Exam B

QUESTION 110 Which feature does PPP use to encapsulate multiple protocols? A. NCP B. LCP C. IPCP D. IPXP

Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Network Core Protocol (NCP) is the component that encapsulates and configures multiple network layer protocols.

QUESTION 135 A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default characteristics. Each process learns a route to the same remote network. If there are no static routes to the destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in the IP routing table? A. the route learned through EIGRP B. the route learned through OSPF C. the route learned through RIP D. the route with the lowest metric E. all three routes with the router load balancing

Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path. Administrative distance defines the reliability of a routing protocol. Each routing protocol is prioritized in order of most to least reliable (believable) with the help of an administrative distance value. Lowest Administrative distance will be chosen first.

QUESTION 86 Which two statements are characteristics of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.) A. Each router has its own view of the topology. B. Updates are periodic and include the entire routing table. C. Routing updates are sent only after topology changes. D. Convergence is usually faster than with link state protocols. E. RIP is an example of distance vector routing protocols. F. The protocol can be useful in hub-and-spoke and hierarchical networks.

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 88 What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol? A. 90 B. 100 C. 110 D. 120 E. 130 F. 170

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 138 What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status? A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table. B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers. C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network. D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.

Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Introduction to EIGRP Feasible Successors A destination entry is moved from the topology table to the routing table when there is a feasible successor. All minimum cost paths to the destination form a set. From this set, the neighbors that have an advertised metric less than the current routing table metric are considered feasible successors. Feasible successors are viewed by a router as neighbors that are downstream with respect to the destination. These neighbors and the associated metrics are placed in the forwarding table. When a neighbor changes the metric it has been advertising or a topology change occurs in the network, the set of feasible successors may have to be re-evaluated. However, this is not categorized as a route recomputation. Route States A topology table entry for a destination can have one of two states. A route is considered in the Passive state when a router is not performing a route recomputation. The route is in Active state when a router is undergoing a route recomputation. If there are always feasible successors, a route never has to go into Active state and avoids a route recomputation. When there are no feasible successors, a route goes into Active state and a route recomputation occurs. A route recomputation commences with a router sending a query packet to all neighbors. Neighboring routers can either reply if they have feasible successors for the destination or optionally return a query indicating that they are performing a route recomputation. While in Active state, a router cannot change the next-hop neighbor it is using to forward packets. Once all replies are received for a given query, the destination can transition to Passive state and a new successor can be selected. When a link to a neighbor that is the only feasible successor goes down, all routes through that neighbor commence a route recomputation and enter the Active state.

QUESTION 134 Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router? A. ipv6 local B. ipv6 host C. ipv6 unicast-routing D. ipv6 neighbor

Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: The first step of enabling IPv6 on a Cisco router is the activation of IPv6 traffic forwarding to forward unicast IPv6 packets between network interfaces. By default, IPv6 traffic forwarding is disabled on Cisco routers. The ipv6 unicast-routing command is used to enable the forwarding of IPv6 packets between interfaces on the router. The syntax for this command is as follows: Router(config)#ipv6 unicast-routing The ipv6 unicast-routing command is enabled on a global basis.

QUESTION 124 What is one benefit of PVST+? A. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops. B. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network. C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN. D. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.

Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) Introduction Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) maintains a spanning tree instance for each VLAN configured in the network. It means a switch can be the root bridge of a VLAN while another switch can be the root bridge of other VLANs in a common topology. For example, Switch 1 can be the root bridge for Voice data while Switch 2 can be the root bridge for Video data. If designed correctly, it can optimize the network traffic.

QUESTION 140 Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states? A. show ip ospf link-state B. show ip ospf lsa database C. show ip ospf neighbors D. show ip ospf database

Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Examples The following is sample output from the show ip ospf database command when no arguments or keywords are used: Router# show ip ospf database OSPF Router with id (192.168.239.66) (Process ID 300)

QUESTION 74 Which two data link layers are supported by Cisco IOS Software for IPv6? (Choose two.) A. FDDI B. PPP C. NBMA D. Frame Relay SVC E. Frame Relay PVC

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 16 Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN? A. ping address B. tracert address C. traceroute address D. arp address

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42 When are packets processed by an inbound access list? A. before they are routed to an outbound interface B. after they are routed to an outbound interface C. before and after they are routed to an outbound interface D. after they are routed to an outbound interface but before being placed in the outbound queue

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 53 Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between switches? A. VTP B. STP C. ISL D. 802.1Q E. VLSM

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 70 In which solution is a router ACL used? A. filtering packets that are passing through a router B. to change the default administrative distance of a route in the route table C. protecting a server from unauthorized access D. controlling path selection, based on the route metric

