Final Chapters Review
Which current medication should the nurse be concerned about for a client newly prescribed ondansetron (Zofran)? 1. Warfarin (coumadin) 2. Haloperidol (Haldol) 3. Metformin (Glucophage) 4. Atenolol (Tenormin)
Answer: 2
Which condition should the nurse identify as a complication for long-term use of proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs)? 1. Anemia 2. Osteoporosis 3. Hypertension 4. Intestinal irritation
Answer: 2
Which describes the primary role of the large intestine? 1. Excrete fecal matter 2. Absorb nutrients 3. Excrete enzymes 4. Control peristalsis
Answer: 1
The nurse reviewing a client's serum cholesterol levels notes the following: Low density lipoprotein (LDL)
105 mg/dl High density lipoprotein (HDL) = 37 mg/dl Low density lipoprotein (LDL)/high density lipoprotein (HDL) ratio = 4.1 Which should the nurse identify as the priority outcome in the client's plan of care? 1. Maintenance of normal lipid levels without the use of pharmacotherapy 2. Education about diet and exercise 3. Validate that the client understands the importance of lifestyle changes 4. The client's achievement of normal lipid levels through compliance with medications= Answer: 1
A client asks the nurse how hypertension can lead to heart failure. Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "Hypertension increases the resistance in the blood vessels causing the heart to work harder to pump the blood out against the resistance of the arteries." 2. "Hypertension limits the ability of the heart to stretch before emptying resulting in the heart working harder to pump the blood out into the arterial system." 3. "Hypertension causes resistance in the venous system requiring the heart to work harder to pump the blood forward." 4. "Hypertension limits the amount of blood entering the left ventricle increasing the workload of the heart to pump an adequate amount of blood into the circulatory system."
Answer: 1
A client asks which conditions will cause the heart to need more oxygen. Which information should the nurse be prepared to discuss? 1. Sleep apnea 2. Hyperthyroidism 3. Asthma 4. Hepatitis B
Answer: 1
A client prescribed amoxicillin (Amoxil) for 10 days to treat strep throat tells the nurse that they are going to stop the prescription when they feel better. Which initial response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "If you stop the prescription early, you may have not effectively killed the bacteria." 2. "You should get another throat culture if your symptoms return." 3. "Stopping the prescription early could result in resistance to the antibiotic." 4. "If you do stop your prescription early, make sure you get another throat culture."
Answer: 1
Which vital sign is of the greatest concern to the nurse prior to administering digoxin (Lanoxin)? 1. Apical pulse 2. Temperature 3. Blood pressure 4. Respiratory rate
Answer: 1
A client receiving diltiazem (Cardizem) asks the nurse why they get a headache after taking the prescription. Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "Diltiazem (Cardizem) causes the blood vessels in your brain to widen, giving you the headache." 2. "Diltiazem (Cardizem) increases prostaglandin synthesis, giving you the headache." 3. "Diltiazem (Cardizem) releases Substance P, activating pain receptors in your brain and giving you the headache." 4. "Diltiazem (Cardizem) causes the blood vessels in your brain to narrow, giving you the headache."
Answer: 1
A client receiving insulin tells the nurse their blood glucose has been low the last few mornings. Which additional statement made by the client may be a contributing factor to the decrease in the blood glucose? 1. "I have been taking a garlic supplement to prevent colds." 2. "I have been taking St. John's wort to help with my memory." 3. "I have been taking extra vitamin C because so many people have colds." 4. "I have been taking vitamin D to help build up my bones."
Answer: 1
A client tells the nurse they do not understand why their prescribed antibiotic did not kill the bacteria that caused their infection. Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "Some antibiotics work with your body's ability to help kill the infection." 2. "Your healthcare provider will most likely prescribe a different type of antibiotic." 3. "Your healthcare provider will want additional blood work to identify type of bacteria." 4. "Your infection is not a serious one and over time your body should be able to kill the bacteria."
Answer: 1
A client tells the nurse they have been taking Imodium (loperamide) for diarrhea, but it has not helped. Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "Are you taking it after every episode of diarrhea?" 2. "Imodium is not very effective against diarrhea." 3. "How much Imodium are you taking daily?" 4. "You may have to take the maximum dose for 2 or 3 days before diarrhea slows."
Answer: 1
A client with pancreatitis asks the nurse why they are receiving pancrelipase (Pancreaze). Which information should the nurse provide as the primary reason the client is receiving the prescription? 1. "The prescription will replace the enzymes your pancreas cannot make." 2. "The prescription will help promote healing of your pancreas." 3. "The prescription will promote digestion of starches and fats." 4. "The prescription will help digest all of the food you eat."
Answer: 1
For which condition does vasopressin (Vasostrict) treat? 1. Diabetes insipidus 2. Dehydration 3. Electrolyte imbalances 4. Diabetes mellitus
Answer: 1
The client states to the nurse, "My healthcare provider says I have heart disease and I need to decrease the cholesterol in my diet. I don't understand how this happened." Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "The arteries around your heart are narrowed by low density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol buildup in them." 2. "Low density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol is converted to saturated fat, which is stored in your coronary arteries." 3. "It is a good idea to decrease low density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol in your diet, although current research has not proven a correlation yet." 4. "Too much low density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol narrows all the arteries in your body so your heart does not receive enough blood to be healthy."
Answer: 1
The educator is reviewing the physiology of the renal system with a nurse. Which statement made by the nurse indicates further teaching is required? 1. "The kidneys stimulate white blood cell production." 2. "The kidneys help regulate blood pressure." 3. "The kidneys regulate the acid-base balance of body fluids." 4. "The kidneys produce the active form of vitamin D."
Answer: 1
The home health nurse observes a client's 3-month supply of insulin vials are not refrigerated. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Instruct the client that the insulin should be stored away from direct sunlight or excessive heat. 2. Have the client discard the vials. 3. Instruct the client to label each vial with the date when opened. 4. Instruct the client that unopened bottles can be stored for up to 3 months
Answer: 1
The nurse has completed the education for a client prescribed psyllium mucilloid (Metamucil). Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is required? 1. "I don't need to drink extra fluids while I take this prescription." 2. "My cholesterol level will be reduced somewhat with this prescription." 3. "This prescription is a lot more natural than other laxatives." 4. "This prescription takes several days to work."
Answer: 1
The nurse has completed the education for a client with angina prescribed nitroglycerine (Nitrostat). Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is required? 1. "I can take up to 5 tablets to resolve the chest pain." 2. "If my pain is not reduced 5 minutes after taking one tablet I should call EMS." 3. "I should take a tablet as soon as chest pain occurs." 4. "I can take three tablets, one every 5 minutes."
Answer: 1
The nurse has provided discharge education for a client prescribed an anticoagulant. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? 1. "I should wear a medical alert bracelet that says I'm on an anticoagulant." 2. "I need to eat more protein while I am taking this medication." 3. "I can take enteric-coated aspirin but not plain aspirin for my arthritis." 4. "I must limit my intake of vitamin C while I'm on warfarin (Coumadin)."
Answer: 1
The nurse has provided education about peptic ulcer disease (PUD) for a client. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? 1. "I will limit my intake of caffeine products." 2. "I will take ibuprofen (Motrin) for my headaches." 3. "I will drink more milk and limit spicy foods." 4. "I will join a gym and increase my exercise."
Answer: 1
The nurse has provided education for a client prescribed glucocorticoid therapy. Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is required? 1. "I can take the medication at any time as long as I don't forget it." 2. "I will monitor my blood sugar on a regular basis." 3. "I will eat a diet that is high in protein." 4. "I should take my medication after I have eaten."
Answer: 1
The nurse has provided education for a client prescribed nifedipine (Adalat CC). Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? 1. "If I drink alcohol while taking this medication, I will get very sick to my stomach." 2. "I should stop taking my melatonin sleep medication." 3. "I should no longer drink grapefruit juice." 4. "I should no longer drink sports drinks with caffeine in them." 5. "I should stop taking my vitamin C supplement."
Answer: 1
The nurse has provided education for a client with diabetes type I prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide). Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? 1. "I expect my blood glucose to be elevated." 2. "I anticipate to monitor my blood glucose more frequently." 3. "I can expect my hemoglobin A1C to be elevated." 4. "I expect I will need more insulin to help control my glucose."
