Final Exam Large Animal, Chapter 33 study guide:Large Animal Surgical Nursing, Large and small Animal Nursing Quiz 4, McCurnin's Vet Tech - Exam 2, Vet Nursing, Large Animal Nursing, chap 20, Large Animal review, Equine nursing, Surgery and Anes, vet...
A COW IS FOUND IN STERNAL RECUMBENCY WITH HER HEAD TURNED INTO HER FLANK. SHE IS UNABLE TO GET UP, WHAT IS THE MOST LIKELY PROBLEM?
"MILK FEVER" (PARTURITION, PARESIS, OR HYPOCALCEMIA) CAUSE: POST CLAVING IN HIGH PRODUCING COWS
Which of the following is a common symptom of right sided congestive heart failure?
-Ascites -Limb edema -Jugular vein distention
Which of the following are a sign of pain.
-Change in posture -Dysphoria -Change in behavior
Regional anesthesia maybe used for which of the following.
-Dental nerve block -Pleural apace nerve block -Epidural nerve block
Using the modified Triadan numbering system, what number would be assigned to the right maxillary first molar?
109
To make up an antiseptic irrigation solution for surgical lavage, add:
10ml of chlorhexidine scrub to 1 L of normal saline
When sharpening hand instruments, the angle between the stone and the face should be approximately _____ degrees.
110
The placenta in a bovine patient is considered retained if not expelled by _____ hours.
12
In sheep and goats, treatment for retained placenta is usually not necessary until _______hours after parturition.
12 hours
When should you start withholding food from an adult horse prior to surgery? how long to withhold water?
12 hours, you do not withhold water
horses can kick up to
15ft
The number of people in the over-60-year age group has increased to greater than _____ of the population.
16%
In the queen, abdominal palpation can be used to diagnose pregnancy on days ______ following breeding and by ultrasound on days ______ plus following breeding.
18 to 32; 15
Urine samples degrade rapidly, so they should be analyzed promptly or refrigerated for no more than:
2 days.
in goats stage 2 of labor lasts
2 hours
a horses CRT should be <
2 seconds
___% of foals die within first 48 hours
2%
When threading an eyed needle, the technician should place the needle holder how far into the needle's curve
2/3rds
Which of the following is a desirable respiratory rate for an adult ruminant under general anesthesia?
20 to 40 breaths per minute
Your patient experiences an acute bleeding episode. You are prepared to begin blood transfusion if the PCV drops below:
20% to 25%
Using the modified Triadan numbering system, what number would be assigned to the left maxillary third incisor?
203
The volume of medication injected intramuscularly at a single site in the adult horse should not exceed:
20mL
Pregnancy examination by palpation in the bitch can be performed as early as about ____ days after breeding using an ultrasound.
21
The placenta in a bovine patient is considered retained if not expelled by ___ hours.
24 hours
meconium should be passed within ___ hours after birth
24 hours
a nasogastric tube can be left in place for
24-48 hours
What is the minimum weight and PCV % for a dog?
25 kg & 45%
equine normal pulse rate
28-44 bmp
A mare who has just delivered her foal lies down and begins to expel the placenta. You mark that she is now in stage _____ of labor.
3
Camelids have a _____-compartment stomach.
3
How many genetic combinations are possible with polled intersex breeds?
3
Elective soft tissue procedures for dogs, such as spaying or castration, usually require how many days of postoperative treatment with NSAIDs?
3 to 4 days
The Association of Perioperative Room Nurses (AORN) recommends cleaning the perimeter of visibly soiled areas in the surgical field by a minimum of which of the following?
3-4 ft
Tail docking and dewclaw removal in the puppy should occur between days _________.
3-5
calves normally take the first breath within _____ of birth
30 seconds
a normal foal should try to stand by _______ minutes (maximum) after birth.
30-60 minutes
When morphine is admin epidurally, its latency of onset is approx._____minutes and the duration of analgesia is approx.____hours
30-60;12-18
Which of the following sets of teeth are "missing" in the normal adult feline according to the Triadan System?
306/406
normal gestation in horses
320-360 days
A client is excited because she now owns her "very first pregnant mare!" She asks you how soon the foal will be born. You tell her that the average gestation in horses lasts _____ days.
340
Preparation of the bovine patient that will be going under general anesthesia should include the removal of food ______ hours before anesthesia.
36 to 48
Preparation of the bovine patient that will be going under general anesthesia should include the removal of food ________ hours before anesthesia
36 to 48
preparation of the bovine patient that will be going under general anesthesia should include the removal of food _____ hours before anesthesia
36-48
The normal rectal temperature of adult horses is approximately:
37° C to 38.5° C (99.0° F to 101.5° F)
Anal glands are found at ________ o'clock on the anus.
4 and 8
Two horses belonging to the same owner have the same infectious disease. You are in charge of seeing that they are monitored every _____ hours.
4 to 6
Two horses belonging to the same owner have the same infectious disease. You are in charge of seeing that they are monitored every _____ hours.
4 to 6
when is the doe vaccinated and dewormed when pregnant
4 weeks before birth
Part of your responsibilities in animal hospice care is to prevent decubital ulcers by encouraging each animal to stand and walk at least every _____ hours.
4-6
cows typically take approximately _________ hours to ecpel the placenta
4-6 hours
What size clipper blade is most appropriate for preparing the surgical site
40
The rumen can hold approximately __________
40 gallons
In late-term pregnancy, the foal will have a heart rate between _____ beats/minute.
40 to 150
You are assessing vital signs in a late-term pregnant mare. Because she is at rest, you anticipate a heart rate of around _____ beats/minute.
40 to 50
You are assessing vital signs in a late-term pregnant mare. Because she is at rest, you anticipate a heart rate of around _____ beats/minute.
40 to 50
The number of clients who change veterinarians after a pet has died is about:
40%
Using the modified Triadan numbering system, what number would be assigned to the right second mandibular premolar?
406
Using the modified Triadan numbering system, what number would be assigned to the right second mandibular premolar?
406
death may occur in foals with a blood glucose level less than
40mg/dL
As a general rule of thumb, the PaO2 should be approximately _____ times the FiO2.
5
Fecal samples collected for Salmonella culture should be submitted daily for ________.
5 days
For tracheostomy in a calf, you will use a ______mm ID tube.
5 to 10
Your patient, a large dog, has had multiple episodes of vomiting and diarrhea, and you need to calculate the fluid replacement volume for her. You have estimated ongoing losses for the past 3 hours as totaling 150 mL. You will increase the administration rate by ______ mL/hr to the fluid administration rate for the next period of time to replace these losses.
50
the bovine hoof wall grows _________ per month
55mm
What is the gestational period in dogs and cats?
58 - 70 days
The veterinarian suspects a horse has Salmonella infection. To detect this, you collect a total of _____ fecal samples for culture at least _____ hours between samplings.
5; 12
The position of a recumbent horse should be changed every ____ hours to help prevent the formation of decubital ulcers.
6
It is imperative to a calf's survival to receive colostrum within the first _____ of life.
6 hours
Fluids administered subcutaneously are usually absorbed in approximately:
6 to 8 hours
An owner has been keeping his cat's newborn kittens warm with extra bedding. At what age do puppies and kittens have a temperature that is similar to an adult's temperature?
6 weeks
equine normal respiratory rate
6-16 breaths per minute
One symptom indicating that the Arabian horse you are examining is in serious pain is the fact that he has a heart rate higher than ____ beats/minute.
60
A heart rate higher than __________ is indicative of serious pain in the adult horse.
60 beats/min
Most dental radiology machines operate at _______ kVp.
60 or 70
What is the normal heart rate in an adult large breed dog?
60 to 160 bpm
A normal foal should be nursing the mare by _____ minutes (maximum) after birth
60-180 minutes
The young adult life stage includes
7-month-old to 6-year-old cats.
The minimum acceptable mean arterial blood pressure of a horse during surgery is:
70 mm Hg.
Squamous cell carcinoma accounts for approximately ____ of oral tumors in cats.
70%
What percentage of heart disease in dogs is caused by valvular disease?
75%
What is the likely body temperature of a neonate that appears lethargic and uncoordinated but is responsive?
78° to 85° F
Donor blood plasma is considered to be fresh plasma if used within ____ hours of collection
8
In an adult horse, never administer more than _______ L of fluids by nasogastric tube.
8 L
foals are dependent on colostrum for passive transfer until
8 weeks of age
average collection of embryos in sheep and goats
8-10
What percent of our companion animals live indoors?
80
sheep and goats HR under general anesthesia should be between
80 and 150 bpm
When a sheep or goat is under anesthesia its heart rate should be maintained above ____________beats per minute
80 bpm
In dogs and cats, systolic values ranging from _____ mm hG and diastolic values ranging from _____ mm Hg are required to maintain adequate perfusion of vital organs, such as the kidneys and brain.
80 to 140; 50 to 80
The standard focal spot-to-film distance using portable radiographic units is:
85 cm.
What is the acceptable amount of fluids that can be delivered via nasogastric tube?
8L
The average onset of puberty is _____ months in the heifer.
9 to 11 (75% mature weight)
as much as ____ of health-related disease in large animals can be related to improper nutrition
90%
equine normal temperature range
99-101.5 F
Which of the following best describes a periodontal disease classification (PD) 2?
<25% attachment loss with mild periodontitis
?
?
According to Hahnemann, the result of medication dilution is _____ benefits _____ side effects.
?
"TWITCH"
A NERVE STIMULATING RESTRAINT DEVICE OFTEN APPLIED TO THE UPPER LIP OF THE HORSE
What is a gelding?
A castrated male horse
Which agent causes dermatophytosis (tinea or ringworm)?
Answers: a. Trichophyton mentagrophytes b. Trichophyton verrucosum c. Microsporum canis
Nonprotein nitrogen sources for ruminants include:
Answers: a. Urea b. Ammonium salts c. Ammoniated by-products
Vaccines may fail because
Answers: a. Vaccine was improperly stored b. Animal was febrile at the time of administration c. Animal is too young for the vaccine to be effective
An injection of _____ and _____ 1 month before calving may decrease the incidence of retained placenta in problem herds.
Answers: a. Vitamin E; selenium
This nutritional myodegeneration disease may be caused by a deficiency of vitamin E and/or selenium.
Answers: a. White muscle disease
Bacillus anthracis
Anthrax
Popeye, a small mixed-breed dog, has nasal discharge, congestion, and sneezing. You examine him closely for signs of any facial swelling, which might indicate Popeye has: A tooth root abscess, migration of nasal foreign bodies, a fungal infection, or any of the above
Any of the above
What technique is often used to increase the depth of equine breathing to accentuate lung sounds during thoracic auscultation (listening with a stethoscope)?
Application of rebreathing bag
The veterinarian has just been diagnosed a geriatric Appaloosa with equine recurrent uveitis, complicated by a corneal ulcer. Her primary treatment of choice for this patients abdomen, move the hands caudally to locate the bladder, and then:
Apply gentle pressure directed toward the rear of the patient
A veterinarian has prescribed both an ophthalmic solution and an ophthalmic ointment for your pet at this time. You should:
Apply the solution to the eye 3 to 5 minutes before the ointment.
Endangerment sites for massage include the:
Area over the kidneys
The proper location to apply a hog snare or snubbing rope is:
Around the upper jaw (maxilla)
Bone spavin, high and low ring-bone, and osselets are terms that will apply to different forms of:
Arthritis
Bone spavin, high and low ringbone, and ocelots are all terms that are different forms of what?
Arthritis
Bone spavin, high and low ringbone, and osselets are terms that all apply to different forms of:
Arthritis
Although always important, to ensure success, _______ is generally more closely regarded in orthopedic surgery than in soft tissue surgery
Asepsis
What is generally more closely regarded in orthopedic surgery than in soft tissue surgery?
Asepsis
The primary risk associated with regurgitation in ruminants is:
Aspiration of regurgitated material into the trachea and lungs
When do pot-bellied pigs usually reach their full size?
At 2 to 3 years of age
On flower essence therapy, Bach believed there are _______ pathologic emotional states that will lead to physical disease. A. 12 B. 17 C. 23 D. 38
A. 12
The daily metabolizable energy requirement of a 10-lb cat is approximately _____ kcal. A. 275 B. 370 C. 2060 D. 200
A. 275
Soft tissue pain typically lasts ______ days following surgery. A. 4 to 5 B. 10 to 14 C. 20 to 25 D. 30
A. 4 to 5
It is imperative to a calf's survival to receive colostrum within the first ______ of life. A. 6 hours B. 2 hours C. week D. day
A. 6 hours.
As of 2010, _______ of households in the US owned at least one pet. A. 72% B. 52% C. 32% D. 22%
A. 72%
The best way to help hospital staff deal with the stress of euthanasia is: A. A discussion with colleagues B. Visits with a professional counselor C. A party for the staff D. Time off from work
A. A discussion with colleagues
A horse requires orthopedic surgery. How is the limb prepared for surgery? A. Clip the hair and perform an aseptic surgical scrub. B. Wipe well with alcohol-moistened gauze. C. Wash with a cleansing shampoo and dry. D. Remove visible dirt, brush well, and vacuum dust.
A. Clip the hair and perform an aseptic surgical scrub.
The most serious internal parasite of sheep and goats is the barber pole worm, known as: A. Haemonchus contortus B. Oestrus ovis C. Cryptosporidia parvum D. Eimeria sp.
A. Haemonchus contortus.
Your equine patient develops rhinopneumonitis, caused by _______, which produces respiratory disease, abortion, and neonatal and neurologic disease (ascending paralysis) in horses. A. herpesvirus B. strangles C. guttural pouch mycosis D. influenza
A. Herpesvirus
Orthopedic cases such as _______ may benefit from physical therapy. A. hip dysplasia B. lick granulomas C. decubitus ulcers D. degloving injuries
A. Hip dysplasia
What species has radicular hypsodont teeth? A. Horses B. Rabbits C. Ferrets D. Snakes
A. Horses
If a pet food's name contains the word "with" in relation to a specific food ingredient (e.g., with liver), that food ingredient must make up at least )_____ of the product weight. A. 1% B. 3% C. 10% D. 25%
B. 3%
Management of aged horses include hoof care (trimming) every _____ weeks. A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
B. 4
Ultrasound with a frequency of 1 MHz can penetrate tissues from a depth of _____ cm. A. 0.5 to 2 B. 4 to 5 C. 5 to 7.5 D. 7.5 to 9
B. 4 to 5
Recumbent patients should be turned every _____ hours. A. 1 to 3 B. 4 to 6 C. 7 to 9 D. 11 to 13
B. 4 to 6
Though interrelated factors cause variations, overall, for both cats and dogs, most veterinarians start monitoring a pet for health issues related to the senior years around age ______ years. A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9
B. 7
The young adult life stage includes: A. birth to 6-month-old dogs B. 7-month-old to 6-year-old cats C. 4- to 12-year-old cats D. 9- to 12-year-old dogs
B. 7-month-old to 6-year-old cats
If severe depression is suspected in a grieving client, it is best for the veterinary professional to refer the client to: A. Their family doctor B. A counselor or hotline C. A hosptial D. A family member
B. A counselor or hotline
The _______ is an organization that consists of technicians who have completed a credentials process and passed a specialty examination. A. National Association of Veterinary Technicians in America (NAVTA) B. Academy of Veterinary Dental Technicians (AVDT) C. American Veterinary Dental Society (AVDS) D. American Society for Veterinary Dental Technicians (ASVDT)
B. Academy of Veterinary Dental Technicians (AVDT)
In homeopathy, miasmic treatment: A. is best used for acute conditions in relatively healthy patients B. addresses genetic weaknesses to prevent disease C. addresses physical traits and emotions when determining proper treatment only for a specific existing disease D. is best used for chronic conditions or geriatric patients
B. Addresses genetic weaknesses to prevent disease.
Deterioration in physical and mental condition, organ function, and immunity are found in: A. Renal failure B. Aging animals C. Hyperthyroidism D. Diabetes mellitus
B. Aging animals
Which livestock feed is a significant source of calcium? A. grass hay B. alfalfa hay C. oat grain D. molasses
B. Alfalfa hay
The pH of normal horse urine is: A. acidotic (pH 5 to 7) B. alkaline (pH 7 to 9) C. neutral (pH 7) D. normal if acidotic or alkaline
B. Alkaline (pH 7 to 9).
Contemporary swine nutrition does not concentrate on the total protein content of feed, but on the: A. nitrogen content B. amino acid levels C. source of protein D. albumin content
B. Amino acid levels.
A toxoid is: A. a viral toxin collected from an affected patient through controlled aspiration of the nasal passages B. an inactivated or suppressed strain of a toxin used for vaccination purposes C. a pathogenic bacteria collected from an affected patient any number of ways, including biopsy D. both B and C
B. An inactivated or suppressed strain of a toxin used for vaccination purposes.
Your patient, Miss Marple, a Persian cat, has been sneezing excessively. You most likely suspect that she has: A. inhaled a foreign material B. an upper respiratory infection C. simply experienced normal, routine expulsion of air in an effort to expel respiratory irritant D. throat or lung cancer
B. An upper respiratory infection
An immediate hypersensitivity response to a vaccine or other stimulus that may cause respiratory arrest, cardiovascular collapse, and potentially death is called: A. delayed hypersensitivity B. anaphylaxis C. urticaria D. adjuvant
B. Anaphylaxis.
A horse with anaplasmosis usally exhibits signs that include fever, edema and stiffness, icterus lethargy, and _______. It can be treated with _______. A. lameness; NSAIDs B. anemia; oxytetracycline C. vomiting and diarrhea; penicillin D. seizures; valium
B. Anemia; oxytetracycline
_______ is the facial morphology in which the upper jaw is wider than the lower jaw. A. Malocclusion B. Anisognathism C. Furcation D. Dolicocephalic
B. Anisognathism
Endangerment sites for massage include the: A. paws B. area over the kidneys C. area over the liver D. ears
B. Area over the kidneys.
Bone spavin, high and low ringbone, and osselets are terms that all apply to different forms of: A. Tendonitis B. Arthritis C. Ligament tears D. Fractures
B. Arthritis
Which of the following theories describes acupuncture as a way to amplify or boost electrical signals along nerve pathways? A. Gate theory B. Bioelectic theory C. Humoral theory D. Endogenous opioid theory
B. Bioelectric theory
For which of the following diseases of cattle is vaccination reported to the United States Department of Agriculture and the right ear of the vaccinated animal tagged and tattooed? A. Rabies B. Brucellosis C. Leptospirosis D. Listeriosis
B. Brucellosis.
Excess of what may possibly lead to skeletal abnormalities? A. Protein B. Calcium C. Phosphorous D. Iron
B. Calcium
Which animal is unable to synthesize vitamin C and therefore require daily supplements? A. Ferrets B. Guinea Pigs C. Snakes D. Rabbits
B. Guinea pigs
Of the greater than 72 million families than own one pet, about _______ of the owners describe their pets as family members. A. One-fourth B. One-third C. One-half D. Two-thirds
B. One-third
_______ is the removal of both testicles. A. Testotomy B. Orchidectomy C. Testostomy D. Orchiostomy
B. Orchidectomy
You discover that your patient is unable to breathe unless the patient is upright, a sign referred to as: A. dyspnea B. orthopnea C. hypoxemia D. hypoxia
B. Orthopnea
Electromagnetic pulsed signal therapy (PST) has been shown to improve: A. high blood pressure B. osteoarthritis C. fertility D. hypothyroidism
B. Osteoarthritis
The veterinarian is treating a cow with dystocia using a left-flank approach. After closure, the uterus is lavaged and replaced within the abdomen before routine closure of the laparotomy site. Now, to initiate uterine involution, ______ is given. A. Estrogen B. Oxytocin C. Progesterone D. Carboxymethylcellulose
B. Oxytocin
The best way to discuss euthanasia with a client is to use terms such as: A. Put to sleep B. Painless death C. Put down D. Humanely destroyed
B. Painless death
According to Hahnemann, the result of medication dilution is _______ benefits _______ side effects. A. weaker; but less harmful B. stronger; but less harmful C. stronger; and stronger D. weaker; and stronger
B. Stronger; but less harmful
Intranasally administered vaccines should not be administered: A. for most diseases B. subcutaneously or intramuscularly C. for respiratory diseases such as kennel cough D. without wearing gloves
B. Subcutaneously or intramuscularly
Intravenous catheters should be monitored _______a day and flushed with heparinized saline every ______ hours. A. once; 6 B. twice; 6 C. once; 4 D. twice; 4
B. Twice; 6
What is the modality that provides both therapy and diagnostic imagery using high-frequency sound waves? A. cryotherapy B. ultrasound C. electrical stimulation D. low-light laser
B. Ultrasound
What type of hernia is congenital and common in foals? A. Inguinal B. Umbilical C. Scrotal D. Incisional
B. Umbilical
An osteoconductive material will: A. Stimulate progenitor cells of osteoblasts to differentiate and form new bone in a defective area. B. Induce new bone. C. Repair defects through regeneration of cells. D. Act as scaffold for new bone cells to traverse a defect.
D. Act as scaffold for new bone cells to traverse a defect.
In homeopathy, exacerbation of symptoms is called: A. potencies B. escalation C. aggression D. aggravation
D. Aggravation
You advise a client to regularly clip his older horse because geriatric horses with an overlong hair coat: A. Are not able to thermoregulate well. B. May have patchy sweating. C. Are prone to develop dermatitis. D. Experience all of the above.
D. Experience all of the above.
Class IIIB laser therapy is considered dangerous to the: A. heart B. bladder C. kidneys D. eyes
D. Eyes
Which nutrient has more energy per gram than all other nutrients? A. carbohydrates B. vitamins C. proteins D. fats
D. Fats
_______ percent of pet owners classify their attachment to their pet as strong. A. Twenty B. Thirty C. Forty D. Fifty
D. Fifty
Semen collection from the bull, ram, and buck can be performed using an artificial vagina and condom, or by a(n): A. female in estrus B. ovariesctomized female C. castrated male D. electroejaculator
D. Electroejaculator
What surgical item is designed specifically for castration? A. Stainless-steel suture material B. Silk suture material C. Umbilical tape D. Emasculators
D. Emasculators
_______ is incision into the intestine. A. Anastomosis B. Celiotomy C. Gastrotomy D. Enterotomy
D. Enterotomy
For which condition is treatment being described? "One technique involves placement of two or three vertical mattress sutures in the lower lid ti roll the lid margin out." A. Ectropion B. Prolapsed third eyelid C. Hordeolum D. Entropion
D. Entropion
Which of the following statements on feline reproduction is false?
Cats are short day breeders.
A squeeze chute may be used for restraint of which ruminant species?
Cattle
Nose tongs may be used for restraint of which ruminant species?
Cattle
The standard location for routine tuberculosis testing in ruminants is:
Caudal tail fold
A horse requires orthopedic surgery. How is the limb prepared for surgery?