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 79 Given an IP address 172.16.28.252 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, what is the correct network address? A. 172.16.16.0 B. 172.16.0.0 C. 172.16.24.0 D. 172.16.28.0

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 91 What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0? A. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 B. network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0 C. network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0 D. network all-interfaces area 0

Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Example 3-1 displays OSPF with a process ID of 1 and places all interfaces configured with an IP address in area 0. The network command network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 dictates that you do not care what the IP address is, but if an IP address is enabled on any interface, place it in area 0. Example 3-1 Configuring OSPF in a Single Area router ospf 1 network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

QUESTION 146 What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure? A. local DLCI on the subinterface B. remote DLCI on the main interface C. remote DCLI on the subinterface D. local DLCI on the main interface

Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Frame Relay for ICND Exam To assign a data-link connection identifier (DLCI) to a specified Frame Relay subinterface on the router or access server, or to assign a specific permanent virtual circuit (PVC) to a DLCI, or to apply a virtual template configuration for a PPP session, use the frame-relay interface-dlci interface configuration command. Example 4-23 Example of frame-relay interface-dlci Command and the Output of show frame-relay map R4(config)#interface s1/2.403 point-to-point R4(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci ? <16-1007> Define a switched or locally terminated DLCI R4(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 403 ? cisco Use CISCO Encapsulation ietf Use RFC1490/RFC2427 Encapsulation ppp Use RFC1973 Encapsulation to support PPP over FR protocol Optional protocol information for remote end <cr> R4#show frame-relay map Serial1/2.403 (up): point-to-point dlci, dlci 403(0xC9,0x3090), broadcast status defined, active R4#

QUESTION 127 Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers? A. Bandwidth B. Bandwidth and Delay C. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load

Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: OSPF Cost The cost (also called metric) of an interface in OSPF is an indication of the overhead required to send packets across a certain interface. The cost of an interface is inversely proportional to the bandwidth of that interface. A higher bandwidth indicates a lower cost. There is more overhead (higher cost) and time delays involved in crossing a 56k serial line than crossing a 10M Ethernet line. The formula used to calculate the cost is: Cost= 10000 0000/bandwidth in bps For example, it will cost 10 EXP8/10 EXP7 = 10 to cross a 10M Ethernet line and will cost 10 EXP8/1544000 =64 to cross a T1 line. By default, the cost of an interface is calculated based on the bandwidth; you can force the cost of an interface with the ip ospf cost <value> interface sub configuration mode command.

QUESTION 157 Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or forwarding state? A. converged B. redundant C. provisioned D. spanned

Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, root bridge is elected and all port roles (Root, Designated and Non-Designated) in all switches are selected.

QUESTION 87 Which two Cisco IOS commands, used in troubleshooting, can enable debug output to a remote location? (Choose two.) A. terminal monitor B. logging host ip-address C. no logging console D. snmp-server enable traps syslog E. show logging | redirect flash: output.txt

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 97 What are the two default metrics used by EIGRP for route selection? (Choose two.) A. Bandwidth B. Delay C. Reliability D. Load E. MTU

Correct Answer: AB Explanation Explanation/Reference: EIGRP adds together weighted values of different network link characteristics in order to calculate a metric for evaluating path selection. These characteristics include: Delay (measured in 10s of microseconds) Bandwidth (measured in kilobytes per second) Reliability (in numbers ranging from 1 to 255; 255 being the most reliable) Load (in numbers ranging from 1 to 255; 255 being saturated) Various constants (K 1 through K 5) are able to be set by a user to produce varying routing behaviors. However, by default, only delay and bandwidth are used in the weighted formula to produce a single 32bit metric: Note: Default K values are: K1 = K3 = 1 and K2 = K4 = K5 = 0. When K5 is equal to 0 then [K5/( K4 + reliability)] is defined to be 1 Use of the default constants effectively reduces the formula above to:

QUESTION 122 Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.) A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure. B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles. C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding. D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does. E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence. F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation Explanation/Reference: Convergence Cisco enhanced the original 802.1D specification with features such as Uplink Fast, Backbone Fast, and Port Fast to speed up the convergence time of a bridged network. The drawback is that these mechanisms are proprietary and need additional configuration. Alternate and Backup Port Roles These two port roles correspond to the blocking state of 802.1D. A blocked port is defined as not being the designated or root port. A blocked port receives a more useful BPDU than the one it sends out on its segment. Remember that a port absolutely needs to receive BPDUs in order to stay blocked. RSTP introduces these two roles for this purpose. Rapid Transition to Forwarding State Rapid transition is the most important feature introduced by 802.1w. The legacy STA passively waited for the network to converge before it turned a port into the forwarding state. The achievement of faster convergence was a matter of tuning the conservative default parameters (forward delay and max_age timers) and often put the stability of the network at stake. The new rapid STP is able to actively confirm that a port can safely transition to the forwarding state without having to rely on any timer configuration. There is now a real feedback mechanism that takes place between RSTP-compliant bridges. In order to achieve fast convergence on a port, the protocol relies upon two new variables: edge ports and link type.

