Exam 3

A client has been brought to the emergency department after being covered in fertilizer after an explosion and fire at a warehouse. What action by the nurse is best? A. Assess the client's airway. B. Irrigate the client's skin. C. Brush any visible dust off the skin. D. Call poison control for guidance

A client has been brought to the emergency department after being covered in fertilizer after an explosion and fire at a warehouse. What action by the nurse is best? A. Assess the client's airway. B. Irrigate the client's skin. C. Brush any visible dust off the skin. D. Call poison control for guidance

A client is brought to the emergency department with a burn injury. The nurse knows that the first systemic event after a major burn injury is what event? A. Hemodynamic instability B. Gastrointestinal hypermotility C. Respiratory arrest D. Hypokalemia

A client is brought to the emergency department with a burn injury. The nurse knows that the first systemic event after a major burn injury is what event? A. Hemodynamic instability B. Gastrointestinal hypermotility C. Respiratory arrest D. Hypokalemia

A client who is in the acute phase of recovery from a burn injury has yet to experience adequate pain control. What pain management strategy is most likely to meet this client's needs? A. A client-controlled analgesia (PCA) system B. Oral opioids supplemented by NSAIDs C. Distraction and relaxation techniques supplemented by NSAIDs D. A combination of benzodiazepines and topical anesthetics

A client who is in the acute phase of recovery from a burn injury has yet to experience adequate pain control. What pain management strategy is most likely to meet this client's needs? A. A client-controlled analgesia (PCA) system B. Oral opioids supplemented by NSAIDs C. Distraction and relaxation techniques supplemented by NSAIDs D. A combination of benzodiazepines and topical anesthetics

A nurse cares for a client who reports discomfort related to eczematous dermatitis. Which nonpharmacologic comfort measures would the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.) A. Cool, moist compresses B. Topical corticosteroids C. Heating pad D. Tepid bath with colloidal oatmeal E. Back rub with baby oil

A. Cool, moist compresses D. Tepid bath with colloidal oatmeal Rationale: For a client with eczematous dermatitis, the goal of comfort measures is to decrease inflammation and help débride crusts and scales. The nurse would implement cool, moist compresses and tepid baths with additives such as colloidal oatmeal. Topical corticosteroids are a pharmacologic intervention. A heating pad and a back rub with baby oil are not appropriate for this client and could increase inflammation and discomfort.

A nurse is preparing to assist a surgeon in a skin grafting procedure. What can a skin graft can be used for? A. Denuded skin after burns. B. Slow healing wounds. C. Uncomplicated wound closure. D. Infected wounds.

A. Denuded skin after burns. Rationale: Skin grafts are commonly used to repair surgical defects such as those that result from excision of skin tumors, to cover areas denuded of skin (e.g., burns), and to cover wounds in which insufficient skin is available to permit wound closure. They are also used when primary closure of the wound increases the risk of complications or when primary wound closure would interfere with function. It is not used for uncomplicated wound closure. Skin grafts are not used for infected wounds.

A client has been admitted to a burn intensive care unit with extensive full-thickness burns over 25% of the body. After ensuring cardiopulmonary stability, what would be the nurse's immediate, priority concern when planning this client's care? A. Fluid status B. Risk of infection C. Nutritional status D. Psychosocial coping

A. Fluid status Rationale: During the early phase of burn care, the nurse is most concerned with fluid resuscitation, to correct large-volume fluid loss through the damaged skin. Infection control and early nutritional support are important, but fluid resuscitation is an immediate priority. Coping is a higher priority later in the recovery period.

A client in the emergent/resuscitative phase of a burn injury has had blood work and arterial blood gases drawn. Upon analysis of the client's laboratory studies, the nurse will expect the results to indicate what findings? A. Hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, elevated hematocrit B. Hypokalemia, hypernatremia, decreased hematocrit C. Hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, decreased hematocrit D. Hypokalemia, hyponatremia, elevated hematocrit

A. Hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, elevated hematocrit Rationale: Fluid and electrolyte changes in the emergent/resuscitative phase of a burn injury include hyperkalemia related to the release of potassium into the extracellular fluid, hyponatremia from large amounts of sodium lost in trapped edema fluid, and hemoconcentration that leads to an increased hematocrit.

A nurse assesses an older client who is scratching and rubbing white ridges on the skin between the fingers and on the wrists. Which action would the nurse take? A. Request a prescription for permethrin. B. Administer an antihistamine. C. Assess the client's airway. D. Apply gloves to minimize friction.

A. Request a prescription for permethrin. Rationale: The client's presentation is most likely to be scabies, a contagious mite infestation. The drugs used to treat this infestation are ivermectin and permethrin. The nurse would contact the primary care provider to request a prescription for one of the medications. Secondary interventions may include medication to decrease the itching. The client's airway is not at risk with this skin disorder. Applying gloves will help prevent transmission.

A home care nurse is performing a visit to a client's home to perform wound care following the client's hospital treatment for severe burns. While interacting with the client, the nurse should assess for evidence of what complication? A. Psychosis B. Posttraumatic stress disorder C. Delirium D. Vascular dementia

B. Posttraumatic stress disorder Rationale: Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is the most common psychiatric disorder in burn survivors, with a prevalence that may be as high as 45%. As a result, it is important for the nurse to assess for this complication of burn injuries. Psychosis, delirium, and dementia are not among the noted psychiatric and psychosocial complications of burns.