Clip the hair and perform an aseptic surgical scrub.
A method of castration performed without incising the skin is referred to as:
Closed castration
Struck
Clostridium perfringens (Type C)
You are administering Hetastarch to a patient during resuscitation. What is the greatest risk of the administration of a synthetic colloid?
Coagulopathy
You warn a coworker that using the _____ vein route to administer a particularly irritating drug can cause thrombosis and sloughing of the tail.
Coccygeal
the test for Equine Infectious Anemia is called ________ and what type of sample is needed for testing?
Coggins test blood
Arthroscopic instruments to be used more that once per day are most often ______ between procedures
Cold sterilized
Unless otherwise instructed, a _____ surgery pack should be set us for a cesarean section
Colic
Unless otherwise instructed, a________ surgery pack should be set up for a cesarean section
Colic
What is the term used for abdominal pain in horses?
Colic
in large animal medicine, unless otherwise instructed, a ______ surgery pack should be set up for a cesarean sections as wells
Colic
You are in charge of training personnel for the new isolation ward of your veterinary hospital. Your coverage of diseases will most likely include a thorough discussion of:
Colitis, neurologic EHV-1, and strangles
A mare requires the removal of a non-diseased ovary. The veterinarian determines that the best method for this is through a flank incision or via an incision in the vaginal wall. This procedure is called a(n)
Colpotomy
A mare requires the removal of a nondiseased ovary. The Vet determines the the best method for this is through a flank incision or via an incision in the vaginal wall. This procedure is called a(n)
Colpotomy
Stallions can become permanent carriers of this disease; therefore, colts intended to be used as breeding stallions should be vaccinated for: A. equine infectious anemia B. Potomac horse fever C. strangles D. equine viral arteritis
D. Equine viral arteritis.
What bandage is used to assist with hemostasis during surgery of the limb? A. Robert Jones bandage B. Modified Robert Jones bandage C. Lower-limb bandage D. Esmarch bandage
D. Esmarch bandage
Extrusion of exposure of organs from the abdominal cavity is called: A. Anastomosis B. Intussusception C. Dehiscence D. Evisceration
D. Evisceration
What equine neurologic disease is also known as wobblers?
Compression of the cervical spinal cord by malformed or unstable cervical vertebrae
What equine neurologic disease is also known as wobbles?
Compression of the cervical spinal cord by malformed or unstable cervical vertebrae
Every time you enter a ward that holds infectious patients, you wash your hands and don shoe covers, a gown, and examination gloves before entering. This is referred to as _____ nursing.
Barrier
Every time you enter a ward that holds infectious patients, you wash your hands and don shoe covers, a gown, and examination gloves before entering. This is referred to as _____ nursing
Barrier
A male of the porcine species that has been castrated before maturity is called a:
Barrow
A female of the porcine species that has not had a litter yet is called a:
Gilt
Which of the following is considered a high-level disinfectant but not a sterilizing agent and is most appropriate for cleaning endoscopes?
Glutaraldehyde
Fescue toxicosis is a nutritional disease that can involved lameness, tail-tip necrosis, abortion, and/or decreased milk production. Fescue is a
Grass
Exudative epidermitis
Greasy Pig Disease
_____ can result from the rupture of retropharyngeal lymph nodes occurring secondary to infectious strangles in horses.
Guttural pouch empyema
_____ can result from the rupture of retropharyngeal lymph nodes occurring secondary to infectious strangles in horses
Guttural pouch empyema
_____ can result from the rupture of retropharyngeal lymph nodes occurring secondary to infectious strangles in horses.
Guttural pouch empyema
WHICH IV FLUID WOULD INCREASE ONCOTIC PRESSURE?
HETASTARCH
EXAMPLES OF SYNTHETIC COLLOIDS INCLUDE:
HETASTARCH; OXYGLOBIN
WHAT TERM IS APPLIED TO AN ANIMAL NEEDING O2 REPLACEMENT THERAPY?
HYPOXIA/HYPOXEMIA
Feeding magnets is a prevention for which of the following diseases?
Hardware's disease
The majority of abdominal surgical procedures in the bovine patient may be performed via a _____ incision in the _____ patient. A. Ventral midline; anesthetized B. Ventral midline; standing C. Flank; anesthetized D. Flank; standing
D. Flank; standing
The goal of postevent sports massage is to: A. prevent injury during the event B. teach physical awareness of the body C. loosen phlegm congestion in the body D. flush out metabolic waste
D. Flush out metabolic waste
In cows, what are the main weight-bearing claws? A. Front lateral and hind lateral claws B. Front lateral and hind medial claws C. Front medial and hind medial claws D. Front medial and hind lateral claws.
D. Front medial and hind lateral claws.
A cow with borderline low thyroid function is fed a product containing bovine thyroid gland. This is an example of the use of: A. nutraceuticals B. cannibalism C. probiotics D. glandulars
D. Glandulars
Which of the following diseases of horses is extremely contagious, is caused by a bacteria, and causes abscesses in submaxillary, retropharyngeal, and submandibular lymph nodes? A. Anthrax B. Equine viral arteritis C. Potomac horse fever D. Strangles
D. Strangles.
If a horse is severely lame in one foot only, the patient should be assessed for: A. Laminitis B. Founder C. Osteochondrosis D. Subsolar abscess
D. Subsolar abscess
Severe angular limb deformities may be corrected by: A. Restraint of the good limb B. Stall rest C. Controlled exercise D. Surgery
D. Surgery
All of the following can contribute to wound dehiscence and evisceration except: A. Using appropriate suture material to close the wound. B. Tension on the incision line. C. Drug therapy. D. Surgical debridement.
D. Surgical debridement.
Casper, a sheepdog has been diagnosed with primary immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA). This means that is immune system has: A. produced autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors (AChRs) in the postsynaptic membrane B. triggered an inflammatory response, leading to joint capsule changes and effusion and to subchondral bone hypertrophy with the formation of osteophytes C. attacked the anterior pituitary gland, which secretes large quantities of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) D. targeted the red blood cells as foreign (antigens) and developed autoantibodies against red blood cell membrane components
D. Targeted the red blood cells as foreign (antigens) and developed autoantibodies against red blood cell membrane components.
The number-one reason a client may change veterinarians after the euthanasia of their pet is: A. The cost of the procedure B. How many years they used your practice C. The type of disease or condition the pet had D. The lack of care and concern on the part of the veterinarian and staff
D. The lack of care and concern on the part of the veterinarian and staff
Why can feeds containing low-quality protein be fed over the long term to ruminants but not to horses? A. ruminants ingest dirt and plant roots, which supplement the protein obtained from feeds B. ruminants have a much lower protein requirement than horses C. on average, a ruminant will chew its feed three times longer than a horse, resulting in greater feed exposure to salivary digestive enzymes D. the protein quality from moderate to poor feeds will usually be improved by rumen metabolism
D. The protein quality from moderate to poor feeds will usually be improved by rumen metabolism.
The veterinarian has just diagnosed a geriatric Appaloosa with equine recurrent uveitis, complicated by a corneal ulcer. Her primary treatment of choice for this patient might well be: A. Dexamethasone B. Prednisolone C. Topical steroid plus serum and a systemic NSAID D. Topical antimicrobial plus atropine
D. Topical antimicrobial plus atropine
The magnetostrictive scaler: A. Uses an abrasive back-and-forth movement pattern. B. Uses a ceramic disk or crystal as the trasducer to produce the straight, linear movement of the tip. C. Is a stack of thin nickel alloy metal strips attached to a ceramic disk. D. Uses a tip that moves in an elliptical pattern with energy dispersion providing vibration on all surfaces.
D. Uses a tip that moves in an elliptical pattern with energy dispersion providing vibration on all surfaces.
Ingredients on a pet food label must be listed in order by: A. kcal values B. water percentages C. weight D. units
D. Weight
Popeye, a small mixed-breed dog, has nasal discharge, congestion, and sneezing. You examine him closely for signs of any facial swelling, which might indicate Popeye has: A. a tooth root abscess B. migration of nasal foreign bodies C. a fungal infection D. any of the above
D. any of the above
Grasping a goat by the beard is never an acceptable form of head restraint T/F
False
Ruminant fetuses do not produce meconium T/F
False
T/FAnimals with luxating Patellas commonly have a Bunnyhop gait, while animals with hip dysplasia commonly have a skipping gait
False
T/FSuture removal is usually performed 3-5 days post-operatively
False
The California Mastitis Test can identify the bacterial species responsible for causing mastitis T/F
False
True or False: commercial "foal predictor" kits are generally unreliable, and their use by clients should be discouraged?
False
When heat detecting in cattle, it is the female that mounts that is in heat T/F
False
True or false: Equine gastrointestinal sound are evaluated with auscultation over the left ventral abdomen?
False. Right and left dorsal and ventral abdomen
Volume expansion with colloids may be more beneficial than the use of crystalloids in which of the following situations?
Head trauma
Aggression in the goat is usually expressed as:
Head-butting
One of the main concerns of handling and restraining swine is their predisposition to:
Heat stress/hyperthermia
Hyperkalemia is often a feature of which emergency disease?
Urethral obstruction
According to the text, which of the following is not a common small animal emergency?
Urethral obstruction Acute abdomen Respiratory distress
Which of the following tests is essential for the evaluation of primary renal disease?
Urinalysis
A 6-year-old Irish Setter dog is brought to the emergency clinic after being struck by a vehicle. Radiographs show a fractured left tibia. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step in treatment?
administration of analegesia
In situations in which the veterinary staff is having difficulty stimulating a calf to breathe, _____ can be placed under the animal's _____.
c. Doxapram hydrochloride; tongue
Apart from the need for fresh water continuously, what single factor most determines the productivity (i.e., how much milk is produced) of lactating dairy cows?
c. Feeding
What is a sterile female calf called if it is born with a male twin?
c. Freemartins
Young horses and performance horses (engaged in racing, showing, or off-site training) are at high risk of contracting _____ and should be vaccinated every 3 to 4 months for these diseases.
c. Influenza and rhinopneumonitis
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli is the most important cause of diarrhea in:
c. Lambs under 5 days of age
Which of the following intramuscular injection sites is usually avoided in show goats? a. Triceps brachii b. Gluteals c. Lateral cervical muscles d. Semitendinosus/semimembranosus muscles.
c. Lateral cervical muscles
Corn cobs, straw, and corn stalks are examples of:
c. Low-grade roughage supplying inadequate protein if fed over extended periods
What must always be supplemented to nonpregnant beef cattle on pasture?
c. Minerals
What is the breed of goat with the long, wide, pendulous ears and the roman nose?
c. Nubian
Owners of horses diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) need to be counseled that the most important aspect of treatment is:
c. Removal of the offending allergens (usually hay or straw) from the horse's environment
Broodmares should be vaccinated for _____ in the fifth, seventh, and ninth month of pregnancy to prevent abortion caused by this disease.
c. Rhinopneumonitis
Bovine respiratory disease syndrome, commonly called _____, is caused by a combination of respiratory bacteria, viruses, and _____.
c. Shipping fever; stress
If beef cattle are losing weight on pasture, supplemental energy is usually provided in the form of:
c. Silage (fermented green feed) or hay
Actinobacillosis is usually treated with intravenous administration of:
c. Sodium iodide
It is important that all neonates receive colostrum within what time period?
c. The first 18 hours of life
On the hoof, the area of fibrous connective tissue that joins the rigid hoof wall to the more resilient sole is the:
c. White line
West Nile Virus Infection (causative agent and clinical signs)
c: flaviviridae family c.s: low-grade fever, lack of appetite, depression, colic, personality changes, unresponsiveness, coma
Recurrent uveitis (causative agent and clinical signs)
c: leptospirosis c.s: blepharospasm, lacrimation, vascularization, hyphema, swollen dull iris, miosis
Equine Influenza (causative agent and clinical signs)
c: orthomyxoviridadevirus c.s: fever, anorexia, weight loss, nasal discharge, abnormal respiratory
excessively rapid IV administration of ________ and ________ can cause cardiac arrhythmias or death
calicium and potassium
The wind-up phenomenon:
can potentially be avoided by the use of a good preemptive analgesic protocol
Which of these diseases is zoonotic to people?
canine brucellosis
Which of these vaccines cannot be given intranasally?
canine leptospirosis-hepatitis
Chemotherapeutic drugs:
cannot differentiate between cancer cells and normal cells that have high proliferation rates, such as the cells of bone marrow, the gastrointestinal tract, or hair follicles.
Name two NSAIDS used on surgery patient
carprofen meloxicam
One of the most common surgeries performed in the horse is
castration
One of the most common surgeries performed in the horse is:
castration
most commonly performed surgical procedures in ruminants
castration
The first step in restraining a foal is
catch and restrain the mare
Your patient's fecal sample shows streaks of blood on the outsides of otherwise normally formed stools, a symptom you quickly identify as:
Hematochezia
A patient exhibits ______, which means the patient is coughing up blood-a symptom seen with heartworm disease.
Hemoptysis
The most common complications of castration are:
Hemorrhage and infection
Which of the following species, when in estrus, exhibits frequent urination, a raised tail, decreased kicking, a forward ear position, and leaning toward the male?
Horse
At high doses, narcotics can cause excitement in:
Horses
You are nursing Solitaire, a horse recovering from small-intestinal surgery performed yesterday. At 10pm on Saturday night, you discover Solitaire covered in sweat, with evidence of frequent rolling in her stall. Why does a horse like solitaire with a buildup of fluid in her stomach, experience such pain?
Horses cannot vomit to relieve the gastric pressure
You are nursing Solitaire, a horse recovering from small-intestinal surgery performed yesterday.At 10:00 PM on Saturday night, you discover Solitaire covered in sweat, with evidence of frequent rolling in her stall. Why does a horse like Solitaire, with buildup of fluid in her stomach, experience such pain?
Horses cannot vomit to relieve the gastric pressure
You are nursing solitaire, a horse recovering from small-intestinal surgery performed yesterday. At 10:00pm on Saturday night, you discover solitaire covered in sweat with evidence of frequent rolling in her stall. Why does a horse like solitaire with buildup of fluid in her stomach experience such pain?
Horses cannot vomit to relieve the gastric pressure
Scrotal hernias in an adult stallion and inguinal hernias in foals require what action?
Immediate examination by a veterinarian
What is the required treatment for abdomasal volvulus?
Immediate surgical intervention
What is the required treatment for abomasal volvulus?
Immediate surgical intervention
How soon after injury is wound healing initiated?
Immediately
At what time should you place a lip twitch?
Immediately before it is needed
To prevent pharyngeal or esophageal trauma when using a balling gun to administer a bolus, you should:
insert it into mouth and work it gently back to pharynx, keeping the animal's head down.
The analgesic effect of opioids is due to their:
interaction with specific opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord.
When collecting semen from stallions using an artificial vagina, it is critical to precisely control the:
internal temperature and pressure of the artificial vagina.
most common injections in a horse is
intramuscular
A 10-year-old female Weimaraner dog is diagnosed with neoplasia of the intestinal tract. Surgical exploration shows necrosis in a section of the bowel. For which of the following surgical procedures is the surgeon most likely to tell the technician to prepare the animal?
Intestinal resection and anastomosis
Which of the following complications should the technician be most aware of after an animal has been spayed and is in the recovery cage?
Intraabdominal hemorrhage
20ml of medication at a single site is the maximum that should be administered by what method?
Intramuscular
Which of the following routes of fluid administration is used in neonates, because it has essentially the same effect as IV administration but does not require catheterization of a vein?
Intraosseous
A critically ill horse will need fluid therapy during surgery. He has been anesthetized, but which route will you most likely use for the fluid administration?
Intravenous
A critically ill horse will need fluid therapy during surgery. He has been anesthetized, but which route will you most likely use for the fluid administration?
Intravenous
What is the ideal route of drug administration during CPCR in advanced life support?
Intravenous route with a jugular cutdown
A 5-year-old female Basset Hound dog is scheduled for cesarean section without ovariohysterectomy because this dog is used for breeding. It is most appropriate for the scrub nurse to have which of the following ready for the surgical procedure
Laparotomy sponges
The gross appearance of the capsular surface of the normal bovine kidney is:
Multilobulated ("bunch of grapes")
An umbilical infection is also know by what name?
Navel ill
In Cushing disease, elevated glucocorticoid levels inhibit _______ function and diminish their ability to adequately protect against infection, primarily of the skin and urinary tract.
Neutrophil
A 3-year-old female Border Collie dog is recovering from surgery to repair the cranial cruciate ligament. Which of the following is the most important advice to give the client regarding physical activity of this dog?
Short leash walks for at least 6 weeks after surgery
Nasogastric intubation in horses:
Should be performed in all patients examined for abdominal pain.
Upon ingestion of any toxic substance, the client should be told:
To seek veterinarian assistance and bring the toxic substance with the pet for analysis
Herbs used to support the general health of the patient are known as:
Tonification.
Possible complications associated with dehorning include all of the following except:
Tooth loss
Life-threatening upper respiratory tract obstruction can be alleviated on an emergency basis by
Tracheostomy
The most common method of pregnancy diagnosis in swine is:
Transabdominal ultrasound
Which of the following statements concerning transduction is most accurate?
Transduction is the conversion of energy into electrical impulses in specialized nerve endings in response to pain that exceeds the nociceptor's threshold.
Which is the correct order of the phases of nociception?
Transduction, transmission, modulation
A rectal temperature below 100° F in a kid would warrant immediate attention. T/F
True
As an animal ages, the percentage of its body weight that is water decreases T/F
True
Bipolar coagulation only works in a dry surgical field
True
Blood samples in pigs may be obtained from a venous sinus located adjacent to the medial canthus of the eye T/F
True
Catching sheep by grabbing their wool can cause bruising and lacerations of their skin T/F
True
Cattle cannot be fed meat or bone meal T/F
True
Control of liver fluke infestation is extremely important in the prevention of black disease T/F
True
Early castration of sheep and goats can retard the full development of the penile urethra T/F
True
Electroejaculation is the most commonly used method for semen collection in sheep T/F
True
Head butting can present an opportunity for big head T/F
True
Mastitis may occur with or without infection T/F
True
Patients with indwelling nasogastric tubes should not be allowed to eat solid food while the tube is in place T/F
True
Pseudorabies is a reportable disease. T/F
True
Rickets is caused by a lack of calcium, phosphorous, or vitamin D in the diet. T/F
True
Sheep and goats are especially sensitive to lidocaine T/F
True
Small ruminants are sensitive to tetanus and should receive tetanus prophylaxis T/F
True
Standing heat in female swine can be confirmed by pressing down on the female's back to initiate a lordosis response T/F
True
T/F Pelleted litter should be used for at least a week after onychectomie
True
T/F Scrotal hematomas, after canine castration, is a sign of increased activit
True
T/FMost dogs need e-collars after adult tail docking or dewclaw removals
True
T/FPreemptive analgesia should be performed on every patient
True
T/FThe most common reason for a C-section is dystocia
True
True or false: Acepromazine has no analgesic properties?
True
True or false: Neonatal septicemia is the most life-threatening disease of a newborn?
True
True or false: Tetanus and eastern and western encephalitis are vaccines required for all horses in the U.S?
True
True or false: horses with strangles and diarrhea must be maintained under strict isolation protocol?
True
Umbilical Herniation is the most common congenital defect in cattle. T/F
True
__ Blood samples may be obtained from a venous sinus located adjacent to the medial canthus of the eye. T/F
True
True or False: The application of a re-breathing bag to accentuate lung sounds during thoracic auscultation is a common practice?
True. It increases the depth of equine breathing
How are feeding and watering usually handled in an adult horse prior to surgery?
Twelve hours prior to surgery, withhold food only.
When hand-feeding orphans, it is not important to feed body-temperature food but to:
stimulate perianal region for elimination of urine and feces
A patient has an oral inflammation that extends beyond the mucogingival junction. Based on this fact, the veterinarian will most likely explain to the client that the animal has:
stomatitis
Vertical measurements on an ECG paper represent:
strength of the electrical impulse expressed in millivolts
Postoperative care of the equine castration patient involves
strict stall confinement for 24 hours and then hand walking once or twice daily for 1 to 2 weeks to promote drainage
Perineal surgery is performed in mares with:
strict stall confinement for 24 hours and then hand walking once or twice daily for 1 to 2 weeks to promote drainage.
Postoperative care of the equine castration patient involves:
strict stall confinement for 24 hours and then hand walking one or two times a daily for one to two weeks to promote drainage.
postoperative care of the equine castration patient involves:
strict still confinement for 24 hours and then hand walking once or twice daily for 1-2 weeks to promote drainage
Which of the following sponges are best used for surgery?
string woven and radiopaque
If a horse is severely lame in one foot only, the patient should be assessed for
sub-solar abscess
The ________ route can be used to administer large volumes of fluid for slow absorption over time and gradual fluid replacement to treat mild to moderate dehydration or as a preventative in patients that are not eating or drinking.
subcutaneous
The patient's accumulation of _____ plaque was a sign of possible periodontitis.
subgingival
An eyelid mass has just been surgically removed from a 9-month-old mixed-breed dog. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
submit mass for histopathy
If a horse is severely lame in one foot only, the patient should be assessed for:
subsolar abscess
If a horse is severly lame in one foot only, the patient should be assessed for
subsolar abscess
extra or accessory teats found occasionally in ruminants
supernumerary teats
Severe angular limb deformities may be corrected by
surgery
Severe angular limb deformities may be corrected by
surgery.
A 3-year-old female Border Collie dog is about to undergo surgery for cranial cruciate ligament repair. How is it most appropriate to position the dog's limb during the presurgical scrub?
suspended above the table
A 6-year-old female Persian cat in the recovery cage after undergoing anastomosis is vomiting and depressed. She is febrile, and palpation of the abdomen elicits pain. The technician notices discharge from the cat's wound site. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
suture dehiscense
A client is bringing home his dog that has been outfitted with a spica splint after the dog experienced a femoral fracture. The client is told to check the bandage three or four times per day for slippage, moisture, and soiling. Which of the following should the client also check for in this dog?
swelling
Multimodal analgesia takes advantage of the _______ obtained by combining two or more classes of analgesic drugs to alter more than one phase.
synergistic effects
arthrocentesis is performed to obtain
synovial fluid from a synovial joint for analysis
A 9-month-old Turkish Van cat is being discharged after onychectomy. The technician tells the client that the paws should be checked daily for swelling, redness, discharge, and odor, and the cat's clumping litter should be replaced. Which of the following additional instructions are most appropriate to give the client
the cat shouldn't be jumping
What is the cause of moon blindness?
the cause is unknown
If you get a rectal temperature on a horse that reads 102.6°F, is that normal?
no. normal is 98.6°F to 101.3°F
Tusks can be managed by:
none of the answers given, tusks cannot be safely trimmed or removed Regular trimming of the tusks Complete surgical removal of the tusks
Perineal lavage is:
putting fluid into and taking it out of the abdominal cavity
Care is taken when clipping dark-colored nails so that you avoid cutting the:
quick
For most orthopedic surgeries, _____ should be placed in the operating room in addition to the standard surgery supplies.
radiographs of the affected limb
For most orthopedic surgeries, ______ should be placed in the operating room in addition to the standard surgery supplies
radiographs of the affected limb
A woman brings to a veterinary clinic a mixed-breed Terrier dog that she found lying by the side of the road. The animal is bloody. Palpation of the right forelimb elicits significant pain. After physical examination, which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic study?
radiography
As a cat wakes up from an onychectomy procedure, he begins to vocalize and shake his paws. This occurs as the anesthesia is wearing off because:
perception of pain begins to occur as the animal wakes up
The term that describes false pregnancy is
pseudocyesis
Which of the following is not a common presenting problem of horses with severe dental disease
ptyalism
When we are preparing the surgical site for a routine ovariohysterectomy, we shave from the [1] to the [2] and [3] inch lateral of the [4]
pubis xyphoid 1 nipples
A horse has a heart rate of 28 bpm and a pulse rate of 24 bpm. This abnormality is known as
pulse deficit
clinical signs of impending parturition
softening of the muscles and ligaments of the hindquarters and tail head , swelling of vulva, separation from the herd, abdominal straining, enlargement of the udder, and distention of the teats
What is the normal body temperature range for the dog and cat?