QUESTION 57 Identify the four valid IPv6 addresses. (Choose four.) A. :: B. ::192:168:0:1 C. 2000:: D. 2001:3452:4952:2837:: E. 2002:c0a8:101::42 F. 2003:dead:beef:4dad:23:46:bb:101

Correct Answer: ABEF

QUESTION 48 Which two statements about static NAT translations are true? (Choose two.) A. They allow connections to be initiated from the outside. B. They require no inside or outside interface markings because addresses are statically defined. C. They are always present in the NAT table. D. They can be configured with access lists, to allow two or more connections to be initiated from the outside.

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 69 A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router, to allow traffic from hosts on networks 192.168.146.0, 192.168.147.0, 192.168.148.0, and 192.168.149.0 only. Which two ACL statements, when combined, are the best for accomplishing this task? (Choose two.) A. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255 B. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.147.0 0.0.255.255 C. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255 D. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.149.0 0.0.255.255 E. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.0.255 F. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 255.255.255.0

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 76 Which two privileged mode Cisco IOS commands can be used to determine a Cisco router chassis serial number? (Choose two.) A. show diag B. show controllers C. show inventory D. show flash: filesys E. dir flash: | include chassis

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 77 Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.) A. anycast B. broadcast C. multicast D. podcast E. allcast

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6 What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.) A. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network traffic. B. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same network infrastructure. C. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure. D. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their size E. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing their size. F. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to the same broadcast domain. G. Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks.

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 7 Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme. (Choose three.) A. enable dual-stack routing B. configure IPv6 directly C. configure IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands D. use proxying and translation to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets E. statically map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses F. use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 62 What three pieces of information can be used in an extended access list to filter traffic? (Choose three.) A. protocol B. VLAN number C. TCP or UDP port numbers D. source switch port number E. source IP address and destination IP address F. source MAC address and destination MAC address

Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 125 What are three characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three.) A. It converges quickly. B. OSPF is a classful routing protocol. C. It uses cost to determine the best route. D. It uses the DUAL algorithm to determine the best route. E. OSPF routers send the complete routing table to all directly attached routers. F. OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.

Correct Answer: ACF Explanation Explanation/Reference: Open Shortest Path First Additional OSPF features include equal-cost, multipath routing, and routing based on upper-layer type-of- service (TOS) requests. TOS-based routing supports those upper-layer protocols that can specify particular types of service. An application, for example, might specify that certain data is urgent. If OSPF has high-priority links at its disposal, these can be used to transport the urgent datagram. OSPF supports one or more metrics. If only one metric is used, it is considered to be arbitrary, and TOS is not supported. If more than one metric is used, TOS is optionally supported through the use of a separate metric (and, therefore, a separate routing table) for each of the eight combinations created by the three IP TOS bits (the delay, throughput, and reliability bits). For example, if the IP TOS bits specify low delay, low throughput, and high reliability, OSPF calculates routes to all destinations based on this TOS designation. IP subnet masks are included with each advertised destination, enabling variable- length subnet masks. With variable-length subnet masks, an IP network can be broken into many subnets of various sizes. This provides network administrators with extra network-configuration flexibility.

QUESTION 90 Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two.) A. It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA. B. It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance. C. By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF Router ID. D. The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID. E. It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface.

Correct Answer: AD Explanation Explanation/Reference: From the output of the "show ip ospf database": r120#show ip ospf data OSPF Router with ID (10.0.0.120) (Process ID1) Next, who are the other routers in our area? Router Link States (Area 1) Link ID ADV Router Age Seq# Checksum Link count 10.0.0.111 10.0.0.111 600 0x8000023A 0x0092B3 1 10.0.0.112 10.0.0.112 1246 0x80000234 0x009CAC 1 10.0.0.113 10.0.0.113 148 0x8000022C 0x004399 3 10.0.0.120 10.0.0.120 152 0x80000240 0x0046CB 1 This tells us there are four routers in Area 1. The router with RID 10.0.0.113 has 3 links in Area 1, everyone else has only 1 link. Also the router will choose the highest loopback interface as its OSPF router ID (if available).

QUESTION 128 Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.) A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination. B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails. C. Successor routes are flagged as 'active' in the routing table. D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route. E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.

