Final Exam
a.
Carbohydrates
a.
Cell wall synthesis
e.
Cells from damaged tissues
d.
Cells from damaged tissues and the complement pathway
a.
Chemotaxis
b.
Chemotaxis of the phagocyte to the site of infection
c.
Clonal proliferation
b.
Collected cells from damaged tissues
a.
Colonization by pathogens
b.
Complement
7.
Considering the effect of Mycoplasma pneumoniae as it burrows between respiratory epithelial cells. Which elements of the second line of defense will be most effective in fighting this invader?
c.
Contact transmission
d.
Contact, vehicle, and vector transmission
d.
Contaminated water
d.
Elimination
c.
Increase permeability
b.
Increased blood flow to the area of infection
31.
Increased permeability of the vessels leads to _____ and pain
b.
Increased urine production
d.
Increased vessel permeability
a.
Inflammation
34.
Inflammatory mediators such as bradykinin and histamine cause blood vessels to ________.
b.
Interferon
d.
Interferon production
c.
Intramuscular antibiotic injection
b.
Intramuscular iron injections
a.
Intravenous fluids
b.
Invading bacterial cells
b.
Invading pathogenic bacteria
b.
Involves the formation of pus
d.
It allows for an increase in oxygen to the site of damage.
c.
It allows for an increased delivery of oxygen, nutrients, and phagocytes to the site of damage.
b.
It allows more nutrients to be delivered to the site of damage
a.
It allows more phagocytes to travel to the site of damage
d.
Lengthen
35.
Leukocytes have the ability to cross the vessel wall out of the blood stream and into the tissues. This process is known as _________.
b.
Leukotriene
b.
Produce IL-2
c.
Produce gamma interferon
b.
Production of IL-2 and gamma-interferon receptors
b.
Production of antimicrobial peptides and lysozymes
a.
Prostaglandin
b.
Protein synthesis
d.
Proteins
b.
Pseudopods
17.
Pus is comprised of
c.
Red blood cell numbers are decreased
a.
Redness
c.
Redness, coolness, numbness, fever
d.
Redness, heat, edema, pain
b.
Redness, heat, edema, pain, fever
b.
Salvia that is transmitted between individuals during kissing
a.
Secretion of granzymes and perforin
d.
Skin barrier
c.
Skin infections
40.
Targeting inflammation as an infection control mechanism is a double-edged sword. On one side, inflammation evolved to help eliminate and/or contain pathogens. On the other, too great of an inflammatory response will lead to tissue destruction and lasting damage. You decide to focus on the process of margination during inflammation. Predict the most likely outcome of enhancing margination. Choose the statement that is the most likely outcome of enhanced margination.
b.
The antibodies may block proteins necessary for binding the pathogen to the host
c.
The antibodies may block proteins necessary for binding the pathogen to the host, may opsonize the bacterium or may agglutinate bacteria
d.
The antibodies may coast the surface of the bacteria (opsonization) allowing for it to be tagged for phagocytosis
a.
The antibodies may stick to multiple bacteria, causing agglutination
d.
The attachment of phagocytes to the wall of capillaries.
c.
The bite of a mosquito containing malaria
c.
The blood serum
39.
The complement cascade involves a series of proteins that circulate in the blood. There are three pathways that lead to activation of the complement cascade--classical, alternative, and lectin. Your goal is to enhance the immediate response to bacterial infection. With this goal in mind, why might you choose to target the lectin or alternative pathways rather than the classical? Choose the statement that best describes why the lectin or alternative pathway would stimulate a more immediate response than the classical pathway
a.
The complement system
c.
The complement system
32.
The process of blood clotting leads to the formation of _______ a potent mediator of inflammation.
a.
The process of programmed cell death
a.
The production and release of chemicals during inflammation
b.
The proliferation of cytotoxic T-cells.
d.
The protection of his flu vaccine
d.
The receptor on a cytotoxic T-cell that recognizes MHC molecules
e.
The spleen
c.
The structure that results from the fusion of a phagosomes and a lysosome
a.
They are destroyed via apoptosis
e.
They are infected by viruses
b.