100° to 102° F
What are emasculators specifically designed for?
Castration
About two-thirds of the total body water (TBW) in mammals is made up of:
ICF
Cats with asthma will usually have:
Increased respiratory effort and wheezing
The most common short-term feeding tube is the _____ tube.
Nasoesophageal
What instrument do we use to measure horses that equal 4 inches?
our hands
Based on his interactions and observations with a patient, a Rottweiler named Hank, a veterinary technician wants to increase the dose of analgesia to respond to Hank's pain. When discussing with the clinician, which of the following is the best way to phrase the technician's concern?
"Hank's pain seems to be causing him quite a bit of distress. He's gnawing at his leg until it bleeds, and he hasn't slept for more than a few hours at a time. May I increase his analgesic dosage to see if it makes him more comfortable?"
For approx. 3-5 min after induction, after the tube is properly inflated, the fresh gas flow
100ml/kg/min
Which two of the "Five Freedoms of Animal Welfare" constitute what is often referred to as "basic patient care" in veterinary technology?
(1) Freedom from Hunger and Thirst and (2) Freedom from Discomfort
Chronic Obstructive pulmonary disease (causative agent and clinical signs)
(COPD) (heaves) c: exposure to air pollutants c.s: difficult breathing, coughing, abdominal breathing, nasal discharge, lack of stamina
Equine Infectious Anemia (causative agent and clinical signs)
(EIA) (swamp fever) C: lentivirus C.S: fever, lathargic, anorexic
stage 2 of labor in horses
(delivery of fetus) begins with the relsease of several gallons of chorioallantoic fluid, completed within 20-30 mins
Stangles (causative agent and clinical signs)
(distemper) C: bacterium strepococus C.S: sudden fever, nasal discharge *vaccine available
stage 1 of labor in horses
(preparatory stage) restlessness, pacing, sweating and disinterest in food. May last 2-4 hrs, should be separated from other horses, tail wrapped, and perineal area should be washed
ALTERNATIVES TO FORCED OR MANUAL FETAL EXTRACTION OF CALVES INCLUDE:
* CESARIAN SECTION * USE OF A MECHANICAL CALF EXTRACTOR
A PATIENTS BLOOD PRESSURE IS 120/90. 90 IS THE _________AND 120 IS THE ___________?
* DIASTOLIC * SYSTOLIC
IF THE "IDEAL ROUTE" IS NOT AVAILABLE WHAT OTHER POINTS OF ACCESS MIGHT YOU CHOOSE TO ADMINISTER DRUGS WHEN PERFORMING ADVANCD LIFE SUPPORT?
* INTRATRACHEAL ADMINISTRATION * PERIPHERAL IV CATHETER * INTRAOSSEOUS CATHETER * INTRALINGUAL INJECTION * INTRACARDIAC
THE FOLLOWING ARE ALL TRUE CONCERNING EMERGENCY NURSING:
* MANY VARIABLES AFFET THE OUTCOME AND MANAGEMENT OF AN ARRESTED PATIENT, INCLUDING THE UNDERLYING DISEASES AND REASON FOR ARREST AND THE EXPERIENCE AND EQUIPMENT AVAIL. TO RESUSCITATION TEAM *ALL BODY SYSTEMS ARE AFFECTED BY CARDIOPULMONARY ARREST * THE POST RESUSCITATION PATIENT REQUIRES TREMENDOUS NURSING CARE AND 24- HOUR MONITORING * SUCCESSFUL RESUSCITATION RATES IN VETERINARY MEDS ARE APPROXIMATELY 10%
DESCRIBE IN DETAIL THE POSITIONING OF THE PATIENT FOR AN ECG AND PROPER PLACEMENT OF THE CLIPS:
* NON-CONDUCTIVE SURFACE * RIGHT FRONT: WHITE * RIGHT REAR: GREEN (CRANIAL STIFLE) * LEFT FRONT: BLACK * LEFT REAR: RED (CRANIAL STIFLE) (GREEN AND WHATIE ARE ALWAYS RIGHT AND CHRISTMAS @ THE END)
POSSIBLE INDICATORS OF DIC INCLUDE:
* SHISTOCYTES & DECREASED PLATELET COUNTS * PETECHIAE AND/OR ECCHYMOSES * EDEMA AND PALE MUCOUS MEMBRANES
THE MOST RECOGNIZABLE CLINICAL SIGNS OF HYPERDYNAMIC SHOCK INCLUDE ___________ AND ____________.
*BOUNDING PULSES *BRICK RED MUCOUS MEMBRANES
LIST THE POSITIONS TO PLACE A DOG IN TO PERFORM CYCTOCENTESIS
*DORSAL *LATERAL RECUMBENCY W/ UPPER LEG ABDUCTED TO EXPOSE INGUINAL AREA *STANDING WITH 2 RESTRAINERS ONE @ BACK END AND ONE IN FRONT
WHICH 3 LAB TESTS ARE USEFUL IN ACCESSING HYDRATION STATUS IN A PATIENT?
*PCV *TP *SG
During cardiopulmonary arrest and subsequent CPCR, which of the following end-tidal carbon dioxide monitor values indicate that chest compressions are adequate?
10-15 mmHg
Which of the following statements is true regarding anthrax?
- Anthrax-contaminated carcasses should be buried in lime or incinerated. - Contact the area's federal veterinarian immediately if an animal is suspected of having anthrax. - Anthrax is endemic in many areas of the southern United States.
Young foals who are still nursing are sometimes held off feed for _ hours before surgery
1 to 2
Young foals who are still nursing are sometimes held off feed for _____ hours before surgery.
1 to 2
Which of the following are signs of dysmaturity in a foal?
-Long, coarse hair -Erupted incisor teeth -Angular limb formation
Which of the following drugs maybe used as a constant rate infusion?
-Morphine-lidocaine-ketamine (MLK) -Ketamine -Dexmedetomidine
Left sided congestive heart failure cause which of the following signs and symptoms?
-Pleural effusion -Pulmonary edema -Coughing
Which of the following conditions can cause hypoxia?
-Reduced blood flow -Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity -Hypoventilation
After milking, the teat orifice (streak canal) remains open for approximately:
1 to 2 hours
Cut skin-suture ends to ____in length
10-20mm
what are you monitoring during general anesthesia
-TPR -CRT -Mucous membrane color -B.P -oxygenation/ventilation -depth of anesthesia
Young foals who are still nursing are sometimes held off feed for _____ hours before surgery.
1/2
the first urination of foals should occur by
10 hrs of age
For accurate readings, it is essential for the technician to develop skills in consistent probing forces to use between _____ g of pressure.
10 to 20
What are the landmarks for IM injection of the lateral neck/cervical area?
-a hands width ventral to the crest of the neck -a hands width dorsal to the jugular groove -a hands width cranial to the cranial border of the scapula
Popeye, a small mixed-breed dog, has nasal discharge, congestion, and sneezing. You examine him closely for signs of any facial swelling, which might indicate Popeye has:
-a tooth root abscess. -migration of nasal foreign bodies. -a fungal infection
2nd degree AV block
-common arrhythmia of a dropped beat. -alleviated by exercise
stage 3 of labor in horses
-passage of the placenta and fetal membranes -occurs within 2-4hrs, if passage doesn't occur within 4-6 hrs, the placenta is considered to be retained
In intranasal vaccine administration, you should:
-place the tip of the vaccine dispenser into the nostril and compress the dispenser - tilt the patient's head back and squeeze a pipet of vaccine onto the plane of the nose.
3 ways of diagnostic tests to help further identify the loaction of lameness
-when the leg/hoof is hot/warm -watching them walk/run (head bobs down when stepping on good hoof) -nerve blocks
A disinfectant is most likely to be rendered ineffective by which of the following?
. Off-label dilution
The primary risk factor for the development of neonatal bacterial septicemia in calves is:
.Failure of passive transfer of antibodies from the dam.
When using a Magnetostrictive Ultrasonic Scaling Unit, the side of the tip to the tooth should be held like a periodeontal probe at a ___ to ___ degree angle.
0, 15
In standard calibration on ECG paper, each vertical 1-mm box equals:
0.1 mV
Laminitis rarely occurs in horses of less than _____ year(s) of age
1
Laminitis rarely occurs in horses of less than ________ year(s) of age
1
Laminitis rarely occurs in horses of less than_______year of age
1
You observe an agitated pregnant mare who is pacing, nickering, lifting the tail head, turning and biting at her sides, and kicking her own abdomen. From this you deduce that she is in stage _____ of labor.
1
laminitis rarely occurs in horses of less than _____ years of age
1
You have just made an impression in dental stone to make a positive image of the mouth. The complete setting time for stone is _____ hours
1 to 2
You have just made an impression in dental stone to make a positive image of the mouth. The complete setting time for stone is _____ hours.
1 to 2
you foals who are still nursing are sometimes held off held off feed for _____- hours before surgery.
1-2
It is imperative to a calf's survival to receive colostrum within the first _____________ of life.
1-2 hours
Successful nursing in lambs and kids should occur within
1-2 hours
foals should naturally nurse every
1-2 hrs
in sheep stage 2 of labor lasts
1-3 hours
stage one of labor in camlids last
1-6 hours
The owner of a 3-year-old dog that underwent surgery this morning is looking at the animal's sutures. The sutures the surgeon used are nonabsorbable. It is most appropriate to tell the client to bring the dog back for suture removal in how many days
10-14 days
list 3 things that can occur as problems/side effects in the recumbent patient
1. blat 2. pneumonia 3. oxygen levels in the blood fall
WHICH URINE SPECIFIC GRAVITY WOULD YOU SEE IN A DEHYDRATED DOG?
1.060
Atelectasis is
A collapsed or airless state of the lung
What condition in the postoperative orthopedic patient wearing a limb bandage or cast should be brought to the attention of the veterinarian immediately?
A dramatic change in the horse's use of the limb
What condition in the postoperative orthopedic patient wearing a limb bandage or cast should be brought to the attention of the veterinarian immediately
A dramatic change in the horse's use of the limb
What condition in the postoperative orthopedic patient wearing a limb bandage or cast should be brought to the attention of the veterinarian immediately?
A dramatic change in the horse's use of the limb
What is a mare?
A female horse
What is suckling?
A foal that is still nursing
Routine care of the healthy newborn includes what procedures?
A foal-side blood test for adequate transfer of immunity and dipping the umbilicus in chlorhexidine or iodine solution
What does the term "lathered" mean?
A horse covered with a thick, frothy sweat
A mule is a result of mating which two animals?
A jack and a mare
You are helping the veterinarian stabilize a midforelimb fracture on a horse. Which of the following is not true?
A lateral splint extending from the ground to the hip is secured with nonelastic tape.
What is the first thing a technician should ascertain from a telephone triage with an owner who is worried about his or her pet?
A name and phone number where the caller can be contacted if disconnected
Which two of the "Five Freedoms of Animal Welfare" constitute what is often referred to as "basic patient care" in veterinary technology? A. (1) Freedom from Hunger and Thirst and (2) Freedom from Discomfort B. (1) Freedom from Discomfort and (2) Freedom to Express Normal Behavior C. (1) Freedom from Pain, Injury, or Disease and (2) Freedom from Fear and Distress D. None of the above. The "Five Freedoms of Animals Welfare" are all considered above and beyond "basic patient care."
A. (1) Freedom from Hunger and Thirst and (2) Freedom from Discomfort
You have just made an impression in dental stone to make a positive image of the mouth. The complete setting time for stone is ______ hours. A. 1 to 2 B. 8 C. 12 D. 24
A. 1 to 2
Young foals who are still nursing are sometimes held of feed for ______ hours before surgery. A. 1 to 2 B. 3 to 4 C. 10 to 12 D. 24 to 36
A. 1 to 2
Concerning protein in plants, which of the following statements in most accurate? A. A feed can possess high protein content, yet that protein's biologic value is low. B. The protein biologic value is the percentage of total amino acids ingested that pass through the intestinal cells into the bloodstream. C. The protein efficiency ratio of a feed is the ratio of essential amino acids to the total number of amino acid in the feed. D. The biologic value of the protein in corn is comparable to that of animal-origin protein.
A. A feed can possess high protein content, yet that protein's biologic value is low.
Seromas that form postoperatively can be treated with all of the following except: A. Ablation B. Drainage C. Warm compresses D. Hydrotherapy
A. Ablation
In ewes, _____ (the period of no ovarian follicular activity) can be shortened by exposure to pheromones from a ram. A. anestrus B. proestrus C. metestrus D. diestrus
A. Anestrus
_______may be exhibited in the form of guilt. A. Anger B. Denial C. Bargaining D. Depression
A. Anger
Among the essential fatty acids, cats need to get _______ from the diet, but dogs can synthesize it from other fatty acids in the diet. A. arachidonic acid B. linoleum acid C. alpha-linoleic acid D. chylomicrons
A. Arachidonic acid
Although always important, to ensure success, _______ is generally more closely regarded in orthopedic surgery than in soft tissue surgery. A. Asepsis B. Patient positioning C. The choice of anesthetic drugs D. The choice of suture material
A. Asepsis
What seeks wellness by keeping elements of nature in balance and means the science of life? A. ayurveda B. shiatsu C. effleurage D. extraction
A. Ayurveda
Every time you enter a ward that holds infectious patients, you wash your hands and don shoe covers, a gown, and examination gloves before entering. This is referred to as _______ nursing. A. barrier B. zoonotic C. nosocomic D. isolation
A. Barrier
the basic techniques for positioning dental radiographs are: A. Bisecting angle, parallel, and occlusal B. Bisecting angle, lateral, and straight-on C. Oblique, tangential, and bisecting angles D. Parallel, perpendicular, and lateral
A. Bisecting angle, parallel, and occlusal
Infectious tracheobronchitis (kennel cough) is a very contagious disease of dogs caused by: A. Bordetella bronchiseptica B. canine adenovirus type 1 C. Leptospira canicola D. canine parvovirus
A. Bordetella bronchiseptica
Which of the following bovine vaccinations can cause zoonotic disease if accidentally injected? A. Brucellosis vaccine B. Parainfluenza vaccine C. Listeriosus vaccine D. Clostridiosis vaccine
A. Brucellosis vaccine
Venereal diseases of cattle that cause various manifestations of abortion, and for which vaccination is a basic requirement for all breeding stock, include: A. campylobacteriosis, leptospirosis, and brucellosis B. leptospirosis, anaplasmosis, and Haemophilus somnus infection C. brucellosis, Moraxella bovis infection, and pasteurellosis D. trichomoniasis, campylobacteriosis, and Moraxella bovis infection
A. Campylobacteriosis, leptospirosis, and brucellosis.
Senior dogs who have become less active: A. can be offered an extra meal per day B. are more likely to beg for food because other, more physical activities are less of a distraction C. are more likely to eat all that is offered because they are otherwise less active D. are both B and C
A. Can be offered an extra meal per day.
Artie, a Pekinese, has begun losing weight and experiences some anorexia. He is frequently suddenly exhausted. Test indicate that Artie has _______, or disease of the heart muscle. A. cardiomyopathy B. cardiovascular disease C. cardiomuscular disease D. congestive heart failure
A. Cardiomyopathy
In acupuncture, there are two unpaired channels; they are _______ channels. A. conception vessel (CV) and governing vessel (GV) B. lung (LU) and triple heater (TH) C. triple heater (TH) and conception vessel (CV) D. governing vessel (GV) and pericardium (PC)
A. Conception vessel (CV) and governing vessel (GV)
Oral bovine rotavirus, coronavirus, and Escherichia coli infection vaccines are administered to pregnant cows on farms where there is a problem with calfhood: A. Diarrhea B. Pneumonia C. REdnose D. Johne's disease
A. Diarrhea.
What life-threatening viral disease, for which there is a core vaccine, can be spread by direct contact between dogs or by contact with wildlife, such as coyotes, wolfs, raccoons, or skunks? A. Distemper B. Leptospirosis C. Kennel cough D. Kepatitis
A. Distemper
Sows are limit-fed (controlled calorie intake) _______ and full-fed (to achieve as much energy consumption as possible). A. during gestation; during lactation B. when not pregnant; during gestation C. during lactation; when not pregnant D. during lactation; during gestation
A. During gestation; during lactation.
Cats fed home-cooked diets rich in oily fish are at increased risk of developing yellow fat disease because of the deficiency of what vitamin? A. E B. C C. A D. D
A. E
The term _______ refers to the kcal per unit of a food ingredient or pet food. A. energy density B. energy expenditure C. resting energy requirement D. metabolism
A. Energy density
The length of one massage stroke is called the: A. excursion B. duration C. depth D. continuity
A. Excursion
Hepatic encephalopathy can be caused by: A. exposure of the brain to gastrointestinal (GI) toxins as a consequence of decreased liver function or portosystemic shunts B. complications of pancreatitis C. the presence of trypsin in the liver and pancreas, causing autodigestion D. persistent endoparasites, ulcerations, neoplasms, or coagulopathies
A. Exposure of the brain to gastrointestinal (GI) toxins as a consequence of decreased liver function or portosystemic shunts.
Which of the following feline diseases is considered similar to canine parvovirus because it can cause dehydration, vomiting, diarrhea, fever, and leukopenia? A. Feline panleukopenia B. Feline infectious peritonitis C. Feline leukemia D. Feline calicivirus
A. Feline panleukopenia.
The most permanent type of feeding tube is the _____ tube. A. Gastrostomy B. Esophagostomy C. Nasoesophageal D. Oronasoesophageal
A. Gastrostomy
Which of the following is not an effective means of preventing parasitic infections in dogs and cats? A. Grooming B. Passive immunity C. Infectious vaccines D. Noninfectious vaccines
A. Grooming
________ can result from the rupture of retropharyngeal lymph nodes occuring secondary to infectious strangles in horses. A. Guttural pouch empyema B. Allergic airway disease C. Pleuritis D. Maxillary sinusitis
A. Guttural pouch empyema
You are nursing Solitaire, a horse recovering from small-intestinal surgery performed yesterday. At 10:00 PM on Saturday night, you discover Solitaire covered in sweat, with evidence of frequent rolling in her stall. Why does a horse like Solitaire, with a buildup in her stomach, experience such pain? A. Horses cannot vomit to relieve the gastric pressure. B. Horses are especially sensitive to pain. C. The fluid buildup begins to cause laminitis, which is very painful. D. Horses always seem to be in pain after surgery, even when they are not.
A. Horses cannot vomit to relieve the gastric pressure.
The most common breed of alpacas are: A. huacaya B. suri C. llama D. camel
A. Huacaya
Cushing syndrome, or ________, primarily affects dogs and is characterized by ________. A. Hyperadrenocorticism; elevated circulating levels or cortisol produced by the adrenal cortex B. Hypoadrenocorticism; inadequate secretion of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids, primarily cortisol and aldosterone C. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA); the presence of ketones in the urine D. Hypothyroidism; an underactive thyroid, resulting in subnormal circulating levels of the thyroid hormones, which causes a subsequent decrease in the metabolic rate
A. Hyperadrenocorticism; elevated circulating levels or cortisol produced by the adrenal cortex.
The veterinarian evaluates a complete blood count and full serum chemistry panel for Gideon, a cocker spaniel. Gideon's tests have come back revealing low serum T4 and free T4 levels and elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels. His veterinarian can reasonably conclude that Gideon has: A. hypothyroidism B. thyrotoxic hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. hyperthyroidism D. diabetes mellitus
A. Hypothyroidism
Which of the following statements is not true regarding anthrax? A. If an animal is suspected of having anthrax, necropsy should be performed and the brain sent to the state veterinarian. B. Anthrax-contaminated carcasses should be buried in lime or incinerated. C. Contact the area's federal veterinarian immediately if an animal is suspected of having anthrax. D. Anthrax is endemic in many areas of southern United States.
A. If an animal is suspected of having anthrax, necropsy should be performed and the brain sent to the state veterinarian.
As a complication of celiotomy, your patient experiences _______, a temporary loss of intestinal motility. A. Ileus B. Megaesophagus C. Evisceration D. Diarrhea
A. Ileus
What is the required treatment for abomasal volvulus? A. Immediate surgical intervention B. Broad-spectrum antibiotics C. Administration of mineral oil D. Administration of calcium
A. Immediate surgical intervention
Which of the following methods is often used to induce estrous activity in the mare during the winter months? A. Increasing the day length with artificial light B. Increasing the stall temperature with heaters C. Melatonin supplementation D. Placing mares in groups together
A. Increasing the day length with artificial light.
When collecting semen from stallions using an artificial vagina, it is critical to precisely control the: A. internal temperature and pressure of the artificial vagina B. angle at which the artificial vagina is held during collection C. angle at which the stallion approaches the artificial vagina D. amount of time the stallion is in contact with the artificial vagina
A. Internal temperature and pressure of the artificial vagina.
Which file type is less likely to break within the canal during filing? A. K-files B. H-files C. Barbed broaches D. L-files
A. K-files
What is the single most common disease syndrome in adult dairy cows? A. Mastitis B. Lymphosarcoma C. Bovin respiratory disease syndrome D. Periparturient hypocalcemia (milk fever)
A. Mastitis
_______ energy is the most common estimate of how much energy is supplied by pet food. A. metabolizable B. digestible C. net D. gross
A. Metabolizable
Modified Atwater factors can be useful to determine how much energy is provided by protein, fat, and carbohydrate on a(n) _______ basis. A. metabolized energy B. energy density C. resting energy D. kcal
A. Metabolizable energy
How does the queen or bitch stimulate urination or defecation of the newborn?