Correct Answer: AD Explanation Explanation/Reference: Introduction to EIGRP Feasible Successors A destination entry is moved from the topology table to the routing table when there is a feasible successor. All minimum cost paths to the destination form a set. From this set, the neighbors that have an advertised metric less than the current routing table metric are considered feasible successors. Feasible successors are viewed by a router as neighbors that are downstream with respect to the destination. These neighbors and the associated metrics are placed in the forwarding table. When a neighbor changes the metric it has been advertising or a topology change occurs in the network, the set of feasible successors may have to be re- evaluated. However, this is not categorized as a route recomputation.

QUESTION 100 What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.) A. source IP address B. source MAC address C. egress interface D. ingress interface E. destination IP address F. IP next-hop

Correct Answer: ADE Explanation Explanation/Reference: Each packet that is forwarded within a router or switch is examined for a set of IP packet attributes. These attributes are the IP packet identity or fingerprint of the packet and determine if the packet is unique or similar to other packets. Traditionally, an IP Flow is based on a set of 5 and up to 7 IP packet attributes. IP Packet attributes used by NetFlow: IP source address IP destination address Source port Destination port Layer 3 protocol type Class of Service Router or switch interface All packets with the same source/destination IP address, source/destination ports, protocol interface and class of service are grouped into a flow and then packets and bytes are tallied. This methodology of fingerprinting or determining a flow is scalable because a large amount of network information is condensed into a database of NetFlow information called the NetFlow cache.

QUESTION 113 When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state? A. exstart state > loading state > exchange state > full state B. exstart state > exchange state > loading state >full state C. exstart state > full state > loading state > exchange state D. loading state > exchange state > full state > exstart state

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13 Which IPv6 routing protocol uses multicast group FF02::9 to send updates? A. static B. RIPng C. OSPFv3 D. IS-IS for IPv6

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15 Which device might be installed at a branch office to enable and manage an IPsec site-to-site VPN? A. Cisco IOS IPsec/SSL VPN Client B. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance C. Cisco VPN Client D. ISDN terminal adapter

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18 Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group? A. FF02::1 B. FF02::2 C. FF02::3 D. FF02::4

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25 Which address is the IPv6 all-RIP-routers multicast group address that is used by RIPng as the destination address for RIP updates? A. FF02::6 B. FF02::9 C. FF05::101 D. FF02::A

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26 Which command shows your active Telnet connections? A. show cdp neigbors B. show session C. show users D. show vty logins

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38 You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement? A. 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252 B. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248 C. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252 D. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240 E. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 39 How does using the service password-encryption command on a router provide additional security? A. by encrypting all passwords passing through the router B. by encrypting passwords in the plain text configuration file C. by requiring entry of encrypted passwords for access to the device D. by configuring an MD5 encrypted key to be used by routing protocols to validate routing exchanges E. by automatically suggesting encrypted passwords for use in configuring the router

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 43 Which command can be used from a router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host? A. tracert address B. traceroute address C. telnet address D. ssh address

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 55 Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch? A. 1 through 1001 B. 2 through 1001 C. 1 through 1002 D. 2 through 1005

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 58 A network administrator receives an error message while trying to configure the Ethernet interface of a router with IP address 10.24.24.24/29. Which statement explains the reason for this issue? A. VLSM-capable routing protocols must be enabled first on the router. B. This address is a network address. C. This address is a broadcast address. D. The Ethernet interface is faulty.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 61 Which protocol should be used to establish a secure terminal connection to a remote network device? A. ARP B. SSH C. Telnet D. WEP E. SNMPv1 F. SNMPv2

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 64 Which router command can be used to verify the type of cable connected to interface serial 0/0? A. show running-config B. show controllers' serial 0/0 C. show interfaces serial 0/0 D. show ip interface serial 0/0

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 96 What can cause two OSPF neighbors to be stuck in the EXSTART state? A. There is a low bandwidth connection between neighbors. B. The neighbors have different MTU settings. C. The OSPF interfaces are in a passive state. D. There is only layer one connectivity between neighbors.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 131 What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router? A. 2 B. 4 C. 16 D. unlimited

Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: 4 is the default number of routes that OSPF will include in routing table if more than 4 equal cost routes exist for the same subnet. However, OSPF can include up to 16 equal cost routes in the routing table and perform load balancing amongst them. In order to configure this feature, you need to use the OSPF subcommand maximum-paths, i.e. maximum-paths 16.

QUESTION 123 At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops? A. physical B. data link C. network D. transport

Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the exchange of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in which the MAC address is used to elect the Root Bridge, RSTP operates at Layer 2.

QUESTION 98 Which statement describes the process ID that is used to run OSPF on a router? A. It is globally significant and is used to represent the AS number. B. It is locally significant and is used to identify an instance of the OSPF database. C. It is globally significant and is used to identify OSPF stub areas. D. It is locally significant and must be the same throughout an area.

Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: The Process ID for OSPF on a router is only locally significant and you can use the same number on each router, or each router can have a different number -it just doesn't matter. The numbers you can use are from 1 to 65,535. Don't get this confused with area numbers, which can be from 0 to 4.2 billion.

QUESTION 94 Which statement describes VRRP object tracking? A. It monitors traffic flow and link utilization. B. It ensures the best VRRP router is the virtual router master for the group. C. It causes traffic to dynamically move to higher bandwidth links. D. It thwarts man-in-the-middle attacks.

Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: VRRP object tracking provides a way to ensure the best VRRP router is virtual router master for the group by altering VRRP priorities to the status of tracked objects such as interface or IP route states.

QUESTION 132 Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used? A. hop count B. administrative distance C. link bandwidth D. link delay E. link cost

Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: What Is Administrative Distance? Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path. Administrative distance defines the reliability of a routing protocol. Each routing protocol is prioritized in order of most to least reliable (believable) with the help of an administrative distance value. Lowest Administrative distance will be chosen first.

QUESTION 95 What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two.) A. It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area. B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated. C. It removes the need for virtual links. D. It increases LSA response times. E. It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.

Correct Answer: BC Explanation Explanation/Reference: OSPF uses a LSDB (link state database) and fills this with LSAs (link state advertisement). The link types are as follows: LSA Type 1: Router LSA LSA Type 2: Network LSA LSA Type 3: Summary LSA LSA Type 4: Summary ASBR LSA LSA Type 5: Autonomous system external LSA LSA Type 6: Multicast OSPF LSA LSA Type 7: Not-so-stubby area LSA LSA Type 8: External attribute LSA for BGP If all routers are in the same area, then many of these LSA types (Summary ASBR LSA, external LSA, etc) will not be used and will not be generated by any router. All areas in an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) autonomous system must be physically connected to the backbone area (Area 0). In some cases, where this is not possible, you can use a virtual link to connect to the backbone through a non- backbone area. You can also use virtual links to connect two parts of a partitioned backbone through a non-backbone area. The area through which you configure the virtual link, known as a transit area, must have full routing information. The transit area cannot be a stub area. Virtual links are not ideal and should really only be used for temporary network solutions or migrations. However, if all locations are in a single OSPF area this is not needed.

QUESTION 109 It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. Which of the following are required to solve this? (Choose three) A. configure static frame relay map entries for each subinterface network. B. remove the ip address from the physical interface C. create the virtual interfaces with the interface command D. configure each subinterface with its own IP address E. disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks F. encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP

Correct Answer: BCD Explanation Explanation/Reference: Step to configure Frame Relay subinterfaces on a physical interface: 1. Remove any network layer address (IP) assigned to the physical interface. If the physical interface has an address, frames are not received by the local subinterfaces. 2. Configure Frame Relay encapsulation on the physical interface using the encapsulation frame-relay command. 3. For each of the defined PVCs, create a logical subinterface. Specify the port number, followed by a period (.) and the subinterface number. To make troubleshooting easier, it is suggested that the subinterface number matches the DLCI number. 4. Configure an IP address for the interface and set the bandwidth. 5. Configure the local DLCI on the subinterface using the frame-relay interface-dlci command.

QUESTION 44 An access list has been designed to prevent Telnet traffic from the Graphics Department from reaching the HR server attached to the Eastfield router but allow Telnet traffic to other destinations. Given the following access list: access-list 101 deny tcp any any eq 23 permit ip any any On which router, interface, and in what direction should the access list be placed to most efficiently implement this list? (Choose three.) A. Westfield B. Eastfield C. e0 D. s0 E. in F. out

Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 35 Two switches are connected through a trunk link. Which two commands show that there is a native VLAN mismatch on that link? (Choose two.) A. show vlan brief B. show interface trunk C. show interface vlan D. show interface switchport E. show interface interface F. show switchport trunk

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 33 Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.) A. one physical interface for each subinterface B. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface C. a management domain for each subinterface D. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags E. one subinterface per VLAN F. subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags

Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 119 Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.) A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+. B. RSTP defines new port roles. C. RSTP defines no new port states. D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP. E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

Correct Answer: BE Explanation Explanation/Reference: Port Roles The role is now a variable assigned to a given port. The root port and designated port roles remain, while the blocking port role is split into the backup and alternate port roles. The Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA) determines the role of a port based on Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs). In order to simplify matters, the thing to remember about a BPDU is there is always a method to compare any two of them and decide whether one is more useful than the other. This is based on the value stored in the BPDU and occasionally on the port on which they are received. This considered, the information in this section explains practical approaches to port roles. Compatibility with 802.1D RSTP is able to interoperate with legacy STP protocols. However, it is important to note that the inherent fast convergence benefits of 802.1w are lost when it interacts with legacy bridges.

