Exam 2
A centrifuged sample of blood shows 53% plasma, 1% buffy coat, and 46% erythrocytes. What percentage of the blood is composed of leukocytes and platelets?
1%
What percentage of the total number of cardiac muscle cells are pacemaker cells?
1%
What is the average lifespan of erythrocytes?
100-120 days
Stage 2 hypertension results if resting blood pressure is higher than:
140/90 mm Hg
A patient has a heart rate of 70 beats per minute, an EDV of 110 ml, and an ESV of 70 ml. What is the patient's cardiac output?
2.8 L/minute
Calculate the end-systolic volume (ESV) if the end-diastolic volume (EDV) in a resting heart is 110 ml and stroke volume (SV) is 70 ml.
40 ml
How much blood does the average adult have?
5 L
What percentage of the blood is composed of plasma?
55%
What is the average lifespan of a platelet?
7-10 days
Normal blood pH should fall between __________.
7.35 and 7.45
Approximately how much blood is pumped from each ventricle during the ventricular ejection phase?
70 ml
What percentage of atria blood flows passively into the ventricles?
80%
What is the mean arterial pressure (MAP) given a systolic pressure of 130 mm Hg and diastolic pressure of 70 mm Hg?
90 mm Hg
What is the average value for mean arterial pressure (MAP)?
95 mm Hg
Which hormone decreases cardiac output by decreasing blood volume and preload?
Atrial natriuretic peptide
What hormone is released to decrease blood pressure?
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
Which of the following blood types would agglutinate if donated to a person with blood type A+?
B-
What kind of ion channels are unique to pacemaker cells?
HCN channels
Which of the following blood types is compatible with B- during a transfusion?
O-
Which of the following paths does an action potential in the heart normally take?
SA node, atrial contractile cells, AV node where it is delayed, AV bundle, right and left bundle branches, purkinje fibers, ventricular contractile cells
Which antigens does a person with blood type A- have on the surface of his or her erythrocytes?
a antigens
According to the Frank-Starling law, a bigger preload will result in __________.
a stronger contraction
What factors are related to anemia?
abnormal hemoglobin, decreased hematocrit, and decreased hemoglobin
Which of the following chemical messengers decreases heart rate?
acetylcholine
Which of the following molecules decreases heart rate, and thus cardiac output and blood pressure?
acetylcholine
Which of the following terms refers to the force the ventricles must overcome to eject blood into their respective arteries?
afterloadWhich of the following events can be heard most easily with a stethoscope?
What plasma protein is most important for the blood's colloid osmotic pressure?
albumin
A negative feedback mechanism will cause _____ if blood pressure drops.
an increase in heart rate, stroke volume, and vasocontriction
Excessive vasodilation can lead to a condition known as ____.
anaphylactic shock
What hormones increase blood pressure?
angiotensin-II, norepinephrine, antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
What arteries contribute to the cerebral arterial circle/circle of Willis?
anterior and posterior communicating arteries, internal carotid arteries, anterior and posterior cerebral arteries
Which of the following antibodies does a person with type B+ blood have in their plasma?
anti-a antibodies
What can be used interchangeably?
antibody and agglutinin
Carbohydrate groups on the surfaces of erythrocytes determine blood type and are known as __________.
antigens
The ABO blood group is based on which antigen(s)?
antigens A and B
What is the largest artery in the body?
aorta
Where does the left ventricle send blood?
aorta
The left subclavian artery branches directly from the:
aortic arch
Nora was exposed to radiation that caused her red bone marrow to make fewer red blood cells. This condition is known as __________.
aplastic anemia
What blood vessels do ventricles always pump blood into?
arteries
____ carry blood away from the heart, whereas ___ carry blood toward the heart.
arteries, veins
Which of the following pathways represents the systemic flow of most blood?
artery, arteriole, capillary bed, venule, and vein
The P wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG) represents the depolarization of cells in the __________.
atria
The P wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG) represents the depolarization of cells in the:
atria
Which of the following hormones decrease cardiac output by decreasing blood volume and preload?
atrial natriuretic peptide
Which hormone decreases cardiac output by decreasing blood volume and preload?
atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
What allows the atria and ventricles to depolarize and contract separately?
atrioventricular (AV) node delay
Tissue perfusion is largely controlled by ______ to ensure that blood flow meets the cells' needs.
autoregulation
Which leukocyte is the least common and functions to mediate inflammation?
basophil
What would be the approximate blood pressure in a blood vessel leaving the kidneys in an individual lying down?
below 20 mm Hg
Which of the following characteristics is associated with erythrocytes?
biconcave shape
The mitral valve is the clinical name for the ______________.
bicuspid valve
Which of the following products from the breakdown of hemoglobin is excreted as a waste product by the liver?
bilirubin
What causes a bruise to appear greenish in the skin?