They are physical barrier against invading pathogens
b.
They are present on the surface of present on the surface of phagocytes
a.
They attract phagocytes to the location of infection
d.
They can differentiate into long lived memory T-cells
f.
They can mature and attack infected cells
c.
They create "handles" that make it easier for the pseudopods of phagocytes to attach to the microbe invader
c.
They decrease the diameter of capillaries
d.
They involve the production of antibodies
c.
They involve unique cells that attack invading pathogens
b.
They prevent phagocytes from sticking
c.
They proliferate into a clone of cells specific to the same antigen; some of these cells then differentiate into long lived memory T-cells, while other mature to attack infected cells
a.
They recognize specific pathogens
11.
Which molecule triggers apoptosis?
18.
Which of the following can release histamines?
30.
Which of the following groupings contain things that are all truw indicators of inflammation?
4.
Which of the following is considered a major category of transmission of disease?
7.
Which of the following most accurately describes how a pathogenic bacterium might be affected by antibodies?
5.
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
21.
Which of the following phagocytic processes occurs last in the sequenxe
1.
Which of the following would be considered a fomite?
2.
Which of the following would be considered a vector?
1.
Which type of cell directly attacks infected cells?
d.
White blood cell numbers are decreased
16.
Why is vasodilation important to tissue repair?
9.
Why would bleeding time be increased in this patient?
c.
Wood from a splinter
In 1937, a man employed to lay water pipes was found to be the source of a severe epidemic of typhoid fever. The man, an asymptomatic carrier of Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi, the bacterium that causes typhoid, habitually urinated at his job site. In the process, he contaminated the town's water supply with bacteria from his bladder. Over 300 cases of typhoid fever developed, and 43 people died before the man was identified as the carrier. Based on the data supplied, what was the approximate mortality rate for this outbreak? a. 0.14% b. 1% c. 14% d. 43%
c. 14% Reason: (43/300) x 100 = 14%
Some bacteria secreted chemicals that prevent the phagocytic digestion of a bacterium by interfering with the fusion of______ to the phagosome a. The bacterium b. A lipopolysaccharide layer (LPS) c. A lysosome d. Pseudopods
c. A lysosome Reason: Chemicals that prevent lysosomes from fusing to the phagosomes essentially prevent the lytic enzymes of the phagocyte from destroying the bacterium.
d.
In every cell
a.
Platelet count is decreased
d.
Platelets
5.
Which is an example of vehicle disease transmission
a.
Bacterial cells
a.
Bacterial infections
25.
Based on the animation, which of the following is cleaved by C1
27.
Based on the animation, which of the following is responsible for cleaving C3
29.
Basophils, platelets, and _____ are all capable of secreting histamines.
c.
Each antibody has at least two antigen binding sites
b.
Edema
28.
Based on the animation, which of the complement proteins can directly bind to the surface of a bacterial cell?
c.
A cytotoxic T cell
c.
A fly
d.
A fly carrying disease from fecal matter to food
a.
A phagocyte
c.
A protein molecule that forms a pore in the membranes of infected cells
d.
A protein that covers the surface of an invading microbe, making it easier for the phagocyte to ingest.
1.
A response that is uniquely directed against pathogenic Bordetella pertussis would involve what component?
a.
A tick
a.
A vesicle containing only an engulfed invading microorganism
b.
A vesicle containing only digestive enzymes and other antimicrobial compounds
a.
Abnormal body cells
a.
Activate cytokines
36.
Acute and chronic inflammations differ in that acute inflammation ________.
a.
Adherence
c.
Adherence
a.
Airborne transmission
a.
Alveolar macrophage - lungs
d.
Always involves a fever.
b.
An antibody-producing cell
b.
An infected toy
b.
Antibodies
a.
Antibodies are produced by plasma cells.
b.
Antibodies can inactivate toxins
d.
Antibodies can recognize bacteria as well as viruses.
c.