QUESTION 52 What are three valid reasons to assign ports to VLANs on a switch? (Choose three.) A. to make VTP easier to implement B. to isolate broadcast traffic C. to increase the size of the collision domain D. to allow more devices to connect to the network E. to logically group hosts according to function F. to increase network security

Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 78 Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.) A. one-to-many communication model B. one-to-nearest communication model C. any-to-many communication model D. a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group E. the same address for multiple devices in the group F. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device

Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 34 Which three statements about VTP features are true? (Choose three.) A. VTP works at Layer 3 of the OSI model and requires that a management VLAN IP address be configured. B. When properly configured, VTP minimizes VLAN misconfigurations and configuration inconsistencies. C. When properly configured, VTP maintains VLAN configuration consistency and accelerates trunk link negotiation. D. Each broadcast domain on a switch can have its own unique VTP domain. E. VTP pruning is used to increase available bandwidth in trunk links. F. To configure a switch to be part of two VTP domains, each domain must have its own passwords. G. Client, server, and transparent are valid VTP modes.

Correct Answer: BEG

QUESTION 8 What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two.) A. NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enabled. B. NAT eliminates the need to re-address all hosts that require external access. C. NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing. D. Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network. E. NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets. F. NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.

Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 133 Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.) A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases. B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table. C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router. D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes. E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates. F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors. G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.

Correct Answer: BG

Explanation QUESTION 10 VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode? A. The command is rejected. B. The port turns amber. C. The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat. D. The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17 When using the CLI, which banner displays a message upon every connection that is made into the router? A. exec B. login C. motd D. slip-ppp

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22 A network administrator must configure 200 switch ports to accept traffic from only the currently attached host devices. What would be the most efficient way to configure MAC-level security on all these ports? A. Visually verify the MAC addresses and then telnet to the switches to enter the switchport-port security mac-address command. B. Have end users e-mail their MAC addresses. Telnet to the switch to enter the switchport-port security mac-address command. C. Use the switchport port-security MAC address sticky command on all the switch ports that have end devices connected to them. D. Use show mac-address-table to determine the addresses that are associated with each port and then enter the commands on each switch for MAC address port-security.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 45 Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports? A. static NAT B. dynamic NAT C. overloading D. overlapping E. port loading

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 56 The ROUTE company has a small network. The network consists of one switch and one router. The switch has been configured with two VLANs. The router has been configured as a router-on-a-stick to allow inter- VLAN routing. A trunk is configured to connect the switch to the router. What is the minimum number of router subinterfaces that are required for all the VLANs to communicate? A. zero B. one C. two D. three

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 81 Which pairing reflects a correct protocol-and-metric relationship? A. EIGRP and link cost B. OSPF and number of hops and reliability C. RIPv2 and number of hops D. IS-IS and delay and reliability

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 82 A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing the configuration and issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be encrypted. Which set of commands will accomplish this task? A. service password-encryption access-list permit 192.168.1.0.0.0.0.255 line vty0 4 login password cisco access-class 1 B. enable password secret line vty0 login password cisco C. service password-encryption line vty0 login password cisco D. service password-encryption line vty0 4 login password cisco

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 126 Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing? A. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates. B. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols. C. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets. D. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.

Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: RIPv1, RIPv2, IGRP, and EIGRP all auto-summarize classful boundaries by default (OSPF does not). To make discontinuous networks work, meaning you don't want classful boundries to summarize, you need to turn off auto-summary.

QUESTION 120 Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST? A. learning B. listening C. discarding D. forwarding

Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Spanning Tree from PVST+ to Rapid-PVST Migration Configuration Example PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port states (discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening, learning, forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+. Background Information 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) has a drawback of slow convergence. Cisco Catalyst switches support three types of STPs, which are PVST+, rapid-PVST+ and MST. PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D standard and includes Cisco proprietary extensions such as BackboneFast, UplinkFast, and PortFast. Rapid-PVST+ is based on IEEE 802.1w standard and has a faster convergence than 802.1D. RSTP (IEEE 802.1w) natively includes most of the Cisco proprietary enhancements to the 802.1D Spanning Tree, such as BackboneFast and UplinkFast. Rapid-PVST+ has these unique features: Uses Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) version 2 which is backward compatible with the 802.1D STP, which uses BPDU version 0. All the switches generate BPDUs and send out on all the ports every 2 seconds, whereas in 802.1D STP only the root bridge sends the configuration BPDUs. Port Roles--Root port, designated port, alternate port and backup port. Port States--Discarding, Learning, and Forwarding. Port Types--Edge Port (PortFast), Point-to-Point and Shared port. Rapid-PVST uses RSTP to provide faster convergence. When any RSTP port receives legacy 802.1D BPDU, it falls back to legacy STP and the inherent fast convergence benefits of 802.1w are lost when it interacts with legacy bridges.