Answer: 1
The nurse is preparing the education for a client prescribed chlorothiazide (Diuril). Which information should the nurse include in the teaching? 1. Consumption of foods high in potassium 2. Assessment of blood glucose daily 3. Daily weights with a report of a gain of more than 1 pound in 24 hours 4. Report change in hearing
Answer: 1
The nurse is providing education about lipids for a client with hyperlipidemia. Which information should the nurse include in the education? 1. High density lipoprotein (HDL) is called good cholesterol because it removes cholesterol from the body and gets rid of it in the liver. 2. High density lipoprotein (HDL) is called good cholesterol because it increases the oxygen content in the arteries and reduces the amount of plaque buildup. 3. High density lipoprotein (HDL) decreases the bad cholesterol (low density lipoprotein [LDL]), and promotes excretion of it through the kidneys. 4. High density lipoprotein (HDL) decreases low density lipoprotein (LDL) and prevents it from converting to very low density lipoprotein (VDRL), which is the worst kind of cholesterol in the body.
Answer: 1
The nurse is reviewing the blood work of a client suspected of having diabetes. Which result should the nurse be concerned about? 1. HBA1C level is 8.4%. 2. Fasting plasma glucose of 115 g/dL. 3. Fasting plasma glucose is 110 g/dL. 4. Oral glucose tolerance test of 185 mg/dL.
Answer: 1
The nurse is reviewing the laboratory reports for a client with chronic kidney failure. Which lab should the nurse understand reflects the progression of the kidney disease? 1. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) 2. Serum creatinine 3. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 4. Urinalysis
Answer: 1
The nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide). Which condition should the nurse be concerned about? 1. Hypertension 2. Asthma 3. Gout 4. Hypothyroidism
Answer: 1
The nurse is reviewing the records of a child being treated for a short stature. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate the child is receiving? 1. Somatotropin (Accretropin) 2. Pegmisovant (Somavert) 3. Octreotide (Sandostatin) 4. Bromocriptine (Cycloset)
Answer: 1
The nurse notes a client that has received intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin) develops an upper body rash and has a decreased urine output. In addition to notifying the healthcare provider, which is the nurse's priority action? 1. Hold the next dose of vancomycin (Vancocin). 2. Obtain a stat x-ray. 3. Administer an antihistamine. 4. Obtain a sterile urine specimen.
Answer: 1
The nurse notes that a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) has a high international normalized ratio (INR). Which question should the nurse include in the assessment? 1. "Do you eat a lot of garlic?" 2. "Have you been eating a lot of salads and vegetables?" 3. "Do you drink a lot of milk?" 4. "Are you restricting your fluids?"
Answer: 1
The physician writes orders for the client with diabetes mellitus. Which order should the nurse clarify with the healthcare provider? 1. Lantus insulin 20U BID 2. Administering regular insulin 30 minutes prior to meals 3. Five units of Humalog/10 units NPH daily 4. Metformin (Glucophage) 1000 mg per day in divided doses
Answer: 1
Where does the pyloric sphincter regulate the flow of food into? 1. Small intestine 2. Stomach 3. Esophagus 4. Rectum
Answer: 1
Which additional prescribed treatment should the nurse anticipate for the client prescribed heparin therapy? 1. Obtaining an aPTT 2. Weekly weights 3. Advil as needed (PRN) for headaches 4. Low vitamin K diet
Answer: 1
Which adverse effect of lisinopril (Prinivil) should be reported to the healthcare provider? 1. Cough 2. Fever 3. Increased urine output 4. Facial flushing
Answer: 1
Which adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for while receiving warfarin sodium? 1. Bleeding 2. Pain 3. Headache 4. Rash
Answer: 1
Which anatomical area should the nurse display a client when providing education about the point of origin of a pulmonary embolism? 1. Right ventricle 2. Left atrium 3. Left ventricle 4. Right atrium
Answer: 1
Which assessment data obtained from a client receiving a statin is a priority for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider? 1. "My calves hurt, and I had a hard time walking to the bathroom." 2. "I know I just started this medicine yesterday, but my stomach really is upset." 3. "Will you call my healthcare provider? I have a really bad headache." 4. "My heart rate really went up this morning."
Answer: 1
Which classification of prescription should the nurse anticipate to be prescribed to a client newly diagnosed with chronic heart failure? 1. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor 2. Beta-adrenergic blockers 3. Cardiac glycosides 4. Diuretics
Answer: 1
Which client should the nurse anticipate a prescription for reteplase (Retavase) therapy post myocardial infarction? 1. A 54-year-old female with type 2 diabetes 2. A 45-year-old female with a 2-week-old cranial artery repair 3. A 62-year-old with a recent hemorrhagic stroke 4. A 70-year-old male with active GI bleed
Answer: 1
Which clinical condition should the nurse be concerned about for a client prescribed calcium carbonate (Tums)? 1. Anemia 2. Diarrhea 3. Kidney stones 4. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
Answer: 1
Which describes a characteristic of the class of carbapenems? 1. They have some of the broadest antimicrobial spectrums. 2. They have one of the lowest resistance rates. 3. They have some of the narrowest antimicrobial spectrums. 4. They have one of the longest half-lives.
Answer: 1
Which describes pathogenicity? 1. Ability of organisms to cause infection 2. Ability to kill pathogens 3. Ability for disease to occur when pathogens are present 4. Ability to disrupt the DNA of the pathogen
Answer: 1
Which electrolyte disturbance should the nurse assess a client for that is receiving hydrocortisone therapy? 1. Hypernatremia and hyperglycemia 2. Hypernatremia and hyperkalemia 3. Hypercalcemia and hyperkalemia 4. Hypoglycemia and hyponatremia
Answer: 1
Which food selection should the client with hyperthyroidism be instructed to avoid? 1. Soy sauce 2. Dairy products 3. High-calorie foods 4. Caffeine-free soda
Answer: 1
Which food should the nurse instruct the client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) to avoid? 1. Tomato salad with kale and basil 2. Whole-wheat bread with margarine 3. Salt substitute 4. Fettuccine Alfredo
Answer: 1
Which information about the primary therapeutic action of an antianginal prescription should the nurse include in client teaching? 1. "The prescription decreases how much oxygen your heart needs." 2. "This prescription will thin your blood so your heart receives more oxygen." 3. "This prescription increases the amount of oxygen your heart receives." 4. "This prescription increases the oxygen to your heart by increasing nitric oxide production."
Answer: 1
Which information should the nurse include when providing education for an older client prescribed chlorothiazide (Diuril)? 1. "Take the medication early in the morning." 2. "Avoid foods that are high in potassium." 3. "It is alright to have a glass of wine with this medication." 4. "Take the medication on an empty stomach."
Answer: 1
Which insulin has the longest onset? 1. Insulin detemir (Levemir) 2. Insulin glulisine (Apidra) 3. Insulin lispro (Humalog) 4. Insulin isophane (NPH)
Answer: 1
Which intervention is the highest priority for a 30-year-old female with a BMI of 20 who smokes and has a blood pressure of 137/88? 1. Smoking-cessation program 2. Diuretic therapy 3. Weight-loss program 4. Stress management
Answer: 1
Which is a nursing priority action for the client receiving gentamicin (Garamycin) intravenously? 1. Monitor the client for hearing loss. 2. Draw daily blood chemistries. 3. Decrease the fluids for the client during therapy. 4. Place the client on isolation precautions.
Answer: 1
Which is the most important question the nurse should ask a client with ulcerative colitis prior to administering sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)? 1. "Do you have any medication allergies?" 2. "Are you experiencing any pain?" 3. "What other prescriptions have you take for ulcerative colitis?" 4. "Are you currently experiencing any diarrhea?"
Answer: 1
Which is the most serious adverse effect associated with milrinone (Primacor)? 1. Ventricular dysrhythmia 2. Nausea 3. Headache 4. Atrial dysrhythmia
Answer: 1
Which laboratory study is used to evaluate the proper dosage for heparin therapy? 1. aPTT 2. Serum heparin levels 3. Complete blood count 4. Sedimentation rate
Answer: 1
Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor the client for who is receiving insulin? 1. Potassium 2. Serum amylase 3. AST (aspartate aminotransferase) 4. Sodium
Answer: 1
Which prescription is classified as a biguanide? 1. Metformin HCI (Glucophage) 2. Repaglinide (Prandin) 3. Tolbutamide (Orinase) 4. Acarbose (Precose)
Answer: 1
Which prescription should the nurse anticipate to increase the myocardial contractility for a client with heart failure? 1. Digoxin (Lanoxin) 2. Lisinopril (Prinivil) 3. Carvedilol (Coreg) 4. Furosemide (Lasix)
Answer: 1
Which prescription should the nurse be concerned about a pregnant client receiving? 1. Enalapril (Vasotec) 2. Potassium supplement 3. Doxazosin (Cardura) 4. Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)
Answer: 1
Which result from the diagnostic testing with cosyntropin (Cortrosyn) for adrenocortical insufficiency indicates secondary adrenocortical insufficiency has occurred? 1. The client's plasma level of cortisol rises following the injection. 2. The client has carpal spasms following injection. 3. The client's urine cortisol fails to rise following the injection. 4. The client experiences flushing following the injection.
