FE - Lindeberg
41.3 In programming, a recursive function is a function that (A) calls previously used functions (B) generates functional code to replace symbolic code ( C) calls itself (D) compiles itself in real time
( C) calls itself A recursive function calls itself.
41.8 In a typical spreadsheet program, what cell is directly below cell AB4? (A) AB5 (B) AC4 (C) AC5 (D) BC4
(A) AB5 Spreadsheets generally label a cell by giving its column and row, in that order. Cell AB4 is in column AB, row 4. The cell directly below AB4 is in column AB, row 5, designated as AB5.
35.7 What type of memory is lost when power to a device is removed? (A) RAM (B) ROM (C) PROM (D) EPROM
(A) RAM ROM (read-only memory), PROM (programmable read-only memory), EPROM (erasable programmable read-only memory), and WORM (write once, read many) retain their nformation when power to the device is removed. RAM (random-access memory) does not retain information when the power is removed.
35.5 The acronym RDRAM refers to (A) Rambus dynamic random access memory (B) Rambus direct random access memory (C) redundant dual random access memory (D) random duplex random access memory
(A) Rambus dynamic random access memory RDRAM is an acronym for Rambus dynamic random access memory. RDRAM computer chips use Rambus signaling level technology to achieve high random-access speeds.
43.7 Which option best describes the contractual lines of privity between parties in a general construction contract? (A) The consulting engineer will have a contractual obligation to the owner, but will not have a contractual obligation with the general contractor or the subcontractors. (B) The consulting engineer will have a contractual obligation to the owner and the general contractor. (C) The consulting engineer will have a contractual obligation to the owner, general contractor, and subcontractors. (D) The consulting engineer will have a contractual obligation to the general contractor, but will not have a contractual obligation to the owner or subcontractors.
(A) The consulting engineer will have a contractual obligation to the owner, but will not have a contractual obligation with the general contractor or the subcontractors. With a general construction contract, a consulting engineer will be hired by the owner to develop the design and contract documents, as well as to assist in the preparation of the bid documents and provide contract administrative services during the construction phase. The contract documents produced by the engineer will form the basis of the owner's agreement with the contractor. Although the engineer will work closely with the contractor during the construction phase, and may work with subcontractors as well, the engineer will not have a contractual line of privity with either party.
43.3 If a contract has a value engineering clause and a contractor suggests to the owner that a feature or method be used to reduce the annual maintenance cost of the finished project, what will be the most likely outcome? (A) The contractor will be able to share one time in the owner's expected cost savings. (B) The contractor will be paid a fixed amount ( specified by the contract) for making a suggestion, but only if the suggestion is accepted. ( C) The contract amount will be increased by some amount specified in the contract. (D) The contractor will receive an annuity payment over some time period specified in the contract.
(A) The contractor will be able to share one time in the owner's expected cost savings. Changes to a structure's performance, safety, appearance, or maintenance that benefit the owner in the long run will be covered by the value engineering clause of a contract. Normally, the contractor is able to share in cost savings in some manner by receiving a payment or credit to the contract.
32.3 It is desired to choose a resistance temperature detector (RTD) transducer for a measurement. The actual value of the temperature is not important because the initial temperature is known by other means, but the change in temperature as the test item is heated is important. Which statement is true about the selection of the RTD? (A) The precision is important, and the accuracy is not important. (B) The accuracy is important, and the precision is not important. (C) Neither the accuracy nor the precision is important. (D) Both accuracy and precision are important.
(A) The precision is important, and the accuracy is not important. Precision is a measure of the repeatability of results, which is important for this measurement. The accuracy can have a significant bias, and the RTD would be acceptable for this measurement, so the accuracy is not important.
43.4 A tort is (A) a civil wrong committed against another person (B) a section of a legal contract (C) a legal procedure in which complaints are heard in front of an arbitrator rather than a judge or jury (D) the breach of a contract
(A) a civil wrong committed against another person A tort is a civil wrong committed against a person or his/her property which results in some form of damages. Torts are normally resolved through lawsuits.
The Fourier transform of a discrete-time signal is (A) always a periodic function (B) a periodic function only if the signal is periodic (C) a nonperiodic analog function (D) a nonperiodic discrete function
(A) always a periodic function The Fourier transform of a discrete-time signal is always a periodic function.
41.7 A structured programming fragment is shown. Line 2 is 1 REAL X,Y 2 X = 3 3 Y = COS(X) 4 PRINTY (A) an assignment (B) a command (C) a declaration (D) a function
(A) an assignment Line 2 is an assignment. A command, such as line 4, directs the computer to take some action such as PRINT. A declaration, such as line 1, states what type of data a variable will contain (like REAL) and reserves space for it in memory. A function, such as line 3, performs a specific operation (such as finding the cosine of a number) and returns a value.
Which of the following is NOT a form of electromagnetic interference? (A) catalytic coupling (B) radiated emissions coupling (C) magnetic coupling (D) conductive coupling
(A) catalytic coupling Radiated emissions, magnetic effects, and conductive coupling from a source can all interfere with the normal operation of a victim system, so these are forms of electromagnetic interference. Catalytic coupling is a chemical process in which a metal catalyst aids in a chemical reaction between two hydrocarbons; it is not a form of electromagnetic interference.