QUESTION 5 Which two data integrity algorithms are commonly used in VPN solutions? (Choose two.) A. DH1 B. DH2 C. HMAC-MD5 D. HMAC-SHA-1 E. RSA

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 75 Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (Choose two.) A. SW1#show port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12 B. SW1#show switchport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12 C. SW1#show running-config D. SW1#show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12 E. SW1#show switchport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 72 A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.) A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports. B. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels. C. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses, up to the maximum defined. D. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration. E. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice VLAN.

Correct Answer: CD Explanation/Reference: Follow these guidelines when configuring port security: Port security can only be configured on static access ports, trunk ports, or 802.1Q tunnel ports. A secure port cannot be a dynamic access port. A secure port cannot be a destination portfor Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN). A secure port cannot belong to a Fast EtherChannel or Gigabit EtherChannel port group. You cannot configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses on a voice VLAN. When you enable port security on an interface that is also configured with a voice VLAN, you must set the maximum allowed secure addresses on the port to at least two. If any type of port security is enabled on the access VLAN, dynamic port security is automatically enabled on the voice VLAN. When a voice VLAN is configured on a secure port that is also configured as a sticky secure port, all addresses seen on the voice VLAN are learned as dynamic secure addresses, and all addresses seen on the access VLAN (to which the port belongs) are learned as sticky secure addresses. The switch does not support port security aging of sticky secure MAC addresses. The protect and restrict options cannot be simultaneously enabled on an interface

QUESTION 49 A network administrator wants to ensure that only the server can connect to port Fa0/1 on a Catalyst switch. The server is plugged into the switch Fa0/1 port and the network administrator is about to bring the server online. What can the administrator do to ensure that only the MAC address of the server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1? (Choose two.) A. Configure port Fa0/1 to accept connections only from the static IP address of the server. B. Employ a proprietary connector type on Fa0/1 that is incompatible with other host connectors. C. Configure the MAC address of the server as a static entry associated with port Fa0/1. D. Bind the IP address of the server to its MAC address on the switch to prevent other hosts from spoofing the server IP address. E. Configure port security on Fa0/1 to reject traffic with a source MAC address other than that of the server. F. Configure an access list on the switch to deny server traffic from entering any port other than Fa0/1.

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 73 What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.) A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch reverts to transparent mode. B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed locally. C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision number is received. D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent mode. E. VTP client is the default VTP mode. F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the VTP servers.

Correct Answer: CF Explanation/Reference: VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) VTP Modes Server Mode Once VTP is configured on a Cisco switch, the default mode used is Server Mode. In any given VTP management domain, at least one switch must be in Server Mode. When in Server Mode, a switch can be used to add, delete, and modify VLANs, and this information will be passed to all other switches in the VTP management domain. Client Mode When a switch is configured to use VTP Client Mode, it is simply the recipient of any VLANs added, deleted, or modified by a switch in Server Mode within the same management domain. A switch in VTP client mode cannot make any changes to VLAN information. Transparent Mode A switch in VTP Transparent Mode will pass VTP updates received by switches in Server Mode to other switches in the VTP management domain, but will not actually process the contents of these messages. When individual VLANs are added, deleted, or modified on a switch running in transparent mode, the changes are local to that particular switch only, and are not passed to other switches in the VTP management domain.

QUESTION 11 When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which command can help you to verify which interfaces are affected by the ACL? A. show ip access-lists B. show access-lists C. show interface D. show ip interface E. list ip interface

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12 Which name describes an IPv6 host-enabled tunneling technique that uses IPv4 UDP, does not require dedicated gateway tunnels, and can pass through existing IPv4 NAT gateways? A. manual 6to4 B. dual stack C. dynamic D. Teredo

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14 On which options are standard access lists based? A. destination address and wildcard mask B. destination address and subnet mask C. source address and subnet mask D. source address and wildcard mask

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24 The network administrator is asked to configure 113 point-to-point links. Which IP addressing scheme best defines the address range and subnet mask that meet the requirement and waste the fewest subnet and host addresses? A. 10.10.0.0/16 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252 B. 10.10.0.0/18 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252 C. 10.10.1.0/24 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252 D. 10.10.0.0/23 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252 E. 10.10.1.0/25 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27 Which component of VPN technology ensures that data is unaltered between the sender and recipient? A. encryption B. authentication C. key exchange D. data integrity

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28 What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72? A. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72 B. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72 C. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72 D. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29 In which integration method is an IPv6 packet encapsulated within an IPv4 protocol? A. dual-stack B. proxy C. dot1q D. tunneling