Answer: 1
Which should the nurse anticipate will be included in a client's treatment plan to limit the incidence of serious adverse effects when prescribing corticosteroids? 1. Administer steroids every other day 2. Administer small doses over a period of several weeks 3. Administer oral doses of the prescription whenever possible 4. Administer large doses for acute conditions then discontinue the prescription
Answer: 1
Which should the nurse monitor a client for that is prescribed cefotaxime (Claforan)? 1. Diarrhea 2. Headache 3. Fever 4. Tachycardia
Answer: 1
Which should the nurse recognize is a risk factor for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? 1. Obesity 2. Stress 3. Esophageal ulcers 4. Aging
Answer: 1
Which statement by the client receiving nitroglycerine (Nitrostat) should the nurse be concerned about? 1. "I'm getting married tomorrow; I hope my erectile dysfunction isn't a problem." 2. "I'm going water skiing tomorrow; I hope my angina isn't a problem." 3. "I really don't like taking those little pills, I would like to use a patch." 4. "My angina has been a little more frequent I would like something to take for the pain."
Answer: 1
Which statement made by a client indicates an understanding of the education about insulin administration? 1. "I should only use a calibrated insulin syringe for the injections." 2. "I should check my blood sugar immediately prior to administration of insulin." 3. "I should use the abdominal area only for insulin injections." 4. "I should provide direct pressure over the site following the injection."
Answer: 1
Which symptom is most likely to be related to angina as opposed to a myocardial infarction? 1. Chest pain relieved by one sublingual nitroglycerin 2. Chest pain that radiates to the patient's back 3. Chest pain that occurred while the patient was eating breakfast 4. Chest pain accompanied by shortness of breath
Answer: 1
Which symptom should the nurse monitor the client for that is diagnosed with diabetes insipidus? 1. Increased dilute urine output 2. Hyperglycemia 3. Hyponatremia 4. Fluid retention
Answer: 1
Which information should the nurse include in the education for a female client prescribed sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)? 1. "A headache is a common adverse effect." 2. "You can divide the daily dose throughout the day to decrease the adverse effects." 3. "You may experience infertility only during the prescribed treatment." 4. "You can crush your tablets and mix it in juice." 5. "If you are outdoors be sure you use a strong sunscreen."
Answer: 1, 2, 5
A client asks the nurse how fat is carried in the blood. Which response should the nurse provide? 1. "Fats in your blood are carried inside small molecules called phospholipids." 2. "Fats travel in the blood on little proteins called lipoproteins." 3. "Fats are free floating in your circulatory system." 4. "Fats are encapsulated inside little bags known as lecithin."
Answer: 2
A client asks the nurse how misoprostol (Cytotec) will treat their peptic ulcer disease (PUD)? Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "It dissolves into a gel and sticks to your ulcer." 2. "It increases mucus production in your stomach." 3. "It inhibits bacterial growth." 4. "It neutralizes stomach acid."
Answer: 2
A client asks the nurse how probiotics can be beneficial in the treatment of their irritable bowel syndrome. Which response should the nurse provide? 1. Probiotics attack infective bacteria in the intestine. 2. Probiotics restore the normal intestinal bacteria. 3. Probiotics decrease the bowel frequency. 4. Probiotics decrease the intestinal water absorption.
Answer: 2
A client asks the nurse if angina is the same thing as having a heart attack. Which response should the nurse provide? 1. "They have some things in common, for example, severe emotional distress and panic can accompany both angina and myocardial infarction." 2. "Angina means the heart muscle is not getting enough oxygen, while heart attack, or myocardial infarction, means part of your heart has died." 3. "Actually, it depends on what type of angina you mean; there are several types." 4. "They are basically the same."
Answer: 2
A client asks the nurse why esomeprazole (Nexium) works better than cimetidine (Tagamet). Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "It is about the same but a lot cheaper than your cimetidine (Tagamet)." 2. "It decreases acid in your stomach better than cimetidine (Tagamet)." 3. "It is about the same but has fewer side effects than your cimetidine (Tagamet)." 4. "It is not as effective as cimetidine (Tagamet) but kills bacteria better."
Answer: 2
A client experiencing bradycardia is suspected of overdosing on diltiazem (Cardizem). Which treatment should the nurse anticipate prescribed? 1. Dopamine 2. Atropine 3. Calcium chloride 4. Narcan
Answer: 2
A client is prescribed an intravenous infusion of milrinone (Primacor) for acute heart failure. Which is a priority nursing assessment during the infusion? 1. Monitor for symptoms of atrial fibrillation 2. Continuous ECG monitoring 3. Vital signs every 15 minutes 4. Monitor for hypertension
Answer: 2
A client post-acute myocardial infarction asks the nurse why they are prescribed reteplase (Retavase) intravenously (IV). Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "The prescription dilates the arteries in the heart so it can get more oxygen." 2. "The prescription is dissolving the clot that has caused your heart attack." 3. "The prescription thins your blood so more clots will not develop." 4. "The prescription will increase the strength of the muscles in the heart during each beat."
Answer: 2
A client receiving hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) asks the nurse why they are urinating so frequently. Which statement should the nurse provide the client? 1. "Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) enhances kidney function causing you to urinate more and that decreases your blood pressure." 2. "Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) decreases the fluid in your bloodstream and this lowers your blood pressure." 3. "Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) dilates your blood vessels so you urinate more and your blood pressure decreases." 4. "Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) increases your heart rate; this pumps blood faster to your kidneys so you urinate more and your blood pressure decreases."
Answer: 2
A client with Addison's disease is experiencing nausea, vomiting, and confusion. Which priority intervention should the nurse anticipate to be included in the plan of care? 1. Placement of a nasogastric tube 2. Administration of intravenous hydrocortisone 3. Administration of intravenous diuretic 4. Immediate endotracheal intubation
Answer: 2
A client with peptic ulcer disease and positive for H. pylori asks the nurse why the healthcare provider would like to treat them with a combination therapy. Which information should the nurse provide the client? 1. Combination therapy has the best outcomes when antibiotics are used with antacids. 2. Combination therapy has the best outcomes when antibiotics are used with proton-pump inhibitors. 3. The use of sucralfate (Carafate) along with antibiotics is the best combination therapy for peptic ulcer disease (PUD). 4. Various antibiotics are used to eradicate the bacteria that are responsible for the development of peptic ulcer disease (PUD).
Answer: 2
A client with tuberculosis asks why they are prescribed multiple drugs. Which information should the nurse include in the education? 1. "Current research indicates that the most effective way to treat tuberculosis is with multiple drugs." 2. "Multiple drugs are necessary because the bacteria are likely to develop resistance to just one drug." 3. "Treatment for tuberculosis is complex, and multiple drugs must be continued for as long as you are contagious." 4. "Multiple drug treatment is necessary to help develop an immunity to tuberculosis."
Answer: 2
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus receiving insulin asks the nurse if they can have a glass of wine with their dinner. Which information should the nurse provide the client? 1. The alcohol could increase your resistance to the insulin. 2. The alcohol could predispose you to hypoglycemia. 3. The alcohol could cause serious liver disease. 4. The alcohol could decrease the metabolism of the insulin.
Answer: 2
A patient receiving chlorothiazide (Diuril) has developed hypokalemia. Which assessment findings support the diagnosis? 1. Hyperglycemia 2. Heart palpitations 3. Increased urine output 4. Diarrhea
Answer: 2
Which client is most at risk to develop constipation? 1. The pediatric client who takes antibiotics for ear infections 2. The elderly client who routinely takes a stimulant laxative twice daily 3. The young client in the hospital for an appendectomy 4. The middle-aged client who uses an enema during periods of travel
Answer: 2
An older adult receiving ethacrynic acid (Edecrin) tells the nurse he or she doesn't hear as well as he or she used to. Which statement should the nurse include in the response? 1. "You may be dehydrated; are you drinking enough fluid?" 2. "I will let your healthcare provider know about this; it could be a side effect of your medication." 3. "How long have you been having difficulty hearing?" 4. "I will schedule a hearing exam; this could be a side effect of your medication."
