which of the following statements is the most complete and accurate description of medical abortions? a. They are performed only for maternal health. b. They can be achieved through surgical procedures or with drugs. c. They are mostly performed in the second trimester. d. They can be either elective or therapeutic.

d. They can be either elective or therapeutic. Medical abortions are performed through the use of medications (rather than surgical procedures). They are mostly done in the first trimester, and they can be either elective (the woman's choice) or therapeutic (for reasons of maternal or fetal health).

What is characteristic of dishonest behavior in children ages 8 to 10 years? a. Cheating during games is now more common. b. Lying results from the inability to distinguish between fact and fantasy. c. They may steal because their sense of property rights is limited. d. They may lie to meet expectations set by others that they have been unable to attain.

d. They may lie to meet expectations set by others that they have been unable to attain. Older school-age children may lie to meet expectations set by others to which they have been unable to measure up. Cheating usually becomes less frequent as the child matures. In this age group, children are able to distinguish between fact and fantasy. Young children may lack a sense of property rights; older children may steal to supplement an inadequate allowance, or it may be an indication of serious problems.

Parents tell the nurse that their 1-year-old son often sleeps with them. They seem unconcerned about this. The nurse's response should be based on the knowledge that: a. Children should not sleep with their parents. b. Separation from parents should be completed by this age. c. Daytime attention should be increased. d. This is a common and accepted practice, especially in some cultural groups.

d. This is a common and accepted practice, especially in some cultural groups. Co-sleeping or sharing the family bed, in which the parents allow the children to sleep with them, is a common and accepted practice in many cultures. Parents should evaluate the options available and avoid conditions that place the infant at risk. Population-based studies are currently underway; no evidence at this time supports or abandons the practice for safety reasons. This is the age at which children are just beginning to individuate. Increased daytime activity may help decrease sleep problems in general, but co-sleeping is a culturally determined phenomenon.

The parents of a 9-month-old infant tell the nurse that they have noticed foods such as peas and corn are not completely digested and can be seen in their infant's stool. The nurse bases her explanation on knowing that: a. Children should not be given fibrous foods until the digestive tract matures at age 4 years. b. The infant should not be given any solid foods until this digestive problem is resolved. c. This is abnormal and requires further investigation. d. This is normal because of the immaturity of digestive processes at this age.

d. This is normal because of the immaturity of digestive processes at this age. The immaturity of the digestive tract is evident in the appearance of the stools. Solid foods are passed incompletely broken down in the feces. An excess quantity of fiber predisposes the child to large, bulky stools. This is a normal part of the maturational process, and no further investigation is necessary.

A 40-year-old woman is 10 weeks pregnant. Which diagnostic tool would be appropriate to suggest to her at this time? a. Biophysical profile (BPP) b. Amniocentesis c. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening d. Transvaginal ultrasound

d. Transvaginal ultrasound Ultrasound would be performed at this gestational age for biophysical assessment of the infant. BPP would be a method of biophysical assessment of fetal well-being in the third trimester. Amniocentesis is performed after the fourteenth week of pregnancy. MSAFP screening is performed from week 15 to week 22 of gestation (weeks 16 to 18 are ideal).

What is helpful to tell a mother who is concerned about preventing sleep problems in her 2-year-old child? a. Have the child always sleep in a quiet, darkened room. b. Provide high-carbohydrate snacks before bedtime. c. Communicate with the child's daytime caregiver about eliminating the afternoon nap. d. Use a night-light in the child's room.

d. Use a night-light in the child's room. The preschooler has a great imagination. Sounds and shadows can have a negative effect on sleeping behavior. Night-lights provide the child with the ability to visualize the environment and decrease the fear felt in a dark room. A dark, quiet room may be scary to a preschooler. High-carbohydrate snacks increase energy and do not promote relaxation. Most 2-year-olds take one nap each day. Many give up the habit by age 3. Insufficient rest during the day can lead to irritability and difficulty sleeping at night.

When a nurse is counseling a woman for primary dysmenorrhea, which nonpharmacologic intervention might be recommended? a. Increasing the intake of red meat and simple carbohydrates b. Reducing the intake of diuretic foods such as peaches and asparagus c. Temporarily substituting physical activity for a sedentary lifestyle d. Using a heating pad on the abdomen to relieve cramping

d. Using a heating pad on the abdomen to relieve cramping Heat minimizes cramping by increasing vasodilation and muscle relaxation and minimizing uterine ischemia. Dietary changes such as eating less red meat may be recommended for women experiencing dysmenorrhea. Increasing the intake of diuretics, including natural diuretics such as asparagus, cranberry juice, peaches, parsley, and watermelon, may help ease the symptoms associated with dysmenorrhea. Exercise has been found to help relieve menstrual discomfort through increased vasodilation and subsequent decreased ischemia.