biliverdin
The most important force driving reabsorption at the venous end of a capillary is _____.
blood colloid osmotic pressure
Water in the blood exerts pressure on the walls of capillaries, generating ________.
blood hydrostatic pressure
What might happen if the papillary muscles and/or chordae tendineae stopped functioning?
blood would leak back into the atria from the ventricles
There are two _________________ in comparison to the one __________.
brachiocephalic veins; brachiocephalic artery
What cardiac dysrhythmia does a patient have with a resting heart rate of 50 beats per minute?
bradycardia
Blood flowing through the vertebral artery will enter the ____.
brain
The lungs receive systemic blood supply by way of the ____.
bronchial arteries
How can hydrophobic steroids travel in the blood?
by binding to hydrophilic transport proteins
Which of the following ion channels are time-gated closing channels?
calcium ion channels
What ions are necessary for both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of the coagulation cascade?
calcium ions
Which of the following characteristics do platelets have?
capable of oxidative catabolism
What are the three main factors that influence blood pressure?
cardiac output, resistance, and blood volume
Autorhythmicity in the heart is a function of ________.
cardiac pacemaker cells
Autorhythmicity in the heart is the responsibility of:
cardiac pacemaker cells
What condition results from excess fluid in the pericardial cavity compressing the heart and reducing the capacity of the ventricles to fill with blood?
cardiac tamponade
From superior to inferior, the major branches of the abdominal aorta are:
celiac trunk, superior mesenteric artery, renal arteries, gonadal arteries, inferior mesenteric artery, common iliac arteries
What structure attaches the cusps of the atrioventricular valves to the papillary muscles?
chordae tendineae
Which coronary artery supplies the left atrium and parts of the left ventricle?
circumflex artery
Which of the following events can be heard most easily with a stethoscope?
closing of atrioventricular valves
Some rat poisons contain a toxin that blocks the liver's ability to use vitamin K. Animals that consume this poison would have problems with __________.
coagulation
Which antigens does a person with blood type A- have on the surface of his or her erythrocytes?
coagulation
Which of the following structures connects vessels through vascular anastomoses?
collaterals
Which pressure remains the same along the length of a capillary?
colloid osmotic pressure
Pulmonary arteries have ____ blood pressure compared to systemic arteries.
considerably lower
Which of the following cell populations does not spontaneously generate action potentials in the cardiac conduction system?
contractile cells
Inotropic agents affect __________.
contractility
Which of the following factors does not contribute to venous blood return?
contractions of the right ventricle of the heart
What is another name for the Rh antigen?
d antigen
Certain drugs used to treat dysrhythmias, called local anesthetics, work by blocking voltage gated sodium ion channels and slowing the entry of sodium ions into the cell during an action potential. What effects would you see?
decrease depolarization of the cell
Which of the following functions is not associated with erythropoietin?
decrease production of the protein hemoglobin
Which of the following stimuli is detected by a chemoreceptor?
decreased blood oxygen concentration
The right side of the heart receives ________.
deoxygenated blood from the systemic circuit
A patient, whose foot has become numb from lack of circulation, may not have a _____ pulse.
dorsalis pedis
The main artery that crosses the ankle and enters the foot, supplying the anterior side of the foot, is known as the _____.
dorsalis pedis artery
An excess amount of water in the interstitial fluid is known as ____.
edema
What provides a graphic representation of all the action potentials occurring in the heart?
electrocardiogram
What largely determines preload?
end-diastolic volume (EDV)
Which leukocytes have cytoplasmic granules that stain red and bilobed nuclei?
eosinophils
The visceral pericardium is the same as the ________.
epicardium
What are the three layers of the heart wall from superficial to deep?
epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium
What veins are located in the lower limb?
external iliac veins, popliteal veins, lateral plantar veins
What event initiates the intrinsic or contact pathway of coagulation?
factor xii contacts exposed collagen fibers
Small solutes can pass through small pores in some capillaries known as ____.
fenestrations
What is the most superficial layer of the pericardial sac?
fibrous pericardium
Which opening in the interatrial septum of the fetal heart connects the right and left atrium?
foramen ovale
High-pressured blood in the ventricles ________.
forces the semilunar valves open
Which of the following events must occur first during hemostasis?
formation of thrombin
Which of the following blood vessels are associated with the coronary sinus?
great cardiac
The superficial vein that is often used for bypass grafts is the:
great saphenous vein
What cell gives rise to all formed elements?
hematopoietic stem cell (HSC)
The physiology of blood flow in the cardiovascular system is known as _____.
hemodynamics
What is the oxygen-binding protein found in erythrocytes?
hemoglobin
What process does agglutination promote?
hemolysis
What clotting disorder results from an inadequate amount of the Christmas factor (IX)?
hemophilia b
What process involves a series of events that minimizes the amount of blood lost from an injured blood vessel?