Apoptosis
Nancy's urinary tract infection from Escherichia coli is an example of an opportunistic pathogen _______________. a. Causing an infection due to a suppressed immune system b. Being introduced into an unusual site of the body c. That never causes infection, because it is considered a symbiont d. Taking advantages of a change in the normal microbiota
B. Being introduced into an unusual site of the body
Which of the following would be the first sign of an infection that resulted in the release of endotoxin? a. Pain b. Fever c. Nausea d. Weakness
B. fever
d.
Bind to MHC molecules
c.
Bleeding gums
d.
Blood transfusion
a.
Blueness, coolness, edema, pain
c.
Both pathways lead to the formation of more membrane attack complexes compared to the classical pathway
3.
Both the innate and adaptive defenses f the immune system work to prevent
d.
Bradykinin
b.
Bradykinins
What type of infection does Nancy's Clostridium difficile infection represent? a. An opportunistic infection caused by immunosuppression b. A iatrogenic infection subsequent to direct medical procedures c. A nosocomial infection d. An endemic infection
C. A nosocomial infection Reason: Nancy's Clostridium difficile infection is considered a nosocomial infection because it was acquired in a health-care setting
Endotoxins are also known as a. Cytokines b. Prostaglandins c. Lipid A d. Interleukin - 1
C. Lipid A
Consider the bacterial agents responsible for Nancy's urinary tract infection and intestinal infection. These organisms can be described as _____. a. Obligate pathogens that always cause diseases b. Vectors that transmit disease c. Symbionts that are typical normal microbiota d. transient microbiota
C. Symbionts that are typical normal microbiota
b.
C1
b.
C2
d.
C2 an C4
e.
C2a
d.
C2aC4b
c.
C2b
c.
C3 and C5
a.
C3a and C5a
a.
C3b
a.
C4
d.
C4a
a.
C4aC2b
c.
C5
e.
C5 and C4
b.
C5b
c.
C5bC6C7
d.
CD8 binds to MHC molecules of infected cells.
d.
Cancerous cells
b.
Cytotoxic T-cells
e.
Cytotoxic T-cells
b.
Cytotoxic T-cells attack abnormal body cells, while helper T-cells attack virally infected cells.
a.
Cytotoxic T-cells begin to attack the virally infected T-cells, reducing the number of T-cells in the body
a.
Cytotoxic T-cells produce cytokines to activate helper T-cells.
Why is a release of endotoxin into the bloodstream potentially deadly? a. Endotoxin can quickly enter the brain from the bloodstream, causing brain damage b. It causes necrosis of the liver c. It results in dehydration d. It can lower blood pressure and cause the patient to go into shock
D. It can lower blood pressure and cause the patient to go into shock
When would endotoxins be release from a bacterial cell? a. When the cell attaches to a host cell in the human body b. During bacterial conjugation c. When the cell moves toward a energy source d. When the cell dies
D. When the cell dies
c.
Dead phagocytes
c.
Decreased platelet numbers
d.
Decreased red blood cell numbers
a.
Decreased white blood cells numbers
e.
Dendritic cells - epidermis
a.
Develops quickly, ends quickly, and is typically beneficial
c.
Develops slowly, lasts a long time, and is potentially damaging
b.
Diapedesis
15.
Diapedesis is:
b.
Digestion
b.
Disease
b.
Each activated cytotoxic T-cell proliferates, forming a clone of cells specific to the same antigen
c.
Enhance tissue repair
a.
Enhanced phagocytosis
d.
HIV reprograms these cells to attack the body cells.
b.
HIV transforms the T-cells into cancer cells.
a.
Excess fluid from leaky blood vessels
d.
Exocytosis
e.
Exocytosis
c.
Fever
d.
Fever
2.
First line defense have what aspect in common with each other?
b.
Food allergies
c.
Formation
a.
Gamma-interferon
a.
Glycoproteins
b.
Granzyme
c.
HIC causes cytokines to be produced at much higher levels, altering the normal function of the immune system
3.
HIC directly infects T-cells. Why is this problematic for cell-medicated immunity
d.
Heat
c.
Helper T-cells
d.
Helper T-cells
c.
Helper T-cells produce cytotoxic T-cells
d.
Helper T-cells produce cytotoxic to activate other cells of the immune system.
c.