A client who was burned in a workplace accident has completed the acute phase of treatment and the plan of care has been altered to prioritize rehabilitation. What nursing action should be prioritized during this phase of treatment? A. Monitoring fluid and electrolyte imbalances B. Providing education to the client and family C. Treating infection D. Promoting thermoregulation

B. Providing education to the client and family Rationale: Client and family education is a priority during rehabilitation. There should be no fluid and electrolyte imbalances in the rehabilitation phase. The presence of impaired thermoregulation or infection would suggest that the client is still in the acute phase of burn recovery.

A nurse is caring for a client whose Braden Scale score is 9. What intervention demonstrates a lack of evidence-based knowledge? A. Requests a referral to a registered dietitian nutritionist. B. Raises the head of the bed no more than 45 degrees. C. Performs perineal cleansing every 2 hours. D. Assesses the client's entire skin surface daily.

B. Raises the head of the bed no more than 45 degrees. Rationale: A client with a Braden Scale score of 9 is at high risk for skin breakdown and requires moderate to maximum assistance to prevent further breakdown. The nurse needs to keep the head of the bed elevated to no more than 30 degrees to prevent shearing. An RDN consultation, frequent perineal cleaning, and assessing the client's entire skin surface are all appropriate actions.

A 35-year-old kidney transplant client comes to the clinic exhibiting new skin lesions. The diagnosis is Kaposi sarcoma. The nurse caring for this client recognizes that this is what type of Kaposi sarcoma? A. Classic B. AIDS related C. Iatrogenic D. Endemic

C. Iatrogenic Rationale: Iatrogenic/organ transplant--associated Kaposi sarcoma occurs in transplant recipients and people with AIDS. This form of KS is characterized by local skin lesions and disseminated visceral and mucocutaneous diseases. Classic Kaposi sarcoma occurs predominantly in men of Mediterranean or Jewish ancestry between 40 and 70 years of age. Endemic KS affects people predominantly in the eastern half of Africa. AIDS-related KS is seen in people with AIDS.

A client comes to the clinic reporting a red rash of small, fluid-filled blisters and is suspected of having herpes zoster. What presentation is most consistent with this diagnosis? A. Grouped vesicles occurring on lips and oral mucous membranes B. Grouped vesicles occurring on the genitalia C. Rough, fresh, or gray skin protrusions D. Grouped vesicles in linear patches along a dermatome

D. Grouped vesicles in linear patches along a dermatome Rationale: Herpes zoster, or shingles, is an acute inflammation of the dorsal root ganglia, causing localized, vesicular skin lesions following a dermatome. Herpes simplex type 1 is a viral infection affecting the skin and mucous membranes, usually producing cold sores or fever blisters. Herpes simplex type 2 primarily affects the genital area, causing painful clusters of small ulcerations. Warts appear as rough, fresh, or gray skin protrusions.

A nurse is caring for a client whose chemical injury has necessitated a skin graft to the client's left hand. Which statement is true regarding skin graft use? A. This use is not a type of reconstruction. B. Skin grafts form their own blood supply. C. They are only transplanted from another doner. D. Skin is transferred from a distant site to the graft site.

D. Skin is transferred from a distant site to the graft site. Rationale: Skin grafting is a technique in which a section of skin is detached from its own blood supply and transferred as free tissue to a distant (recipient) site. Skin grafting can be used to repair almost any type of wound and is the most common form of reconstructive surgery.

The nurse caring for a client who is recovering from full-thickness burns is aware of the client's risk for contracture and hypertrophic scarring. How can the nurse best reduce this risk? A. Apply skin emollients as prescribed after granulation has occurred. B. Keep injured areas immobilized whenever possible to promote healing. C. Administer oral or IV corticosteroids as prescribed. D. Encourage physical activity and range-of-motion exercises.

D. Encourage physical activity and range-of-motion exercises. Rationale: Exercise and the promotion of mobility can reduce the risk of contracture and hypertrophic scarring. Skin emollients are not normally used in the treatment of burns, and these do not prevent scarring. Steroids are not used to reduce scarring, as they also slow the healing process.

A nurse is providing care for a client who has developed Kaposi sarcoma secondary to HIV infection. The nurse should be aware that this form of malignancy originates in what part of the body? A. Connective tissue cells in diffuse locations B. Smooth muscle cells of the gastrointestinal and respiratory tract C. Neural tissue of the brain and spinal cord D. Endothelial cells lining small blood vessels

D. Endothelial cells lining small blood vessels Rationale: Kaposi sarcoma (KS) is a malignancy of endothelial cells that line the small blood vessels. It does not originate in connective tissue, smooth muscle cells of the GI and respiratory tract, or in neural tissue.

A client is brought to the emergency department from the site of a chemical fire, where the client suffered a burn that involves the epidermis, dermis, and the muscle and bone of the right arm. On inspection, the skin appears charred. Based on these assessment findings, what is the depth of the burn on the client's arm? A. Superficial partial thickness B. Deep partial thickness C. Full partial thickness D. Full thickness

D. Full thickness Rationale: A full-thickness burn involves total destruction of the epidermis and dermis and, in some cases, underlying tissue as well. Wound color ranges widely from white to red, brown, or black. The burned area is painless because the nerve fibers are destroyed. The wound can appear leathery; hair follicles and sweat glands are destroyed. Edema may also be present. Superficial partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis and possibly a portion of the dermis; the client will experience pain that is soothed by cooling. Deep partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis, upper dermis, and portion of the deeper dermis; the client will report pain and sensitivity to cold air. Full partial thickness is not a depth of burn.