Answer: 2
The nurse completes the dietary education for a client prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which dietary choice indicates the client understood the teaching? 1. Cottage cheese, peach salad, and blueberry pie 2. Baked fish, sweet potatoes, and banana pudding 3. Green bean soup, whole-wheat bread, and an apple 4. Hamburger, French fries, and chocolate chip cookies
Answer: 2
The nurse educator is reviewing the physiological regulation blood pressure. Which should the educator identify as initially involved? 1. Production of angiotensin II 2. Action of renin 3. Antidiuretic hormone 4. Production of angiotensin I
Answer: 2
The nurse finds a client with diabetes mellitus type 1 unresponsive. Which is the priority nursing action? 1. Call the rapid response team. 2. Administer glucagon. 3. Administer oxygen. 4. Assess the vital signs.
Answer: 2
The nurse has completed the dietary teaching for a client prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is required? 1. "I am really happy that I can have my cranberry juice." 2. "I can still have my orange juice and bananas for breakfast." 3. "I usually eat an apple a day to stay regular." 4. "I love to eat eggs and toast in the morning."
Answer: 2
The nurse has completed the education for a client prescribed gemfibrozil (Lopid). Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? 1. "I should take this medication on an empty stomach to help it absorb better." 2. "I must take this medication with food or I can have heartburn." 3. "My physician said it really doesn't matter how I take this medication." 4. "Taking this medication with yogurt will help it to absorb better."
Answer: 2
The nurse has prescribed dietary education for a client prescribed nifedipine (Procardia XL). Which dietary choice should the nurse recognize requires further education? 1. Whole-wheat pancakes with syrup, and bacon, oatmeal, and orange juice 2. Eggs, whole-wheat toast with butter, cereal, milk, and grapefruit juice 3. Eggs and sausage, a biscuit with margarine, coffee with cream, and cranberry juice 4. Egg and cheese omelet, tea with sugar and lemon, hash brown potatoes, and prune juice
Answer: 2
The nurse has provided a client education about enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which statement made by a client indicates an understanding of the information? 1. "Enoxaparin inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins." 2. "Enoxaparin increases the time it takes for me to form a clot." 3. "Enoxaparin dissolves small clots so I won't have a stroke." 4. "Enoxaparin increases the flexibility of my blood cells."
Answer: 2
The nurse has provided education for a client prescribed fenofibrate (Lofibra). Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is required? 1. "I will expect to see a change in color of my stool." 2. "I will take my prescription on an empty stomach." 3. "I will monitor myself for bruising." 4. "I will report nausea and vomiting to my healthcare provider."
Answer: 2
The nurse is preparing to assess a client with von Willebrand's disease (vWD). Which priority question should the nurse ask the client? 1. "Do you have any other medical conditions?" 2. "Do you have heavy menstrual periods?" 3. "Have you ever been pregnant?" 4. "What are you currently using for birth control?"
Answer: 2
The nurse notes the blood pressure and red blood cell (RBC) count of a client receiving heparin is low. Which should the nurse suspect has occurred? 1. Dehydration 2. Internal bleeding 3. Decreased activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) 4. Clot formation
Answer: 2
The nurse suspects a client receiving chlorothiazide (Diuril) is experiencing side effects from the prescription. Which assessment finding supports the nurse's suspicion? 1. Ataxia and frequent diarrhea 2. Serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L and low blood pressure 3. Serum sodium level of 160 mEq/L and headaches 4. Mental confusion and dependent edema
Answer: 2
The patient is receiving cholestyramine (Questran) and complains of constipation. The physician orders bisacodyl (Dulcolax) tablets. When is the best time for the nurse to administer the bisacodyl (Dulcolax) tablets? 1. The drugs can be administered together. 2. Four hours after administration of cholestyramine (Questran). 3. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) can be given any time but must be taken with food. 4. One hour after administration of cholestyramine (Questran).
Answer: 2
When should the nurse administer a client's prescribed 10 units of lispro (Humalog)? 1. Thirty minutes before meals 2. Five minutes before a meal 3. When the meal trays arrive on the floor 4. Fifteen minutes after meals
Answer: 2
Which action of Lisinopril (Prinivil) results in a decrease in the blood volume? 1. Antagonistic effect on angiotensin-converting enzyme. 2. Decrease aldosterone secretion. 3. Causes hypernatremia and increased renal tubule permeability resulting in a diuretic effect. 4. Causes a diuretic effect by lowering the amount of sodium lost in the urine.
Answer: 2
Which assessment is a nursing priority for a client receiving cholestyramine (Questran)? 1. Auscultation of heart sounds 2. Auscultation of bowel sounds in all four abdominal quadrants 3. Assessment of 24-hour urine output 4. Palpation for peripheral edema in the lower extremities
Answer: 2
Which changes are sensed by the baroreceptors and relayed to the vasomotor center? 1. Oxygenation 2. Blood pressure 3. Carbon dioxide 4. Blood pH
Answer: 2
Which client assessment finding should the nurse associate with a duodenal ulcer? 1. Nausea and lower right quadrant abdominal pain 2. Burning pain several hours after eating a meal 3. Anorexia and weight loss 4. Nausea and vomiting
Answer: 2
Which client has the highest risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus? 1. The 38-year-old client who smokes one pack of cigarettes per day 2. The 42-year-old client who is 50 pounds overweight 3. The 50-year-old client who does not get any physical exercise 4. The 56-year-old client who drinks three glasses of wine each evening
Answer: 2
Which describes the mechanism of action of proton-pump inhibitors? 1. Neutralize the acid in the stomach 2. Block the enzyme that secretes acid in the stomach 3. Block H2 receptors in the stomach 4. Decrease the amount of Helicobacter pylori
Answer: 2
Which describes the mechanism of action of regular insulin? 1. Stimulate the pancreas to produce insulin. 2. Promote entry of glucose into the cells. 3. Facilitate the entry of glucose into the bloodstream. 4. Stimulate the pancreas to secrete more insulin.
Answer: 2
Which describes the primary action of anticoagulant therapy? 1. Increase the number of platelets 2. Prevent the formation of blood clots 3. Decrease the prothrombin time 4. Dissolve blood clots
Answer: 2
Which describes the purpose of fibrinolysis? 1. Stop blood flow 2. Remove a blood clot 3. Produce enzymes 4. Increase blood flow
Answer: 2
Which electrolyte should the nurse assess for a client prescribed aluminum hydroxide (AlternaGEL)? 1. Potassium 2. Phosphate 3. Calcium 4. Sodium
Answer: 2
Which factors are responsible for blood pressure? 1. Blood volume, heart rate, and stroke volume 2. Cardiac output, blood volume, and peripheral vascular resistance 3. Age, weight, and race 4. Body mass index, diet, and genetics
Answer: 2
Which finding is a sign or symptom of hypothyroidism? 1. Anxiety 2. Bradycardia 3. Tachycardia 4. Weight loss
Answer: 2
Which general adverse effect is associated with the use of diuretics? 1. Constipation 2. Orthostatic hypotension 3. Weight gain 4. Hypertension
Answer: 2
Which information should the nurse include in the discharge plan for a client prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin)? 1. "Report the development of a metallic taste in the mouth." 2. "Report mental changes such as feelings of depression." 3. "Stop the prescription if your pulse is irregular." 4. "If you miss a dose, take two doses."
Answer: 2
Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client prescribed niacin to lower lipid levels? 1. "Be sure to take your niacin on an empty stomach as soon as you arise." 2. "Take one aspirin 30 minutes before you take your niacin." 3. "Take your niacin tablet with food and at least one full glass of water." 4. "It may be time to ask your healthcare provider about switching to another drug."
Answer: 2
Which information should the nurse include in the teaching for a client prescribed a stool softener for constipation? 1. "Continue to take this prescription until your stool is very loose and diarrhea-like." 2. "If your discomfort gets worse, return to the clinic." 3. "This medication should work within 12 hours." 4. "If you do not have a bowel movement by tomorrow, return to the clinic."
Answer: 2
Which information should the nurse include when teaching a client about proper subcutaneous injection techniques? 1. Inject the area using a 60° angle. 2. Apply a pad to the site after injections. 3. Rotate sites monthly. 4. Massage the site after injection.
Answer: 2
Which is a priority assessment for the client receiving reteplase (Retavase) intravenously? 1. Fluid balance 2. Abnormal bleeding 3. Blood glucose 4. Respiratory rate
Answer: 2
Which is a priority nursing assessment for the client receiving multiple antibiotics? 1. Assessing blood cultures for the presence of bacteria 2. Assessing changes in stool, white patches in the mouth, and urogenital itching or rash 3. Assessing renal and liver function tests 4. Assessing whether or not the client has adequate food and fluid intake
Answer: 2
Which is a priority nursing intervention for a client who is newly prescribed enalapril (Vasotec)? 1. Monitor the client for headaches. 2. Take the client's blood pressure. 3. Order a sodium-restricted diet for the client. 4. Review the client's lab results for hypokalemia.