Histamine
33.
Histamines are released when mast cells are exposed to _______. Which are fragments of complement proteins
4.
How do helper T-cells and cytotoxic T-cells work together?
d.
IL-2
4.
If a new bacterial pathogen entered a human body through an accidental need stick, the first cell that would try to kill the pathogen would like be
2.
Immune cells that secrete cytokines and activate other immune cells are:
c.
Lipids
d.
Lysosomes
c.
MHC
d.
Macrophages - lymph nodes
a.
Mast cells
b.
Microglial cells - brain
c.
Microglial cells - spleen
d.
Migrating phagocytes
c.
Monocytes
c.
Mucus expulsion and normal microbiota
a.
Mucus production
b.
Mucus production
d.
Mucus production
a.
Neither pathway relies on antibodies
b.
Neutrophil numbers are decreased
a.
Neutrophils
d.
Neutrophils
b.
Normal microbiota alter pH of their environment
d.
Normal microbiota consume nutrients
a.
Normal microbiota spreading to location where they are not normally found to prevent colonization from pathogens
c.
Normal microbiota stimulate the second line of defense
b.
Nucleic acids
37.
One of your first ideas is to look at probiotics to enhance the hosts normal microbiota. The use of probiotics to stimulate the normal intestinal microbiota and promote genral health has gained increasing popularity in recent years. There are several ways in which our normal microbiota protects us from infection. Which of the mechanisms below is not a protective mechanism of our normal microbiota? Which statement about protective mechanisms employed by normal microbiota is false?
c.
Penetration by invading pathogens
e.
Perforin
a.
Phagocytosis
d.
Phagocytosis
38.
Phagocytosis eliminates pathogens that have evaded the first line of defense. The process can be broken down into six main steps. Enhancing any of those steps could lead to more efficient bacterial elimination during infection. Arrange the following steps in order to describe the chronological order of the events in phagocytosis.
c.
Phagosomes
b.
Plasma cells activate the complement system
a.
Plasma cells are phagocytes
d.
Plasma cells engulf viruses.
c.
Plasma cells neutralize toxins
e.
Plasma cells produce antibodies
b.
The increase in the diameter of blood vessels
b.
The lectin alternate pathways don't stimulate strong inflammatory response compared to the classical pathway
a.
The liver
c.
The migration of phagocytes through blood vessels to the site of tissue damage
c.
The normal microbiota
d.
The penetration and colonization by pathogens, and the diseases they cause
d.
The presence of Listeria on undercooked chicken served for dinner.
20.
The process by which a phagocyte moves toward a chemical signal at the site of an infection is called
b.
The thymus
b.
The transmission of MRSA from skin to skin contact
d.
There are fewer events that lead to the activation of the alternative and lectin pathways
d.
They aid in the formation of the phagolysosome
a.
They allow capillary walls to open and become leaky
8.
Tim was treated with azithromycin, a macrolide drug. This family of drug targets ___________.
a.
Touching a telephone with cold viruses on its surface
d.
Unused histamines and leukotrienes.
b.
Vasoconstrict
a.
Vasodilate
b.
Vector transmission
d.
Vector transmission
a.
Vehicle transmission
c.
Virally infected cells
c.
Wandering macrophages
a.
Water containing bacterial from fecal matter
c.
Water droplets that come from a sneeze from an infected individual
b.
Waterborne transmission
11.
What aspect of this patient's immune function would be most directly impacted by this condition?
24.
What cellular macromolecules make up the complement pathway?
14.
What direct effect do histamines and leukotrienes have on capillaries?
12.
What does anemia mean?
19.
What does the plasma membrane of a phagocyte attach to on a microorganism?
8.
What is apoptosis
23.
What is phagolysosome?
10.
What is the fate of activated cytotoxic t-cells?
9.
What is the function of the CD8 receptor?
10.
What is the most expedient way to increase the blood cell and platelet counts of this patient right now?
22.
What is the role of opsonins?
6.
What is the role of plasma cells in humoral immunity
5.
What makes agglutination by antibodies possible>
13.
What type of infection or immune reactions will the patient need to worry about until his CBC return to normal?