hemostasis
Abdominal circulation, where venous blood is drained from the stomach and the small and large intestines, first enters the liver through the:
hepatic portal system
Into what vein do the splenic, gastric, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesenteric veins drain?
hepatic portal vein
What veins drain into the inferior vena cava?
hepatic veins, internal and external iliac veins, splenic veins
Blood pressure is equivalent to __________.
hydrostatic pressure
Decreased cardiac output may lead to ____.
hypotension
How does angiotensin-II affect blood pressure?
increased blood volume
How does epinephrine affect blood pressure?
increased cardiac output
Which of the following factors would increase cardiac output to the greatest extent?
increased heart rate and increased stroke volume
How does norepinephrine affect blood pressure?
increased peripheral resistance
The apex of the heart is __________.
inferior
Which of the following statements best describes the apex of the heart?
inferior tip of the heart and points toward the left side
Most veins below the diaphragm drain into the __________.
inferior vena cava
Looking in a microscope, what are the visible structures that join cardiac muscle cells?
intercalated discs
What characteristic differentiates cardiac muscle cells from skeletal muscle cells?
intercalated discs
Which of the following structural components is only found in cardiac muscles?
intercalated discs
What surface groove separates the right and left ventricles?
interventricular septum
Unlike skeletal muscle action potentials, cardiac muscle action potentials __________.
involve calcium voltage-gated channels
During what phase is the S1 heart sound first heard?
isovolumetric contraction phase
Which of the following statements describes the total refractory period of cardiac muscle?
it is longer than the total refractory period for skeletal muscle
In which direction will water move when hydrostatic pressure exceeds colloid osmotic pressure at the arteriolar end of a capillary?
it is pushed out of the capillary by filtration
What organ serves as the control center for the regulation of erythropoiesis?
kidney
The artery often used to bypass a blocked coronary artery and restore blood flow to the myocardium is the _____ artery.
left internal thoracic
What arteries branch off the aortic arch?
left subclavian artery, left common carotid artery, brachiocephalic artery
Which cardiac chamber has the thickest wall?
left ventricle
Which chamber generates the highest pressure during systole?
left ventricle
Which of the following organs produce most of the plasma proteins?
liver
Which of the following is not a risk factor for coronary artery disease or myocardial ischemia?
low blood pressure
Damage to the external iliac artery will affect delivery of blood to the __________.
lower limb
Which type of leukocyte may produce antibodies?
lymphocyte
What cells are categorized as agranulocytes?
lymphocytes and monocytes
Platelets are cell fragments derived from __________.
megakaryocytes
What artery has the smallest diameter?
metarteriole
During leukopoiesis, basophils are derived from __________.
myeloblasts
Net filtration pressure (NFP) is equal to the:
net hydrostatic pressure minus the net colloid osmotic pressure
What is the most common type of leukocyte in a healthy adult?
neutrophil
The main local autoregulatory mechanism of cardiac muscle tissue is ____.
oxygen
Does the pulmonary vein carry oxygenated or deoxygenated blood?
oxygenated
Which wave on the electrocardiogram (ECG) corresponds with the ventricular filling phase of the cardiac cycle?
p wave
A damaged atrioventricular (AV) bundle or AV node will primarily affect the length of the __________.
p-r interval
What nerves send impulses to the medulla oblongata caused by an increase in blood pressure?
parasympathetic nerves, vagus nerve (CN X), glossopharyngeal nerve
Which of the following structures is associated with the atria?
pectinate muscles
During what part of the action potential will calcium ions enter the contractile cell?
plateau phase
What is a contractile cell with a membrane potential of 0 mV experiencing?
plateau phase
Hemostasis is mediated by which of the following formed elements?
platelets
What name does the femoral artery take as it emerges in the posterior thigh?
popliteal artery
Blood flow through the capillary bed is regulated by ______.
precapillary sphincters
The degree of stretch experienced by the sarcomeres in the ventricle cells before they contract is called __________.
preload
Blood flow is directly proportional to _____ and inversely proportional to ____.
pressure gradient, resistance
What is the function of the valves in the heart?
prevent backflow of blood through the heart
Which of the following functions is not associated with blood?
protecting internal organs
What substances inhibit coagulation?
protein c, heparan sulfate, antithrombin-iii
The right side of the heart pumps deoxygenated blood into the __________.
pulmonary arteries
Which of the following blood vessels is not a great blood vessel of the heart?
pulmonary arteries
The ____ is the only route in which arteries carry less oxygen than veins.
pulmonary circuit
Which vessel is guarded by a semilunar valve at its base?
pulmonary trunk
Which of the following vessels carries oxygenated blood?
pulmonary vein
Oxygenated blood is delivered to the left atrium through the ____________.
pulmonary veins
Which of the following pacemaker cell populations has the slowest intrinsic rate of depolarization at about 20 times per minute?