A client arrives in the emergency department after being burned in a house fire. The client's burns cover the face and the left forearm. What extent of burns does the client most likely have, measured as a percentage? *** THIS IS THE RULE OF 9

18% Rationale: When estimating the percentage of body area or burn surface area that has been burned, the Rule of Nines is used: the face is 9% and the forearm is 9%, for a total of 18% in this client.

A client has multiple lesions all over the body and a family history of skin cancer. The nurse teaches the client to perform a total skin self-examinations on a monthly basis. Which statements will the nurse include in this patient's teaching? (Select all that apply.) A. "Look for asymmetry of shape and irregular borders." B. "Assess for color variation within each lesion." C. "Examine the distribution of lesions over a section of the body." D. "Monitor for edema or swelling of tissues." E. "Focus your assessment on skin areas that itch." F. "Report any lesions that change over time in any way."

A. "Look for asymmetry of shape and irregular borders." B. "Assess for color variation within each lesion." F. "Report any lesions that change over time in any way." Rationale: Patients will be taught to examine each lesion following the ABCDE features associated with skin cancer: asymmetry of shape, border irregularity, color variation within one lesion, diameter greater than 6 mm, and evolving or changing in any feature.

A nurse is providing self-care education to a client who has been receiving treatment for acne vulgaris. What instruction should the nurse provide to the client? A. "Wash your face with water and gentle soap each morning and evening." B. "Before bedtime, clean your face with rubbing alcohol on a cotton pad." C. "Gently burst new pimples before they form a visible 'head'." D. "Set aside some time each day to squeeze blackheads and remove the plug."

A. "Wash your face with water and gentle soap each morning and evening." Rationale: The nurse should inform the client to wash the face and other affected areas with mild soap and water twice each day to remove surface oils and prevent obstruction of the oil glands. Cleansing with rubbing alcohol is not recommended and all forms of manipulation should be avoided.

An emergency department nurse has just received a client with burn injuries brought in by ambulance. The paramedics have started a large-bore IV and covered the burn in cool towels. The burn is estimated as covering 24% of the client's body. How should the nurse best address the pathophysiologic changes resulting from major burns during the initial burn-shock period? A. Administer IV fluids. B. Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics. C. Administer IV potassium chloride. D. Administer packed red blood cells.

A. Administer IV fluids. Rationale: Pathophysiologic changes resulting from major burns during the initial burn-shock period include massive fluid losses. Addressing these losses is a major priority in the initial phase of treatment. Antibiotics and PRBCs are not normally given. Potassium chloride would exacerbate the client's hyperkalemia.

A nurse educator is teaching a group of nurses about Kaposi sarcoma. What would the educator identify as characteristics of endemic Kaposi sarcoma? Select all that apply. A. Affects people predominantly in the eastern half of Africa B. Affects men more than women C. Does not affect children D. Cannot infiltrate E. Can progress to lymphadenopathic forms

A. Affects people predominantly in the eastern half of Africa B. Affects men more than women E. Can progress to lymphadenopathic forms Rationale: Endemic (African) Kaposi sarcoma affects people predominantly in the eastern half of Africa, near the equator. Men are affected more often than women, and children can be affected as well. The disease may resemble classic KS or it may infiltrate and progress to lymphadenopathic forms.

A nurse cares for many clients with pressure injuries. What actions by the nurse are considered best practice? (Select all that apply.) A. Conduct ongoing assessments that include pain. B. Use normal saline to cleanse around the pressure injury. C. Soak eschar daily until it softens and can be removed. D. Consult with a registered dietitian nutritionist. E. Use antimicrobial agents to clean wounds that are infected. F. Consider the use of adjuvant therapies for nonhealing wounds.

A. Conduct ongoing assessments that include pain. B. Use normal saline to cleanse around the pressure injury. D. Consult with a registered dietitian nutritionist. E. Use antimicrobial agents to clean wounds that are infected. F. Consider the use of adjuvant therapies for nonhealing wounds. Rationale: Best practice for pressure injury wound management includes ongoing assessments that include pain, using normal saline to clean gently around the wound, ensuring optimal nutrition Btestbanks.com by involving a registered dietitian nutritionist, using an antimicrobial agent to clean wounds that are anticipated to become infected, and considering the use of adjuvant therapies such as stimulation, negative-pressure wound therapy, ultrasound, hyperbaric oxygen, and topical growth factors. The nurse would not disturb stable eschar.

A nurse is working with a client who has a painful rash consisting of grouped weeping and crusting lesions in distinct lines. What actions by the nurse are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) A. Instruct the client to report lesions near the eyes. B. Have the client take long, hot baths to soak the lesions. C. Show the client how to make a baking soda compress. D. Advise the client to avoid exposure to UV light rays. E. Demonstrate proper use of antifungal medications. F. Review appropriate hygiene measures.

A. Instruct the client to report lesions near the eyes. C. Show the client how to make a baking soda compress. Rationale: This client has herpes zoster (shingles). Eye infection is possible, so the client should be taught to report any lesions erupting near the eyes. Comfort measures can include compresses, calamine lotions, and baking soda. Long hot baths are not recommended. Avoiding UV lighting is important for herpes simplex. Herpes zoster is a viral disorder, so antifungal medications are not used. Hygiene is not an issue causing an outbreak.

A client is admitted to the burn unit after being transported a long distance. The client has burns to the groin area and circumferential burns to both upper thighs. When assessing the client's legs distal to the wound site, the nurse should be cognizant of the risk of what complication? *** A. Ischemia B. Referred pain C. Cellulitis D. Venous thromboembolism (VTE)

A. Ischemia Rationale: As edema increases, pressure on small blood vessels and nerves in the distal extremities causes an obstruction of blood flow and consequent ischemia. This complication is similar to compartment syndrome. Referred pain, cellulitis, and VTE are not noted complications that occur distal to the injury site.