3.
When aerosols containing pathogens spread disease from a distance of less than one meter, it is considered
26.
Where are the complement proteins found in the body?
12.
Which event happens first during cytotoxin T-cell activation?
1. Which vaccination may cause a false positive skin test for tuberculosis a. BCG vaccine b. MMR c. Menomune d. DPT
a. BCG vaccine Reason: This vaccine is not used in the united states because it interferes with the Mantoux screening test for tuberculosis
The release of lipid A may lead to ________. a. Seizures, anemia, inflammation, and shock b. Fever, blood clotting, muscle contraction, and anemia c. Hyperthermia, blood clotting, pus formation, and shock d. Fever, blood clotting, inflammation, and shock
a. Fever, blood clotting, inflammation, and shock Reason: All four of these symptoms can be associated with the release of lipid A
Hyaluronidase and collagenase both allow bacteria to _________. a. Interfere with complement b. Invade a hosts tissues c. Adhere to body cells d. Escape detection by a host
a. Invade a hosts tissues Reason: Hyaluronidase allows bacteria to pass between cells, and collagenase degrades connective tissue
TB in the Nursery In the early fall, a neonatal nurse in a large metropolitan hospital became ill with a cough and fever. His physician believed he had seasonal allergies and so treated him with cough suppressant, antihistamines, and aerosol steroids. He returned to work in the hospital's nursery. Three weeks later his condition had worsened; his symptoms were complicated by shortness of breath and bloody sputum. Upon further questioning, his physician noted that he was working in the United States on a work visa and was a native of South Africa. He had a positive skin test for tuberculosis (TB) but had always believed this was his body's natural reaction to the TB vaccine he had received as a child. His chest X-ray films in the past had always been clear of infection. This time, however, his sputum smear tested positive for acid-fast bacilli. He was diagnosed with active tuberculosis and began a standard drug regimen for TB. He was restricted from work and placed in respiratory isolation for six weeks, but during the three weeks that he had continued to work in the nursery, he exposed over 900 obstetric patients, including 620 newborns, to TB, an airborne infectious disease. 1. what is the standard for tuberculosis surveillance in a hospital? a. Mantoux skin test required annually b. Chest x-ray required every six months c. Sputum staining and culture required annually d. Annual blood culture
a. Mantoux skin test required annually Reason: hospital workers in the United states are required to be tested for tuberculosis annually.
1. Why must the physicians wait three months to skin test the babies and their mothers? a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a slow-growing organism, and it takes the body time to mount to a cell-mediated defense that can be detected by the skin test b. Mothers colostral antibodies will interfere with the skin test c. Babies under the age of three months would have an allergic reation to the skin test It is important to being the DPT vaccination series prior to testing for tuberculosis exposure
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a slow-growing organism, and it takes the body time to mount to a cell-mediated defense that can be detected by the skin test Reason: there is no "quick" way to predict who will and who will not develop tuberculosis
1. Which of the following was the defining test that determined that this nurse has an active case of tuberculosis? a. The presence of acid-fast bacilli in the sputum sample b. A positive Mantoux skin test c. Evidence of Ghon complexes on the latest chest radiograph d. Exacerbation of symptoms after the course of aerosolized corticosteroids and cough suppressants.
a. The presence of acid-fast bacilli in the sputum sample Reason: the normal flora of mammalian lungs does not include acid-fast bacilli
What features of West Nile virus make it an emerging disease of special concern? Select all that apply. a. West Nile virus is an arthropod-borne virus transmitted by mosquitoes b. West Nile virus has a high mortality rate in the immunosuppressed humans and infects many species of birds in southern Europe, the Mediterranean basin, and North America c. West Nile virus is maintained in nature through biological transmission between susceptible hosts by blood-feeding arthropods. d. West Nile virus has a positive, single-stranded RNA genome that is 11,000 to 12,000 nucleotides long.
a. West Nile virus is an arthropod-borne virus transmitted by mosquitoes b. West Nile virus has a high mortality rate in the immunosuppressed humans and infects many species of birds in southern Europe, the Mediterranean basin, and North America c. West Nile virus is maintained in nature through biological transmission between susceptible hosts by blood-feeding arthropods.