By licking the urogenital area
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding calves with diarrhea? A. Milk and milk products should be warmed before being offered. B. Poor sanitation and poor nutrition can contribute to the development of diarrhea. C. Warm intravenous fluid should be administered and supplemented with dextrose and bicarbonate as needed. D. Cows should be vaccinated before calving.
A. Milk and milk products should be warmed before being offered.
What must always be supplemented to beef cattle feeding with pasture and grasses? A. Minerals B. Energy in the form of grain C. Protein D. Fat
A. Minerals
Myositis is damage to or inflammation of: A. Muscles B. Bones C. Nerves D. Lungs
A. Muscles
The most common short-term feeding tube is the _____ tube. A. Nasoesophageal B. Esophagostomy C. Gastrotomy D. Jejunostomy
A. Nasoesophageal
In general, a profitable cow-calf producer will produce a live calf for every _____ cow(s) per year. A. one B. two C. three D. four
A. One
The VOHC is The Veterinary: A. Oral Health Council B. Oral Health Committee C. Overall Health Council D. Overall Health Committee
A. Oral Health Council
_______ is the condition of an abnormally thickened portion of the articular cartilage. A. Osetochondrosis B. Arthrodesis C. Osteoarthritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis
A. Osetochondrosis
Pyometra, metritis, and endometrial hyperplasia may be treated with a(n): A. Ovariohysterectomy B. Urethrostomy C. Anastomosis D. Onychectomy
A. Ovariohysterectomy
The levels of attachment vary for each pet and owner. These relationships may be perceived as stronger when which of the following aspects is present? A. Owners believe they have rescued the animal from certain death. B. The owner grew up in a rural setting. C. The owner has spent a lot of money on the pet's care. D. This is the owner's first pet.
A. Owners believe they have rescued the animal from certain death.
Tachycardia, tachypnea, and elevated temperature are all signs of: A. Pain B. Neoplasia C. Hypertension D. Cataracts
A. Pain
Whelping is: A. parturition in a canine B. parturition in a feline C. parturition in a caprine D. the sound a dog makes when left in the backyard alone
A. Parturition in a canine.
You and your colleagues attend a lecture on the ______ of a disease to which animals in your patient's farming community have been exposed recently. This particular lecture, them, gives you increased understanding of the mechanism for the development if this particular disease. A. pathogenesis B. pathology C. etiology D. histopathology
A. Pathogenesis
A caudal epidural provides loss of sensation to the: A. Perineal area B. Umbilcus region C. Forelimbs D. Horns
A. Perineal area
A dog begins exhibiting _______, or excessive thirst, which can be an indication of diabetes. A. polydipsia B. tenesmus C. urolithiasis D. polyuria
A. Polydipsia
In the process known as malignant transformation, an initiated cell undergoes mutation caused by an agent or event that stimulate proliferation of the cell to grow into a neoplasm. This stage is called: A. promotion B. proliferation C. initiation D. progression
A. Promotion
In the cow, pregnancy is most frequently diagnosed using: A. rectal palpation or ultrasound B. serum progesterone C. the failure to return to estrus 21 days after behavioral estrus D. the reddish appearance of vulva
A. Rectal palpation or ultrasound.
Pregnant mares should be vaccinated for equine ______ during the fifth, seventh, and ninth months of pregnancy to reduce the incidence of abortions from this disease. A. rhinopneumonitis B. influenza C. infectious anemia D. viral arteritis
A. Rhinopneumonitis.
The folds of the upper palate are referred to as: A. Rugae B. The roughened palate C. The incisor papilla D. The hard palate
A. Rugae
A patient being given SQ fluids exhibits swollen front limbs; you speculate that the fluids are being administered too far forward in the _____ area, allowing the fluid to settle ventrally into the legs. A. Scruff B. Chest C. Ventral D. Dorsal
A. Scruff
If beef cattle receive inadequate pasture feeding, supplemental energy is usually provided in the form of: A. silage (fermented green feed) or hay B. oat grain C. barley grain D. corn oil
A. Silage (fermented green feed) or hay.
Actinobacillosis is usually treated with antibiotics, an inflammatory drug, and intravenous administration of: A. sodium iodide B. penicillin C. oxytetracycline D. dexamthasone
A. Sodium iodide
Postoperative care of the equine castration patient involves: A. Strict stall confinement for 24 hours and then hand walking once or twice daily for 1 to 2 weeks to promote drainage. B. Strict stall confinement for 1 to 2 weeks until drainage ceases. C. Regular exercise and daily sponging of the incision with dilute chlorhexidine for 1 to 2 weeks. D. Strict stall confinement for 1 week and then a return to regular exercise.
A. Strict stall confinement for 24 hours and then hand walking once or twice daily for 1 to 2 weeks to promote drainage.
The patient's accumulation of ______ plaque was a sign of possible periodontitis. A. Subgingival B. Surface calculus C. Periodontal D. Translingual
A. Subgingival
Vitamins and minerals need to be supplemented throughout the life of domestic: A. swine B. sheep C. cattle D. horses
A. Swine
The nerves blocked when performing paravertebral anesthesia are: A. T13, L1, and L2 B. T13, L2, and L3 C. L2, L3, and L4 D. L1, L2, and L3
A. T13, L1, and L2
After surgery Pepper is sent home, because Pepper is asymptomatic, the veterinarian instructs the owner to monitor for rapid breathing, or _______, which can be the first sign that heart disease has progressed to heart failure. A. tachypnea B. inadequate tissue perfusion C. bradycardia D. syncope
A. Tachypnea
True breech in a horse is defined as _______ presentation of the foal. A. Tail-first B. Front feet-first C. Hind feet-first D. Head-first
A. Tail-first
The use of elastrator bands to perform castration of calves has been associated with the development of: A. Tetanus B. Seromas C. Hematomas D. Sepsis
A. Tetanus
Clients breeding their camelids for the first time should be counseled that: A. the placenta should pass out of the vagina within 6 hours after birth or veterinarian should be called to administer oxytocin B. a "red bag" protruding from the vulva just before parturition is normal C. parturition and placenta shedding generally occur as one process or within 10 minutes of each other D. rapid parturition should be followed by expulsion of the placenta within 10 minutes
A. The placenta should pass out of the vagina within 6 hours after birth or a veterinarian should be called to administer oxytocin.
Life-threatening upper respiratory tract obstruction can be alleviated on an emergency basis by: A. Tracheostomy B. Pulling the tongue forward and out of the mouth C. Administering epinephrine intravenously D. Placing finger pressure on the eyeball through the eyelid
A. Tracheostomy
Owners who use artificial insemination and have limited access to a male dog or own females with erratic estrous behavior will need to be told exactly when to breed. The exact day of ovulation is best predicted by: A. vaginal cytology for progesterone levels by observing for white blood cells and noncornified epithelial cells B. every 5 days by in-house serum progesterone assays C. weekly by in-house serum luteinizing hormone (LH) assays D. weekly by in-house serum progesterone assays
A. Vaginal cytology for progesterone levels by observing for white blood cells and noncornified epithelial cells.
Which of the following substances are depleted in the body faster because of limited storage capability, making toxicity less likely? A. Water-soluble vitamins B. Fat-soluble vitamins C. Amino acids D. Microminerals
A. Water-soluble vitamins
The two types of ultrasonic scalers include: A. magnetostrictive and piezoelectric B. sonic and ultrasonic C. ferrite and aluminum alloy D. high frequency and low frequency
A. magnetostrictive and piezoelectric
Which statement is true concerning enamel "points" in horses?
Answers: a. Points are sharp edges that develop on teeth and are treated by filing or "floating."
TPLO
ACL rupture
TTA
ACL rupture
BEFORE THORACOCENTESIS CAN BE PERFORMED, HAIR ON THE CHEST OVER THE __________ MUST BE CLIPPED AND CLEANED WITH SURGICAL SCRUB.
ALONG 7TH AND 8TH INTERCOSTAL SPACE
Cerebrospinal (CSF) fluid from a horse is collected at the:
AO or LS sites
Which of the following is not a chronic problem in aging horses?
Absence of a heave line
The __________ is an organization that consists of technicians who have completed a credentials process and passed a specialty examination.
Academy of Veterinary Dental Technicians (AVDT)
All of the following are analgesic drugs except:
Acepromazine
What commonly used equine sedative has no analgesic properties?
Acepromazine
_____ can cause permanent penile paralysis in stallions.
Acepromazine
what medication can cause permanent penile paralysis in stallions?
Acepromazine
The cranial drawer test is used to diagnose
Acl repair
Why is a second vaccine administered to elicit a secondary immune response in a patient?
Answers: a. To result in a stronger, faster immunity by causing a secondary immune response
TTA stands for tibial tuberosity
Advancement
The irregular spherical clumping of erythrocytes observed under the microscope is termed:
Agglutination
In homeopathy, exacerbation of symptoms is called:
Aggravation
What needs to be more closely evaluated in the sick foal than in the sick adult horse?
Answers: a. Scleral color b. Leg joints for swelling and heat c. Umbilicus for swelling, heat, and discharge
Which of the following is an effective technique for controlling exuberant granulation tissue? Cryotherapy, Electrocautery, Surgical Excision, or All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following statements about electrocautery is false
All portions of the electrocautery Unit can and should be sterilized
Extirpation refers to removal of:
All the contents of the bony orbit.
The use of elastrator bands to perform castration of calves has been associated with the development of
Answers: a. Tetanus
How is nuclear scintigraphy used most often in horses?
Answers: a. To localize the site of lameness when limb x-rays are normal
All of the following are opioid receptors except:
Alpha-2
Detomidine is classified as _____ and therefore _____a controlled substance
Alpha2-andrenergic agonist and is not a controlled substance
Which of the following devices can provide effective artificial ventilation?
Ambu Bag
Which of the following is a portable device that can provide ventilatory support during cardiopulmonary cerebral resuscitation (CPCR), providing either room air or 100% oxygen, depending on the model?
Ambu bag
What is Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO)?
An anti-inflammatory agent
what is a stallion?
An intact male horse
Your patient, Miss Marple, a Persian cat, has been sneezing excessively. You most likely suspect that she has:
An upper respiratory infection.
A surgeon removes a devitalized section of intestine and then performs a(n):
Anastomosis
What type of fluid is most often used for arthroscopic procedures
Andy sterile, balanced electrolyte solution
A blood plasma transfusion is not indicated for treatment of:
Anemia
A horse with anaplasmosis usually exhibits signs that include fever, edema and stiffness, icterus lethargy, and _____. It can be treated with _____
Anemia; xoytetracyclines
________ is the facial morphology in which the upper jaw is wider than the lower jaw.
Anisognathism
___________is the facial morphology in which the upper jaw is wider than the lower jaw
Anisognathism
The volume of medication injected intramuscularly at a single site in the adult horse should not exceed:
Answers: a. 20 ml
Sows in production are generally allowed to nurse their litters for:
Answers: a. 21 to 35 days
In which of the following species can IgG antibogy cross the placental barrier?
Answers: a. Cat
How is a carpus (knee) prepared for arthrocentesis (joint tap)?
Answers: a. Clip hair and perform a surgical scrub.
Booster vaccines are given to
Answers: a. Elicit a secondary immune response and a higher antibody titer
What surgical item is designed specifically for castration?
Answers: a. Emasculators
_____ mastitis results when bacteria within reservoirs in the environment gain access to the mammary gland and cause infection.
Answers: a. Environment
Which of the following are possible treatment options for ruminants with traumatic reticuloperitonitis?
Answers: a. Exploratory laparotomy and rumenotomy b. Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics c. Oral administration of a magnet
Mr. F calls to say his 2-day-old foal was suckling every 30 minutes for the first day of life and now hasn't suckled for 3 hours. What do you tell him?
Answers: a. Failure to suckle is the first sign of a problem, and the foal should be examined by a veterinarian as soon as possible.
Which group of signs of respiratory disease in the horse should be considered an emergency?
Answers: a. Flared nostrils and rapid, shallow breathing
Which antibody class is produced during the secondary immune response?
Answers: a. IgG
Concerning equine anterior uveitis (moon blindness), which statement is true?
Answers: a. It is the most common cause of equine blindness. b. The cause is unknown. c. It cannot be cured.
Even if lambs survive an acute hemolytic crisis of copper toxicity, there is often irreversible, significant damage to the _____ due to _____.
Answers: a. Kidneys; hemoglobinuria
Eastern, Western, and Venezuelan viral encephalitis (EVE, WVE, VVE) are transmitted to horses by:
Answers: a. Mosquitoes
A nasogastric tube is properly placed in the esophagus when:
Answers: a. Negative pressure is obtained when one sucks on the tube's end. b. The tube is visually observed within the esophagus on the left side of the neck. c. The tube is palpated in the esophagus on the left side of the neck.
The most common life-threatening disease of newborn foals is:
Answers: a. Neonatal septicemia
What is the most frequent cause of chronic diarrhea in adult cattle?
Answers: a. Parasitic infection
Blood is commonly collected from this side of the neck in pigs to avoid this nerve.
Answers: a. Phrenic
Mares often foal:
At night
To reduce the risk for potential complications, it is usually best to remove an animal's horns:
At the earliest possible age
Which drugs can be administered safely via the endotracheal route?
Atropine, epinephrine, naloxone, vasopressin
Gastrointestinal motility can be estimated by:
Auscultation of the abdomen
For accurate readings, it is essential for the technician to develop skills in consistent probing forces to use between ______ g of pressure. A. 3 to 5 B. 10 to 20 C. 30 to 50 D. 40 to 80
B. 10 to 20
Pregnancy examination by palpation in the bitch can be performed as early as about _____ days after breeding using an ultrasound. A. 28 B. 21 C. 14 D. 7
B. 21
Which of the following syndromes is characterized by weight loss and muscle wasting caused either by a tumor or the side effects of cancer treatments? A. Anorexia B. Cancer cachexia C. Stridor D. Hepatic encephalopathy
B. Cancer cachexia
Forages of good quality and properly harvested normally contain adequate levels of vitamin E and the precursor of vitamin A, which is: A. niacin B. carotene C. calcium D. potassium
B. Carotene
A large geriatric dog still has good quality of life but has little to no function of his hind limbs. His owner would like to give him as mush mobility as possible, so you suggest a(n): A. Bottoms-up leash. B. Cart. C. Sling. D. Soft blanket.
B. Cart.
Sarcomas can arise from _______, whereas carcinomas can arise from _______. A. mucous membranes; bone B. cartilage; lymph nodes C. skin; connective tissue D. organs; cartilage
B. Cartilage; Lymph nodes.
One of the most common surgeries performed in the horse is: A. Herniorrhaphy B. Castration C. Left displaced abomasum (LDA) D. Rumenotomy
B. Castration
Swelling and infection along tissue planes in a postoperative incision that may be red, warm, and associated with elevated body temperature may be a sign of: A. Decubital ulcer B. Cellulitis C. Dermal edema D. Ascites
B. Cellulitis
Internal oral examination includes everything except: A. Checking under the tongue B. Checking the ears C. Counting teeth D. Checking tonsils
B. Checking the ears
What does the term CUPS refer to? A. Chronic ulcerative papillary sepsis B. Chronic ulcerative paradental stomatitis C. Caustic ulcerative papillary stomatitis D. Canine upper premolar syndrome
B. Chronic ulcerative paradental stomatitis
Arthroscopic instruments to be used more than once per day are most often _____ between procedures. A. Soaked in alcohol B. Cold sterilized C. Washed in not soapy water D. Autoclaved
B. Cold sterilized
Unless otherwise instructed, a ______ surgery pack should be set up for a cesarean section. A. Castration B. Colic C. Fracture (orthopedic) D. Laryngeal
B. Colic
You are in charge of training personnel for the new isolation ward of your veterinary hospital. Your coverage of diseases will most likely include a thorough discussion of: A. strangles, heaves, and colitis B. colitis, neurologic EHV-1, and strangles C. heaves, strangles, and colitis D. heaves, EHV-1, and influenza
B. Colitis, neurologic EHV-1, and strangles
A mare requires the removal of a nondiseased ovary. The veterinarian determines that the best method for this is through a flank incision or via an incision in the vaginal wall. This procedure is called a(n): A. Abomasotomy B. Colpotomy C. Laparotomy D. Omentotomy
B. Colpotomy
Tests show that your patient, Peeps, a male cat, has decreased cardiac output. The veterinarian sees signs, too, of tissue hypoxia. which is causing poor venous return leading to fluid overload. The most likely diagnosis for peeps is: A. secondary cardiomyopathy B. congestive heart failure C. primary cardiomyopathy D. dilated cardiomypathy
B. Congestive heart failure.
An incision into the urinary bladder to expose the lumen or interior of the bladder is a: A. Cystectomy B. Cystotomy C. Cystostomy D. Cystorectomy
B. Cystotomy
Ewes start to cycle as: A. the rainy season begins B. daylight length becomes shorter C. dictated by geographic origin of a specific breed D. a ram is present
B. Daylight length becomes shorter.
All of the following procedures require the use of shredded paper instead of litter for several days postoperatively except: A. Onychectomy B. Dental surgery C. Urethrostomy D. Castration
B. Dental surgery
In situations in which the veterinary staff is having difficulty stimulating a calf to breathe, _______ can be injected under the animal's _______. A. epinephrine; tongue B. doxapram hydrochloride; tongue C. doxapram hydrochloride; upper eyelid D. epinephrine; upper eyelid
B. Doxapram hydrochloride; tongue.
Pregnant broodmares should be vaccinated for _______ to prevent abortion caused by this disease. A. Potomac horse fever B. equine herpesvirus infection C. rabies D. botulism
B. Equine herpesvirus infection
Male horses usually have four canine teeth that: A. Erupt at about 2 to 3 years of age. B. Erupt at about 4 to 6 years of age. C. Are present at birth. D. Are rudimentary.
B. Erupt at about 4 to 6 years of age.
A disease of pigs for which they should be vaccinated and that causes fever, skin lesions, sudden death, and chronic endocarditis or chronic arthritis is: A. Leptospirosis B. Erysipelas C. Pseudorabies D. Brucellosis
B. Erysipelas.
When performing an examination for breeding soundness in a female, what is not pertinent to the patient's history? A. Housing B. Eye color C. Dates of breedings D. Use
B. Eye color.
Apart from the need for fresh water continuously, what single factor most determines the productivity (i.e., how much milk is produced) of lactating dairy cows? A. milking schedule B. feeding C. milking parlor temperature D. number of cows in the herd
B. Feeding
For which of the following feline diseases does vaccination generally reduce clinical signs or shorten the course but does not prevent infection or shedding? A. Feline leukemia B. Feline upper respiratory disease C. Feline panleukipenia D. Rabies
B. Feline upper respiratory disease.
Which of the following is not technically a nutrient? A. Protein B. Fiber C. Carbohydrate D. Microminerals
B. Fiber
The veterinarian suspects a horse has Salmonella infection. To detect this, you collect a total of _______ fecal samples for culture at least ______ hours between samplings. A. three; 12 B. five; 12 C. three; 24 D. six; 24
B. Five; 12
Attrition refers to wear: A. Due to chewing inappropriately B. From the teeth contacting teeth C. From chewing at hair D. From chewing on metal
B. From the teeth contacting teeth
Acute laminitis may be due to sudden excess ingestion of _______, or secondary to other diseases, which occur during the _______ period. A. salt; postparturient B. grain; postparturient C. calcium; neonatal D. mycotoxins; neonatal
B. Grain; postparturient.
Concentrates include _______, whereas forages include _______. A. all feeds with more than 10 Mcal/g; all feeds with less than or equal to 10 Mcal/g B. grains and high-starch compounds; grass hays and legumes C. vitamin and mineral supplements; pasture grasses D. vitamin and mineral supplements; all other feed sources
B. Grains and high-starch compounds, grass hays and legumes.
How are the Eastern, Western and Venezuelan viral encephalitis transmitted?
By mosquitoes
Moe, a Labrador retriever, is brought to the hospital with a thoracolumbar disk that has already ruptured, and Moe is having difficulty walking. After talking with the owner, the veterinarian decides to perform ______ to alleviate compression on the spinal cord. A. Intervertebral disk fenestration B. Hemilaminectomy C. Ankylosis D. Traction and reduction
B. Hemilaminectomy
Which of the following species, when is estrus, exhibits frequent urination, a raised tail, decreased kicking, a forward ear position, and leaning toward the male? A. Pig B. Horse C. Sheep or goat D. Alpaca or llama
B. Horse
In a cat, increased appetite with concurrent weight loss is a sign of: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hyperthyroidism C. Renal failure D. Neoplasia
B. Hyperthyroidism
An echogram of your patient, a cat, shows and increased thickness of the left ventricle wall and a small ventricular lumen, which confirms a diagnosis of: A. dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM) B. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) C. aortic thromboembolism (ATE) D. degenerative atrioventricular valve disease
B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Addison's disease, or ________, primarily affects dogs and is characterized by ________. A. hyperadrenocorticism; elevated circulating levels of cortisol (hypercortisolemia) produced by adrenal cortex B. hypoadrenocorticism, inadequate secretion of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids, primarily cortisol and aldosterone C. diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA); the presence of ketones in the urine D. hypothyroidism; an underactive thyroid, resulting in subnormal circulating levels of the thyroid hormones, which causes a subsequent decrease in the metabolic rate
B. Hypoadrenocorticism, inadequate secretion of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids, primarily cortisol and aldosterone.
Nacho, a dog, is exhibiting dyspnea. The mucous membranes show sign of pallor. The Veterinarian diagnoses this as _______, or deficient oxygenation of the tissues. A. hypoxemia B. hypoxia C. dyspnea D. hemoptysis
B. Hypoxia
You discover advanced infection in a cow with an infected claw. Claw amputation will be performed using: A. General anesthesia B. IV retrograde analgesia C. No anesthesia or analgesia D. A low epidural
B. IV retrograde analgesia
The majority of colic surgeries are performed with the horse: A. In the sternal recumbent position. B. In the dorsal recumbent position. C. In the lateral recumbent position. D. Standing (flank incision).
B. In the dorsal recumbent position.
When visiting a swine operation, you see the farmer brushing the nursing sows' teats with a solution. What is the solution? A. an antiseptic B. iron C. calcium D. glucose
B. Iron
Proteins conjugated with fats are called: A. amino acids B. lipoproteins C. glycoproteins D. enzymes
B. Lipoproteins
What is a characteristic of the hair of a horse who is exhibiting hirsutism? A. Excessively shiny B. Long and wavy C. Shedding completely in the spring D. All of the above
B. Long and wavy
Cachexia is the term used to describe: A. anorexia in animals B. loss of lean body mass C. tissue synthesis D. immunodeficiency in mammals
B. Loss of lean body mass
It is your first day of work, and you are checking on a hospitalized patient. You see the phrase "Monitor for strangulation" in the medical report. Strangulation refers to: A. A large umbilical hernia B. Loss of the intestinal blood supply with devitalization and possible intestinal perforation, which is seen in conjunction with some hernias. C. Ileus D. Intussusception
B. Loss of the intestinal blood supply with devitalization and possible intestinal perforation, which is seen in conjunction with some hernias.