purkinje fiber system
What obscures atrial repolarization on an electrocardiogram (ECG)?
qrs complex
Which wave on the electrocardiogram (ECG) represents ventricular depolarization?
qrs complex
Which electrocardiogram (ECG) finding can be used to measure heart rate?
r-r interval
What is initiated by a rapid influx of sodium ions into contractile cells creating a positive membrane potential inside the cell?
rapid depolarization phase
All red blood cells in an adult originate in the __________.
red bone marrow
What functions are associated with erythropoietin?
replacement of yellow bone marrow with red bone marrow, reduces the amount of time needed for new erythrocytes to mature, speeds up the rate of erythropoiesis
In erythropoiesis, what is the name of the cell that ejects its nucleus and other organelles prior to being released into the bloodstream?
reticulocyte
What valve prevents the backflow of blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium?
right atrioventricular valve (tricuspid valve)
Under what conditions will the myogenic mechanism slow blood flow into a capillary bed?
rising arteriolar pressure
The right and left atria depolarize and contract following the arrival of the action potential from the __________.
sinoatrial (SA) node
What normally serves as the pacemaker of the entire heart?
sinoatrial (SA) node
What type of capillaries have large pores within their endothelial cells and are the leakiest?
sinusoidal capillaries
One mechanism that increases the rate venous blood returns to the heart is by:
skeletal muscle pumps
Which organ traps older erythrocytes so they will be removed from circulation?
spleen
The celiac trunk branches almost immediately into what arteries?
splenic artery, common hepatic artery, left gastric artery
What is the volume of blood pumped out by one ventricle per heart beat?
stroke volume (SV)
What two values are needed in order to calculate cardiac output (CO) for a ventricle?
stroke volume (SV) and heart rate (HR)
What two values are needed to calculate cardiac output (CO) for a ventricle?
stroke volume (SV) and heart rate (HR)
Into which vein does blood in the external jugular vein drain?
subclavian vein
The small intestine receives its blood supply from the:
superior mesenteric artery
What is edema?
swelling
What blood vessels handle the highest blood pressure?
systemic arteries
Which blood vessels handle the highest blood pressure?
systemic arteries
Which blood vessels experience the sharpest decrease in blood pressure?
systemic arterioles
The vessels that deliver oxygen to the tissues of the body are part of the __________.
systemic circuit
Tissue perfusion in the heart decreases during ventricular ____ and increases during ventricular ____.
systole, diastole
Which of the following happens immediately after the P wave?
the atria contact
The thoracic organs are drained mainly by:
the azygos system
What is hematocrit?
the percentage of blood composed of erythrocytes
What activity is occurring in the heart during the Q-T interval on an electrocardiogram (ECG)?
the ventricular cells are undergoing action potentials
Which of the following statements best describes how coronary artery anastomoses might help a patient with coronary artery disease?
they provide alternative routes of blood flow when a vessel is blocked
What enzyme coverts fibrinogen to fibrin?
thrombin
What process dissolves a blood clot?
thrombolysis
What condition results in the formation of an inappropriate blood clot?
thrombosis
Which of the following functions is not associated with the heart?
to increase the rate at which erythrocytes
Large, lipid-insoluble molecules cross capillary walls by ___.
transcytosis
The primary function of red blood cells is to __________.
transport oxygen and carbon dioxide
Blood in the right atrium should travel next past the ________.
tricuspid valve and into the right ventricle
The innermost layer of blood vessels, that is composed of endothelium, is known as ____.
tunica intima
Arteries have a much thicker _____ than veins, which signifies their role in controlling blood pressure.
tunica media
Which of the following blood types is considered the universal recipient?
type AB+
A sample reacts with anti-A and anti-B antibodies, but it does not react with anti-Rh antibodies. What is the sample's blood type?
type AB-
Which cranial nerves have a negative chronotropic effect on heart rate?
vagus nerve (CN X)
What is the functional consequence of vascular spasms during hemostasis?
vascular spasms decrease blood vessel diameter to limit blood loss
Select the appropriate pathway for the steps of hemostasis.
vascular spasms, platelet plug formation, coagulation, clot retraction, and thrombolysis
_____ increases the diameter of a blood vessel.
vasodilation
Both the left and right atria receive blood from ________.
veins
Most blood is in the ___.
veins
Which vessels serve as the blood reservoirs of the body?
veins
What factors contribute to venous blood return?
venous valves, respiratory pump, and skeletal muscle pump
Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias is immediately life-threatening and manifests on the electrocardiogram (ECG) with chaotic activity?
ventricular fibrillation
What vitamin is necessary for certain clotting factors to operate during coagulation?
vitamin k
What chemical is produced by endothelial cells at the site of injury during the first step of platelet plug formation?
von Willebrand factor
The most abundant component of plasma is __________.
water