Dr. William Stevens is discussing West Nile virus with his microbiology class. He tells them of a personal experience he had with the virus as a graduate student. The year was 2003. Bill was a 24-year-old graduate student attending his first virology class. His instructor, Dr. Donaldson, informed the class that their lab project for the semester was to attempt to isolate West Nile virus from birds obtained on the campus grounds. Recently, there had been an increase in the number of West Nile virus (WNV) cases reported in the local community. Campus security had found two dead crows and a dead blue jay on university property. They brought the birds to Dr. Donaldson, who preserved them by placing them in freezer in the science building. *If this had happened today, the birds would have been given to the local health department, and the students would not have access to them because West Nile virus is a Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) reportable infectious disease.* Before actually working with the specimens, the students were required to research West Nile virus. Bill found out that West Nile virus was first identified in 1937 in the West Nile district of Uganda. It made its first appearance in the United States in 1999 in New York City. He found that the virus is an arbovirus, with a high mortality rate in infected crows, ravens, and blue jays. Most human infections are subclinical and do not result in a noticeable illness, however in immunosuppressed individuals, the disease can progress to a variety of neurological effects, the most severe of which is fatal encephalitis. The CDC considers West Nile virus to be an emerging infectious disease. Image A shows a transmission electron micrograph of the West Nile virus. During his research on West Nile virus, Bill learned that this virus is placed within a functional grouping known as arboviruses. What is meant by the term arbovrius? Select all that apply a. An arbovirus is an arthropod-borne virus b. An arbovirus is a virus isolated in Ann Arbor, Michigan c. An arbovirus is maintained in nature through biological transmission. d. An arbovirus is a virus that originated from plants.
a. an arbovirus is an arthropod-borne virus c. an arbovirus is maintained in nature through biological transmission.
1. What is the reservoir for this disease organism, Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi? a. Humans b. Cats c. Dogs d. Horses
a. humans Reason: humans are the host for Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi
In 1937, a man employed to lay water pipes was found to be the source of a severe epidemic of typhoid fever. The man, an asymptomatic carrier of Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi, the bacterium that causes typhoid, habitually urinated at his job site. In the process, he contaminated the town's water supply with bacteria from his bladder. Over 300 cases of typhoid fever developed, and 43 people died before the man was identified as the carrier. How was the carrier identified? a. Urine culture b. Sputum sample c. Throat swab d. Nasal swab
a. urine culture Reason: Carries can harbor bacteria in blood, urine and feces
1. Which of the following would be considered a fomite? a. A tick b. An infected toy c. A fly d. Contaminated water
b. An infected toy
How could this epidemic be stopped without firing the worker? a. Alert townspeople to thoroughly cook pork. b. Educated the worker about personal hygiene and use of an outhouse or designated bathroom. Instruct him to thoroughly was his hands with clean soap and water after using the facilities. c. Alert townspeople to drink only pasteurized milk d. Alert townspeople to cook all vegetables thoroughly.
b. Educated the worker about personal hygiene and use of an outhouse or designated bathroom. Instruct him to thoroughly was his hands with clean soap and water after using the facilities. Reason: As long as the worker is not contaminated the water en route to the town, the disease transmission will be thwarted.
Why may some bacteria use extracellular enzymes to form blood clots? a. The blood clots cause disease, which is the intended purpose of the bacteria b. The blood clots are necessary food source for the bacteria. c. Blood clot can hide bacteria from the immune system d. A blood clot leads to tissue necrosis or death, a necessary condition for infection
c. Blood clot can hide bacteria from the immune system Reason: A blood clot, being formed from normal components of the body, acts as camouflage and can prevent defensive cells from recognizing the contents as foreign
Virulence factors allow microbes to be pathogens. This means that a bacterium with more virulence factors ______. a. Will be more deadly b. Cause a more severe immune response by the host c. Can more easily infect hosts and cause disease d. Can infect a greater variety of hosts.
c. Can more easily infect hosts and cause disease Reason: Pathogens are microbes that infect hosts and cause disease. Virulence factors enable bacteria to infect and persist within a host more effectively.