Cerebrospinal (CSF) fluid from a horse is collected at the: A. atlantooccipital space B. lumbosacral space C. cervical thoracic junction D. sacrococcygeal junction
B. Lumbosacral space.
You teach a puppy's owner to use a body condition score chart to: A. assess musculoskeletal strength and development in the premature or "runt" animal B. monitor whether the puppy is getting the right amount of food to supply sufficient energy each day C. assess cardiovascular and pulmonary conditioning in newborns through week 8 D. monitor reflexes and other neurologic reaction times in puppies suspected of having developmental abnormalities
B. Monitor whether the puppy is getting the right amount of food to supply sufficient energy each day.
Eastern, Western, and Venezuelan viral encephalitis (EVE, WVE, VVE) are transmitted to horses by: A. ticks B. mosquitoes C. inhaling the organism when it is coughed or sneezed out by an infected horse D. the ingestion of moldy feed
B. Mosquitoes
Your patient has green-yellow nasal discharge, which you record, describing it as: A. serous B. mucopurulent C. mucoid D. hemorrhagic
B. Mucopurulent
The term holistic on a pet food label means: A. that the food considers the whole animals B. nothing C. the same thing as organic D. it contains only natural, raw ingredients
B. Nothing
Estrus detection in ewes is accomplished by: A. vaginal cytology B. observing the vulva and urination patterns C. abdominal palpation D. ultrasound
B. Observing the vulva and urination patterns.
What is not considered part of a safe and effective weight-loss program for dogs and cats? A. a weight-loss goal of 1% to 2% of the body weight per week B. offering "reduced calorie" or "light" products until the weight loss goal has been reached, then resuming regular diet C. a diet with higher amounts of crude protein, amino acids, and essential fatty acids than most maintenance diets D. Using a body-condition score chart to monitor the animal's weight on a regular basis
B. Offering "reduced calorie" or "light" products until the weight loss goal has been reached, then resuming regular diet.
Which viral disease of dogs is resilient in the environment, is easily spread by dogs and owners' shoes, and is not easily killed by common disinfectants? A. Distemper B. Parvovirus C. Parainfluenza D. Lyme disease
B. Parvovirus
A good holistic diet for herbivores is based on: A. raw meat with minimal additions B. pasture on a soil with balanced minerals supplemented with hay and grains C. a vegetarian or vegan philosophy D. cooked bones for proper dental health
B. Pasture on a soil with balanced minerals supplemented with hay and grains.
_______ make(s) up the supporting structures of the teeth. A. Enamel B. Periodontium C. Cementum D. Endodontics
B. Periodontium
When bandaging, casting, or splinting a fracture in a horse, you need to make sure that what occurs? A. Place the bandage, cast, or splint at least one joint below the injury. B. Place the bandage, cast, or splint at least one joint above the injury. C. Place the bandage, cast, or splint only at the site of the injury. D. Place the bandage, cast, or splint on the other leg to support it.
B. Place the bandage, cast, or splint at least one joint above the injury.
For most orthopedic surgeries, ______ should be placed in the operating room in addition to the standard surgery supplies. A. A 30-foot nylon rope B. Radiographs of the affected limb C. An emasculator D. A colic pack in case the horse develops colic during surgery
B. Radiographs of the affected limb
In the horse, the term floating teeth refers to: A. routine dental cleaning and polishing under anesthesia B. rasping down sharp point on the teeth C. filling and emptying the mouth repeatedly with warm water before a dental cleaning D. a collection of extracted teeth in a bucket of water
B. Rasping down sharp points on the teeth.
Perineal surgery is performed in mares with: A. Laminitis B. Rectovaginal tears. C. Colic D. Retained placentas
B. Rectovaginal tears.
When a large section of intestine has become necrotic, it is necessary to perform ______ and ______. A. Intussesception; anastomosis B. Resection; anastomosis C. Resection; intussusception D. Intussusception; resection
B. Resection; anastomosis
The most important factor in euthanasia of large animals is: A. Which drugs will be used B. Safety C. The age of the animal D. The weight of the animal
B. Safety
Major fractures of long bones are best repaired with: A. A Robert Jones bandage B. Screws and bone plates C. Screws only D. A cast and stall rest
B. Screws and bone plates
What hernia type requires immediate examination by a veterinarian? A. Umbilical hernia in a foal in which the contents can be pushed back into the abdomen by the owner. B. Scrotal hernia in an adult stallion. C. Inguinal hernia in a foal in which the contents can be pushed back into the abdomen by the owner. D. A small hernia in a 1-day old foal.
B. Scrotal hernia in an adult stallion.
Fescue toxicosis is a nutritional disease that can involve lamenss, tail-tip necrosis, abortion, and/or decreased milk production. This disease affects: A. horses B. sheep C. pigs D. both B and C
B. Sheep
A patient has a oral inflammation that extends beyond the mucogingival junction. Based on this fact, the veterinarian will most likely explain to the client that the animal has: A. Anisognathism B. Stomatitis C. Caries D. Malocculsion
B. Stomatitis
Which disease is caused by Streptococcus equi equi? A. Rhinopneumonitis B. Strangles C. Guttural pouch mycosis D. Second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block
B. Strangles
Herbs used to support the general health of the patient are known as: A. tapotement B. tonification C. effleurage D. extraction
B. Tonification
Both a goat and a sheep are scheduled for surgery. Which of the following presurgical injections will each animal be given? A. NSAIDs B. Tetanus toxoid or antitoxin C. Ceftiofur D. An anticonvulsant
B. Tetanus toxoid or antitoxin
At the time of castration, horn bud removal. dehorning, and/or tail docking, _______ antitoxin should be administered to the offspring of ewes and does that were not vaccinated against clostridial diseases during pregnancy. A. bluetongue B. tetanus C. white muscle disease D. rabies
B. Tetanus.
Which of the following statements about rabies is most accurate? A. Rabies virus is transmitted by casual contact between affected and unaffected animals. B. The disease is characterized by altered behavior, possible aggression, progressive paralysis, and in most species, death. C. Rabies commonly affects large animal species, such as hogs and cattle. D. Rabies is caused by a gram-negative bacteria.
B. The disease is characterized by altered behavior, possible aggression, progressive paralysis, and in most species, death.
The veterinary technician must use caution when handling mares immediately after caudal epidural anesthesia because: A. A common side effect is seizures B. The mare's rear legs are uncoordinated C. A common side effect is aggression D. The mare cannot feel anything from the umbilicus back
B. The mare's rear legs are uncoordinated
Before performing a chiropractic manipulation, which of the following is not true? A. The veterinarian must observe posture and gait before determining whether chiropractic adjustment is an appropriate therapy for the patient at this time. B. The veterinarian must always ensure that a thorough "Western" medical work-up has been done before chiropractic treatment. C. The veterinarian technician must behave calmly and comfortably when restraining an animal to help the animal relax. D. All of the above are true.
B. The veterinarian must always ensure that a thorough "Western" medical work-up has been done before chiropractic treatment.
When removing horn buds with a dehorning iron, what is one serious side effect of leaving the iron on too long? A. Abscess formation B. Thermal meningitis C. Optic neuritis D. Facial paralysis
B. Thermal meningitis
A dog exposed to ______ is a patient that should be considered for OspA (Borrelia burgdorferi lipoprotein) vaccination. A. mosquitos B. ticks C. fleas D. lice
B. Ticks.
The most common late postoperative complication of ________ is stricture, generally manifested as stranguria. A. Ovariohysterectomy B. Urethrostomy C. Anastomosis D. Onychectomy
B. Urethrostomy
What preparatory actions are often taken before vaginal examination of the mare? A. Perform a surgical scrub and wrap the tail B. Wrap the tail and wash the perineal area C. Perform a surgical scrub and place hobbles on the mare's hind legs D. Clip the perineal area and clean it three times with water
B. Wrap the tail and wash the perineal area.
During a routine physical examination of a critical dog, you note putting edema on all four limbs. What is the best laboratory test to assess this patient?
BUN
Iron deficiency
Baby Pig Thumps
When the client will be present for the euthanasia, it is best to place an intravenous (IV) catheter. The best placement would be in the:
Back Leg
Struvite crystals in dogs are associated with________.
Bacteria infections
Why does colic cause an immense amount of pain in horses?
Because they cannot vomit to relieve the gastric pressure
During surgery, how is it most appropriate to use a moist lap pad?
Between a self-retaining retractor's blades and the patient's tissue
Increased serum _____ is a normal physiologic response in the fasted horse.
Bilirubin
How are tablets usually administered to horses in the clinical setting?
By crushing the tablets, mixing the powder with a sweet substance such as molasses, adding water, and administering the mixture orally with water. By crushing the tablets and mixing the powder with the horse's feed
The primary defense mechanism of swine is:
Biting
Clostridium chauvoei
Black leg
How can you tell the difference between a vein and an artery?
Blood flow. Veins are slow oozing while arteries pulsates blood
Your patient is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) when his tests reveal:
Both: Serum elevations of the protein metabolites creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN). & Serial documentation of azotemia with a concurrent inadequate urine specific gravity.
You see a coworker apply a wooden block to an unaffected dewclaw on a horse. What might be the reason?
Both: The coworker wants to protect a postsurgical area by raising it higher off the ground. & The coworker is trying to alleviate weight bearing on an adjacent claw.
In acute laminitis in the horse, digital pulses are:
Bounding
Which of the following is a normal finding when using a2-agonists?
Bradycardia
Profound depression, head pressing, incoordination, aimless wandering, and seizures are indications of which disease?
Brain disease
After performing CPCR on a dog, the animal develops opisthotonus with rigidity in all four limbs. Where is the lesion, and what is the prognosis?
Brainstem; grave
Which foodstuff has a laxative-like effect useful for constipated or recumbent horses?
Bran mash (wheat bran plus warm water) Fresh grass
Which food stuff can act like a laxative for constipated horses?
Bran mash and fresh grass
All of the following are treatments for equine pleuropneumonia except:
Bronchial suction
what is the term used for a female horse used primarily for breeding?
Broodmare
All of the following are accept home care techiniques except:
Brushing teeth using the modified Lance technique.
How can you administer tablets to horses in a clinical setting?
By crushing the tablets and mixing the powder with a sweet substance or the horse's feed
How should you treat the sharp edges that develop on the teeth of horses (enamel "points")?
By filing or "floating" the sharp edges
The operation performed on some mares' vulvas to prevent air and feces from entering the vagina is known as the
Caslick operation
You are sending two patients home from the hospital today. One had routine sterilization, and the other had a large benign tumor removed from the throat. Both animals will require _____ days of restricted activity. A. 5 to 7 B. approximately 21 C. 10 to 14 D. 30 to 35
C. 10 to 14
The placenta in a bovine patient is considered retained if not expelled by _______ hours. A. 2 B. 6 C. 12 D. 24
C. 12
When using an intraperitoneal injection of euthanasia solution, death may take as long as _______ minutes to occur. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20
C. 15
The number of people in the over-60-year age group has increased to greater than _______ of the population. A. 33% B. 24% C. 16% D. 8%
C. 16%
In the queen, abdominal palpation can be used to diagnose pregnancy on days ____ following breeding and by ultrasound on days _____ plus following breeding. A. 7 to 15; 10 B. 7 to 15; 14 C. 18 to 32; 15 D. 20 to 25; 20
C. 18 to 32; 15
Using the modified Triadan numbering system, what number would be assigned to the left maxillary third incisor? A. 103 B. 301 C. 203 D. 303
C. 203
Sows in production are generally allowed to nurse their litters for _______ days. A. 7 to 14 B. 14 to 21 C. 21 to 35 D. 35 to 42
C. 21 to 35
Tail docking and dewclaw removal in a puppy should occur between days: A. 10 and 14 B. 7 and 10 C. 3 and 5 D. 15 and 20
C. 3 and 5
Preparation of the bovine patient that will be going under general anesthesia should include the removal of food _____ hours before anesthesia. A. 12 to 24 B. 24 to 36 C. 36 to 48 D. 48 to 72
C. 36 to 48
Part of your responsibilities in animal hospice care is to prevent decubital ulcers by encouraging each animal to stand and walk at least every ______ hours. A. 1 to 2 B. 3 to 4 C. 4 to 6 D. 6 to 8
C. 4 to 6
Two horses belonging to the same owner have the same infectious disease. You are in charge of seeing that they are monitored every ______ hours. A. 1 to 2 B. 24 C. 4 to 6 D. 12
C. 4 to 6
The number of clients who change veterinarians after a pet has died is about: A. 20% B. 30% C. 40% D. 50%
C. 40%
Management of aged horses include having teeth floated every ______ months. A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
C. 6
The position of a recumbent horse should be changed every _____ hours to help prevent the formation of decubital ulcers. A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
C. 6
Most dental radiology machines operate at _______ kVp. A. 40 or 50 B. 50 or 100 C. 60 or 70 D. 80 or 100
C. 60 or 70
Squamous cell carcinoma accounts for approximately ______ of oral tumors in cats. A. 30% B. 50% C. 70% D. 85%
C. 70%
What condition in the postoperative orthopedic patient wearing a limb bandage or cast should be brought to the attention of the veterinarian immediately? A. A loose bandage B. A wet bandage C. A dramatic change in the horse's use of the limb D. All of the above
C. A dramatic change in the horse's use of the limb
You are monitoring a cat who is recovering from a spay procedure. Unfortunately, the veterinarian suspects that this patient is hemorrhaging from the surgery site. Which procedure may be needed at this point? A. Serum chemistry profile B. Complete blood count with differential C. Abdominocentesis D. Laparoscopy
C. Abdominocentesis
Which of the following is not a chronic problem in aging horses? A. Chronic sinus infections and missing teeth B. Mitral or aortic regurgitation C. Absence of a heave line D. All of the above
C. Absence of a heave line
Extirpation refers to removal of: A. The lacrimal gland B. The globe C. All of the contents of the bony orbit D. Ocular masses with cautery
C. All of the contents of the bony orbit
Which instrument can be either universal or area specific depending on the angulation of the face of the blade? A. Scaler B. Ultrasonic scaler C. Curet D. Periodontal probe
C. Curet
In the infection process, a reservoir refers to: A. transmission of infection by direct contact with skin, secretions, excretions, or mucous membranes of an infected animal B. a pathogen's mode of transmission C. an animal, insect, or fomite in or on which a pathogen can survive D. the portal of entry by which the pathogen gains entry into a new host
C. An animal, insect, or fomite in or on which a pathogen can survive.
A surgeon removes a devitalized section of intestine and then performs a(n): A. Ovariohysterectomy B. Urethrostomy C. Anastomosis D. Onychectomy
C. Anastomosis
The stages of the canine reproductive cycle, in the correct order of occurrence, are: A. anestrus, estrus, proestrus, diestrus B. proestrus, anestrus, estrus, diestrus C. anestrus, proestrus, estrus, diestrus D. diestrus, estrus, proestrus, anestrus
C. Anestrus, Proestrus, Estrus, Diestrus.
When evaluating semen in the laboratory, it is important to have all equipment: A. cooled to freezer temperature B. cooled to refrigerator temperature C. at body temperature D. hot to the touch
C. At body temperature.
When the client will be present for the euthanasia, it is best to place an intravenous (IV) catheter. The best placement would be in the: A. Neck B. Back of the head C. Back leg D. Rump
C. Back leg
Increased serum _______ is a normal physiologic response in the fasted horse. A. sorbitol dehydrogenase B. creatine phosphokinase C. bilirubin D. gamma-glutamyl transferase
C. Bilirubin
In acute laminitis in the horse, digital pulses are: A. Absent B. Palpable C. Bounding D. Slowed
C. Bounding
Chemotherapeutic drugs: A. can help patients avoid the bone marrow suppression side effect seen with radiation therapy B. target primarily slowly proliferating cells C. cannot differentiate between cancer cells and normal cells that have high proliferation rates, such as cells of bone marrow, GI tract, or hair follicles D. have certain safe levels of occupational exposure, unlike radiation
C. Cannot differentiate between cancer cells and normal cells that have high proliferation rates, such as cells of bone marrow, GI tract, or hair follicles.
The operation performed on some mares' vulvas to prevent air and feces from entering the vagina is known as the: A. Modified Whitehouse technique. B. Perineal-vulvar (PV) operation. C. Caslick operation. D. Postbreeding procedure.
C. Caslick operation.
Which incision can be made at the ventral midline, paracostal plane, parapreputial plane, or flank? A. Gastrotomy B. Enterotomy C. Celiotomy D. Anastomosis
C. Celiotomy
Gagging and excessive salivation are most often indications of: A. heaves B. strangles C. choke D. Potomac horse fever
C. Choke
Pregnant ewes and does should be vaccinated against_______. A. Clostridium tetani and Campylobacter jejuni type B B. Chlamydia psittaci C. Clostridium perfringens types C and D and Clostridium tetani D. Campylobacter jejuni types A and B
C. Clostridium perfringens types C and D and Clostridium tetani.
You notice a family of neonatal piglets establishing teat order. Naturally, the _______ mammary glands are most sought after. A. caudal B. middle C. cranial D. nearest random
C. Cranial
If a client experiences ______ is response to intense grief, it can prevent them from function normally. A. Resolution B. Anger C. Depression D. Bargaining
C. Depression
What is the difference between digestible energy and metabolizable energy? A. the term digestible energy apples to the energy available in grains, whereas the term metabolizable energy applies to the energy available in hays B. Digestible energy is the total energy potentially available in a feed consumed by an animal, whereas metabolizable energy is the energy available after all metabolic-process energy has been subtracted C. Digestible every is the gross energy consumed minus the undigested energy lost in the feces, whereas metabolizable energy is the digestible energy minus the energy lost in the urine and as combustion gases D. DIgestible energy is calculated using the known contents of total digestible nutrients, whereas metabolizable energy is measured in the animal
C. Digestible energy is the gross energy consumed minus the undigested energy lost in the feces, whereas metabolizable energy is the digestible energy minus the energy lost in the urine and as combustion gases.
Sigh hound breeds have what head type? A. Brachycephalic B. Mesocephalic C. Dolichocephalic D. Psyocephalic
C. Dolichocephalic
Ketosis in dairy cows may result from a primary deficiency of ______ intake or may be secondary to other diseases that cause ______. A. water; dehydration B. calcium; hypocalcemia C. energy; anorexia D. selenium; neurologic signs
C. Energy; anorexia
Your new job is in an animal health research center that specializes in _____, which is the study of the causation or origins of diseases. A. pathogenesis B. pathology C. etiology D. histopathology
C. Etiology
The overall process for disease may be summarized in which way? A. Etiology -> clinical signs -> pathogenesis -> lesions B. pathogenesis -> etiology -> clinical signs -> lesions C. Etiology -> pathogenesis -> lesions -> clinical signs D. clinical signs -> lesions -> etiology -> pathogenesis
C. Etiology--> Pathogenesis--> Lesions--> Clinical Signs.
"Creep feed" is: A. feed ground to a particle size smaller than 0.5 mm in diameter B. feed to which a vitamin supplement has been added C. feed given to foals after 2 months of age D. fed only on Halloween
C. Feed given to foals after 2 months of age.
What does not predispose small ruminants to enterotoxemia? A. feeding bread or other bakery goods to goats B. sudden, accidental exposure to grain C. feeding carrots D. feeding bran/molasses mash to recently fresh does
C. Feeding carrots.
For which of the following feline diseases does vaccination usually reduce clinical signs of disease but does not always completely prevent the disease? A. Feline panleukopenia B. Feline infectious peritonitis C. Feline rhinotracheitis D. Feline leukemia
C. Feline rhinotracheitis.
Guttural pouch mycosis is caused by a: A. virus B. bacteria C. fungus D. prion
C. Fungus
In the canine female, Vaginal cultures are best performed with a: A. sterile culture swab B. sterile, microsized culture swab C. guarded, sterile culture swab D. nonsterile swab, the tip of which is then placed in a new red-top Vacutainer tube
C. Guarded, sterile culture swab.
Two examples of providing therapeutic enteral nutrition are _______, whereas therapeutic parenteral nutrition is ________. A. syringe feeding and administering nutrition intravenously; hand-feeding B. syringe feeding and hand-feeding; force-feeding C. hand-feeding or feeding through nasogastric tubes; administered intravenously, typically through a central venous catheter D. force-feeding or syringe feeding; administered intravenously , typically through a peripheral vein
C. Hand-feeding or feeding through nasogastric tubes; administered intravenously, typically through a central venous catheter.
Young horses and performance horses are at high risk of contracting ______ and should be vaccinated every 3 to 4 months. A. equine viral arteritis and Potomac horse fever B. botulism and strangles C. herpesvirus infection D. tetanus
C. Herpesvirus infection.
A small dog is brought into the clinic by his owner because he is exhibiting ______, a symptom identified as stridor. A. loud snorting sounds B. excessive, continual sneezing C. high-pitched inspiratory wheezing D. loud snoring with apnea
C. High-pitched inspiratory wheezing.
Biosecurity is practiced more strictly with which of the following species than any other agricultural species? A. Goats B. Horses C. Hogs D. Sheep
C. Hogs
Which of the following theories was postulated after observing that animals under acupuncture analgesia can transfer the analgesia through their blood or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to other animals? A. Gate theory B. Bioelectic theory C. Humoral theory D. Endogenous opioid theory
C. Humoral theory
Placement of an identity chip is recommended for a cat that has been vaccinated against feline _______ because antibody testing cannot distinguish between antibodies produced during vaccination or as a response to natural infection. A. leukemia B. panelukopenia C. immunodeficiency virus D. viral rhinotracheitis
C. Immunodeficiency virus
The operation performed on some mares' vulvas to prevent air and feces from entering the vagina is known as the
Caslick operation.
Which of the following statements regarding the podiatry of a dog is true? A. The dog toenail is a weight-bearing structure that, if kept long, can help support a dog's posture. B. As a rule of thumb, you should not be able to slide anything under the dog toenail when the dog is standing on a hard, smooth surface. C. It is not painful to the dog to grind back the toenail until the nub of the quick is uncovered. D. When doing a "corrective" toenail trim, start with the side of the nail and end with the tip.