Answer: 2
Which is the anticipated treatment outcome for a client that has developed nausea and vomiting? 1. Replacing fluids 2. Identifying and eliminating the cause 3. Encouraging the client to lie still 4. Providing the client with soft foods
Answer: 2
Which is the best statement the nurse should use when discussing the primary reason constipation occurs with a client? 1. "Too much water has been reabsorbed in the large intestine." 2. "The waste material remains in the colon for too long." 3. "The motility of the intestines are too slow." 4. "The dietary intake is not high in fiber."
Answer: 2
Which is the initial step of the negative feedback regulation that results in the suppression of secretion of TSH and TRH thyroid hormone? 1. Blood levels of thyroid hormone rise. 2. Hypothalamus secretes thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH). 3. T3 and T4 are secreted. 4. The anterior pituitary secretes thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
Answer: 2
Which is the most appropriate food for the nurse to recommend to a client to eat that is prescribed a loop diuretic? 1. Meat 2. Bananas 3. Cheese 4. Yogurt
Answer: 2
Which is the most sensitive and effective biomarker of a myocardial infarction? 1. White blood cells 2. Troponin 3. Myoglobin 4. Creatine kinase
Answer: 2
Which is the primary desired outcome for a client that has experienced several episodes of angina? 1. The client will experience relief of chest pain with anticoagulant therapy. 2. The client will experience relief of chest pain with nitrate therapy. 3. The client will experience relief of chest pain with aspirin therapy. 4. The client will experience relief of chest pain with therapeutic lifestyle changes.
Answer: 2
Which medical condition should the nurse be concerned about for a client prescribed hydralazine? 1. Asthma 2. Angina 3. Diabetes 4. Hyperthyroidism
Answer: 2
Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for a client requiring an extended-spectrum penicillin? 1. Oxacillin 2. Piperacillin 3. Penicillin V 4. Ampicillin
Answer: 2
Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for a client that has overdosed on Clopidogrel (Plavix)? 1. Whole blood transfusion 2. Platelet transfusion 3. Vitamin K 4. Protamine sulfate
Answer: 2
Which route of administration should the nurse anticipate to use for a client's prescribed enoxaparin (Lovenox)? 1. Administer the prescription orally. 2. Administer the prescription into the abdomen, subcutaneously. 3. Administer the prescription via slow intravenous (IV) push. 4. Administer the prescription intramuscularly into the thigh.
Answer: 2
Which should the nurse anticipate to be included in the treatment plan for a client with stage A heart failure? 1. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor 2. Lifestyle modifications 3. Beta-blocker 4. Cardiac glycoside
Answer: 2
Which should the nurse be prepared to administer to a client who has overdosed on diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil)? 1. Beta blocker 2. Naloxone 3. Large volume of normal saline 4. Activated charcoal
Answer: 2
Which should the nurse monitor a client for who has been on long-term steroid therapy? 1. Acute closed angle glaucoma 2. Muscle wasting 3. Ulcerative colitis 4. Weight loss
Answer: 2
Which should the nurse recognize is the function of the duodenum? 1. Secretes hydrochloric acid 2. Receives chyme from the stomach 3. Performs most of the digestion and chemical absorption 4. Reabsorbs water and vitamins
Answer: 2
Which should the nurse suspect after noting the presence of protein on a routine urinalysis? 1. Acute kidney injury 2. Structural damage 3. Kidney infection 4. Chronic kidney injury
Answer: 2
Which statement is accurate in regard to secondary hypertension? 1. There is no known cause. 2. It can result from chronic renal impairment. 3. It is also known as idiopathic. 4. It accounts for 90% of all hypertensive cases.
Answer: 2
Which statement provides the best rationale for monitoring HDL and LDL as opposed to total cholesterol? 1. HDL and LDL monitoring is less expensive than measuring total cholesterol. 2. Total cholesterol does not differentiate the amounts of "good" cholesterol and "bad" cholesterol. 3. HDL and LDL measurements are more general and frequently used to assess clients that are not at risk for heart disease. 4. Total cholesterol measurements are often inaccurate and not as reliable as HDL and LDL.
Answer: 2
Which statement should the nurse include when discussing antibiotic resistance with a client? 1. "Resistance to antibiotics most often occurs when a client has a suppressed immune system." 2. "Resistance to antibiotics can occur by the common use for nosocomial infections." 3. "Resistance to antibiotics most often occurs when prescribed to treat the wrong organism." 4. "Resistance to antibiotics can occur any time they are prophylactic prescribed."
Answer: 2
Which triggers the release of insulin in the body? 1. Increase in glycogen 2. Increase in blood glucose 3. Increase in carbohydrates 4. Increase in glucagon
Answer: 2
Which type of lipid serves as fuel for the body when energy is needed? 1. Phospholipids 2. Triglycerides 3. Steroids 4. Lecithins
Answer: 2
Which type of lipoprotein is often referred to as "the good type?" 1. Triglycerides 2. HDL 3. LDL 4. VLDL
Answer: 2
A client asks the nurse how metoclopramide (Reglan) will help their peptic ulcer disease. Which mechanism of action should the nurse discuss with the client? 1. Neutralizes the stomach acid 2. Decreases the production of hydrochloric acid 3. Increases emptying time of the stomach 4. Relaxes the muscles of the gastrointestinal tract
Answer: 3
A client asks the nurse what has caused their irritable bowel syndrome. Which information should the nurse prepare to discuss with the client? 1. Imbalance of the normal flora 2. Autoimmune response 3. Hyperactive immune response 4. Psychosomatic
Answer: 3
A client prescribed bumetanide (Bumex) asks the nurse how the drug works. Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "This prescription causes your kidneys to reabsorb potassium." 2. "This prescription causes your kidneys to block the reabsorption of sodium." 3. "This prescription causes your kidneys to reabsorb calcium." 4. "This prescription causes your kidneys to reabsorb chloride."
Answer: 3
A client prescribed doxazosin (Cardura) asks how the medication works. Which information should the nurse provide the client? 1. "Doxazosin causes the kidneys to excrete more urine." 2. "Doxazosin helps the heart work more efficiently." 3. "Doxazosin helps dilate the blood vessels." 4. "Doxazosin decreases the release of the stress hormones."
Answer: 3
A client prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone) asks the nurse which fluids they should drink to prevent dehydration. Which response should the nurse provide? 1. "Citrus juices are very good for rehydration." 2. "Any kind of fluid is okay, but avoid alcohol." 3. "Plain water is really the best." 4. "Electrolyte-replacement drinks like sports drinks."
Answer: 3
A client with Clostridium difficile tells the nurse they have begun taking an over-the-counter prescription to stop their diarrhea. Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "If you continue to have diarrhea contact the clinic." 2. "Follow the dosing on the packaging." 3. "An antidiarrheal can worsen your infection." 4. "You may experience rebound constipation."
Answer: 3
A client with cirrhosis of the liver asks the nurse why they are at risk for bleeding. Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "The liver is injured and unable to manufacture platelets." 2. "The liver thickens your blood so it is less likely to clot." 3. "The liver is injured and cannot make clotting factors." 4. "The liver is breaking down your clotting factors too quickly."
Answer: 3
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse why they cannot receive insulin in a pill form. Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "The cells cannot recognize insulin in that form." 2. "The insulin could not be properly absorbed." 3. "The stomach acid would destroy the insulin." 4. "The action of insulin would be unpredictable."
Answer: 3
Which describes the effect of saline cathartics? 1. Promote peristalsis by irritating the gastric mucosa 2. Absorb water and increase the size of the fecal mass 3. Pull water into the fecal mass creating a waterier stool 4. Cause more water and fat to be absorbed into the stools
Answer: 3
The nurse has completed nutritional teaching for a client with a high low density lipoprotein (LDL) level. Which menu choice made by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? 1. Beef tenderloin with gravy and noodles, fruit salad with apples and grapefruit, slice of rye bread, and apple pie 2. Grilled chicken salad with strawberries and pecans, baked macaroni and cheese, and low-fat brownie 3. Grilled chicken with rice and broccoli, tossed salad with walnuts and sliced apples, slice of whole-wheat bread, and low-fat chocolate pudding 4. Low-fat hamburger with whole-wheat bun, tossed salad with walnuts and olive oil, and raisin-oatmeal cookie
Answer: 3
The nurse has completed the education for a client prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide). Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? 1. "I really need to avoid grapefruit juice when I take this medication." 2. "I need to avoid salt substitutes and potassium-rich foods." 3. "I take my medication early in the morning." 4. "If I develop a cough, I should call my physician."