1. When aerosols containing pathogens spread disease from a distance of less than one meter, it is considered a. Airborne transmission b. Waterborne transmission c. Contact transmission d. Vector transmission
c. Contact transmission
The brain tissue of two of the birds was intact, with some indication of encephalitis, so it was used in a commercial reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) kit to verify the presence of West Nile viral RNA. This kit utilizes an enzyme known as reverse transcriptase, which transcribes RNA into DNA, along with PCR, to amplify any virus RNA that might be found in the brain tissue. RT-PCR results for both the crow and the blue jay were positive for West Nile virus. Other possible detection techniques would involve testing blood or tissues for the presence of antibodies against the West Nile virus. 1. The brain tissue of the birds indicated the possibility of encephalitis. What is encephalitis, and why should this type of infection cause concern among health care professionals? a. Encephalitis is an inflammation of the meninges. It is concern to health care professionals because of how quickly the infection will spread to the rest of the body b. Encephalitis is an inflammation of the peripheral nervous system. It is a concern to health care professionals because of how quickly the infection will spread to the rest of the body. c. Encephalitis is an inflammation of the brain tissue. It is a concern to health care professionals because an infection in the brain means the virus has breached protective measures. d. Encephalitis is an inflammation of the spinal cord. It is a concern to health care professionals because the infection will spread to the brain.
c. Encephalitis is an inflammation of the brain tissue. It is a concern to health care professionals because an infection in the brain means the virus has breached protective measures.
Which toxin, when secreted, may lead to the disruption of the cells within the gastrointestinal tract? a. Cytotoxin b. Endotoxin c. Enterotoxin d. Neurotoxin
c. Enterotoxin Reason: Enterotoxins are responsible for the disruption and possible destruction of host cells and tissues within the digestive tract. Enteron is greek for "intestine"
Dr. Donaldson discussed the details of West Nile virus infection with his class. They discussed how it is transmitted via arthropods, the infections it causes in its respective hosts, the difficulty in treating nervous system infections, and necessity to develop a vaccine for West Nile virus. The class determined that preventing the infection was the best route of action until a vaccine could be developed. 1. Which of the following is the best mode of controlling the spread of West Nile infections? a. Kill all mosquitoes to prevent the transmission of West Nile virus. b. Kill all birds to prevent the amplification and transmission of West Nile virus c. Limit exposure to mosquitoes to prevent the transmission of West Nile virus d. Limit exposure to birds to prevent the transmission of West Nile virus.
c. Limit exposure to mosquitoes to prevent the transmission of West Nile virus
Bacterial capsules work by _________. a. Preventing synthesis of digestive chemicals by phagocytes b. Preventing the action of complement c. Protecting the bacterium from engulfment d. Killing the phagocyte
c. Protecting the bacterium from engulfment Reason: Capsules composed of chemicals normally found in the body may hide bacteria from phagocytes
Dr. William Stevens is discussing West Nile virus with his microbiology class. He tells them of a personal experience he had with the virus as a graduate student. The year was 2003. Bill was a 24-year-old graduate student attending his first virology class. His instructor, Dr. Donaldson, informed the class that their lab project for the semester was to attempt to isolate West Nile virus from birds obtained on the campus grounds. Recently, there had been an increase in the number of West Nile virus (WNV) cases reported in the local community. Campus security had found two dead crows and a dead blue jay on university property. They brought the birds to Dr. Donaldson, who preserved them by placing them in freezer in the science building. *If this had happened today, the birds would have been given to the local health department, and the students would not have access to them because West Nile virus is a Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) reportable infectious disease.* Before actually working with the specimens, the students were required to research West Nile virus. Bill found out that West Nile virus was first identified in 1937 in the West Nile district of Uganda. It made its first appearance in the United States in 1999 in New York City. He found that the virus is an arbovirus, with a high mortality rate in infected crows, ravens, and blue jays. Most human infections are subclinical and do not result in a noticeable illness, however in immunosuppressed individuals, the disease can progress to a variety of neurological effects, the most severe of which is fatal encephalitis. The CDC considers West Nile virus to be an emerging infectious disease. Image A shows a transmission electron micrograph of the West Nile virus. 1. If mosquitoes are the mode of transmission for West Nile virus, why did the students in Bill's virology class focus in finding the virus in the dead birds rather than collecting mosquitoes to examine. a. The students tried to isolate and identify west Nile virus from birds because they are large animals. It would be difficult to isolate West Nile virus from mosquitoes because they are small. b. The students tied to isolate and identify West Nile virus from birs because they had access to dead birds that were known to be infected with West Nile virus. c. The students tried to isolate and identify West Nile virus from birds because they are an amplifying host for the virus, making it more likely that the virus can be isolated from these animals. d. The students tried to isolate and identify West Nile virus from birds because it is faster to isolate the virus from a bird than to isolate from a mosquito.