A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with psoriasis. The nurse is creating an education plan for the client. What information should be included in this plan? A. Lifelong management is likely needed. B. Avoid public places until symptoms subside. C. Wash skin frequently to prevent infection. D. Liberally apply corticosteroids as needed.

A. Lifelong management is likely needed. Rationale: Psoriasis usually requires lifelong management. Psoriasis is not contagious. Many clients need reassurance that the condition is not infectious, not a reflection of poor personal hygiene, and not skin cancer. Excessive frequent washing of skin produces more soreness and scaling. Overuse of topical corticosteroids can result in skin atrophy, striae, and medication resistance.

A public health nurse is educating a group of administrators about decreasing hospitalizations for burns. Which population will the nurse note as the target population for burn injuries? A. Older adults B. Women more than men C. Adults 35-40 years of age D. School-aged teenagers

A. Older adults Rationale: The population that is most at risk for hospitalization are older adults. Statistically men have a higher incidence of burns over women. Adults from 35 to 40 years of age are not shown to have a high prevalence. School-aged teenagers do not have a higher prevalence of burns with hospitalization than the aging population.

A nurse assesses an older adult client with the skin disorder shown below: How will the nurse document this finding? A. Petechiae B. Ecchymoses C. Actinic lentigo D. Senile angiomas

A. Petechiae Rationale: Petechiae, or small, reddish purple nonraised lesions that do not fade or blanch with pressure, are pictured here. Ecchymoses are larger areas of hemorrhaging, commonly known as bruising. Actinic lentigo presents as paper-thin, transparent skin. Senile angiomas, also known as cherry angiomas, are red raised lesions.

A nurse plans care for a client who is immobile. Which interventions would the nurse include in this client's plan of care to prevent pressure sores? (Select all that apply.) A. Place a small pillow between bony surfaces. B. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. C. Limit fluids and proteins in the diet. D. Use a lift sheet to assist with re-positioning. E. Re-position the client who is in a chair every 2 hours. F. Keep the client's heels off the bed surfaces. G. Use a rubber ring to decrease sacral pressure when up in the chair.

A. Place a small pillow between bony surfaces. D. Use a lift sheet to assist with re-positioning. F. Keep the client's heels off the bed surfaces. Rationale: A small pillow decreases the risk for pressure between bony prominences, a lift sheet decreases friction and shear, and heels have poor circulation and are at high risk for pressure sores, so they would be kept off hard surfaces. Head-of-the-bed elevation greater than 30 degrees increases pressure on pelvic soft tissues. Fluids and proteins are important for maintaining tissue integrity. Clients would be repositioned every hour while sitting in a chair. A rubber ring impairs capillary blood flow, increasing the risk for a pressure sore.

A nurse is caring for a client in the emergent/resuscitative phase of burn injury. During this phase, the nurse should monitor for evidence of what alteration in laboratory values? A. Sodium deficit B. Decreased prothrombin time (PT) C. Potassium deficit D. Decreased hematocrit

A. Sodium deficit Rationale: Anticipated fluid and electrolyte changes that occur during the emergent/resuscitative phase of burn injury include sodium deficit, potassium excess, and elevated hematocrit. PT does not typically decrease.

A nurse is assessing clients with pressure injuries. Which wound description is correctly matched to its description? A. Suspected deep tissue injury: nonblanchable deep purple or maroon. B. Stage 2: may have visible adipose tissue and slough. C. Stage 3: may have a pink or red wound bed. D. Stage 4: wound bed is obscured with eschar or slough.

A. Suspected deep tissue injury: nonblanchable deep purple or maroon. Rationale: A suspected deep tissue injury is characterized by persistent, nonblanchable purple or maroon discoloration. A stage 2 wound may have a pink of red would bed with granulation tissue. The stage 3 wound may have visible adipose tissue and slough. A stage 4 wound is full-thickness skin loss with exposed or palpable fascia, muscle, tendon, ligament, cartilage, or bone. An unstageable wound is obscured by eschar or slough making assessment impossible.

A client presents at the free clinic with a black, wart-like lesion on his face, stating, "I've done some research, and I'm pretty sure I have malignant melanoma." Subsequent diagnostic testing results in a diagnosis of seborrheic keratosis. The nurse should recognize what significance of this diagnosis? A. The client requires no treatment unless he finds the lesion to be cosmetically unacceptable. B. The client's lesion will be closely observed for 6 months before a plan of treatment is chosen. C. The client has one of the few dermatologic malignancies that respond to chemotherapy. D. The client will likely require wide excision.

A. The client requires no treatment unless he finds the lesion to be cosmetically unacceptable. Rationale: Seborrheic keratoses are benign, wart-like lesions of various sizes and colors, ranging from light tan to black. There is no harm in allowing these growths to remain because there is no medical significance to their presence.

A nurse is teaching a client who has itchy, raised red patches covered with a silvery white scale how to care for this disorder. What statement by the client shows a need for further information? A. "At the next family reunion, I'm going to ask my relatives if they have anything similar." B. "I have to make sure I keep my lesions covered, so I do not spread this to others." C. "I must avoid large crowds and sick people while I am taking adalimumab." D. "I will buy a good quality emollient to put on my skin each day."

B. "I have to make sure I keep my lesions covered, so I do not spread this to others." Rationale: This client has plaque psoriasis which is not a contagious disorder. The client does not have to worry about spreading the condition to others. It is a condition that has hereditary links so it would be correct for the client to inquire about other family members who are affects. Adalimumab is a drug used to treat psoriasis and it has a black box warning about serious infection risk and cancer risk, so the client needs to take precautions to avoid infectious individuals. Emollients help keep the plaques soft and reduce itching.