28.4 When deciding on whether to use a fuse or a circuit breaker for overcurrent protection, which factor should generally NOT be considered? (A) environmental regulations (B) interrupting ratings (C) selective coordination (D) economics
(A) environmental regulations Fuses and circuit breakers are equally valid choices for overcurrent protection. There is no specific rule for determining whether to use one or the other. However, depending on the particular situation, one may be a better choice over the other. Both fuses and circuit breakers meet environmental regulations. When deciding between fuses and circuit breakers, such regulations are not a consideration. Option A is correct. The interrupting rating and the need and ability for selective coordination should be considered. Options B and C are incorrect. Once it has been determined that either fuses or circuit breakers are acceptable for the application, the economics of a project should be taken into consideration. Option Dis incorrect.
The impulse-momentum principle is mostly useful for solving problems involving (A) force , velocity, and time (B) force, acceleration, and time (C) velocity, acceleration, and time (D) force, velocity, and acceleration
(A) force , velocity, and time Impulse is calculated from force and time. Momentum is calculated from mass and velocity. The impulse momentum principle is useful in solving problems involving force, time, velocity, and mass.
35.8 Which of the following is the best description of a nibble? (A) half a byte of memory (B) a read-only operation ( C) a CPU operation that is performed in half a clock cycle (D) a CPU operation that is performed in one clock cycle
(A) half a byte of memory A nibble is a block of four contiguous bits (i.e., half a byte) of memory.
Which of the following methods is the most effective in reducing galvanic corrosion between faying objects? (A) manufacturing both parts from the same material (B) eliminating moisture in the atmosphere (C) plating or painting one or both parts with epoxy primer (D) lubricating the parts
(A) manufacturing both parts from the same material Faying parts rub against each other. Any paint, plating, coating, or lubricant will be abraded off. Since the parts are already in contact, an electrolyte (moisture) is not needed to complete the circuit. Galvanic action will be reduced if the parts are manufactured from the same material.
41.13 In which of these situations can an 8-bit system correctly access more than 128 different integers? (A) when the integers are in the range of [-255, O] (B) when the integers are in the range of [O, 256] (C) when the integers are in the range of [-128, 128] (D) when the integers are in the range of [O, 512]
(A) when the integers are in the range of [-255, O] An 8-bit system can represent (2)^8 = 256 different distinct integers. Normally, the eighth bit is used for the sign, and only seven bits are used for magnitude, resulting in a range of [-127, 128] or [- 128, 127] (counting zero as one of the integers). If all the integers are known or assumed to have the same sign, a range of 256 integers is available. All the answer options except option A contain more than 256 distinct integers.
When is maximum power transferred from a generator to the load through a transmission line? (A) when the load impedance is equal to the characteristic impedance of the line (B) when the reflection coefficient is one (C) when the standing wave ratio is zero (D) all of the above
(A) when the load impedance is equal to the characteristic impedance of the line When maximum power is transferred to the load, the incident wave is entirely absorbed by the load and there is no reflected power. This happens only when the characteristic impedance of the line, Z0 , and the load impedance, ZL, are the same. Option A is true. The reflection coefficient, r, is equal to (ZL - Zo)/(ZL + Z0). When ZL and Z0 are equal, the reflection coefficient is zero. Option B is false. The standing wave ratio is equal to (1 + lfl)/(1- jrj). When the reflection coefficient is zero, the standing wave ratio is one. Option C is false.
41.17 Refer to the following portion of a spreadsheet. The top-to-bottom values in column C will be (A) 12,20,30,42,56 (B) 12,40,55, 72,91 (C) 12,50,66,84,104 (D) 12,100,121,144,169
(B) 12,40,55, 72,91 Except for the first entry (which is 12), column C is found by taking the numbers from column B and then multiplying by the entries in row l. For example, B2* A$1 means to multiply the entry in B2, which is 4, by the number entered in cell Al , which is 10. This product is 40. The entries are 12, 4 x 10, 5 x 11, 6 x 12, 7 x 13, or 12, 40, 55, 72, 91.
35.2 ASCII characters are sent over a 64 kb/s communications channel. One bit per character is used for parity checking. Most nearly, how many ASCII characters can be transmitted over the channel in 5 s? (A) 35 000 characters (B) 40 000 characters ( C) 42 000 characters (D) 46 000 characters
(B) 40 000 characters (64*1000*5) / 8 = 40,000
41.5 A structured programming segment is shown. y = 4 B = 4 Y=3*B-6 IF Y > B THEN Y = B - 2 IF Y < B THEN Y = Y + 2 IF Y = B THEN Y = B + 2 What is the value of Y after the segment is executed? (A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 12
(B) 6 The first operation changes the value of Y. Y=3x4-6=6 The first IF statement is satisfied, so the operation is performed. Y=4-2=2 However, the program execution does not end here. The value of Y is then less than B, so the second IF statement is executed. This statement is satisfied, so the operation is performed. Y=2+2=4 The value of Y is then equal to B, so the third IF statement is executed. This statement is satisfied, so the operation is performed. Y=4+2=6
35.12 ASCII coding accommodates a standard set of English characters for data transfer. There are several extended sets of ASCII characters that are dependent on the operating system. How many bits represent the standard and extended sets, respectively? (A) 7 bits, 7 bits (B) 7 bits, 8 bits (C) 8 bits, 12 bits (D) 8 bits, 16 bits
(B) 7 bits, 8 bits The standard set of ASCII characters uses 7 bits in 128 combinations, each combination representing one of the English characters. In the extended set, 8 bits are used to encode 256 characters.