c. The students tried to isolate and identify West Nile virus from birds because they are an amplifying host for the virus, making it more likely that the virus can be isolated from these animals.
What are the Clinical signs and symptoms of typhoid fever? a. Coughing and double vision b. Abdominal cramps and malaise c. Fever and rose-spotted rash d. Nausea and headache
c. fever and rose-spotted rash
1. Which of the following would be considered a vector? a. Water containing bacterial from fecal matter b. Salvia that is transmitted between individuals during kissing c. Water droplets that come from a sneeze from an infected individual d. A fly carrying disease from fecal matter to food
d. A fly carrying disease from fecal matter to food
1. This nurses condition worsened after medical treatment. Which specific medication is immunosuppressive? a. Salt water gargle b. Antihistamine c. Cough suppressant d. Aerosol corticosteroids
d. Aerosol corticosteroids Reason: Corticosteroids are immunosuppressive, and these administered directly into his airways.
1. Which of the following is considered a major category of transmission of disease? a. Vehicle transmission b. Vector transmission c. Contact transmission d. Contact, vehicle, and vector transmission
d. Contact, vehicle, and vector transmission
A major difference between exotoxins and endotoxins is that endotoxins are ______. a. Able to kill cells directly b. Secreted by bacteria c. Not actually toxic d. Physically part of the bacterial structure
d. Physically part of the bacterial structure Reason: endotoxins are derived from the lipopolysaccharide layer that makes up the outermost membrane of gram-negative cells.
Dr. William Stevens is discussing West Nile virus with his microbiology class. He tells them of a personal experience he had with the virus as a graduate student. The year was 2003. Bill was a 24-year-old graduate student attending his first virology class. His instructor, Dr. Donaldson, informed the class that their lab project for the semester was to attempt to isolate West Nile virus from birds obtained on the campus grounds. Recently, there had been an increase in the number of West Nile virus (WNV) cases reported in the local community. Campus security had found two dead crows and a dead blue jay on university property. They brought the birds to Dr. Donaldson, who preserved them by placing them in freezer in the science building. *If this had happened today, the birds would have been given to the local health department, and the students would not have access to them because West Nile virus is a Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) reportable infectious disease.* Before actually working with the specimens, the students were required to research West Nile virus. Bill found out that West Nile virus was first identified in 1937 in the West Nile district of Uganda. It made its first appearance in the United States in 1999 in New York City. He found that the virus is an arbovirus, with a high mortality rate in infected crows, ravens, and blue jays. Most human infections are subclinical and do not result in a noticeable illness, however in immunosuppressed individuals, the disease can progress to a variety of neurological effects, the most severe of which is fatal encephalitis. The CDC considers West Nile virus to be an emerging infectious disease. Image A shows a transmission electron micrograph of the West Nile virus. Which of the following best describes why West Nile Virus is considered to be an emerging infectious disease? a. West Nile virus causes an infection and death in birds such as crows and blue jays b. West Nile virus causes a latent viral infection that can emerge later in life. c. West Nile virus was first isolated in Uganda in 1937 and has caused significant outbreaks every year since then d. West Nile virus outbreaks have increased in number and affect areas since 1937.
d. West Nile virus outbreaks have increased in number and affect areas since 1937.