A nurse is assessing a client who has a recent diagnosis of melanoma for understanding of treatment choices. What statement by the client indicates good understanding of the information? A."Dermabrasion or chemical peels can be done in the office." B. "I may need lymph node resection during Mohs surgery." C. "This needs only a small excision with local anesthetic." D. "After surgery I will need 8 weeks of radiation therapy."

B. "I may need lymph node resection during Mohs surgery." Rationale: Melanoma is usually treated with Mohs micrographic surgery, in which tissue is sectioned horizontally in layers and examined histologically, layer by layer, to assess for cancer cells. Dermabrasion and chemical peels can be used on actinic keratoses. Local anesthetic for small excisions is generally used on basal or squamous cell carcinomas. Radiation is usually not used with melanoma.

A nurse who is taking care of a client with burns is asked by a family member why the client is losing so much weight. The client is currently in the intermediate phase of recovery. What would be the nurse's most appropriate response to the family member? A. "The client is on a calorie-restricted diet in order to divert energy to wound healing." B. "The client's body has consumed fat deposits for fuel because calorie intake is lower than normal." C. "The client actually hasn't lost weight. Instead, there's been a change in the distribution of body fat." D. "The client lost many fluids while being treated in the emergency phase of burn care."

B. "The client's body has consumed fat deposits for fuel because calorie intake is lower than normal." Rationale: Clients lose a great deal of weight during recovery from severe burns. Reserve fat deposits are catabolized as a result of hypermetabolism. Clients are not placed on a calorie restriction during recovery, and fluid losses would not account for weight loss later in the recovery period. Changes in the overall distribution of body fat do not occur.

A nurse practitioner is seeing a 16-year-old client who has come to the dermatology clinic for treatment of acne. The nurse practitioner would know that the treatment may consist of which of the following medications? A. Acyclovir B. Benzoyl peroxide and erythromycin C. Diphenhydramine D. Triamcinolone

B. Benzoyl peroxide and erythromycin Rationale: Benzoyl peroxide and erythromycin gel is among the topical treatments available for acne. Acyclovir is used in the treatment of herpes zoster as an oral antiviral agent. Diphenhydramine is an oral antihistamine used in the treatment of pruritus. Intralesional injections of triamcinolone have been utilized in the treatment of psoriasis.

A nurse evaluates the following data in a client's chart: Based on this information, which action would the nurse take first? A. Assess the client's vital signs and initiate continuous telemetry monitoring. B. Contact the primary health care provider to discuss the treatment C. Consult the wound care nurse to apply the VAC device. D. Obtain a prescription for a low-fat, high-protein diet with vitamin supplements.

B. Contact the primary health care provider to discuss the treatment Rationale: A client on anticoagulants is not a candidate for NPWT because of the incidence of bleeding complications. The health care primary health care provider needs this information quickly to plan other therapy for the client's wound. The nurse would contact the wound care nurse after alternative orders for wound care are prescribed. Vital signs and telemetry monitoring are appropriate for a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and would be implemented as routine care for this client. A low-fat, high-protein diet with vitamin supplements will provide Btestbanks.com the client with necessary nutrients for wound healing but can be implemented after wound care, vital signs, and telemetry monitoring.

When caring for a client with toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), the critical care nurse assesses frequently for high fever, tachycardia, and extreme weakness and fatigue. The nurse is aware that these findings are potential indicators of what condition(s)? Select all that apply. A. Possible malignancy B. Epidermal necrosis C. Neurologic involvement D. Increased metabolic needs E. Possible gastrointestinal mucosal sloughing

B. Epidermal necrosis D. Increased metabolic needs E. Possible gastrointestinal mucosal sloughing Rationale: Assessment for high fever, tachycardia, and extreme weakness and fatigue is essential because these factors indicate the process of epidermal necrosis, increased metabolic needs, and possible gastrointestinal and respiratory mucosal sloughing. These factors are less likely to suggest malignancy or neurologic involvement, as these are not common complications of TEN.

A nurse is caring for a client with an electrical burn. The client has entrance wounds on the hands and exit wounds on the feet. What information is most important to include when planning care? A. The client may have memory and cognitive issues postburn. B. Everything between the entry and exit wounds can be damaged. C. The respiratory system requires close monitoring for signs of swelling. D. Electrical burns increase the risk of developing future cancers.

B. Everything between the entry and exit wounds can be damaged. Rationale: As the electricity enters the body, travels through various tissues, and exits, it damages all the tissue it flows through. There may be severe internal injury that is not yet apparent. The client may have cognitive issues postburn but this is not as important as vigilant monitoring for complications. Respiratory system swelling is associated with thermal burns and smoke inhalation. Exposure to radiation increases cancer risk.

A client has received a diagnosis of irritant contact dermatitis. What action should the nurse prioritize in the client's subsequent care? A. Teaching the client to safely and effectively administer immunosuppressants B. Helping the client identify and avoid the offending agent C. Teaching the client how to maintain meticulous skin hygiene D. Helping the client perform wound care in the home environment

B. Helping the client identify and avoid the offending agent Rationale: A focus of care for clients with irritant contact dermatitis is identifying and avoiding the offending agent. Immunosuppressants are not used to treat eczema and wound care is not normally required, except in cases of open lesions. Poor hygiene has no correlation with contact dermatitis.