A simulation model for a transportation system is run for 30 replications, and the mean percentage utilization of the transporter used by the system is recorded for each replication. Those 30 data points are then used to form a confidence interval on mean transporter utilization for the system. At a 95% confidence level, the confidence interval is found to be 37.2% ± 3.4%. Given this information, which of the following facts can be definitively stated about the system? (A) At 95% confidence, the sample mean of transporter utilization lies in the range 37.2% ± 3.4%. (B) At 95% confidence, the population mean of transporter utilization lies in the range 37.2% ± 3.4%. (C) At 95% confidence, the population mean of transporter utilization lies outside of the range 37.2% ± 3.4%. (D) At 5% confidence, the population mean of transporter utilization lies inside of the range 37.2% ± 3.4%.
(B) At 95% confidence, the population mean of transporter utilization lies in the range 37.2% ± 3.4%. A 95% confidence interval on mean transporter utilization means there is a 95% chance the population ( or true) mean transporter utilization lies within the given interval.
In digital communication, which of the following is analogous to angle modulation in FM communication? (A) DSB-LC (B) FSK (C) PSK (D) polar modulation
(B) FSK Analog frequency modulation (FM) developed first. Following that, digital communication developed the concept of frequency-shift keying (FSK). The other options listed are double-sideband, large carrier (DSB-LC, a type of AM communication), phaseshift keying (PSK), and polar modulation (which is analogous to quadrature modulation).
41.4 Structured programming is to be used to determine whether examinees pass a test. A passing score is 70 or more out of a possible 100. Which of the following IF statements would set the variable PASSED to 1 (true) when the variable SCORE is passing, and set the variable PASSED to O (false) when the variable SCORE is not passing? (A) IF SCORE> 70 PASSED= 1 ELSE PASSED = 0 (B) IF SCORE> 69 PASSED= 1 ELSE PASSED = 0 (C) IF SCORE< 69 PASSED= 1 (D) IF SCORE < 69 PASSED= 0 ELSE PASSED = 1
(B) IF SCORE> 69 PASSED= 1 ELSE PASSED = 0 Option B sets PASSED to 1 for SCORE= 70 to 100 and sets PASSED to O for SCORE= 0 to 69. Option A will not give the correct response when SCORE= 70. Option C will never set PASSED to 0. Option D will not give the correct response when SCORE=69.
In vector calculus, a gradient is a I. vector that points in the direction of a general rate of change of a scalar field II. vector that points in the direction of the maximum rate of change of a scalar field III. scalar that indicates the magnitude of the rate of change of a vector field in a general direction IV. scalar that indicates the maximum magnitude of the rate of change of a vector field in any particular direction (A) I only (B) II only (C) I and III (D) II and IV
(B) II only This is a vector that points in the direction of the maximum rate of change (i.e., maximum slope)
36.1 Which of the following best describes a relational database? (A) a collection of data organized into tables whose column order determines the relationships between the data (B) a collection of data organized into independent tables whose data can be reorganized by software without changing the original tables (C) the same as a network database (with no duplication of data in tables) (D) a collection of data organized in a treelike structure
(B) a collection of data organized into independent tables whose data can be reorganized by Software without changing the original tables A database is a structured collection of records or data. A computer database relies on Software to organize the storage of data. The software models the database structure in what are known as database models. The database model in most common use today is the relational model. A relational database is a collection of data items organized as a set of Formally described tables. Data from these tables can be accessed or reassembled in many different ways without having to reorganize the tables themselves. In a relational database, data is fitted into predefined categories. Each table ( which is sometimes called a relation) contains one or more data categories in columns. Each row contains a unique Instance of data for the categories defined by the columns. For example, a typical business order entry database would include a table that described a customer with columns for name, address, phone number, and so forth. Another table would describe an order: product, customer, date, sales price, and so forth. Each user of the database can obtain a view of the database that fits that user's needs. For example, a branch office manager might want a report on all customers who bought a certain product after a certain date, while a financial services manager could, from the same tables, obtain a report on accounts that needed to be paid. Other models, such as the hierarchical model and the network model, use a more explicit representation of relationships. In a hierarchical model, data is organized into a treelike structure, which implies a single upward link in each node to describe the nesting along with a sort field to keep the records in a particular order in each list on the same level. The network model tends to store records with links to other records. Associations are tracked via "pointers," which can be node numbers or disk addresses. Most network databases tend to include also some form of hierarchical model.
The convolution of two continuous time-domain functions is (A) the Fourier transform of the product of the functions (B) a function representing the overlap of one function that has been shifted over another (C) the integral representing the ratio of the area under the functions (D) a process used to obtain the product of the real roots from functions
(B) a function representing the overlap of one function that has been shifted over another A convolution integral can be visualized as the amount of overlap of one function, x( t) , as it is shifted by time r over another function, y( t) .