Answer: 3
The nurse has discussed lifestyle modifications to help manage the client's hypertension. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? 1. "I need to get started on my medications right away." 2. "My father had hypertension, did nothing, and lived to be 90 years old." 3. "I know I need to give up my cigarettes and alcohol." 4. "I won't be able to run in the marathon race anymore."
Answer: 3
The nurse has provided dietary education for a client prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? 1. "I will increase my consumption of green, leafy vegetables." 2. "I will increase my consumption of poultry." 3. "I will try and eat an orange daily." 4. "I will try and incorporate more grains in my diet."
Answer: 3
The nurse has provided education for a client prescribed desmopressin (DDAVP). Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? 1. "This medication is a potent vasodilator." 2. "This medication promotes diuresis in my body." 3. "This medication increases water reabsorption in my kidneys." 4. "This medication suppresses hormone secretion from my posterior pituitary gland."
Answer: 3
The nurse has provided education for a client with diabetes mellitus prescribed metoprolol (Lopressor) for hypertension. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? 1. "I might not need to check my blood sugars as often with metoprolol (Lopressor)." 2. "I might be able to change from insulin to a pill with metoprolol (Lopressor)." 3. "I might need less insulin when I take metoprolol (Lopressor)." 4. "I might need more insulin when I take metoprolol (Lopressor)."
Answer: 3
The nurse is preparing to administer nitroglycerine via the intravenous route. Which should the nurse do prior to the administration of the prescription? 1. Use gloves to prevent self-administration. 2. Instruct the client to avoid moving the arm in which the prescription is infusing. 3. Cover the intravenous (IV) bottle to decrease light exposure. 4. Darken the room to decrease light exposure.
Answer: 3
The nurse is reviewing the process of hemostasis after an injury with a client. Which should the nurse identify as the initial event in this process? 1. Platelets become sticky. 2. Plasma proteins convert to active forms. 3. The vessel spasms. 4. Von Willebrand's factor is activated.
Answer: 3
The nurse notes a client has a gram-negative urinary tract infection. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate? 1. Tetracycline (Sumycin) 2. Vancomycin (Vancocin) 3. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 4. Gentamicin (Garamycin)
Answer: 3
The nurse reviewing records should determine that which client's lab values are associated with the highest risk of developing heart disease? 1. Total 200, LDL 104, HDL 30 2. Total 210, LDL 135, HDL 58 3. Total 220, LDL 162, HDL 20 4. Total 186, LDL 125, HDL 54
Answer: 3
Which acid-base imbalance should the nurse be concerned about for the client that has been vomiting for several days? 1. Metabolic acidosis 2. Respiratory alkalosis 3. Metabolic alkalosis 4. Respiratory acidosis
Answer: 3
Which adverse effect is common for clients prescribed topical nitroglycerin paste? 1. Rash 2. Shortness of breath 3. Headache 4. Ventricular tachycardia
Answer: 3
Which assessment finding for a client receiving a statin is a priority for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider? 1. Bowel sounds markedly increased in all four quadrants of the abdomen 2. Urine output of 200 mL/hour 3. Urine output of 20 mL/hour 4. Moderate elevation in liver function tests (LFTs)
Answer: 3
Which assessment finding should the nurse be concerned about for the client receiving Ranitidine (Zantac) for treatment of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)? 1. Constipation 2. Pain 24 hours after treatment 3. Increased diarrhea 4. Headache
Answer: 3
Which assessment findings should the nurse anticipate for the client with Cushing's syndrome? 1. Hypotension 2. Tachycardia 3. Upper body obesity 4. Thin, gaunt appearance of the face
Answer: 3
Which can be combined with aluminum compounds such as aluminum hydroxide (AlternaGEL) to increase their effectiveness and reduce the potential for constipation? 1. Phosphate 2. Potassium 3. Magnesium 4. Calcium
Answer: 3
Which client is at greatest risk for developing heart failure? 1. A 50-year-old African American female who smokes 2. A 75-year-old Caucasian male who is overweight 3. A 69-year-old African American male with hypertension 4. A 52-year-old Caucasian female with asthma
Answer: 3
Which client prescribed metoprolol (Toprol-XL) is most at risk for adverse effects? 1. The client with an apical pulse rate of 100 2. The client with compensated heart failure 3. The client with chronic bronchitis 4. The client with a history of migraines
Answer: 3
Which condition is a client at risk for who is prescribed a biguanide? 1. Anaphylaxis 2. Hepatotoxicity 3. Lactic acidosis 4. Pancreatitis
Answer: 3
Which describes the action of vasodilators in the relief of symptoms of heart failure? 1. Decrease afterload 2. Reduce preload 3. Improve cardiac contractility 4. Reduce fluid overload
Answer: 3
Which describes the primary action of stool softeners? 1. Break up fecal material in the colon 2. Decrease gastrointestinal peristalsis 3. Increase water absorption in the stool 4. Increase gastrointestinal peristalsis
Answer: 3
Which describes the primary goal of pharmacotherapy for the treatment of hyperthyroidism (Graves' disease)? 1. Decrease the metabolic processes 2. Increase synthesis of thyroid hormones 3. Lower the activity of the thyroid gland 4. Prevent a thyroid storm from occurring
Answer: 3
Which information should the nurse include in education for a client prescribed methimazole (Tapazole)? 1. "Occasionally you may feel your heart beating fast." 2. "Call the clinic if you are having trouble sleeping." 3. "It is important for you to schedule periodic liver function tests." 4. "You may experience a weight loss while taking this prescription."
Answer: 3
Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client prescribed scopolamine for motion sickness? 1. Take an initial dose of the prescription 1 day prior to travel. 2. Limit periods of movement after you take your prescription. 3. Take your prescription 20 to 60 minutes prior to travel. 4. Take your prescription in the evening or at bedtime.
Answer: 3
Which information should the nurse include in the education of a client prescribed an antacid? 1. Antacids can be safely administered with H2-receptor medications. 2. Antacids can be safely administered with antibiotics. 3. Administer antacids at least 2 hours before other oral medications. 4. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking antacids.
Answer: 3
Which information should the nurse provide a client that asks the nurse how they got H. Pylori? 1. "Your immune system is weak." 2. "The stomach pH is too low." 3. "The bacteria has entered your body somehow." 4. "H. Pylori naturally lives in your gastrointestinal tract."
Answer: 3
Which initial treatment prescribed should the nurse anticipate for the client that has overdosed on hydrochlorothiazide? 1. Electrolyte replacement 2. Intravenous normal saline 3. Vasopressor 4. Furosemide (Lasix)
Answer: 3
Which is a primary function of the islets of Langerhans? 1. Secretion of enzymes 2. Exocrine function 3. Secretion of glucagon 4. Absorption of insulin
Answer: 3
Which is the client at risk for that is receiving spironolactone (Aldactone)? 1. Pancytopenia 2. Aplastic anemia 3. Hyperkalemia 4. Hyponatremia
Answer: 3
Which is the nurse's priority assessment for a client treated with intravenous hydralazine (Apresoline)? 1. Hypotension and bradycardia 2. Hypotension and hyperthermia 3. Hypotension and tachycardia 4. Hypotension and tachypnea
Answer: 3
Which is the primary functional unit of the kidney? 1. Loop of Henle 2. Bowman's capsule 3. Nephron 4. Distal tubule
Answer: 3
Which is the primary goal of treatment for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? 1. Promote ulcer healing 2. Prevent infection 3. Reduce gastric acid secretions 4. Decrease stomach pain
Answer: 3
Which lipid type is associated with the highest risk for the development of atherosclerosis? 1. Phospholipids 2. Lecithins 3. Steroids 4. Triglycerides
Answer: 3
Which mechanism of action does beta-adrenergic agonists have on the cardiovascular system? 1. Increase cardiac output 2. Dilate arterial smooth muscle 3. Decrease the contractility of the heart 4. Dilate venous system
Answer: 3
Which outcome should the nurse anticipate for the client receiving treatment with radioactive iodine (Iodine-131) therapy? 1. The client will only temporarily accomplish the euthyroid state. 2. The client should limit fluid intake during the treatment. 3. The client will most likely require thyroid replacement therapy. 4. The client should avoid contact with others until the treatment is over.
Answer: 3
Which prescription is nephrotoxic if an overdose occurs? 1. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2. Amitriptyline (Elavil) 3. Ibuprofen (Advil) 4. Quetiapine (Seroquel)
Answer: 3
Which prescription should the nurse prepare to administer for a client experiencing a warfarin sodium overdose? 1. Aspirin 2. Heparin 3. Vitamin K 4. Protamine sulfate
Answer: 3
Which question should the nurse ask the client that is prescribed cefepime (Maxipime)? 1. "Are you breastfeeding?" 2. "Are you pregnant?" 3. "Are you allergic to penicillin?" 4. "Are you allergic to tetracycline?"