A client comes to the dermatology clinic requesting the removal of epidermal nevi on the client's right cheek. The nurse knows that the procedure especially useful in treating such lesions is what? A. Skin graft B. Laser treatment C. Chemical face peeling D. Free flap

B. Laser treatment Rationale: Lasers are useful in treating cutaneous vascular lesions such as epidermal nevi. Skin grafts, chemical face peels, and free flaps would not be used to remove this lesion.

A school nurse has sent home four children who show evidence of pediculosis capitis. What is an important instruction the nurse should include in the note being sent home to parents? A. The child's scalp should be monitored for 48 to 72 hours before starting treatment. B. Nits may have to be manually removed from the child's hair shafts. C. The disease is self-limiting and symptoms will abate within 1 week. D. Efforts should be made to improve the child's level of hygiene.

B. Nits may have to be manually removed from the child's hair shafts. Rationale: Treatment for head lice should begin promptly and may require manual removal of nits following medicating shampoo. Head lice are not related to a lack of hygiene. Treatment is necessary because the condition will not likely resolve spontaneously within 1 week.

The nurse is providing education to a client that is scheduled for mechanical débridement of a wound. The nurse knows that mechanical débridement involves which element? A. A spontaneous separation of dead tissue from the viable tissue B. Removal of eschar until the point of pain and bleeding occurs C. Shaving of burned skin layers until bleeding, viable tissue is revealed D. Early closure of the wound

B. Removal of eschar until the point of pain and bleeding occurs Rationale: Mechanical débridement can be achieved through the use of surgical scissors, scalpels, or forceps to remove the eschar until the point of pain and bleeding occurs. Mechanical débridement can also be accomplished through the use of topical enzymatic débridement agents. The spontaneous separation of dead tissue from the viable tissue is an example of natural débridement. Shaving the burned skin layers and early wound closure are examples of surgical débridement.

A nurse evaluates the following data in a client's chart: Based on this information, which action would the nurse take? ***** A. Perform a neuromuscular assessment. B. Request a dietary consult. C. Initiate Contact Precautions. D. Assess the client's vital signs.

B. Request a dietary consult. Rationale: The white blood cell count is not directly related to nutritional status. Albumin, prealbumin, and lymphocyte counts all give information related to nutritional status. The prealbumin count is a more specific indicator of nutritional status than is the albumin count. The albumin and lymphocyte counts given are normal, but the prealbumin count is low. This puts the client at risk for inadequate wound healing, so the nurse would request a dietary consult. The other interventions do not address the information provided.

The nurse is caring for a client who developed a pressure injury as a result of decreased mobility. The nurse on the previous shift has provided client teaching about pressure injuries and healing promotion. The nurse determines that the client has understood the teaching by observing the client: A. perform range-of-motion exercises. B. avoid placing body weight on the healing site. C. elevate body parts that are susceptible to edema. D. demonstrate the technique for massaging the wound site.

B. avoid placing body weight on the healing site. Rationale: The major goals of pressure injury treatment may include relief of pressure, improved mobility, improved sensory perception, improved tissue perfusion, improved nutritional status, minimized friction and shear forces, dry surfaces in contact with skin, and healing of pressure ulcer, if present. The other options do not demonstrate the achievement of the goal of the client teaching.

The current phase of a client's treatment for a burn injury prioritizes wound care, nutritional support, and prevention of complications such as infection. Based on these care priorities, the client is in what phase of burn care? A. Emergent B. Immediate resuscitative C. Acute D. Rehabilitation

C. Acute Rationale: The acute or intermediate phase of burn care follows the emergent/resuscitative phase and begins 48 to 72 hours after the burn injury. During this phase, attention is directed toward continued assessment and maintenance of respiratory and circulatory status, fluid and electrolyte balance, and gastrointestinal function. Infection prevention, burn wound care (i.e., wound cleaning, topical antibacterial therapy, wound dressing, dressing changes, wound débridement, and wound grafting), pain management, and nutritional support are priorities at this stage. Priorities during the emergent or immediate resuscitative phase include first aid, prevention of shock and respiratory distress, detection and treatment of concomitant injuries, and initial wound assessment and care. The priorities during the rehabilitation phase include prevention of scars and contractures, rehabilitation, functional and cosmetic reconstruction, and psychosocial counseling.

A client has experienced burns to the upper thighs and knees. Following the application of new wound dressings, the nurse should perform what nursing action? A. Instruct the client to keep the wound site in a dependent position. B. Administer PRN analgesia as prescribed. C. Assess the client's peripheral pulses distal to the dressing. D. Assist with passive range-of-motion exercises to "set" the new dressing.

C. Assess the client's peripheral pulses distal to the dressing. Rationale: Dressings can impede circulation if they are wrapped too tightly. The peripheral pulses must be checked frequently and burned extremities elevated. Dependent positioning does not need to be maintained. PRN analgesics should be given prior to the dressing change. ROM exercises do not normally follow a dressing change.

A client with severe burns is admitted to the intensive care unit to stabilize and begin fluid resuscitation before transport to the burn center. The nurse should monitor the client closely for what signs of the onset of burn shock? A. Confusion B. High fever C. Decreased blood pressure D. Sudden agitation

C. Decreased blood pressure Rationale: As fluid loss continues and vascular volume decreases, cardiac output continues to decrease and the blood pressure drops, marking the onset of burn shock. Shock and the accompanying hemodynamic changes are not normally accompanied by confusion, fever, or agitation.

public health nurse is participating in a health promotion campaign that has the goal of improving outcomes related to skin cancer in the community. What action has the greatest potential to achieve this goal? A. Educating participants about the relationship between general health and the risk of skin cancer B. Educating participants about treatment options for skin cancer C. Educating participants about the early signs and symptoms of skin cancer D. Educating participants about the health risks associated with smoking and assisting with smoking cessation

C. Educating participants about the early signs and symptoms of skin cancer Rationale: The best hope of decreasing the incidence of skin cancer lies in educating clients about the early signs. There is a relationship between general health and skin cancer, but teaching individuals to identify the early signs and symptoms is more likely to benefit overall outcomes related to skin cancer. Teaching about treatment options is not likely to have a major effect on outcomes of the disease. Smoking is not among the major risk factors for skin cancer.