35.10 Which of the following is the best description of a buffer? (A) a region where extra information goes once the main memory is full (B) a temporary storage region ( C) the main memory (D) a permanent memory region where start-up information is stored
(B) a temporary storage region A buffer is a temporary storage region that holds data until it is used.
28.1 The point of common coupling-also known as the service connection point-between a utility electric distribution system and a customer's electric distribution system is most commonly (A) a transformer (B) an electric meter (C) a fused disconnect switch or circuit breaker (D) the main overcurrent protective device
(B) an electric meter The point of common coupling is defined by the National Electrical Code and local regulations. It is the point where the jurisdiction of the local utility ends and that of the local electrical authority (the customer) begins. The point of common coupling is most commonly the site of an electric meter owned by the utility. A transformer may be located either upstream of the meter (in which case it is owned by the utility) or downstream of the meter (in which case it is owned by the customer), so option A is incorrect. A fused disconnect switch, circuit breaker, or main overcurrent protective device is owned by the customer and will be downstream of the meter, so options C and D are incorrect.
35.1 In virtual memory systems, large programs (A) are executed in memory (B) can be executed using less memory space than in RAM (C) are paged into and out of unused video memory (D) run faster due to fewer disk accesses
(B) can be executed using less memory space than in RAM In a virtual memory system, large programs are systematically paged into and out of disk space and can be executed using a smaller memory space.
Corrosion of iron can be inhibited with a more electropositive coating, while a less electropositive coating tends to accelerate corrosion. Which of these coatings will contribute to corrosion of iron products? (A) zinc (B) gold (C) aluminum (D) magnesium
(B) gold Zinc, aluminum, and magnesium are all more electropositive (anodic) than iron and will corrode sacrificially to protect it. Gold is more cathodic and will be protected at the expense of the iron.
41.12 The effect of using recursive functions in a program is generally to use (A) less code and less memory (B) less code and more memory (C) more code and less memory (D) more code and more memory
(B) less code and more memory A recursive function calls itself. Since the function does not need to be coded in multiple places, less code is used. Each subsequent call of the function must be carried out in a different location, so more memory is used
What metal can be used as a sacrificial anode on a small ocean fishing boat with an aluminum hull? (A) zinc (B) magnesium (C) iron (D) copper
(B) magnesium Aluminum is near the bottom of the galvanic scale. Only magnesium is lower on the scale, so that magnesium is more anodic and has a greater anode half-cell potential. Therefore, magnesium will become the anode, while the aluminum will become the cathode. The less noble magnesium gives up its electrons to the more noble aluminum. During this process, the magnesium breaks down (corrodes), resulting in magnesium oxide plus free electrons flowing through the electrolyte (sea water) to the aluminum.
35.5 In which kind of local area network (LAN) topology will the failure of any single host cause the failure of the entire network? (A) bus (B) ring (C) star (D) mesh
(B) ring In a ring topology, each host is needed for messages to pass from one host to another. The failure of any single host will result in the failure of the entire network. Option B is correct. In a bus topology, the failure of the communication line that connects the devices will cause the failure of the entire network, but failure of a single connection or a single client on the network will not cause the rest of the network to fail. Option A is incorrect. In a star topology, the failure of the central routing device ( called the hub) will cause the entire network to fail, but the failure of a single client or of the communication line to a client will cause the failure of communication only to that one client. Option C is incorrect. Failure of a single host in the mesh topology will cause failure of communication only to that host; the rest of the network can function. Option D is incorrect.
35.4 What information must be specified in the instruction for a direct memory access process? (A) the address of the address of the operand (B) the address of the operand (C) the operand itself (D) the register and base addresses of the operand
(B) the address of the operand In direct memory access, the instruction must specify the address of the operand.
30.5 Most likely, what is the purpose of the capacitors in the circuit? (A) to speed up the voltage propagation (B) to isolate the DC biasing circuit from the AC input and output (C) to suppress noise form the DC voltage source Vee (D) to increase the amplification
(B) to isolate the DC biasing circuit from the AC input and output The capacitors allow the DC bias on the transistor to operate the transistor in the desired range without the DC voltage affecting the input or the output. The purpose of the capacitors, .then, is most likely to isolate the DC biasing circuit from the AC input and output.
41.16 Refer to the following portion of a spreadsheet. The top-to-bottom values in column B will be (A) 11,1,2,3,4 (B) 11, 1, 3, 6, 10 (C) 11, 1, 4, 9, 16 (D) 11, 1, 5, 12, 22
(C) 11, 1, 4, 9, 16 Except for the first entry (which is 11), column B calculates · the square of the values in column A. The entries are 11, (1)^2, (2)^2, (3)^2, and (4)^2
43.5 If a contract does not include the boilerplate clause, "Time is of the essence," which of the following is true? (A) It is difficult to recover losses for extra hours billed. (B) Standard industry time guidelines apply. (C) Damages for delay cannot be claimed. (D) Workers need not be paid for downtime in the project.
(C) Damages for delay cannot be claimed. This clause must be included in order to recover damages due to delay.
Which of the following statements about probability is NOT valid? (A) The probability of an event is always positive and within the range of zero and one. (B) The probability of an event which cannot occur in the population being examined is zero. (C) If events A and Bare mutually exclusive, then the probability of either event occurring in the same population is zero. (D) The probability of either of two events, A and B, occurring is P(A + B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A, B).