Which medication may be given to high risk children after exposure to chickenpox to prevent varicella? a. Acyclovir b. Vitamin A c. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride d. Varicella zoster immune globulin (VZIG)

d. Varicella zoster immune globulin (VZIG) VZIG is given to high risk children to help prevent the development of chickenpox. Immune globulin intravenous may also be recommended. Acyclovir is given to immunocompromised children to reduce the severity of symptoms. Vitamin A reduces morbidity and mortality associated with the measles. The antihistamine diphenhydramine is administered to reduce the itching associated with chickenpox.

Which characteristic best describes the gross motor skills of a 24-month-old child? a. Skips b. Rides tricycle c. Broad jumps d. Walks up and down stairs

d. Walks up and down stairs The 24-month-old child can go up and down stairs alone with two feet on each step. Skipping and the ability to broad jump are skills acquired at age 3. Tricycle riding is achieved at age 4.

Which statement is most descriptive of bulimia during adolescence? a. Strong sense of control over eating behavior b. Feelings of elation after the binge-purge cycle c. Profound lack of awareness that the eating pattern is abnormal d. Weight that can be normal, slightly above normal, or below normal

d. Weight that can be normal, slightly above normal, or below normal Individuals with bulimia are of normal weight or more commonly slightly above normal weight. Those who also restrict their intake can become severely underweight. Behavior related to this eating disorder is secretive, frenzied, and out of control. These cycles are followed by self-deprecating thoughts and a depressed mood. These young women are keenly aware that this eating pattern is abnormal.

An 18-year-old client who has reached 16 weeks of gestation was recently diagnosed with pregestational diabetes. She attends her centering appointment accompanied by one of her girlfriends. This young woman appears more concerned about how her pregnancy will affect her social life than about her recent diagnosis of diabetes. Several nursing diagnoses are applicable to assist in planning adequate care. The most appropriate diagnosis at this time is: a. Risk for injury to the fetus related to birth trauma. b. Noncompliance related to lack of understanding of diabetes and pregnancy and requirements of the treatment plan. c. Deficient knowledge related to insulin administration. d. Risk for injury to the mother related to hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia.

b. Noncompliance related to lack of understanding of diabetes and pregnancy and requirements of the treatment plan. Before a treatment plan is developed or goals for the outcome of care are outlined, this client must come to an understanding of diabetes and the potential effects on her pregnancy. She appears to have greater concern for changes to her social life than adoption of a new self-care regimen. Risk for injury to the fetus related to either placental insufficiency or birth trauma may come much later in the pregnancy. At this time the client is having difficulty acknowledging the adjustments that she needs to make to her lifestyle to care for herself during pregnancy. The client may not yet be on insulin. Insulin requirements increase with gestation. The importance of glycemic control must be part of health teaching for this client. However, she has not yet acknowledged that changes to her lifestyle need to be made, and she may not participate in the plan of care until understanding takes place.

Which statement about cultural competence is not accurate? a. Local health care workers and community advocates can help extend health care to underserved populations. b. Nursing care is delivered in the context of the client's culture but not in the context of the nurse's culture. c. Nurses must develop an awareness of and sensitivity to various cultures. d. A culture's economic, religious, and political structures influence practices that affect childbearing.

b. Nursing care is delivered in the context of the client's culture but not in the context of the nurse's culture. The cultural context of the nurse also affects nursing care. The work of local health care workers and community advocates is part of cultural competence; the nurse's cultural context is also important. Developing sensitivity to various cultures is part of cultural competence, but the nurse's cultural context is also important. The impact of economic, religious, and political structures is part of cultural competence; the nurse's cultural context is also important.

A woman has a history of drug use and is screened for hepatitis B during the first trimester. What is an appropriate action? a. Provide a low-protein diet. b. Offer the vaccine. c. Discuss the recommendation to bottle-feed her baby. d. Practice respiratory isolation.

b. Offer the vaccine. A person who has a history of high risk behaviors should be offered the hepatitis B vaccine. Care is supportive and includes bed rest and a high-protein, low-fat diet. The first trimester is too early to discuss feeding methods with a woman in the high risk category. Hepatitis B is transmitted through blood.