A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with what is thought to be toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN). When assessing the health history of the client, the nurse would be alert to what precipitating factor? A. Recent heavy ultraviolet exposure B. Substandard hygienic conditions C. Recent administration of new medications D. Recent varicella infection

C. Recent administration of new medications Rationale: In adults, TEN is usually triggered by a reaction to medications. Antibiotics, anticonvulsant agents, butazones, and sulfonamides are the most frequent medications implicated. TEN is unrelated to UV exposure, hygiene, or varicella infection.

A client with squamous cell carcinoma has been scheduled for treatment of this malignancy. The nurse should anticipate that treatment for this type of cancer will primarily consist of what intervention? A. Chemotherapy B. Radiation therapy C. Surgical excision D. Biopsy of sample tissue

C. Surgical excision Rationale: The primary goal of surgical management of squamous cell carcinoma is to remove the tumor entirely. Radiation therapy is reserved for older clients, because x-ray changes may be seen after 5 to 10 years, and malignant changes in scars may be induced by irradiation 15 to 30 years later. Obtaining a biopsy would not be a goal of treatment; it may be an assessment. Chemotherapy and radiation therapy are generally reserved for clients who are not surgical candidates.

A nurse is leading a health promotion workshop that is focusing on cancer prevention. What action is most likely to reduce participants' risks of basal cell carcinoma (BCC)? A. Teaching participants to improve their overall health through nutrition B. Encouraging participants to identify their family history of cancer C. Teaching participants to limit their sun exposure D. Teaching participants to control exposure to environmental and occupational radiation

C. Teaching participants to limit their sun exposure Rationale: Sun exposure is the best known and most common cause of BCC. BCC is not commonly linked to general health debilitation, family history, or radiation exposure.

A nurse is developing a care plan for a client with a partial-thickness burn, and determines that an appropriate goal is to maintain position of joints in alignment. What is the best rationale for this intervention? A. To prevent neuropathies B. To prevent wound breakdown C. To prevent contractures D. To prevent heterotopic ossification

C. To prevent contractures Rationale: To prevent the complication of contractures, the nurse will establish a goal to maintain position of joints in alignment. Gentle range-of-motion exercises and a consult to PT and OT for exercises and positioning recommendations are also appropriate interventions for the prevention of contractures. Joint alignment is not maintained specifically for preventing neuropathy, wound breakdown, or heterotopic ossification.

A client with a partial-thickness burn injury had a xenograft applied 2 weeks ago. The nurse notices that the xenograft is separating from the burn wound. What is the nurse's most appropriate intervention? A. Reinforce the xenograft dressing with another piece of Biobrane. B. Remove the xenograft dressing and apply a new dressing. C. Trim away the separated xenograft. D. Notify the health care provider for further emergency-related orders.

C. Trim away the separated xenograft. Rationale: Xenografts adhere to granulation tissue. As the tissue heals the xenograft will become removed from the scar tissue. Applying more of the xenograft will not continue to heal the wound (as it is already healed). It is not an emergency and reinforcement is not necessary.

A client has just been told that he has deep malignant melanoma. The nurse caring for this client should anticipate that the client will undergo what treatment? A. Chemotherapy B. Immunotherapy C. Wide excision D. Radiation therapy

C. Wide excision Rationale: Wide excision is the primary treatment for malignant melanoma, which removes the entire lesion and determines the level and staging. Chemotherapy may be used after the melanoma is excised. Immunotherapy is experimental and radiation therapy is palliative.

A nurse is planning the care of a client with herpes zoster. What medication, if given within the first 24 hours of the initial eruption, can arrest herpes zoster? A. Prednisone B. Azathioprine C. Triamcinolone D. Acyclovir

D. Acyclovir Rationale: Acyclovir, if started early, is effective in significantly reducing the pain and halting the progression of the disease. There is evidence that infection is arrested if oral antiviral agents are given within the first 24 hours. Prednisone is an anti-inflammatory agent used in a variety of skin disorders, but not in the treatment of herpes. Azathioprine is an immunosuppressive agent used in the treatment of pemphigus. Triamcinolone is utilized in the treatment of psoriasis.

A client is brought to the ED by paramedics, who report that the client has partial-thickness burns on the chest and legs. The client has also suffered smoke inhalation. What is the priority in the care of a client who has been burned and suffered smoke inhalation? A. Pain B. Fluid balance C. Anxiety and fear D. Airway management

D. Airway management Rationale: Systemic threats from a burn are the greatest threat to life. The ABCs of all trauma care apply during the early post-burn period. While all options should be addressed, pain, fluid balance, and anxiety and fear do not take precedence over airway management.