(C) If events A and Bare mutually exclusive, then the probability of either event occurring in the same population is zero. If events A and Bare mutually exclusive, the probability of both occurring is zero. However, either event could occur by itself, and the probability of that is nonzero.
Which of these statements concerning transmission lines is FALSE? (A) A standing wave is the sum of the incident and reflected waves. (B) The reflection coefficient is the ratio of the reflected wave voltage to the incident wave voltage. (C) The magnitude of a standing wave is constant at a given position of the transmission line. (D) The standing wave ratio is the ratio of the maximum and minimum current magnitudes of a standing wave.
(C) The magnitude of a standing wave is constant at a given position of the transmission line. The magnitude of a standing wave at a given position along the transmission line will vary with time, so option C is false. The locations of the maxima and minima in a standing wave are constant, but the overall magnitude of the wave changes. A standing wave is the sum of the incident and reflected waves, so option A is true. The ratio of the voltages of the reflected and incident waves is the reflection coefficient, so option B is true. The standing wave ratio is the ratio of the maximum magnitude to the minimum magnitude of a standing wave for both voltage and current, so option D is true.
36.2 Which of these statements about local area networks (LANs) is true? (A) Most devices in a LAN are connected in masterslave fashion. (B) Internet service providers (ISPs) provide LAN services to customers. (C) There is a single administrative system in a LAN. (D) A LAN may be distributed over a large geographical area using telecommunications.
(C) There is a single administrative system in a LAN. In a LAN, the communication of the networked computers is regulated by a single administrative system. Option C is true. Devices in personal area networks (PANs) are connected in master-slave fashion; most devices in LANs are not. Option A is false. ISP services connect LANs and single users to other resources through a metropolitan area network (MAN). Option B is false. Wide area networks (WANs) are used to connect MANs and LAN s over large geographical areas using telecommunications. Option D is false.
35.9 Which of the following is the best description of a bit? (A) a basic unit of a computer used to encode a single character of text (B) the smallest portion of computer memory that can represent a distinct computer address (C) a binary digit that can have one of only two possible values (D) computer memory that can represent either of two possible states
(C) a binary digit that can have one of only two possible values A bit is a binary digit, a basic unit of digital information. A bit can have one of only two possible values, which are usually represented as O and 1.
As it pertains to polynomials and difference equations, what does the term second order indicate? (A) a relationship among three consecutive values (B) an equation represented by a polynomial whose largest exponent is 2 (C) both (A) and (B) (D) neither (A) nor (B)
(C) both (A) and (B) The term second order indicates both a polynomial of order 2, and, for a difference equation, a relationship that is among three consecutive values or points.
30.2 A diode can be formed by doping an otherwise pure crystal such that (A) an n-type semiconductor is produced (B) the crystal becomes an intrinsic semiconductor (C) one half of the crystal is p-type and the other half is n-type (D) a p-type semiconductor is produced
(C) one half of the crystal is p-type and the other half is n-type A diode is a junction of n-type and p,-type semiconductors. Option C is correct.
43.2 A material breach of contract occurs when the (A) contractor uses material not approved by the contract for use (B) contractor's material order arrives late (C) owner becomes insolvent (D) contractor installs a feature incorrectly
(C) owner becomes insolvent A material breach of the contract is a significant event that is grounds for cancelling the contract entirely. Typical triggering events include failure of the owner to make payments, the owner causing delays, the owner declaring bankruptcy, the contractor abandoning the job, or the contractor getting substantially off schedule.
Which of the following can be used to improve overall electromagnetic susceptibility hardening against radiated emissions? (A) increased switching speed (B) filtering circuits (C) shielded housings (D) fuses and circuit breakers
(C) shielded housings Shielded housings are conductive enclosures around circuits that are grounded; they divert emissions to ground, so they improve electromagnetic compatibility. High switching speeds can cause some electromagnetic interference, so increasing the switching speed will not improve electromagnetic susceptibility hardening. Filtering circuits are connected in the conductive path; they reduce electromagnetic interference that is outside the frequency range of the desired signal, so they do not improve electromagnetic susceptibility hardening. Fuses and circuit breakers protect against ground faults; they do not improve electromagnetic susceptibility hardening.
41.11 Which of the following best defines a compiler? (A) hardware that is used to translate high-level language to machine code (B) software that collects and stores executable commands in a program (C) software that is used to translate high-level language into machine code (D) hardware that collects and stores executable commands in a program
(C) software that is used to translate high-level language into machine code A compiler is a program (i.e., software) that converts programs written in higher-level languages to lower-level languages that the computer can understand.
Which of the following is a thermocouple used to measure? (A) heat of fusion at a junction (B) absolute temperature at a junction (C) temperature at a junction relative to a reference temperature (D) potential difference between two junctions
(C) temperature at a junction relative to a reference temperature A thermocouple consists of two wires of dissimilar metals that are joined at their two ends. One junction is at a standard, known reference temperature; the other junction is the point whose temperature is being measured. The difference in temperature between the two junctions creates a voltage as a result of the thermoelectric effect. When this voltage and one of the temperatures are known, the temperature difference can be found. A thermocouple is not a thermometer, and its output represents the ratio of the unknown temperature to the known, standard temperature; it does not represent the absolute temperature.