Answer: 3
Which should the nurse anticipate prescribed for a client with a complicated MRSA infection? 1. Telithromycin (Ketek) 2. Linezolid (Zyvox) 3. Quinupristin/dalfopristin (Synercid) 4. Clindamycin (Cleocin)
Answer: 3
Which should the nurse be most concerned about during the treatment of a client experiencing a thyroid storm? 1. The client requires a second dose of propylthiouracil. 2. The client develops crackles in both lung bases. 3. The client begins to shiver. 4. The client becomes hyperglycemic.
Answer: 3
Which should the nurse monitor the client for after initiating pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy? 1. Headache 2. Dry mouth 3. Nausea and vomiting 4. Sedation
Answer: 3
Which should the nurse monitor the client for that is receiving glucocorticoid therapy? 1. Hypothermia 2. Hypotension 3. Hypertension 4. Weight loss
Answer: 3
Which should the nurse recognize are adverse effects associated with digoxin (Lanoxin)? 1. Tachycardia and hypotension 2. Blurred vision and tachycardia 3. Anorexia and nausea 4. Anorexia and constipation
Answer: 3
Which statement is accurate regarding the physiological changes associated with heart failure? 1. Blood backs up into the lungs due to right ventricular hypertrophy. 2. The walls of the heart shrink, leading to lower cardiac output. 3. Cardiac remodeling occurs after prolonged ventricular hypertrophy. 4. Blood pressure increases, resulting in lowered afterload.
Answer: 3
Which anatomical location is Ezetimibe (Zetia) effective in blocking the absorption of cholesterol? 1. Stomach 2. Gallbladder 3. Liver 4. Jejunum
Answer: 4
Which statement is accurate regarding the use of nicotinic acid (Niacin) for lowering blood cholesterol levels? 1. Works primarily by lowering LDL and HDL levels. 2. Due to adverse effects, niacin should not be used with statins. 3. Niacin may also reduce triglyceride levels. 4. High doses of 25-30 mg per day are often necessary.
Answer: 3
Which statement made by a client indicates an understanding of the function of the large intestine? 1. "The large intestine contains host flora that manufacture vitamin E." 2. "The large intestine absorbs most of the nutrients from food." 3. "The large intestine absorbs water and eliminates stool." 4. "Food travels through the large intestine for 3 to 6 hours."
Answer: 3
Which statement made by a client prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Septra) should the nurse be concerned about? 1. "I will take this prescription with water." 2. "I forgot to take iron today." 3. "I will not take my warfarin at the same time." 4. "If I go out I will make sure to use a strong sunscreen."
Answer: 3
Which symptom is common for a client with untreated type 1 diabetes mellitus? 1. Increased energy 2. Weight gain 3. Fatigue 4. Decreased hunger
Answer: 3
Which symptom should the nurse associate with hypoglycemia? 1. Thirst 2. Increased urination 3. Moist skin 4. Nausea
Answer: 3
Which type of insulin should the nurse anticipate to administer intravenously to a client with a blood glucose of 563? 1. Insulin aspart (NovoLog) 2. Insulin isophane (NPH) 3. Insulin regular (Humulin R). 4. Insulin glargine (Lantus)
Answer: 3
Which unit of measurement should the nurse anticipate penicillin to be prescribed? 1. Grams 2. Grains 3. Units 4. Milligrams
Answer: 3
A client experiencing syncope is suspected of taking a losartan (Cozaar) overdose? Which intervention should the nurse anticipate? 1. Administer a calcium infusion 2. Administer a loop diuretic 3. Administer a vasopressor 4. Administer an intravenous solution of normal saline
Answer: 4
A client prescribed furosemide (Lasix) and digoxin (Lanoxin) reports using an over-the-counter antacid for recurrent heartburn. Based on this information, which effect should the nurse be concerned about? 1. Hyponatremia 2. Hypermagnesemia 3. Increased effectiveness of furosemide (Lanoxin) 4. Decreased effectiveness of digoxin (Lanoxin)
Answer: 4
A client taking diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) for diarrhea asks the nurse why they do not experience pain relief from their arthritis. Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "Diphenoxylate with atropine is not an opioid." 2. "You would really have to take a lot to experience pain relief." 3. "It does provide some relief from the pain associated with diarrhea." 4. "Diphenoxylate with atropine does not have analgesic properties."
Answer: 4
A client tells the nurse their "stomach pain is completely relieved after eating and returns a couple hours after the meal." Which condition should the nurse suspect the client is experiencing? 1. Gastric ulcer 2. Crohn's disease 3. Ulcerative colitis 4. Duodenal ulcer
Answer: 4
Prior to administering a prescribed dose of gentamicin (Garamycin), the nurse notes a client's serum level of gentamicin (Garamycin) is 12 mcg/mL? Which action should the nurse take? 1. Administer the dose of gentamicin 2. Request a new culture and sensitivity 3. Request a new serum level 4. Hold the dose of gentamicin
Answer: 4
The healthcare provider has prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) for a client with chronic renal failure. Which assessment finding indicates the treatment is ineffective? 1. Weak pulses 2. Hypotension 3. Poor skin turgor 4. Wheezing
Answer: 4
The nurse has provided a client with education about intrinsic factor. Which statement indicates an understanding of the information? 1. "Intrinsic factor is secreted by the chief cells of the stomach." 2. "Intrinsic factor is necessary for absorption of vitamin B6." 3. "Intrinsic factor aids in the secretion of mucus to protect the stomach." 4. "Intrinsic factor is necessary for absorption of vitamin B12."
Answer: 4
The nurse has provided education for a client prescribed lisinopril (Prinivil). Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is required? 1. "I will monitor my blood pressure until my next appointment." 2. "I will avoid using salt substitutes for seasoning." 3. "It takes a while for this medication to take effect." 4. "I will not need to worry about having additional blood tests done."
Answer: 4
The nurse is caring for a client with a DVT (deep vein thrombosis) receiving heparin intravenously (IV). Which is the priority outcome for the client? 1. The client will comply with dietary restrictions. 2. The client will keep the right leg elevated on two pillows. 3. The client will not disturb the intravenous infusion. 4. The client will not experience bleeding.
Answer: 4
The nurse is preparing to educate a client prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid). Which information should the nurse include in the teaching? 1. Monitor daily temperature. 2. Assess for decreased appetite. 3. Assess weekly serum blood levels. 4. Assess for altered sleep patterns.
Answer: 4
The nurse notes a client's warfarin (Coumadin) level is 7 mcg/mL. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Continue the treatment and monitor the client. 2. Administer protamine sulfate and hold the next dose of warfarin (Coumadin). 3. Hold the next dose of warfarin (Coumadin) and contact the healthcare provider. 4. Hold the next dose of warfarin (Coumadin) and request an international normalized ratio (INR).
Answer: 4
The nurse notes that a client experiencing heart failure has been receiving nifedipine (Procardia). Which is a priority assessment for the nurse? 1. Review recent lab results for hypokalemia. 2. Assess urinary output. 3. Assess level of orientation. 4. Auscultate breath sounds for crackles.
Answer: 4
The nurse reviewing the records of a client diagnosed with hypertension notes a weight of 200 lbs, height 5' 4", dietary intake includes primarily starches, an alcohol intake of three beers per week, and stressors include 60-hour workweeks. Based on this information, which should the nurse identify as a priority outcome? 1. Patient will eliminate alcohol from the diet. 2. Patient will decrease stress by limiting work to 40 hours/week. 3. Patient will balance diet according to the food pyramid. 4. Patient will achieve and maintain optimum weight.
Answer: 4
Which best describes the pathogenesis of diarrhea? 1. It is infrequent uncontrolled passage of stool. 2. It occurs when the large intestine reabsorbs too little water. 3. It is an increase in the amount of bowel movements. 4. It is an increase in frequency and fluidity of bowel movements.
Answer: 4
Which client has the greatest risk for developing heart disease? 1. A 35-year-old with diabetes mellitus and prehypertension 2. A 75-year-old with Parkinson's disease and normal blood pressure 3. A 52-year-old with osteoporosis and stage 1 hypertension 4. A 68-year-old with stage 2 hypertension and recent myocardial infarction
Answer: 4
Which condition is characterized by an erosion of the mucosal layer of the stomach or duodenum? 1. Diverticulum 2. Crohn's disease 3. Hiatal hernia 4. Peptic ulcer
Answer: 4
Which describes the action of bactericidal drugs? 1. Disrupt normal cell function 2. Slow the growth of the bacteria 3. High potency 4. Kill the bacteria
Answer: 4
Which describes the action of thrombolytic prescriptions? 1. Convert plasmin to plasminogen. 2. Prevent the liver from making fibrin. 3. Prevent thrombus formation. 4. Digest and remove preexisting clots.