C. It is not painful to the dog to grind back the toenail until the nub of the quick is uncovered.
In the neonatal camelid, chronic diarrhea may lead to failure of which organ? A. heart B. liver C. kidney D. spleen
C. Kidney
Even if lambs survive an acute hemolytic crisis of copper toxicity, there is often significant irreversible damage to the _____ due to _____. A. liver; hemolysis B. heart; hemoglobinemia C. kidneys; hemoglobinuria D. brain; myoglobinemia
C. Kidneys; hemoglobinuria.
_______ are the standard units of measurement for energy. A. Calories B. Kilojoules C. Kilocalories D. Joules
C. Kilocalories
The anatomic landmarks used when performing distal paravertebral anesthesia are the transverse processes of: A. T13, L1, and L2 B. L2, L3, and L4 C. L1, L2, and L4 D. L1, L2, and L3
C. L1, L2, and L4
Concerning feeding lambs, which of the following statements is most accurate? A. Hand-raised lambs are weaned from milk replacement formula at 8 weeks of age. B. Lambs can be fed a relatively low-quality feed once they reach a weight of 10 kg. C. Large, fast-growing lambs fed high-grain rations are particularly susceptible to a bacterial "overeating disease" (enterotoxemia) that can cause death. D. "Grower" rations are for lambs weighing 15 to 25 kg (30 to 50 lb), and "finisher" rations are for those weighing 25 to 40 kg (50 to 85 lb).
C. Large, fast-growing lambs fed high-grain rations are particularly susceptible to a bacterial "overeating disease" (enterotoxemia) that can cause death.
Current recommendations are that adult spayed and neutered cats should be: A. allowed to self-regulate food intake as they would in the wild B. fed three meals a day, just like humans C. meal-fed twice a day D. should be given dry food in a bowl, and the bowl should be refilled whenever it is empty
C. Meal-fed twice a day.
The principal cause of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis (inflamed cornea and conjunctiva): A. bovine rotavirus B. IBR C. Moraxella bovis infection D. BRSV
C. Moraxella bovis infection.
The application of electrical current to elicit a muscle contraction, or _______, is used for muscle strengthening and reducing muscle atrophy. A. cryotherapy B. ultrasound C. NMES D. low-light laser
C. NMES
Which of the following is a common concern in geriatric patients? A. Respiratory disease B. Cardiac disorder C. Neoplasia D. Incontinence
C. Neoplasia
In Cushing disease, elevated glucocorticoid levels inhibit _______ function and diminish their ability to adequately protect against infection, primarily of the skin and urinary tract. A. Adrenalin B. Cortisol C. Neutrophil D. Insulin
C. Neutrophil
The most common nutritional disease of pot-bellied pigs is: A. anorexia B. malnourishment C. obesity D. stunted growth
C. Obesity
What disease is frequently treated with arthroscopy? A. Subsolar (foot) abscesses B. Rhabdomyolysis (tying up) C. Osteochondrosis (cartilage abnormalities in young, growing horses). D. Laminitis
C. Osteochondrosis (cartilage abnormalities in young, growing horses).
Septic arthritis in calves may be treated with: A. Decreasing the amount of grain in the diet B. Surgical debridement C. Polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) beads implanted subcutaneously near the infected joints. D. All of the above
C. Polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) beads implanted subcutaneously near the infected joints.
Yogurt supplements a diet with _______ to help balance the gastrointestinal (GI) system. A. Protein B. Fat C. Probiotics D. Calcium
C. Probiotics
An accumulation of purulent secretions and fluid within the lining of the uterus is termed: A. Metritis B. Endometriosis C. Pyometra D. Pyoderma
C. Pyometra
A client wishing to know the number of pups in utero should be told to make an appointment for _______ at least _______ plus days after breeding. A. ultrasound; 20 B. radiography; 30 C. radiography; 43 D. ultrasound; 50
C. Radiography; 43
An allergic disease associated with ariway inflammation, bronchoconstrictions, and excessive mucous production is: A. herpes B. viral arteritis C. recurrent airway obstruction D. influenza
C. Recurrent airway obstruction
In homeopathy, extremely diluted herbs are called: A. tonifications B. detoxifiers C. remedies D. dilutions
C. Remedies.
If a sick animal refuses to eat voluntarily, you should: A. feed by syringe, which ensures smaller food blouses at one time B. force-feed for the first 48 hours only, to build up strength; then taper off C. remove food after 15 to 30 minutes and try later, possibly with hand feeding D. leave food out and available at all times so the animal can eat on an as-desired basis
C. Remove the food after 15 to 30 minutes and try later, possibly with hand feeding.
In horses, a deciduous premolar that fails to fall out is called a: A. wolf tooth B. bridle tooth C. retained cap D. bishop
C. Retained cap.
Calves dehorned after 6 months of age are at risk of developing: A. Hemorrhage B. Seromas C. Sinusitis D. Behavior disorders
C. Sinusitis
Complete semen analysis involves examining what three characteristics? A. pH, sperm motility, and concentration B. color, pH, and volume C. sperm motility, concentration, and morphology D. color, pH, and specific gravity
C. Sperm motility, concentration, and morphology.
The effects of using the north pole of a magnet include: A. increased vasodilation B. stimulation of cell multiplication C. stimulation of bone healing D. increased inflammation
C. Stimulation of bone healing
_______ is caused by serum seeping through a bandage and into the external environment. A. Cellulitis B. Seroma C. Strike-through D. Wicking
C. Strike-through
The most common reason a pet owner decides to have a pet euthanized is: A. Cost B. Lack of a support group C. Suffering of the animal D. Convenience
C. Suffering of the animal
Signs of discomfort in horses receiving massage include: A. hanging the head B. sighing C. swishing the tail D. yawning
C. Swishing the tail.
The loss of a pet for many owners is made worse bu which of the following? A. The owner has only one support person B. There are children in the family C. The pet is grieved solely by the owner D. The animal was a working animal
C. The pet is grieved solely by the owner
Camelids have a _______-compartment stomach. A. one B. two C. three D. four
C. Three
What is the primary route of infection of caprine arthritis-encephalitis? A. through wounds or breaks in the skin B. through fecal-oral transmission C. through infected colostrum or milk of an infected dam D. via aerosolization
C. Through infected colostrum or milk of an infected dam.
Why is it extremely important to exercise caution when using balling guns, dose syringes, and stomach tubes in cattle? A. to prevent the development of traumatic reticuloperitonitis B. to prevent the development of infectious bovine rhinotracheitis C. to prevent the development of pharyngeal cellulitis, abscess, or hematoma D. to prevent the development of bovine respiratory syncytial virus
C. To prevent the development of pharyngeal cellulitis, abscess, or hematoma
Temporary tender areas that can move on and off of acupuncture meridians are known as _______ points. A. channel B. cranial-sacral C. trigger D. miasmic
C. Trigger
Which test is essential for the evaluation of primary renal disease? A. CBC B. WBC C. Urinalysis D. Serum chemistry panel
C. Urinalysis
If a bandage is too tight, it can result in ______ compromise and skin ______. A. Suture; shrinkage B. Vascular; shrinkage C. Vascular; death D. Suture; death
C. Vascular; death
Postoperative incision infections and cellulitis can both be treated with: A. Aspiration B. Drainage C. Warm compresses and systemic antibiotics. D. Bandaging
C. Warm compresses and systemic antibiotics.
Vitamins C and E are _______, respectively. A. fat soluble and water soluble B. fat soluble and antioxidant C. water soluble and fat soluble D. antioxidant and fat soluble
C. Water soluble and fat soluble.
Which nutritional myodegenerative disease may be caused by a deficiency of gestational vitamin E and/or selenium? A. Caprine arthritis-encephalitis B. Johne disease C. White muscle disease D. Caseous lymphadenitis
C. White muscle disease
When should a mare be inseminated with frozen semen? A. within 2 hours of thawing B. within 6 hours of thawing C. within 12 hours of thawing D. within 24 hours of thawing
C. Within 12 hours of thawing.
A patient is diagnosed with ______, which is a deviation of the incisive bone, maxilla, and nasal septum laterally from the midline. A. Nasal misalignment B. Vomer misalignment C. Wry nose D. TMJ
C. Wry nose
Which diagnostic test may be used to obtain a somatic cell count (SCC) of milk?
California Mastitis Test
You are treating a dog who is suffering malabsorption, eating constantly yet losing weight. He has chronic diarrhea that is pale, fatty, and voluminous. He is diagnosed with EPI, which is caused by: A. caused by complications of advanced diabetes mellitus (DM) B. characterized by painful straining at urination of defecation C. caused by insufficient production and secretion of pancreatic digestive enzymes D. characterized by an accumulation of lipids or fats in cytoplasm of more than 80% of the hepatocytes
C. caused by insufficient production and secretion of pancreatic digestive enzymes.
The operation performed on some mares' vulvas to prevent air and feces from enetering the vagina is known as
Caslick's operation
The ampulla is: A. the hole left on a follicle after the oocyte release B. an accessory sex gland in the male C. part of the oviduct D. both B and C
C. part of the oviduct.
Tetanus (causative agent and clinical signs)
C: bacterium clostridium tetani C.S: stiffness "sawhorse"
Potomac Horse Fever (Causative agent and clinical signs)
C: bacterum Neorickettsia risticii C.S: depression, diarrhea, fever, toxemia, abortion, sometimes laminitis *vaccine available
Thrush (causative agent and clinical signs)
C: fusobucterium necrophorual C.S: hoof soreness and degeneration, black discharge and distinguishing odor
WHICH CONDITION IS MORE PRONE TO FLUID OVERLOAD?
CARDIAC INSUFFICIENCY
COMPARE AND CONTRAST THE "CARDIAC PUMP" AND THE "THORACIC PUMP" METHODS OF CARDIAC COMPRESSIONS USED DURING CPR.
CARDIAC PUMP: IN SMALL ANIMALS AND THOSE WITH A NARROW CHEST CONFORMATION, CHEST COMPRESSIONS & DIRECT CARDIAC MASSAGE APPLY FORCES TO THE HEART THAT MIMIC THE NORMAL HEART MECHANICS THORACIC PUMP: IN LRG ANIMALS AND THOSE THAT HAVE BARREL CHESTS, THE CHANGES IN CHEST CONFORMATION LIMIT THE DIRECT EFFECT OF CHEST COMPRESSIONS ON THE HEART. IN THESE CASES, INCREASED INTRATHORACIC PRESSURE RESULTS IN FORWARD BLOOD FLOW FROM THE HEART, WHICH SERVES AS A PASSIVE BLOOD RESERVOIR. (HANDS MUST BE @ WIDEST PART OF CHEST).
WHAT IS THE IDEAL ROUTE AND POINT OF ACCESS OF DRUG ADMINISTRATION WHEN PERFORMING ADVANCED LIFE SUPPORT?
CENTRAL VEIN CATHETER (E.G. JUGULAR VEIN)
A veterinary technician who is new to a clinic is asked to surgically scrub a cat before onychectomy and not to use alcohol during the scrub. Which of the following declawing methods is the surgeon most likely planning to use?
CO2 laser
Which blood anticoagulant/preservative gives you the longest storage potential for transfusion blood?
CPDA-1
What crystal is normally present in large numbers in equine urine?
Calcium carbonate
Which diagnostic test is the best at detecting subclinical mastitis and most commonly used?
California Mastitis Test
Which of the following is a syndrome characterized by weight loss and muscle wasting caused either by a tumor or the side effects of cancer treatments?
Cancer cachexia
Which of the following is a syndrome characterized by weight loss and muscle wasting caused either by a tumor or the side effects of cancer treatments?
Cancer cachexia
_____ provides a means to measure the expired dioxide concentration of expired air, whereas _____ indicates a noninvasive measurement of the hemoglobin-oxygen saturation.
Capnography; pulse oximetry
_____ provides a means to measure the expired dioxide concentration of expired air, whereas _____ indicates a noninvasive measurement of the hemoglobin-oxygen saturation.
Capnography; pulse oximetry
Respiratory rate and adequacy of ventilation may be measured using
Capnometer
A 13-year-old Greater Swiss Mountain dog is recovering in the clinic from gastropexy to treat volvulus. It is most appropriate to check the dog for which of the following conditions for 2 to 3 days after surgery?
Cardiac arrhythmia
Artie, a Pekinese, has begun losing weight and experiences some anorexia. He is frequently suddenly exhausted. Tests indicate that Artie has _____, or disease of the heart muscle.
Cardiomyopathy
Artie, a Pekinese, has begun losing weight and experiences some anorexia. He is frequently suddenly exhausted. Tests indicate that Artie has _____, or disease of the heart muscle
Cardiovascular disease
One of the most common surgeries performed in the horse is
Castration
Cardiogenic Shock
Caused by decreased cardiac output
Obstructive Shock
Caused by impaired venous return to the heart
You are treating a dog who is suffering malabsorption, eating constantly yet losing weight. He has chronic diarrhea that is pale, fatty, and voluminous. He is diagnosed with EPI, which is:
Caused by insufficient production and secretion of pancreatic digestive enzymes
Septic Shock
Caused by severe infection
Stunning:
Causes the animal to lose consciousness
Patients that need multiple blood samples taken over a period of time, or that need multiple medications given by constant rate infusion, should have a ______________catheter placed.
Central Line
The neonatal period in puppies and kittens is defined as the period:
Characterized by complete dependency on the bitch or queen for survival for nutrition, warmth, and care
After intubation what must be done before inflating the cuff to its proper level
Check that the tube is properly placed and close the pop off valve
Internal oral examination includes everything except:
Checking the ears
Chlamydophilosis
Chlamydia psittaci
Which of the following can be used as a surgical scrub on a patient
Chlorhexidine scrub
Gagging and excessive salivation are most often indications of:
Choke
Removal of the offending allergens(usually hay or straw) from the horses environment will help horse's diagnosed with what disease?
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
What does the term CUPS refer to?
Chronic ulcerative paradental stomatitis
Aging, smaller-breed dogs are more likely to develop ______ than either larger-breed dogs or aging cats
Chronic valvular disease
The most important need of the newborn piglet immediately after birth is:
Clear airway
A horse requires orthopedic surgery. How is the limb prepared for surgery?
Clip the hair and perform an aseptic surgical scrub
A woman brings to a veterinary clinic a mixed-breed Terrier dog that she found lying by the side of the road. Physical examination shows a fracture of the right radius. Diagnostic studies show the radius is broken in three places, but the surgeon believes the bone pieces can be aligned with fixation. Which of the following types of bone fracture is this?
Comminuted reducible
The most important aspect of the euthanasia is:
Communication.
Which of the following methods of local anesthesia does not provide analgesia for surgery through the flank?
Cornual nerve block
Johne disease is zoonotic and causes which disease in humans?
Crohn's disease
Johne disease is zoonotic and causes which disease in humans?
Crohn's disease.
In ______, a cold source freezes superficial cancers and the treated tissue dies and sloughs away
Cryosurgery
What percent of our companion animals live indoors? A. 20 B. 40 C. 60 D. 80
D. 80
The average onset of puberty is ______ months in the heifer. A. 10 to 12 B. 16 to 18 C. 12 to 14 D. 9 to 11
D. 9 to 11
Cattle cannot kick with both hind legs at the same time T/F
False
Cows have 2 canine teeth T/F
False
Delayed castration completely prevents obstructions of the urethra T/F
False
You notice a family of neonatal piglets establishing teat order. Naturally, the ______ mammary glands are most sought after.
Cranial
The most important treatment for calf scours is:
Correct/prevent dehydration.
Initial emergency treatment of urinary obstruction includes:
Correcting electrolyte abnormalities
Caseous Lymphadenitis
Corynobacterium pseudotuberculosis
The two main categories of fluids based on the size of their solute molecules are ____ and ____
Crystalloids and colloids
This allergic condition causes mane and tail rubbing due to itchiness.
Culicoides spp. hypersensitivity
Which instrument can be either universal or area specific depending on the angulation of the face of the blade?
Curet
Which of the following urine collection techniques is most suitable for bacterial culture?
Cystocentesis
which of the following is a reportable diseas? A) Equine influenza B) rhinopneumonitis C) vesicular stomatitis D) equine infectious anemia
D) equine infectious anemia
Laminitis rarely occurs in horses of less than _______ year(s) of age. A. 7 B. 5 C. 3 D. 1
D. 1
As you monitor your postsurgical patient, you are aware that packed cell volume (PCV) and total protein (TP) values can drop up to ________ due to anesthesia and surgery, even if no blood loss occurs. A. 20% B. 35% C. 15% D. 10%
D. 10%
When sharpening hand instruments, the angle between the stone and the dace should be approximately ______ degrees. A. 45 B. 60 C. 90 D. 110
D. 110
Puppies (except toy breeds and weak animals) begin to eat gruel at approximately _______ weeks. A. 2 to 5 B. 3 to 6 C. 6 to 8 D. 3 to 4
D. 3 to 4
One symptom indicating that the Arabian horse you are examining is in serious pain is in fact that he has a heart rate higher than _____ beats/minute. A. 30 B. 40 C. 50 D. 60
D. 60
Before a patient is ready to be sent home after surgery, the veterinary technician must take responsibility for educating the owner about what is needed for the animal's continued recovery. Which of the follow considerations can help guide the technician in educating the owner at the time of discharge? A. The degree and frequency of care needed and the availability of a caregiver to administer the care B. The best means of communicating the patient's needs, such as a pamphlet, written instructions, computer simulation, etc. C. Expected or possible health events that will follow postsurgery and the plan of action in the event of a related emergency or relapse D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Some common reasons pet owners give for wanting to feed home-cooked diets to their pets include: A. "Charlie doesn't like the taste of any commercial foods I give him." B. "Tip is old and has so many health issues, I really want to personally supervise everything she eats." C. "Making Archie's food is a great way for me to bond with him. I really wouldn't want to give that up for anything." D. All of the above.
D. All of the above
What condition(s) can cause hypoxia? A. Reduced blood flow B. Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity C. Hypoventilation D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Which of the following clinical signs is not likely to be secondary to cardiac disturbances? A. Exercise intolerance B. Fatigue C. Cough D. All of them can be secondary to heart disease.
D. All of them can be secondary to heart disease.
A client caring for a geriatric pet at home asks for guidance in performing bladder expression. You direct the client to place one hand on each side of the patient's abdomen, move the hands caudally and locate the bladder, and then: A. Squeeze gently. B. Slide the palms up and down vertically. C. Palpate in and out, similar to milking a cow. D. Apply gentle pressure directed toward the rear of the patient.
D. Apply gentle pressure directed toward the rear of the patient.
Core vaccines refer to those vaccines that: A. should only be used on animals at risk for disease B. must be given every year C. always prevent the disease D. are necessary to protect the animal from disease
D. Are necessary to protect the animal from disease.
When do pot-bellied pigs usually reach their full size? A. at 1 year of age B. at 8 months of age C. at 12 to 15 months of age D. at 2 to 3 years of age
D. At 2 to 3 years of age.
Which of the following vitamins in water soluble? A. A B. D C. E D. B6
D. B6
Seeking to replace a pet that has died without grieving at all is a form of: A. Anger B. Resolution C. Depression D. Bargaining
D. Bargaining
An animal that is dehydrated before surgery may require a ______ because ______ of the cell volume occurs after rehydration. A. Blood/plasma transfusion; hemoconcentration B. Splenectomy; sequestration C. Splenectomy; hemoconcentration D. Blood/plasma transfusion; dilution
D. Blood/plasma transfusion; dilution
Your patient is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) when his tests reveal: A. Serum elevations of the protein metabolites creatinine and blood urea nitrogen. B. Serial documentation of azotemia with a concurrent inadequate urine specific gravity. C. Neither A nor B. D. Both A and B.
D. Both A and B.
Feeding inadequate forages with little or no grain can create a deficiency of usable _______ during the last trimester of pregnancy in ewes carrying twins or triplets and can lead to ______ and _____ in the mother. A. protein; paralysis; coma B. carbohydrates; abortion; paralysis C. protein; abortion; paralysis D. carbohydrates; paralysis; coma
D. Carbohydrates; paralysis; coma
Ionizing radiation: A. can be used in combination with surgery but not with chemotherapy B. is most effective against tumor cells with slow, steady, uncontrolled rates of proliferation C. produces adverse effects that are divided into early-onset and acute effects D. causes cell death by disrupting the cell's DNA or by destroying important molecules required for normal cell function
D. Causes cell death by disrupting the cell's DNA or by destroying important molecules required for normal cell function.
Aging, smaller-breed dogs are more likely to develop _______ than either larger-breed dogs or aging cats. A. Dilated cardiomyopathy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Congestive heart failure D. Chronic valvular disease
D. Chronic valvular disease
The most important aspect of the euthanasia is: A. Timing B. Who is present C. How ill the patient is D. Communication
D. Communication
In ________, a cold source freezes superficial cancers and the treated tissue dies and sloughs away. A. resection B. radiotherapy C. chemotherapy D. cryosurgery
D. Cryosurgery
Concerning differences in the management of dairy and beef cattle, which of the following statements is MOST accurate? A. The term cow-calf operation applies to the dairy cattle industry only. B. Beef calves are weaned at 1 to 2 months of age C. Dairy calves are weaned at 7 to 8 months of age. D. Dairy calves are generally removed from their dams almost immediately and hand raised, whereas beef calves are allowed to remain with and nurse from their dams for many months.
D. Dairy calves are generally removed from their dams almost immediately and hand raised, whereas beef calves are allowed to remain with and nurse from their dams for many months.
Cryotherapy is used to: A. increase circulation B. increase enzyme activity C. provide warmth D. decrease enzyme activity
D. Decrease enzyme activity
The ______ stage of grief is a normal defense mechanism that buffers humans from unbearable reality. A. Anger B. Depression C. Bargaining D. Denial
D. Denial
When performing a dental occlusion evaluation of a dog or cat, the shape of the skull must be evaluated. A narrow skull and long maxilla are found in ______ breeds. A. Brachycephalic B. Mesocephalic C. Mesaticephalic D. Dolicocephalic
D. Dolicocephalic
In the United States, the _______ is the organization that issues and monitors the use of barbiturates in medical settings. A. American Veterinary Medical Association (AVMA) B. American College of Veterinary Internal Medicine Foundation (ACVIMF) C. The American Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (ASPCA) D. Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)
D. Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)
The ewes of a 50-head sheep operation are having lambing problems, low wool output, and depressed milk production. These problems are most likely due to poor care and inadequate nutrition: A. when the ewes are not pregnant B. during the first trimester of pregnancy C. during the second trimester of pregnancy D. during the third trimester of pregnancy
D. During the third trimester of pregnancy.
All horses in the United State should be vaccinated against: A. tetanus and influenza B. heaves and tetanus C. Eastern and Western encephalitis and strangles D. Eastern and Western equine and West Nile encephalomyelitis
D. Eastern and Western equine and West Nile encephalomyelitis.
The massage stroke that is a gliding movement that follows the contour of the body is called: A. petrissage B. chucking C. friction D. effleurage
D. Effleurage
Although not the most practical measure of energy available, _______ energy is all of the potential energy available in a food or diet. A. metabolizable B. digestible C. net D. gross
D. Gross
Anger is difficult for a grieving owner to work through, but ______ may be the hardest thing for the client to relinquish. A. Blame B. Loss C. Pain D. Guilt
D. Guilt
Which of the following is not a common recommendation for easing patient discomfort associated with degenerative joint disease? A. Administer nutraceuticals to the patient to improve nutrition and control weight. B. Elevate food and water bowls for patients with neck involvement. C. Administer anti-inflammatory medications to the patient; control of inflammation can ease pain significantly. D. Help underweight patient gain weight to improve bone density as this is the most common cause of DJD in aging cats and dogs.