What does an impact test measure? (A) hardness (B) yield strength (C) toughness (D) creep strength
(C) toughness An impact test measures the energy needed to fracture a test sample. This is a measure of toughness.
35.4 These four diagrams represent network topologies. Which is a star topology?
(D) In the star network topology, each of the network's clients is connected, using point-to-point communication, to a central routing device called a hub. The hub transfers messages from one device to another within the network. The diagram in Option D shows the hub as the dot in the center of the diagram, and each other device on the network is represented by a dot connected to the hub.
41.15 A typical spreadsheet for economic evaluation of alternatives uses cell F4 to store the percentage value of inflation rate. The percentage rate is assumed to be constant throughout the lifetime of the study. What variable should be used to access that value throughout the model? (A) F4 (B) $F4 (C) %F4 (D) $F$4
(D) $F$4 The dollar sign symbol,"$", is used in spreadsheets to "fix" the column and/or row designator following it when other columns or rows are permitted to vary.
35.3 A simple controller board has two thousand 8-bit memory locations and two 8-bit registers. How many different states can this board be in? (A) 2002 (B) (2)^8 (C) (2)^2002 (D) (2)^16,016
(D) (2)^16,016 8*(2000+2) = 16016 2^16016
41.18 What is the· value of J after the given program segment is executed? J=O WHILE (J < 10) DO J=J+3 END (A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 12
(D) 12 Since the control will exit the DO loop when J becomes larger than or equal to 10, J has the following values: 0, 3, 6, 9, and 12. When J is 12, the program ends.
28.3 Which of these statements about a simple radial distribution system is FALSE? (A) A single primary service and transformer supply all consumer feeders. (B) There is no redundancy of equipment (i.e., switches, fuses, transformers, service cable). (C) Operation and expansion are simpler than in a looped or networked system. (D) A backup generator must be connected on the primary side of the supply transformer.
(D) A backup generator must be connected on the primary side of the supply transformer. There are several types of industrial and commercial electric distribution systems in use. The simplest is a radial distribution system, in which loads are supplied through a single electrical path. In the system shown, the loads are supplied through one transformer and one common bus. Each feeder has a means of disconnect and overcurrent protection as well as upstream breakers that can operate to isolate the transformer and the common bus. Option A is true. From a load perspective, there is no redundancy of equipment. A fault on any device upstream of the load will cause an outage. Option B is true. Operation and expansion are much simpler than in looped and networked distribution systems. Option C is true. With the proper controls and protection devices, backup generation can be connected on any of the consumer feeders. Option D is false.
35.6 Flash memory is classified as what type of memory? (A) ROM (B) WORM (C) RAM (D) EPROM
(D) EPROM Flash memory is a type of erasable programmable read-only memory (EPROM).
41.14 In which of these computer operating systems can a document in HTML (hypertext markup language) format be viewed? I. Mac OS II. Linux III. Windows IV. Unix (A) I and III only (B) I, II, and III only (C) I, III, and IV only (D) I, II, III, and IV
(D) I, II, III, and IV HTML may be viewed on any computer with a compatible browser.
39.2 Which of the following statements about the use of SR flip-flops are true? I. They can store an input at a clock edge. II. They can set one bit of memory to 1. III. They can reset one bit of memory to 0. (A) I and II only (B) I and III only (C) II and III only (D) I, II, and III
(D) I, II, and III An SR flip-flop sets or resets the flip-flop state based on the inputs. • If S is 1 and R is 0, the flip-flop state is 1 following the appropriate clock edge. • If R is 1 and Sis 0, the flip-flop state is O following the appropriate clock edge.
Which of the following characteristics describes martensite? I. high ductility IL formed by quenching austenite III. high hardness (A) I only (B) I and II (C) I and III (D) II and III
(D) II and III Martensite is a hard, strong, and brittle material formed by rapid cooling of austenite.
Which of the following processes can increase the deformation resistance of steel? I. tempering II. hot working III. adding alloying elements IV. hardening (A) I and II (B) I and IV (C) II and III (D) III and IV
(D) III and IV Steel's hardness, or resistance to deformation, can be increased by surface hardening processes and by some alloying metals. However, tempering and hot working increase the ductility ( deformation capability) of steel, not its hardness.
43.6 Which statement is true regarding the legality and enforceability of contracts? (A) For a contract to be enforceable, it must be in writing. (B) A contract to perform illegal activity will still be enforced by a court. ( C) A contract must include a purchase order. (D) Mutual agreement of all parties must be evident.
(D) Mutual agreement of all parties must be evident. In order for a contract to be legally binding, it must • be established for a legal purpose • contain a mutual agreement by all parties • have consideration, or an exchange of something of value (e.g., a service is provided in exchange for a fee) • not obligate parties to perform illegal activity • not be between parties that are mentally incompetent, minors, or do not otherwise have the power to enter into the contract A contract does not need to use as its basis or include a purchase order to be enforceable. Oral contracts may be legally binding in some instances, depending on the circumstances and purpose of the contract. Oral contracts may be difficult to enforce, however, and should not be used for engineering and construction agreements.