A 65-year-old man presents at the clinic reporting nodules on both legs. The man tells the nurse that his son, who is in medical school, encouraged him to seek prompt care and told him that the nodules are related to the fact that he is Jewish. What health problem should the nurse suspect? A. Stasis ulcers B. Bullous pemphigoid C. Psoriasis D. Classic Kaposi sarcoma

D. Classic Kaposi sarcoma Rationale: Classic Kaposi sarcoma occurs predominantly in men of Mediterranean or Jewish ancestry between 40 and 70 years of age. Most clients have nodules or plaques on the lower extremities that rarely metastasize beyond this area. Classic KS is chronic, relatively benign, and rarely fatal. Stasis ulcers do not create nodules. Bullous pemphigoid is characterized by blistering. Psoriasis characteristically presents with silvery plaques.

A client's burns are estimated at 36% of total body surface area; fluid resuscitation has been ordered in the emergency department. After establishing intravenous access, the nurse should anticipate the administration of what fluid? A. 0.45% NaCl with 20 mEq/L KCl B. 0.45% NaCl with 40 mEq/L KCl C. Normal saline D. Lactated Ringer

D. Lactated Ringer Rationale: Fluid resuscitation with lactated Ringer (LR) should be initiated using the American Burn Association's (ABA) fluid resuscitation formulas. LR is the crystalloid of choice because its composition and osmolality most closely resemble plasma and because use of normal saline is associated with hyperchloremic acidosis. Potassium chloride solutions would exacerbate the hyperkalemia that occurs following burn injuries.

A nurse assesses an older adult's skin. Which findings require immediate referral? (Select all that apply.) A. Excessive moisture under axilla B. Increased hair thinning C. Presence of toenail fungus D. Lesion with various colors E. Spider veins on legs F. Asymmetric 6-mm dark lesion on forehead

D. Lesion with various colors F. Asymmetric 6-mm dark lesion on forehead Rationale: The lesion with various colors, as well as the asymmetric 6-mm dark lesion, fits two of the Skin Cancer Foundation's hallmark signs for cancer according to the ABCDE method. Other signs and symptoms, while not normal, are not cause for concern.

While performing an initial assessment of a client admitted with appendicitis, the nurse observes an elevated blue-black lesion on the client's ear. The nurse knows that this lesion is consistent with what type of skin cancer? A. Basal cell carcinoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Dermatofibroma D. Malignant melanoma

D. Malignant melanoma Rationale: A malignant melanoma presents itself as a superficial spreading melanoma which may appear in a combination of colors, with hues of tan, brown, and black mixed with gray, blue-black, or white. The lesion tends to be circular, with irregular outer portions. BCC usually begins as a small, waxy nodule with rolled, translucent, pearly borders; telangiectatic vessels may be present. SCC appears as a rough, thickened, scaly tumor that may be asymptomatic or may involve bleeding. A dermatofibroma presents as a firm, dome-shaped papule or nodule that may be skin colored or pinkish brown.

A nurse cares for a client who has a stage 3 pressure injury with copious exudate. What type of dressing does the nurse use on this wound? A. Wet-to-damp saline moistened gauze B. None, the wound is left open to the air C. A transparent film D. Multi-fiber superabsorbent dressing

D. Multi-fiber superabsorbent dressing Rationale: This pressure injury requires a superabsorbent dressing that will collect the exudate but not stick to the wound itself. A wet-to-damp gauze dressing provides mechanical removal of necrotic tissue. A draining wound would not be left open. A transparent film is a good choice for a noninfected stage 2 pressure injury.

A client who has sustained third-degree facial burns and a facial fracture is undergoing reconstructive surgery and implantation of a prosthesis. The nurse has identified a nursing diagnosis of Low Self Esteem related to use of facial prosthetic secondary to reconstructive surgery. Which nursing intervention would be appropriate for this diagnosis? A. Referring the client to a speech therapist B. Gradually adding soft foods to diet C. Administering analgesics as prescribed D. Teaching the client how to use and care for the prosthesis

D. Teaching the client how to use and care for the prosthesis Rationale: The process of facial reconstruction is often slow and tedious. Because a person's facial appearance affects self-esteem so greatly, this type of reconstruction is often a very emotional experience for the client. Reinforcement of the client's successful coping strategies improves self-esteem. If prosthetic devices are used, the client is taught how to use and care for them to gain a sense of greater independence. This is an intervention that relates to Disturbed Body Image in these clients. None of the other listed interventions relate directly to the diagnosis of Disturbed Body Image.

An emergency department nurse has just admitted a client with a burn. What characteristic of the burn will primarily determine whether the client experiences a systemic response to this injury? A. The length of time since the burn B. The location of burned skin surfaces C. The source of the burn D. The total body surface area (TBSA) affected by the burn

D. The total body surface area (TBSA) affected by the burn Rationale: Systemic effects are a result of several variables. However, TBSA and wound severity are considered the major factors that affect the presence or absence of systemic effects.

An occupational health nurse is called to the floor of a factory where a worker has sustained a flash burn to the right arm. The nurse arrives and the flames have been extinguished. The next step is to "cool the burn." How should the nurse cool the burn? A. Apply ice to the site of the burn for 5 to 10 minutes. B. Wrap the client's affected extremity in ice until help arrives. C. Apply an oil-based substance to the burned area until help arrives. D. Wrap cool towels around the affected extremity intermittently.

D. Wrap cool towels around the affected extremity intermittently. Rationale: Once the burn has been sustained, the application of cool water is the best first-aid measure. Soaking the burn area intermittently in cool water or applying cool towels gives immediate and striking relief from pain, and limits local tissue edema and damage. However, never apply ice directly to the burn, never wrap the person in ice, and never use cold soaks or dressings for longer than several minutes; such procedures may worsen the tissue damage and lead to hypothermia in people with large burns. Oils are contraindicated.