Answer: 4
Which describes the function of the thyroid gland? 1. Stimulate growth 2. Control pituitary gland secretion 3. Conserve water in the body 4. Control basal metabolism
Answer: 4
Which describes the mechanism of action for Clopidogrel (Plavix)? 1. Decreases platelet production 2. Prevents platelets from adhering to the injured tissue 3. Stimulates platelet production 4. Prevents the platelets from sticking together
Answer: 4
Which describes the mechanism of action of anticoagulant prescriptions? 1. Alteration of plasma membrane and platelets 2. Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin 3. Prevention of fibrin from dissolving 4. Inhibition of thrombi formation.
Answer: 4
Which describes the mechanism of action of diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil)? 1. Promotion of stool passage 2. Blockage of dopamine receptors 3. Increase in stool formation 4. Decrease peristalsis
Answer: 4
Which describes the mechanism of atorvastatin's (Lipitor) ability to lower blood cholesterol levels? 1. Binds exogenous cholesterol and excreting it in the feces 2. Increases excretion by activating enzymes within the hepatic system 3. Prevents dietary absorption within the GI tract 4. Inhibits an enzyme that is essential for cholesterol synthesis
Answer: 4
Which diuretic is most effective in reducing the mortality of a client with heart failure? 1. Chlorothiazide (Diuril) 2. Acetazolamide (Diamox) 3. Furosemide (Lasix) 4. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
Answer: 4
Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse be concerned about for the client who is prescribed a thiazide diuretic? 1. Magnesium 2. Calcium 3. Chloride 4. Potassium
Answer: 4
Which factor increases cardiac output? 1. Reduced cardiac contractility 2. Hypovolemia 3. Peripheral vascular resistance 4. Increase in preload
Answer: 4
Which finding should the nurse be most concerned about for a client with hypothyroidism? 1. Dry skin 2. Generalized weakness 3. Muscle cramps 4. Weight gain
Answer: 4
Which information should the nurse include in the education of a client when explaining type 1 diabetes mellitus? 1. "The exocrine function of the pancreas is not working." 2. "The target cells are resistant to insulin." 3. "Your alpha cells should be able to secrete insulin, but they cannot." 4. "Your pancreas cannot secrete insulin."
Answer: 4
Which information should the nurse include in the teaching of a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus that would like to participate in sports? 1. "Lower your dose of insulin." 2. "Eat a large meal after your game." 3. "Take an oral hypoglycemic agent on game days rather than insulin." 4. "Eat a meal 1 hour before the game and consume a carbohydrate snack and fluids during the game."
Answer: 4
Which initial question should the nurse ask the client who is receiving chlorpropamide (Diabinese) and is experiencing nausea, flushing, and palpitations? 1. "Have you taken your medication as directed?" 2. "Did you eat or drink anything new this week?" 3. "Have you increased the amount of fiber in your diet?" 4. "Have you had any alcoholic beverages to drink this week?"
Answer: 4
Which is the primary pharmacologic goal in the treatment of a client experiencing stable angina? 1. Increase venous blood flow to the right atrium. 2. Eliminate blockages by using thrombolytics. 3. Establish a regular exercise program and diet plan. 4. Increase cardiac oxygen supply and reduce cardiac oxygen demand.
Answer: 4
Which is the priority action of the nurse when caring for a client receiving a statin with elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels? 1. Hold the prescription and obtain another creatine kinase (CK) level in 6 hours. 2. Administer the prescription and continue to assess for muscle pain. 3. Administer the prescription and obtain another creatine kinase (CK) level in 6 hours. 4. Hold the prescription and notify the healthcare provider.
Answer: 4
Which laboratory test is used to measure the effectiveness of warfarin sodium therapy? 1. Complete blood count 2. Platelet count 3. aPTT 4. International normalized ratio (INR)
Answer: 4
Which laboratory test should the nurse anticipate prescribed to help identify the correct antibiotic to be used for the treatment of a client with a fever of 104°F? 1. Liver function tests 2. Complete blood count (CBC) 3. Urinalysis 4. Blood for culture and sensitivity
Answer: 4
Which prescription is indicated for the prevention of blood clots? 1. Captopril (Capoten) 2. Reteplase (Retavase) 3. Morphine 4. Abciximab (ReoPro)
Answer: 4
Which prescriptions reduce the heart's demand for oxygen by lowering heart rate? 1. Anticoagulants and beta-adrenergic blockers 2. Calcium channel blockers and anticoagulants 3. Organic nitrates and calcium channel blockers 4. Beta-adrenergic blockers and calcium channel blockers
Answer: 4
Which priority question should the nurse ask a client suspected of experiencing a stroke that is prescribed alteplase (Activase). 1. "Do you take any other prescriptions?" 2. "Are you currently being treated for hypertension?" 3. "Do you have any other medical conditions?" 4. "Do you know what time the stroke occurred?"
Answer: 4
Which priority question should the nurse ask the female client that has been prescribed penicillin G? 1. "Are you pregnant?" 2. "Do you plan to become pregnant?" 3. "Are you breastfeeding?" 4. "Are you taking birth control pills?"
Answer: 4
Which response should the nurse provide a client that asks about dawn phenomenon? 1. "At night your body converts glycogen into glucose resulting in hyperglycemia." 2. "During the night your body releases hormones that elevate blood glucose." 3. "During the night your blood glucose levels decline and then rise again in the morning." 4. "Your body naturally produces cortisol and growth hormone between 4:00 and 8:00 am."
Answer: 4
Which should the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for a bowel preparation prior to a colonoscopy? 1. Docusate sodium (Colace) 2. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) 3. Methylcellulose (Citrucel) 4. Sodium biphosphate (Fleet Phospho-Soda)
Answer: 4
Which should the nurse include in the plan of care when administering intranasal desmopressin (DDAVP) to a client? 1. Instruct the client to blow his nose following administration. 2. Be sure to have fresh water at the bedside. 3. Withhold other prescriptions when administering desmopressin (DDAVP) to ensure absorption. 4. Direct the spray high into the nasal cavity.
Answer: 4
Which should the nurse recognize is the safest classification of antibiotics that is commonly prescribed? 1. Macrolides 2. Aminoglycosides 3. Sulfonamides 4. Penicillin
Answer: 4
Which statement correctly identifies why restricting dietary intake of cholesterol generally will not result in a significant reduction of blood cholesterol? 1. Most clients are not compliant with the dietary restriction. 2. Cholesterol is found in nearly all foods, and it is not possible to eliminate it from the diet. 3. Cholesterol is made within the body and cannot be absorbed via external sources. 4. The liver reacts to a low-cholesterol diet by making more cholesterol.
Answer: 4
Which statement is accurate regarding the use of beta-adrenergic blockers for use in clients with heart failure? 1. Higher doses are used initially until optimal vital signs are achieved. 2. Dosage changes are done on a daily basis for the first 2 weeks. 3. This drug class does not have an effect on the bronchioles of the lungs. 4. They are generally used in combination with other heart-failure drugs.
Answer: 4
Which statement made by a client indicates an understanding of type 2 diabetes mellitus? 1. "My beta cells just cannot produce enough insulin for my cells." 2. "My peripheral cells have increased sensitivity to insulin." 3. "My cells have increased receptors sites, but there is not enough insulin." 4. "My cells are resistant to the insulin my pancreas makes."
Answer: 4
Which statement made by a client newly prescribed a beta-adrenergic blocker should the nurse be concerned about? 1. "I don't handle stress well; I have a lot of diarrhea." 2. "When I have a migraine headache, I need to have the room darkened." 3. "My father died of a heart attack when he was 48 years old." 4. "I have always had problems with my asthma."
Answer: 4
Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of self-care while taking prescriptions to treat their heart failure? 1. "I will cut back on my smoking." 2. "I will check my pulse every few days." 3. "I will schedule my lab work if I am not feeling well." 4. "I will weigh myself every day in the morning after I wake up."
Answer: 4
Which treatment plan should the nurse anticipate for the client with a sore throat, with white patches on the tonsils and swollen cervical lymph nodes? 1. Prescription of a narrow-spectrum antibiotic 2. Prescription of a broad-spectrum antibiotic 3. Prescription for blood cultures 4. Prescription for a throat culture
Answer: 4