35.11 How does a central processing unit (CPU) determine whether it is executing instructions from a commercial database management program or from a program executed by an online programmer? (A) The micro-operations used in the programs are different. (B) One kind of program uses memory references, and the other uses register references. (C) One kind of program uses compiled code, and the other uses interpreted code. (D) The CPU does not know where instructions originate
(D) The CPU does not know where instructions originate A central processing unit cannot determine the source of instructions. The CPU will execute instructions regardless of their origins.
An engineer builds a simulation model of a small factory, runs an experiment with the model using 15 replicates , and determines, at a 90% confidence level, that the mean time an entity spends in the system is 24-28 min. Based on this information, which of the following is a reasonable assumption about the entity time-in-system? (A) The population mean time-in-system must be in the interval of 24-28 min. (B) The largest mean time-in-system for any one of the 15 replicates is 28 min. (C) If the engineer were to run a 16th replicate, the mean time-in-system for that replicate would be in the interval of 24- 28 min. (D) The probability that the population mean timein- system is greater than 28 min can be estimated as 5%.
(D) The probability that the population mean timein- system is greater than 28 min can be estimated as 5%. A 90% confidence interval for the mean entity timein- system means there is a 90% chance that the population (or true) mean time-in-system lies within the given interval. Therefore, option A is incorrect. Further, such a confidence interval says nothing either about the individual data values that were used to construct the interval or about future individual experimental values. Therefore, options B and C are incorrect. Because a replicate approach is used in the experiment, the central limit theorem applies, and it can be assumed that the collected data follow a normal distribution. Since the data are normally distributed, it is reasonable to assume that the 10% error (100% - 90%) is equally distributed above and below the confidence interval.
What term is used for the ratio of stress to strain below the proportional limit? (A) modulus of rigidity (B) Hooke's constant (C) Poisson's ratio (D) Young's modulus
(D) Young's modulus Young's modulus is defined by Hooke's law. a= Ee E is Young's modulus, also called the modulus of elasticity, and is equal to stress divided by strain within the proportional region of the stress-strain curve.
41.10 The computer language that is executed within a computer's central processing unit is called (A) MS-DOS (B) a high-level language (C) an assembly language (D) a machine language
(D) a machine language The central processing unit executes a version of the program that has been compiled into the machine language. This version of the program is in the form of operations and operands specific to the machine's coding.
41.9 Which of the following terms is best defined as a formula or set of steps for solving a particular problem? (A) program (B) software ( C) firmware (D) algorithm
(D) algorithm An algorithm is a formula or set of steps for solving a particular problem. A program is a sequence of instructions that implements a formula or set of steps, but the program is not itself the formula or set of steps. An algorithm is often implemented as a program. Software and firmware are programs stored on media.
If x(n) is a discrete, imaginary, and even function, its Fourier transform, X( w), is (A) a real and even function (B) a real and odd function (C) an imaginary and odd function (D) an imaginary and even function
(D) an imaginary and even function The function x(n) is imaginary, so X(w) is an imaginary function. The functions x( n) and cos wn are both even, so X( w) is an even function.
Consider a normal amplitude modulated signal in the frequency domain. Which portion of the signal carries the information? (A) carrier frequency (B) lower sideband only (C) upper sideband only (D) both the lower and upper sidebands
(D) both the lower and upper sidebands In the frequency domain, the AM signal's power is distributed between the carrier frequency and two sidebands. Both sidebands carry identical information, so either can be used to obtain the original information.
36.3 Which of these is a method of network communication between a source node and a destination node along a dedicated path that is not shared with any other communication? (A) packet switching (B) message switching (C) interface protocol (D) circuit switching
(D) circuit switching Circuit switching establishes a dedicated path for communication between a source node and a destination node. The circuit may be permanent, or it may be temporarily connected for transmission and then disconnected when communication is complete. Option D is correct. In packet switching, a message from a source node is broken into packets. Header information is added to each packet so that the message can be reassembled at the destination node. Packets are transmitted to intermediate locations, where they are stored and forwarded toward their destination, possibly by way of further intermediate locations. The use of intermediate locations makes it possible for more than one communication to share the same path, so Option A is incorrect. Message switching communication transmits a complete message to an intermediate location where the message is stored and forwarded toward its destination, possibly by way of further intermediate locations. The use of intermediate locations makes it possible for more than one communication to share the same path, so Option B is incorrect. The phrase "interface protocol" is a generic term for a communication mechanism, but does not specify a method. Option C is incorrect.
28.2 A step-up transformer is used to connect a large generating plant to the electric grid in order to (A) prevent ground faults at the generator terminal (B) provide a means of disconnecting the generator from the grid (C) maintain stability (D) increase the output voltage of the generator to match the transmission voltage at the interconnection point
(D) increase the output voltage of the generator to match the transmission voltage at the interconnection point The output voltage of a large generator is in the range of 3 kV to 13.8 kV. The output voltage must be increased for interconnection with the electric grid, usually at transmission-level voltages in the range of 138 kV to 765 kV. The step-up transformer provides this voltage transformation. Option D is correct. The step-up transformer does not prevent ground faults at the generator terminal. Ground faults at the generator terminal are minimized by impedance grounding. Option A is incorrect. The step-up transformer is not a means of disconnection. This function is provided by breakers or switches on the high and low sides of the transformer. Option B is incorrect. Stability is maintained by the generator's control system, not by the step-up transformer. Option C is incorrect.