D. Help underweight patient gain weight to improve bone density as this is the most common cause of DJD in aging cats and dogs.
Your patient's fecal sample shows streaks of blood on the outsides of otherwise normally formed stools, a symptom you quickly identify as: A. tenesmus B. hematemesis C. melena D. hematochezia
D. Hematochezia
A patient exhibits _______, which means the patient is coughing up blood--a symptom seen with heartworm disease. A. hypoxemia B. hypoxia C. dyspnea D. hemoptysis
D. Hemoptysis
Which medicinal system is based on the principle that like cures like? A. Traditional Chinese medicine B. Ayurveda C. Allopathy D. Homeopathy
D. Homeopathy
What is not usually part of patient date-gathering phase in the nursing process? A. Gathering the initial medical history from the owner B. Reviewing the medical record for the past history C. Performing a physical examination D. Identifying and prioritizing to generate a technician evaluation
D. Identifying and prioritizing to generate a technician evaluation.
Mesh may be used in the repair of which type of larger hernias? A. Inguinal B. Umbilical C. Scrotal D. Incisional
D. Incisional
Indications of postoperative pain include a(n): A. Decreased heart rate B. Decreased respiratory rate C. Increased appetite D. Increased heart rate
D. Increased heart rate
Which nerve block has the potential to result in unknowing self-trauma to the tongue? A. Maxillary B. Infraorbital C. Middle mental D. Inferior alveolar
D. Inferior alveolar
As you review the nursing care plan for Sparky, a rabbit, the data you encounter will contain: A. the veterinarian's list of orders related to his or her diagnosis B. information about implementation of patient's actual assessment/examination needs C. the SOAP format D. information about interventions specific to your own evaluation of Sparky
D. Information about interventions specific to your own evaluation of Sparky.
Treatment for galactostasis: A. is indicated during the first 1 to 3 weeks of the postpartum period B. focuses on treating the inflammation and massaging the affected mammary gland C. involves a decrease in milk production, coupled with cold compresses to reduce ever D. is begun during weaning and focuses on decreasing milk production and inflammation, using warm compresses
D. Is begun during weaning and focuses on decreasing milk production and inflammation, using warm compresses.
Medicated pet food: A. is sold by the animal's weight to ensure the correct dosage of the added drug B. should have a claim on the label that indicates it provides the same effects as legally approved drugs and products C. is formulated in special pharmaceutical divisions D. is not currently legal in the United States
D. Is not currently legal in the United States.
Which of the following does not fit with this statement: "Companion animals have taken on larger roles in people's support systems because"? A. Many people consider their pets to be like children B. Society has become more urban than rural. C. Family structure has changed and increased numbers of people live alone. D. It is harder to give up an animal to humane societies today.
D. It is harder to give up an animal to humane societies today.
If using an aminoglycoside antimicrobial agent to treat a patient, it is important to monitor the patient because these agents are known to cause: A. an increase in blood pressure B. liver problems C. heart problems D. kidney problems
D. Kidney problems
_______ is the most demanding physiologic stage in cats. A. Early life (i.e., the first 6 months) B. The geriatric stage C. Gestation (all stages) D. Lactation
D. Lactation
Corn cobs, straw, and corn stalks are examples of: A. bedding for confined animals B. roughage used to supplement vitamin A in the case of vitamin A-deficient hay C. high-grade roughage supplying adequate protein of high biologic quality D. low-grade roughage supplying inadequate protein if fed over extended periods
D. Low-grade roughage supplying inadequate protein if fed over extended periods.
The owner of a new cat asks you how much water the cat should be given each day. You explain that the number of _______ of water per day should be roughly equivalent to kilocalories (kcal) per day. A. liters B. ounces C. centiliters D. milliliters
D. Milliliters
Llamas cycle: A. in the late spring and summer B. in the summer and fall C. in the fall and winter D. multiple times per year
D. Multiple times per year.
Horses undergoing surgery lying down are particularly prone to ______ damage during the procedure. A. Kidney B. Liver C. Central nervous system D. Muscle
D. Muscle
What is a synonym of trigger-point massage? A. applied kinesiology B. goniometry C. homeopathy D. myotherapy
D. Myotherapy
Amino acids are made up of carbon, oxygen, _______, and _______. A. protein; nitrogen B. phosphorus; potassium C. calcium; phosphorus D. nitrogen; sulfur
D. Nitrogen; sulfur
Bob the dog has trouble walking at home and moves around as little as possible, which is not normal for him. On palpating the joints in Bob's hind leg, the veterinary assistant detects the following symptoms: pain, swelling, crepitus, decreased range of motion, and joint laxity. These are consistent with a diagnosis of: A. MG B. IMHA C. FLUTD D. OA
D. OA
_______ is the method of amputation in which the bone is cut and all or a portion of the bone is removed. A. Scapulohumeral amputation B. Forequarter amputation C. Disarticulation D. Ostectomy
D. Ostectomy
________ is a CNS disease t hat results from an underlying defect in thiamine metabolism. A. agammaglobulinemia B. gangrenous mastitis C. keratoconjunctivitis D. polioencephalomalacia
D. Polioencephalomalacia
Which of the following statements about the advantages and disadvantages of tooth polishing methods is not true? A. Air polishing is faster and as effective as rubber cup polishing B. Air polishing is messy and the equipment is easily clogged. C. The friction from the rotating rubber cup creates a heat that can burn the pulp. D. Polishing veterinary mouths helps build enamel, which in turn protects the tooth substance.
D. Polishing veterinary mouths helps build enamel, which in turn protects the tooth substance.
Increased appetite, or ______, is associated with diabetes mellitus. A. Cachexia B. Polyuria C. Polydipsia D. Polyphagia
D. Polyphagia
Identify the substance that can perform all the following: act as a structural component of organs and tissues; functions as enzymes, hormones, carriers of other molecules, and can be a source of energy? A. Hemoglobin B. Water C. Carbohydrates D. Proteins
D. Protein
The number of grams of body weight gain per unit of protein consumed is referred to as the: A. total digestible protein B. gross protein ratio C. net protein ratio D. protein efficiency ratio
D. Protein efficiency ratio.
The term that describes false pregnancy is: A. Pseudomonas B. Metritis C. Cytokinesis D. Pseudocyesis
D. Pseudocyesis
Which of the following is not a common presenting problem of horses with severe dental disease? A. Weight loss B. Head shaking C. Quidding D. Ptyalism
D. Ptyalism
Ovulation is the: A. hormone that maintains pregnancy B. transformation of the ovarian follicle into a corpus luteum C. term applied to the reproductive cycle in the female D. release of the oocyte from the ovarian follicle
D. Release of the oocyte from the ovarian follicle.
_______ fatty acids have no double bonds in the primary hydrocarbon chain. A.Monounsaturated B. Polyunsaturated C. Long-chain D. Saturated
D. Saturated
Bovine respiratory disease syndrome (BRDS), commonly called _______, is caused by a combination of respiratory bacteria, viruses, and _______. A. lumpy jaw; enterotoxins B. hardware disease; stress C. founder; poor nutrition D. shipping fever; stress
D. Shipping fever; stress.
Which of the following bacteria is most likely associated with the gangrenous form of mastitis in sheep and goats? A. Streptococcus B. Pseudomonas C. Pasteurella haemolytica D. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus aureus
The classic signs of gastric dilation volvulus (GDV) include all of the following except: A. Vomiting B. Retching C. Bloating D. Straining to defecate
D. Straining to defecate
A weak thready arterial pulse usually indicates:
Decompensated Shock
Cryotherapy is used to:
Decrease enzyme activity.
Hypovolemic Shock
Decreased circulating blood volume
Which of the following statements about decubital ulcers is most accurate?
Decubital ulcers form over bony prominences.
An animal that has had its horns surgically removed is properly referred to as:
Dehorned
You are careful to check the oral mucous membranes in a new litter of puppies because you know that any disease process or imbalance of fluid or electrolytes in a newborn puppy or kitten will quickly lead to:
Dehydration
Which of the following would be considered abnormal in the first 24 hours of a foal's life?
Demonstration of a menace response
The _____ stage of grief is a normal defense mechanism that buffers humans from unbearable reality.
Denial
All of the following procedures require the use of shredded paper instead of litter for several days postoperatively except:
Dental surgery
This bacterial skin infection causes crusting lesions over wet body areas.
Dermatophilosis
Measuring abdominal girth in the same location with a tape measure hourly the most accurate way to do what?
Determine abdominal distension
The phrenic nerves provide motor innervation to the:
Diaphragm
When performing cardiac compressions on a dog that weighs 9 lb., what is the point of compression?
Directly over the heart
Sight hound breeds have what head type?
Dolichocephalic
When performing a dental occlusion evaluation of a dog or cat, the shape of the skull must be evaluated. A narrow skull and long maxilla are found in _______ breeds.
Dolicocephalic
The lateral auricular vein is accessed from the:
Dorsal (haired) aspect of the ear pinna
This condition occurs during exercise, interferes with the horse's breathing, and is first treated by tying the tongue to the lower jaw.
Dorsal displacement of the soft palate
What position should the horse be in for a colic surgery?
Dorsal recumbency
The preferred site for most SC injections is the:
Dorsolateral region from the neck to the hips
In situations in which the veterinary staff is having difficulty stimulating a calf to breathe, _____ can be injected under the animal's _____
Doxapram hydrochloride; tongue
Thumb forceps do not have teeth and are used for applying and removing dressing
Dressing
Regarding pain and analgesia in large animals, which statement is true?
Drug residues are more of a concern in large animals than small animals.
A 2-year-old female German Shepherd dog is evaluated because of frequent diarrhea and fatty stools. The veterinarian suspects intestinal lymphangiectasia, a disease of the small intestine. Which of the following studies is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
Duodenoscopy
__________, meaning difficult birth, represents the majority of obstetric emergencies.
Dystocia
LAVENDER TOP TUBE CONTAINS WHICH TYPE OF EDTA?
EDTA: CONTAINS K+, BINDS WITH CA+ NECESSARY FOR CLOTTING AND GIVES YOU PLASMA
WHAT IS THE TX OF CHOICE FOR VENTRICULAR FIBRILLATION?
ELECTRICAL DEFIBRILLATION
PROUD FLESH
EXCESSIVE GRANULATION TISSUE THAT CAN FORM ON THE LIMBS OF HORSES DURING WOUND HEALING
All horses in the United States should be vaccinated against
Eastern and Western equine and West Nile encephalomyelitis
All horses in the United States should be vaccinated against:
Eastern and Western equine and West Nile encephalomyelitis.
An ultrasound examination of the heart is known by what term?
Echocardiography
What is the treatment of choice for ventricular fibrillation?
Electrical defibrillation
Semen collection from the bull, ram, and buck can be performed using an artificial vagina and condom, or by a(n):
Electroejaculator
Which piece of equipment causes stimulation of the prostate gland during semen collection?
Electroejaculator
Closed castration is performed with all of the following except:
Emasculators
What surgical item is designed specifically for castration?
Emasculators
_________ is incision into the intestine.
Enterotomy
For which condition is treatment is being described? "One technique involves placement of two or three vertical mattress sutures in the lower lid to roll the lid margin out."
Entropion
For which condition is treatment is being described? One technique involves placement of two or three vertical mattress sutures in the lower lid margin out
Entropion
The drug most commonly used to treat asystole during CPCR is:
Epinephrine
Pregnant broodmares should be vaccinated for _____ to prevent abortion caused by this disease
Equine Herpesvirus Infection
What is the most common cause of equine blindness?
Equine anterior uveitis (moon blindness)
"If infected, horses become permanently infected and are therefore carriers of the virus" is a statement about what virus?
Equine infectious anemia
Horses must have a negative cogging's test for which disease within 1 year for issuance of health certificates?
Equine infectious anemia
What does the coggins test, test for?
Equine infectious anemia
What viral disease is carried by large biting flies?
Equine infectious anemia
a viral disease carried by large biting flies. Horses must have a negative Coggins test for this disease within 1 year for issuance of health certificates for interstate travel, international travel, show, and sale. If infected, horses become permanently infected and are therefore carriers of the virus.
Equine infectious anemia:
Diarrhea within the first few days of a lamb's life is usually caused by:
Escherichia coli
What bandage is used to assist with hemostasis during surgery of the limb?
Esmarch bandage
A 6-year-old Basset Hound is brought for evaluation because of a 1-week history of frequent regurgitation and inappetence. Physical examination shows difficulty swallowing and excessive salivation. The veterinarian suspects an ulcer somewhere between the mouth and the stomach. Which of the following minimally invasive procedures is the veterinarian most likely to perform
Esophagoscopy
By performing a transrectal ultrasound study, the veterinarian can evaluate gross fetal movement and measure the eye orbit to:
Estimate fetal age
Your new job is in an animal health research center that specializes in ______, which is the study of the causation or origins of diseases.
Etiology
The overall process for disease may be summarized in which of the following ways?
Etiology>pathogenesis>lesions>clinical signs
A client calls to report that her dog has just given birth to a litter of puppies. She tells you, "I'm worried that they're sleeping too much. About how often should the puppies be nursing?" What will you tell her?
Every 2 to 4 hours
A 10-year-old female Pit Bull Terrier dog is brought for wellness evaluation. Physical examination shows a skin lesion of approximately 2 cm in diameter on her back. The veterinarian does not suspect it is malignant. Which of the following types of biopsies is most appropriate to perform on this tissue?
Excisional
Extenders are used to
Extend the time the semen will survive
true or false sick neonatal foals have a tendency to become rapidly hyperglycemic from lack of nursing
FALSE
Which of the following diseases is associated with accumulation of lipids in greater thatn 80% of the hepatocytes?
FHL
DISSEMINATED INTRAVASCULAR COAGULOPATHY (DIC) IS COMMONLY REPRESENTED BY SCHISTOCYTOSIS. THE SCHISTOCYTES ARE MADE WHEN?
FIBRIN STRANDS CUT THE ERYTHROCYTES APART
Which hormone increases follicle size?
FSH
Name 4 pieces of personal protection equipment used in an equine isolation ward.
Face mask, coveralls/bodysuit, gloves, and disposable booties
T/F GI surgery patients should be fed immediately in the post-operative period to renew GI function
Fasle
T/fAfter C-sections, neonates need to remain in the hospital overnight with the dam for appropriate monitoring
Fasle
Which of the following measures is not used to reduce the risks of regurgitation?
Feeding animal prior to surgery
Which of the following does not predispose small ruminants to enterotoxemia?
Feeding carrots
In which species is diffuse stomatitis and tooth resorption commonly seen?
Feline
Which of the following animals always requires blood typing of donor and recipient before blood transfusion?
Feline
Which species is a reflex or induced ovulator?
Feline
FHO stands for
Femoral head ostectomy
An equine veterinarian (but not a dog veterinarian) will request what test when bacterial infection and inflammation is suspected?
Fibrinogen level
The majority of abdominal surgical procedures in the bovine patient may be performed via a _____ incision in the _____ patient
Flank; standing
The majority of abdominal surgical procedures in the bovine patient may be performed via a___________incision in the_______patient
Flank; standing
During surgery, a veterinary technician drops a forceps. The surgeon says she needs them cleaned. Which of the following types of sterilization is most appropriate in this case
Flash
The goal of postevent sports massage is to:
Flush out metabolic waste
What occurs 7-12 days after parturition?
Foal heat
Fusobacterium necrophorum
Foot rot
If possible, you should obtain radiographs of normal littermates of a sick or weak puppy or kitten. Why?
For comparison
Which of the following statements is/are false
For orthopedic or neurologic surgeris, spray adhesives should never be applied to skin because of the increased risk of joint infection
Palpation of the hooves for heat and the fetlocks for digital-pulse quality in critically ill horses is performed to detect early:
Founder and laminitis
A handler holding a halter with a lead rope and chain can safely restrain what type of horse?
Fractious, anxious, or untrained
In cows, what are the main weight-bearing claws?
Front medial and hind lateral claws
Which of the following drugs is classified as a loop diuretic and is typically used to treat heart failure and pulmonary edema?
Furosemide
Foot rot is caused by:
Fusobacterium necrophorum
What is one possible known adverse effect of using NSAIDs as analgesics?
GI bleeding
______ systems use a gas to sterilize items
Gas plasma and ethylene oxide
Comitus that contains coffee grounds like material is indicative of
Gastric bleeding secondary to ulcer formation
What is a common occurrence in stressed, young horses and horses receiving high doses or NSAIDs?
Gastric ulcers
Caudal epidural anesthesia will cause what to happen to a mare?
Her rear legs to be uncoordinated
Young horses and performance horses are at high risk of contracting _____ and should be vaccinated every 3 to 4 months.
Herpes
________ is an example of a synthetic colloid.
Hetastarch
All of the following are treatments for heart failure except:
High sodium diet
A small dog is brought into the clinic by his owner because he is exhibiting _____, a symptom identified as stridor.
High-pitched inspiratory wheezing
FHO
Hip dysplasia
Orthopedic cases such as _______ may benefit from physical therapy.
Hip dysplasia
THR
Hip dysplasia
TPO
Hip dysplasia
Which of the following medicinal systems is based on the principle that like cures like?
Homeopathy
You are nursing Solitaire, a horse recovering from small-intestinal surgery performed yesterday. At 10:00 PM on Saturday night, you discover Solitaire covered in sweat, with evidence of frequent rolling in her stall. Why does a horse like Solitaire, with a buildup of fluid in her stomach, experience such pain?
Horses cannot vomit to relieve the gastric pressure.
The most common breed of alpacas are:
Huacaya
Which method of helping a downed cow stand is the best option for supporting an animal for long periods of time?
Hydroflotation
Cushing syndrome, or _____, primarily affects dogs and is characterized by _____.
Hyperadrenocorticism page 699
_____ refers to an increased response to a stimulus that is normally painful so that less and less stimulation is required to produce pain, whereas _____ refers to the production of pain in response to a stimulus that does not normally provoke pain.
Hyperalgesia; allodynia
Hypotonic fluids are used to treat:
Hypernatremia
In a cat, increased appetite with concurrent weight loss is a sign of:
Hyperthyroidism
An echogram of your patient, a cat, shows an increased thickness of the left ventricle wall and a small ventricular lumen, which confirms a diagnosis of:
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM).
You notice that one kitten in a healthy litter has still not begun to nurse, and it has been almost 24 hours since delivery. What is this neonate at increased risk for if suckling does not occur after 24 to 36 hours?
Hypoglycemia
The veterinarian evaluates a complete blood count and full serum chemistry panel for Gideon, a cocker spaniel. Gideon's tests have come back revealing low serum T4 and free T4 levels and elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels. His veterinarian can reasonably conclude that Gideon has:
Hypothyroidism
_______ fluids have a lesser osmolality than blood and provide a greater proportion of water than of electrolytes.
Hypotonic
A pregnant mare you are attending experiences an explosive rupturing of the placenta, and allantoic fluid escapes vaginally. You are aware that if the foal is not delivered within 30 minutes, the foal will experience:
Hypoxemia
A pregnant mare you are attending experiences an explosive rupturing of the placenta, and allantoic fluid escapes vaginally. You are aware that if the foal is not delivered within 30 minutes, the foal will experience:
Hypoxemia.
Nacho, a dog, is exhibiting dyspnea. The mucous membranes show signs of pallor. The veterinarian diagnoses this as ______, or deficient oxygenation of the tissues
Hypoxia
You are responding to a critically ill patient in an emergency situation. You will administer the small-volume, but critically needed, medication via the __________ route for fast absorption
IO
You are unable to access a vein for intravenous (IV) administration in a neonate who experiences cardiovascular collapse. You must administer fluids soon. What alternative route might you use with success?
IO
You are unable to access a vein for intravenous (IV) administration in a neonate who experiences cardiovascular collapse. You must administer fluids soon. What alternative route might you use with success?
IO
You are about to administer fluid to a newborn piglet; your best choice for administration is usually via the __________ route.
IP
A 6-year-old female Beagle dog is recovering from emergency surgical treatment for open pyometra. Administration of which of the following is the most appropriate post-surgical therapy for this dog until she is considered stable enough to return home?
IV antibiotocs
You are treating a patient that is severely hypernatremic. You realize that you must administer
IV fluids slowly and gradually over 2 to 3 days
You discover advanced infection in a cow with an infected claw. Claw amputation will be performed using
IV retrograde analgesia
You discover advanced infection in a cow with an infected claw. Claw amputation will be performed using:
IV retrograde analgesia
You discover advanced infection in a cow with an infected claw. Claw amputation will be performed using:
IV retrograde analgesia.
Which of the following is not usually part of the patient data-gathering phase in the nursing process?
Identifying and prioritizing to generate a technician evaluation
Which of the following statements is not true regarding anthrax?
If an animal is suspected of having anthrax, necropsy should be performed and the brain sent to the state veterinarian
Which of the following statements is not true regarding anthrax?
If an animal is suspected of having anthrax, necropsy should be performed and the brain sent to the state veterinarian.
What is the required treatment for abomasal volvulus?
Immediate Surgical intervention
When is it acceptable to use a rumen trocar to relieve bloat and a distended rumen?
In certain instances of severe respiratory depression
During pregnancy how often should a broodmare be vaccinated for rhino pneumonitis?
In the 5th, 7th, and 9th month
Mesh may used in the repair of which type of larger hernias?
Incisional
in large animal medicine, mesh may be used to in the repair of which type of large hernias?
Incisional
Which of the following is a common concern in geriatric patients?
Incontinence, Cardiac disorder, & Neoplasia
Signs of toxicity from local anesthetic drugs include all of the following except:
Increased urine production
Which of the following methods is often used to induce estrous activity in the mare during the winter months?
Increasing the day length with artificial light
A method of live cover in breeding:
Individual mating Harem breeding Pen mating
Which of the following statements regarding Equine Infectious Anemia is true:
Infected horses must be quarantined for life or euthanized.
Pinkeye is also known as:
Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis
This disease damages the clearance mechanisms in the lung and predisposes the horse to bacterial pneumonia:
Influenza
As you review the nursing care plan for Sparky, a rabbit, the data you encounter will contain:
Information about interventions specific to your own evaluation of Sparky.
Type of immunity with which one is born and does not develop after birth
Innate immunity
What must be done before and intravenous injection into the jugular?
Insert the needle and watch for the type bleeding (vein vs artery)
The analgesic effect of opioids is due to their
Interaction with specific opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord
Which of the following best describes gastric dilation and Volvulus
Involves stretching in rotation of the stomach is considered an emergency
Which of the following is deficient with a piglet diagnosed with baby pig thumps?