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 36 Which statement about IPv6 is true? A. Addresses are not hierarchical and are assigned at random. B. Only one IPv6 address can exist on a given interface. C. There are 2.7 billion addresses available. D. Broadcasts have been eliminated and replaced with multicasts.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 40 In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN? A. during high traffic periods B. after broken links are re-established C. when upper-layer protocols require high reliability D. in an improperly implemented redundant topology E. when a dual ring topology is in use

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 59 You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements? A. 10.188.31.0/26 B. 10.188.31.0/25 C. 10.188.31.0/28 D. 10.188.31.0/27 E. 10.188.31.0/29

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 60 Which IPv6 address is valid? A. 2001:0db8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B B. 2001:0db8:0:130H::87C:140B C. 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B D. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 65 Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a Cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols? A. transport output all B. transport preferred all C. transport type all D. transport input all

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 71 Which IPsec security protocol should be used when confidentiality is required? A. MD5 B. PSK C. AH D. ESP

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 80 Which command helps a network administrator to manage memory by displaying flash memory and NVRAM utilization? A. show version B. show ram C. show flash: D. show file systems

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 85 Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router? A. show reload B. show boot C. show running-config D. show version

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9 Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over Fast Ethernet? A. 802.3ad B. 802.1w C. 802.1D D. 802.1Q

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 153 The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows "PVC STATUS = INACTIVE". What does this mean? A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected for more than five minutes. B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address of the remote router. C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger a call to the remote router. D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC E. The PVC is not configured on the local switch.

Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: The PVC STATUS displays the status of the PVC. The DCE device creates and sends the report to the DTE devices. There are 4 statuses: ACTIVE: the PVC is operational and can transmit dataINACTIVE: the connection from the local router to the switch is working, but the connection to the remote router is not availableDELETED: the PVC is not present and no LMI information is being received from the Frame Relay switch STATIC: the Local Management Interface (LMI) mechanism on the interface is disabled (by using the "no keepalive" command). This status is rarely seen.

QUESTION 112 A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information? A. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency B. Router# show ip eigrp topology C. Router#show ip eigrp interfaces D. Router#show ip eigrp neighbors

Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Implementing EIGRP Below is an example of the show ip eigrp neighbors command. The retransmit interval (Smooth Round Trip Timer SRTT) and the queue counts (Q count, which shows the number of queued EIGRP packets) for the adjacent routers are listed:

QUESTION 102 Which statement describes an EIGRP feasible successor route? A. A primary route, added to the routing table B. A backup route, added to the routing table C. A primary route, added to the topology table D. A backup route, added to the topology table

Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Two terms that appear often in the EIGRP world are "successor" and "feasible successor". A successor is the route with the best metric to reach a destination. That route is stored in the routing table. A feasible successor is a backup path to reach that same destination that can be used immediately if the successor route fails. These backup routes are stored in the topology table.

QUESTION 50 The company internetwork is subnetted using 29 bits. Which wildcard mask should be used to configure an extended access list to permit or deny access to an entire subnetwork? A. 255.255.255.224 B. 255.255.255.248 C. 0.0.0.224 D. 0.0.0.8 E. 0.0.0.7 F. 0.0.0.3

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 107 The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command? A. This command should be executed from the global configuration mode. B. The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data. C. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information. D. This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations. E. The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.

Correct Answer: E Explanation Explanation/Reference: The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast means to map the remote IP 10.121.16.8 to the local DLCI 102. When the "broadcast" keyword is included, it turns Frame Relay network as a broadcast network, which can forward broadcasts.

QUESTION 104 A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 from multiple sources. What will the router consider the most reliable information about the path to that network? A. an OSPF update for network 192.168.0.0/16 B. a static route to network 192.168.10.0/24 C. a static route to network 192.168.10.0/24 with a local serial interface configured as the next hop D. a RIP update for network 192.168.10.0/24 E. a directly connected interface with an address of 192.168.10.254/24 F. a default route with a next hop address of 192.168.10.1

Correct Answer: E Explanation Explanation/Reference: What Is Administrative Distance? Select the Best Path Administrative distance is the first criterion that a router uses to determine which routing protocol to use if two protocols provide route information for the same destination. Administrative distance is a measure of the trustworthiness of the source of the routing information. Administrative distance has only local significance, and is not advertised in routing updates. Note: The smaller the administrative distance value, the more reliable the protocol. For example, if a router receives a route to a certain network from both Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) (default administrative distance -110) and Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) (default administrative distance -100), the router chooses IGRP because IGRP is more reliable. This means the router adds the IGRP version of the route to the routing table.

QUESTION 23 Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1? A. ::1 B. :: C. 2000::/3 D. 0::/10

Correct answer: A