39.1 Compared to an SR flip-flop, which additional functions does a JK flip-flop have? (A) holding the current state (B) asynchronous set and reset (C) clock frequency division (D) inverting the current state
(D) inverting the current state A JK flip-flop performs the same functions as a SR flip-flop. In addition, a JK flip-flop can toggle or invert the current state when both inputs are true. An SR flipflop cannot do this because having both inputs true is an invalid condition for an SR flip-flop. Both SR and JK flip-flops will hold the current state if both inputs are false. Option A is incorrect. Both SR and JK flip-flops can have asynchronous inputs for set and reset of the flip-flop. Option B is incorrect. Both SR and JK flip-flops can be used in frequency division networks. Option C is incorrect.
What is the hardest form of steel? (A) pear lite (B) ferrite (C) bainite (D) martensite
(D) martensite Hardness in steel is obtained by rapid quenching. Martensite is quenched rapidly, so it has a high hardness (and low ductility).
A voltmeter is used to measure the voltage across a resistor. The voltmeter is connected in parallel with the resistor. To obtain an accurate voltage reading, the internal resistance of the voltmeter must be (A) much smaller than the resistance whose voltage is being measured (B) approximately equal to the resistance whose voltage is being measured ( C) approximately equal to l. 7 times the resistance whose voltage is being measured (D) much greater than the resistance whose voltage is being measured
(D) much greater than the resistance whose voltage is being measured Because the voltmeter is connected in parallel with the load resistance, its internal resistance must be very high so that it will not draw enough current to significantly affect the current flowing through the measurement leads.
43.1 What must be proven for damages to be collected from a strict liability in tort? (A) that willful negligence caused an injury (B) that willful or unwillful negligence caused an injury (C) that the manufacturer knew about a product defect before the product was released (D) none of the above
(D) none of the above In order to prove strict liability in tort, it must be shown that a product defect caused an injury. Negligence need not be proven, nor must the manufacturer know about the defect before release.
41.6 A structured programming segment is shown. The variable N is an integer greater than zero. A=X DO UNTIL N = 0 Y = A*X A =Y N =N -1 END UNTIL Which equation is implemented by this programming segment? (A) y =X! (B) y = x^(N-1) (C) y =X^N (D) y = x^(N+l)
(D) y = x^(N+l) The DO/UNTIL loop will be executed N times. After one execution, Y = X2• Each subsequent execution of the loop multiplies Y by X another time. Therefore, this segment calculates Y = X^(N+i)
What SI unit is equal to the combination of base units kg*m^2 / s^2? A. Joule B. Pascal C. Tesla D. Watt
A. Joule Kinetic energy is calculated in the SI system as (1/2)mv^2 with units kg*m^2 / s^2
41.2 What flowchart element is used to represent an IF ...THEN statement?
B At an IF ... THEN statement, the flow of a program is decided based on a criterion that can be evaluated as true or false. The symbol used to represent a decision is the diamond.
What is a metric ton? A. 200 kg B. 1000 kg C. 2000 kg D. 2000 N
B. 1000 kg A metric ton, is 1000 kg
What is the name for a vector that represents the sum of two vectors? A. Scalar B. Resultant C. Tensor D. Moment
B. Resultant
What is a kip? A. 1000 in-lbf (torque) B. 1000 lbm (mass) C. 1000 lbf (force) D. 1000 psi (pressure)
C. 1000 lbf (force) Abbreviation kip is used for kilopound, which is 1000 lbf (pounds of force)
41.1 Which of the following flowcharts does NOT represent a complete program?
D A flowchart must begin and end with a terminal symbol. The symbol at the bottom of option D is the "offpage" symbol, which indicates that the flowchart continues on the next page. This is not a complete program.
which of the following statements is true for a power series with the general term aix^i? I. An infinite power series converges for x<1 II. Power series can be added together or sub-tracted within their interval of convergence III. Power series can be integrated within their interval of convergence A. I only B. II only C. I and III D. II and III
D. II and III Power series can be added together, subtracted from each other, differentiated, and integrated within their interval of convergence. The interval of convergence is -1 < x < 1
Which of the following statements is FALSE for all noncircular ellipses? A. The eccentricity, e, is less than one B. The ellipse has two foci C. The sum of the two distances from the two foci to any point on the ellipse is 2a (i.e. twice the semimajor distance) D. The coefficients A and C preceding the x^2 and y^2 terms in the general form of the equation are equal
D. The coefficients A and C preceding the x^2 and y^2 terms in the general form of the equation are equal pg.31 Mathematics - Conic Section Area The general form of the equation for an ellipse is Ax^2+Bxy+ Cy^2+Dx+Ey+F= 0 The coefficients preceding the squared terms in the general equation are equal only for a straight line or circle, not for a noncircular ellipse.
The equation y = a1 + a2x is an algebraic expression for which of the following? (A) a cosine expansion series (B) projectile motion (C) a circle in polar form (D) a straight line
D. a straight line y= mx+ b is the slope-intercept form of the equation of a straight line. a1 and a2 are both constants, so y = a1x + a2x describes a straight line.