Iron
Equine infectious anemia _______________________.
Is a viral disease carried by large biting flies. Horses must have a negative Coggins test for this disease within 1 year for issuance of health certificates for interstate travel, international travel, show, and sale
You are incorporating a cast into a modified Robert Jones bandage, placing it between the elastic gauze layer and outer protective layer. You are careful to avoid folds or wrinkles in the bandage because otherwise:
It can cause pressure necrosis (tissue death).
Artificial insemination is a good practice because
It decreases disease
Which of the following is not true of diagnostic peritoneal lavage?
It has the same indications as abdominocentesis, but is less effective and should be used only when the former is not possible.
What is unique about guttural pouch empyema?
It is a respiratory condition only found in horses
With regard to preemptive analgesia:
It is easier on the patient to prevent pain than treat it
Which of the following statements regarding the podiatry of a dog is true?
It is not painful to the dog to grind back the toenail until the nub of the quick is uncovered.
Which of the following is false when referring to the ultrasonic scaler?
It should be held against the tooth for up to 30 seconds to dislodge tartar.
The subcutaneous abdominal (milk) vein is seldom used for blood sampling because:
It tends to bleed for a prolonged time and tends to form hematomas.
A mare requires the removal of a nondiseased ovary. The veterinarian determines that the best method for this is through a flank incision or via an incision in the vaginal wall. This procedure is called a(n):
Laparotomy
Which of the following statements about the process of arthrocentesis is true? -When performing arthrocentesis on the carpus, hold the joint steady in extension to avoid the cephalic vein. -The veterinary technician should apply slight negative pressure on the syringe upon entry to the joint and again before withdrawing the needle. -Joint fluid can be drawn from distal joints without anesthetic or sedation if it will not cause the patient pain and if the patient is not currently experiencing pain. -Patients with moderate-to-severe pyoderma or lick granuloma are prime subjects for arthrocentesis.
Joint fluid can be drawn from distal joints without anesthetic or sedation if it will not cause the patient pain and if the patient is not currently experiencing pain.
The most common location for venous sampling of caprine and ovine is the:
Jugular vein
You need a blood sample from a weak, hospitalized kitten. Where is the best site for drawing blood?
Jugular vein
The most common location for venous sampling of the bovine is the:
Jugular vein.
A deficiency of what vitamin can lead to spontaneous bleeding? A. B B. C C. K D. A
K
Which of the following file types is less likely to break within the canal during filing?
K-files
In the neonatal camelid, chronic diarrhea may lead to the failure of which of the following organs?
Kidney
If using an aminoglycoside antimicrobial agent to treat a patient, it is important to monitor the patient because these agents are known to cause:
Kidney problems
All of the following are common treatments for Chronic Kidney Disease except:
Kidney transplant
In the neonatal camelid, chronic diarrhea may lead to the failure of which of the following organs?
Kidneys
Even if lambs survive an acute hemolytic crisis of copper toxicity, there is often significant irreversible damage to the _____ due to _____.
Kidneys ; hemoglobinuria
What type of splint for a Lower-limb-only fracture or joint dislocation
Kimzey splint
The anatomic landmarks used when performing distal paravertebral anesthesia are the transverse processes of
L1 L2 & L4
The anatomic landmarks used when performing distal paravertebral anesthesia are the transverse processes of
L1, L2, and L4
WHEN PERFORMING CARDIAC COMPRESSIONS ON A DOG THAT WEIGHS 9LBS, WHAT IS THE POINT OF COMPRESSION?
LATERAL RECUMBENCY: PLACE HANDS DIRECTLY OVER HEART W/ BOTH HANDS ON EITHER SIDE
Pseudopregnancy is caused by the elevation of which hormone?
LH
Which hormone in the male increases testosterone?
LH
GREEN TOP TUBE CONTAINS WHICH TYPE OF ANTICOAGULANT?
LITHIUM HEPARIN, ONLY LASTS FOR 8-12 HOURS & GIVES YOU PLASMA
Which of the following intramuscular injection sites is usually avoided in show goats?
Lateral cervical muscles
A 5-year-old Chow Chow dog is evaluated because of a 1-year history of chronic otitis externa. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Lateral ear canal resection
All of the following are common treatments for respiratory disease except:
Lateral recumbancy
Which of the following veins is less commonly used for IV injection in a cat?
Lateral saphenous
Horses with this condition develop exercise intolerance and are called "roarers."
Left laryngeal hemiplegia
Rumenocentesis is performed through the:
Left lower abdominal wall.
The correct method for preparing radiographs is:
Left to right: developer at 68°F, rinse, fixative for 10 minutes, rinse 20 minutes
L. pomona
Leptospirosis
One advantage of monofilament over multifilament suture is
Less chance of infection due to bacterial "wicking"
Which of the following drugs is used to treat ventricular tachycardia?
Lidocaine
Which local anesthetic should NOT be used for caudal epidural anesthesia?
Lidocaine (2%) with epinephrine
Which local anesthetic should NOT be used for intravenous regional anesthesia?
Lidocaine (2%) with epinephrine
In bovine rumen fluid collection, the placement of the tube within the rumen can be confirmed by blowing into the tube and:
Listening for gurgling
Which of these male animals is difficult if not impossible to catheterize?
Llamas
Lidocaine and bupivacaine are examples of which drug class?
Local anesthetics
Due to the advances in surgical techniques which type of bone fractures in adult horses are correctable?
Long-bone fractures
Reducing the anesthetic depth and increasing rate of intravenous(I.V) fluids are ways to treat ____ during surgery?
Low blood pressure
As long as neonates are close to their dams and the mammary glands, they can maintain:
Maintain temp
FLUTD is seen primarily in ________.
Male Cats
The parallel technique for dental radiography is best used for:
Mandibular caudal premolars
Which of the following is not a malocclusion?
Mandibular distoclusion Mandibular mesioclusion Wry bite
Which of the following drugs promotes diuresis and decreases cerebral edema in a patient following cardiac arrest by drawing water from the interstitial space between cells?
Mannitol
Which of the following drugs promotes diuresis and decreases cerebral edema in a patient following cardiac arrest by drawing water from the interstitial space between cells?
Mannitol
Stripping of the teats is a good way to test for:
Mastitis
What is the single most common disease syndrome in adult dairy cows?
Mastitis
What part of the third premolar is adjacent to the second premolar?
Mesial
As the neonate begins to take up food, this increases its:
Metabolic rate
Which of the following statements is false regarding calves with diarrhea?
Milk and milk products should be warmed before being offered.
What valve is most affect in dogs with Degenerative Atrioventricular Valve Disease?
Mitral
Butorphanol is classified as a
Mixed opioid agonist/antagonist
Equine anterior uveitis is known by what term?
Moon blindness
Pinkeye is caused by which of the following bacteria?
Moraxella bovis
Ruminants are:
More sensitive to the effects of xylazine than horses
A 14-month-old Boston Terrier dog is brought for evaluation. One eye has discharge, conjunctivitis, and a pink swollen mass. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Morgan pocket technique
Your patient has green-yellow nasal discharge, which you record, describing it as:
Mucopurulent
A common physical examination finding on a patient receiving too much crystalloid fluids is which of the following?
Nasal discharge
Horses undergoing surgery lying down are particularly prone to _____ damage during the procedure.
Muscle
Myositis is damage to or inflammation of
Muscles
Myositis is damage to or inflammation of:
Muscles
large animal medicine, myositis is damage to or inflammation of.
Muscles
Which of the following is a disorder of the neuromuscular transmission that causes weakness?
Myasthenia Gravis
Which of the following is a synonym of trigger-point massage?
Myotherapy
Which of the following is true of nasogastric intubation (NGT)?
NGT is a procedure commonly used in equine patients.
The application of electrical current to elicit a muscle contraction, or _____, is used for muscle strengthening and reducing muscle atrophy.
NMES
All of the following statements are true about opioids except:
Naloxone is only a mu antagonist.
____ are the most commonly used analgesics for postop patients, while ___ are predominately used for mild to mod chronic musculoskeletal pain
Narcrotics and NSAIDS
the leading cause of death in neonatal foals is
Neonatal bacterial septicemia
All of the following statements about neuropathic pain are true except:
Neuropathic pain is the same as Physiologic (Pathologic) pain.
Is petechiation normal in mares in late pregnancy and neonatal (newborn) foals?
No
Is there a cure for moon blindness?
No
Do all cases of equine colic require surgery?
No. Most cases respond to medical management
Petechiation (pinpoint, red spots of hemorrhage on a mucous membrane) is normal in:
None
All of the following are blood types in cats except:
O
All of the following are blood types in cats except: B, O, AB, or A
O
Bob the dog has trouble walking at home and moves around as little as possible, which is not normal for him. On palpating the joints in Bob's hind leg, the veterinary assistant detects the following symptoms: pain, swelling, crepitus, decreased range of motion, and joint laxity. These are consistent with a diagnosis of:
OA
The most common nutritional disease of pot-bellied pigs is:
Obesity
How many roots does the first upper premolar have in the dog?
One
All of the following are a part of sound pain management except:
Only treat patients that truly show signs of pain.
What does a caslick's operation do?
Operation to prevent air and feces from entering the Vagina
Which of the following species can be successfully restrained by the technique of "setting up"?
Sheep
The VOHC is The Veterinary:
Oral Health Council
The VOHC is the veterinary:
Oral Health Council
_________ is the removal of both testicles.
Orchidectomy
______________is the removal of both testicles
Orchidectomy
Which route(s) s most commonly used for intubation of the rumen?
Ororumen
A dramatic change in the way a horse uses it limb should be brought to the attention of the vet after which type of surgery?
Orthopedic surgery
Which of the following is used for internal fixation of a bone fracture
Orthopedic wires
You discover that your patient is unable to breathe unless the patient is upright, a sign referred to as:
Orthopnea
You discover that your patient is unable to breathe unless the patient is upright, a sign referred to as:
Orthopnea
OCD stands for...... Dissecans
Osteochondritis
__________ is the condition of an abnormally thickened portion of the articular cartilage.
Osteochondrosis
What disease is frequently treated with arthroscopy
Osteochondrosis (cartilage abnormalities in young, growing horses)
What disease is frequently treated with arthroscopy?
Osteochondrosis (cartilage abnormalities in young, growing horses)
what disease is frequently treated with arthroscopy?
Osteochondrosis (cartilage abnormalities in young, growing horses)
A 7-year-old female intact Vizsla dog is referred to the emergency clinic because of closed pyometra. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate treatment?
Ovariohysterectomy
Generally speaking, which of the following types of catheters is most commonly used for peripheral vein catheterization?
Over-the-needle
The primary goal of blood transfusion is to increase the _____________________-carrying capacity of the blood.
Oxygen
Cylinders containing____ are white or green and cylinders containing ___ are blue
Oxygen;nitrous oxide
The Vet is treating a cow with dystocia using a left-flank approach. After closure, the uterus is lavaged and replaced within the abdomen before routine closure of the laparotomy site. Now, to initiate uterine involution, ______ is given
Oxytocin
The veterinarian is treating a cow with dystocia using a left-flank approach. After closure, the uterus is lavaged and replaced within the abdomen before routine closure of the laparotomy site. Now to initiate uterine involution,__________is given
Oxytocin
WHAT IS THE CONDITION IN WHICH AIR BECOMES TRAPPED BETWEEN THE BODY WALL AND THE LUNG?
PNEUMOTHORAX
Which of the following statements about Second Degree Atrioventricular Blocks in horses is true.
Page 727
Which of the following is not mentioned in the text as being an acceptable alternative if a foal is unable to nurse directly from its mother?
Page 808
The best way to discuss euthanasia with a client is to use terms such as:
Painless death
What part of the tooth is exposed to the interior of the mouth on the maxillary arcade?
Palatal
The rumen can best be heard in the _____________ on the ____________ side of the animal.
Paralumbar fossa; left
Which of the following is not a factor when choosing the type of wound closure to use on an injured patient?
Past inoculations or vaccinations
The basic techniques for positioning dental radiographs are:
bisecting angle, parallel, and occlusal
Which of the following is not an indication for bone marrow aspiration?
Patients with severe thrombocytopenia
A caudal epidural provides loss of sensation to the
Perineal area
A caudal epidural- provides loss of sensation to the:
Perineal area
_________ make(s) up the supporting structures of the teeth.
Periodontium
A 4-year-old female Shetland Sheepdog is brought for evaluation because of a 1-day history of vomiting. Physical examination shows tachycardia, fever, and shock. Palpation of the abdomen elicits significant pain. Radiographs show an abdominal effusion. Fluid obtained on abdominocentesis shows bacteria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Peritonitis
The "tusks" of a pig are the:
Permanent canine teeth
Moraxella bovis
Pinkeye
To prevent injury it is critical to ___ when the surgeon will be using electrosurgery with a unipolar handpiece
Place a lubricated ground plate under the patient
A 12-year-old male Tibetan Mastiff dog is referred to the emergency clinic because of a 1-day history of dry heaving, restlessness, and hypersalivation. Physical examination shows marked abdominal distension past the rib cage and signs of shock. Palpation of the abdomen elicits pain. No sign of respiratory distress is noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step in treating this dog?
Place intravenous catheters in either the cephalic or jugular veins.
When bandaging, casting, or splinting a fracture in a horse, you need to make sure that which of the following occurs?
Place the bandage, cast, or splint at least one joint above the injury
When bandaging, casting, or splinting a fracture in a horse, you need to make sure that which of the following occurs?
Place the bandage, cast, or splint at least one joint above the injury
When bandaging, casting, or splinting a fracture in a horse you need to make sure that which of the following occurs
Place the bandage, cast, or splint at least one joint above the injury.
When bandaging, casting, or splinting a fracture in a horse, you need to make sure that which of the following occurs?
Place the bandage, cast, or splint at least one joint above the injury.
Patient A is a colt who has not received passive transfer of maternal immunity; patient B requires treatment for hypoalbuminemia. What do both patients require?
Plasma transfusions
In order to radiograph the coffin and navivular bone, what should you pack a horse's frog area with?
Playdoh
Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
Pleuropneumonia
What two complications may occur when tube feeding a hypothermic neonate?
Pneumonia and bloat
_______ is a CNS disease that results from an underlying defect in thiamine metabolism.
Polioencephalomalacia
Which of the following statements about the advantages and disadvantages of tooth polishing methods is not true?
Polishing veterinary mouths helps build up enamel, which in turn protects the tooth substance
Scientific name for Vicryl is
Polyglactin 910
Septic arthritis in calves may be treated with
Polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) beads implanted subcutaneously near the infected joints
Increased appetite, or ______, is associated with diabetes mellitus.
Polyphagia
Increased appetite, or_____________, is associated with diabetes mellitus
Polyphagia
Which of the following statements about analgesia is true:
Preemptive analgesia stops pain before it starts.
Which of the following statements in large animal pain management is true?
Preemptive and multimodal analgesia is used to prevent and treat pain.
A new veterinary technician is instructed to decontaminate the surgical instruments. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step for the technician to take
Prepare a basin with warm water and an approved detergent.
When it comes to Heartworm Disease, which of the following is most important?
Prevention
Which of the following nerves must be avoided when giving intramuscular injections in a cat or dog?
Sciatic
Which of the following is not true? Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO):
is rare in euvolemic patients
The corpus luteum produces which hormone?
Progesterone
In the process known as malignant transformation, an initiated cell undergoes mutations caused by an agent or event that stimulate proliferation of the cell to grow into a neoplasm. This stage is called:
Promotion
The term that describes false pregnancy is:
Pseudocyesis
Which of the following is not a common presenting problem of horses with severe dental disease?
Ptyalism
A 4-year-old male Manx cat is brought for evaluation of an oral mass the client first noticed several days ago. Which of the following types of biopsies is most appropriate to perform on this mass?
Punch under general anesthesia
Which of the following is not part of a specialized cardiac conduction system?
QR node
The average heart rate (HR) (in beats per minute) can be calculated by counting the number of:
QRS complexes in a predetermined time period and multiplying the number of complexes by a specific factor
It is most appropriate for the veterinary technician to clean and rinse an area with soft water before applying which of the following disinfectants to that area?
Quaternary amine based
What is the process of delivery and birth called for a female cat?
Queening
WHAT IS THE REQUIRED TREATMENT FOR ABOMASAL VOLVULUS?
RIGHT DA: EMERGENCY SURGERY LEFT DA: SURGERY BUT YOU CAN TECHNICALLY WAIT
What needs to be more closely evaluated in the sick foal than in the sick adult horse?
Scleral color leg joints for swelling and heat Umbilicus for swelling, heat, and discharge
Which technique is most reliable for evaluating the number, relative size, and position of pups before birth?
Radiography
A client wishing to know the number of pups in utero (in the uterus) should be told to make an appointment for _______ at least ______ plus days after breeding
Radiography; 43
Clinical signs of a hemothorax or pneumothorax include:
Rapid, shallow breathing
A "major cross-match" detects:
Reactions between donor RBCs and recipient plasma
Perineal surgery is performed in mares with:
Rectovaginal Tears
Which foals require intensive, 24 hours care in a specially equipped facility?
Recumbent, sick neonatal foals
Another name for infectious bovine rhinotracheitis is:
Red nose
Which of the following bacteria is most likely associated with the gangrenous form of mastitis in sheep and goats?
Staphylococcus aureus
Flared nostrils and rapid, shallow breathing should be considered an emergency because they are a sign of what?
Respiratory distress
Bone marrow aspirates are not taken from:
Ribs
When a ruminant must be placed in lateral recumbency for a procedure, the preferred position to minimize the risk of developing bloat is:
Right lateral recumbency
When performing a C-section, the sheep or goat is most commonly restrained in:
Right lateral recumbency
The cranial vena cava is accessed from the:
Right side of the animal
Abdominocentesis is performed through the:
Right ventral abdominal wall
What type of splint for a upper or lower- limb fracture or joint dislocation
RobertJones bandage
A technician is preparing instruments for entropion repair. Which of the following is NOT necessary to prepare for this surgical procedure?
Rochester-Carmalt hemostatic forceps
Which compartment of the bovine stomach is known as the fermentation vat?
Rumen (hence Ruminants)
In ruminants, the path of feedstuff through the stomachs is
Rumen, reticulum, omasum, abomasum
A sheep's most common response in a fearful situation is to:
Run away
When sheep are frightened, their most common response is to:
Run away
The most common route for administering vaccines is the _____ route.
SC
IF YOU PUT A BLOOD SAMPLE INTO A RED & GREY TOP TUBE THE FLUID SEPERATED OUT WILL BE CALLED?
SERUM
A complication of shock that is characterized by widespread inflammation of tissues resulting from lack of oxygen is known as:
SIRS
THE BEST WAY TO APPROACH A HORSE IS:
SLOWLY AND FROM THE FRONT LEFT SIDE
The most common route for injections in cattle & what location are?
SQ, over the lateral cervical region
The most important factor in euthanasia of large animals is:
Safety
Colitis may be caused by which of the following organisms?
Salmonella clostridia spp neorickettsia
Major fractures of long bones are best repaired with:
Screws and bone plates
in large animal medicine, major fractures of long bones are the best repaired with:
Screws and bone plates
What hernia type requires immediate examination by a veterinarian?
Scrotal hernia in an adult stallion
what hernia type, in, large animal medicine, requires immediate examination by a veterinarian?
Scrotal hernia in an adult stallion
Allowing a wound to heal completely without surgical closure is known as _____ healing.
Second-intention
What are the two best locations for intramuscular injection in the equine patient?
Semimembranosus or semitendinosus and the lateral neck
All of the following are parts of the pain pathway except:
Sensation
The "key" anatomic part of a bovine animal that is used strategically to help herd and direct cattle is the:
Shoulder area
Calves dehorned after 6 months of age are at greater risk of developing:
Sinusitis
Actinobacillosis is usually treated with antibiotics, an antiinflammatory drug, and intravenous administration of:
Sodium Iodide
A 3-year-old female Border Collie dog is recovering from surgery to repair the cranial cruciate ligament. Which of the following is most appropriate to place on the limb during the first 48 hours?
Soft bandage
The balling gun is used to deliver which type of medications
Solids (capsule, tablet, or bolus)
Which of the following bacteria is most likely associated with the gangrenous form of mastitis in sheep and goats?
Staphylococcus aureus
A new veterinary technician is instructed by his supervisor to engage in terminal cleaning today. Which of the following should the technician be prepared to do?
Stay to the end of the surgery day to clean the surgery and preparation rooms and all equipment
The preferred patient positioning for a ruminant recovering from anesthesia is:
Sternal recumbency
How can you tell by looking at an electroscalpel handpiece wheter it is unipolar or bipolar
The latter is shaped like thumb forceps
An allergic disease that causes airway inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and excessive mucous production is:
Strangles
What disease is caused by Streptococcus equi equi?
Strangles
Which of the following diseases is caused by Streptococcus equi equi?
Strangles
Clients breeding their camelids for the first time should be counseled that:
The placenta should pass out of the vagina within 6 hours after birth or a veterinarian should be called to administer oxytocin.
What is "floating"
The process of filling the sharp points on the teeth of a horse
BEFORE PERFORMING AN OBSTRETRIC PROCEDURE, THE CLINICIAN WRAPS A MARE'S TAIL IN GUAZE, TIES A QUICK- RELEASE KNOT JUST BELOW HE FLESHY PORTION, AND RUNS OFF TO ANSWER HER PHONE. SHE TELLS YOU TO TIE THE TAIL UP WHILE SHE'S GONE. YOU SHOULD:
TIE THE FREE END OF THE GUAZE AROUND THE NECK OF THE HORSE
WHICH SERUM PARAMETER WOULD BE MOST BENEFICIAL TO CHECK IF FLUID OVERLOAD WITH LACTATED RINGER'S SOLUTION IS EXPECTED?
TOTAL PROTEIN (TP)
in large animal medicine, severe angular limb deformities may be corrected by :
Surgeries
A HANDLER IS LESS LIKELY TO BE SERIOUSLY INJURED BY A KICK IF THEY STAND VERY CLOSE TO (UP AGAINST) A HORSE'S HIND QUARTERS RATHER THAN 3 FEET BEHIND? TRUE/FALSE
TRUE
You will be assisting in a cystotomy surgery during which bladder stones will be removed, dr asks for 3-0 dexon to suture the bladder but does not specify the type or shape of needle. What needle would be the least traumatic for suturing the bladder closed
Swaged Taper
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
Swine Erysipelas
The nerves blocked when performing paravertebral anesthesia are
T13, L1, L2
The nerves blocked when performing paravertebral anesthesia are
T13, L1, and L2
The nerves blocked when performing paravertebral anesthesia are:
T13, L1, and L2
WHY DO WE ADMINISTER 3-6 MLS OF WATER PO AFTER GIVING A CAT A PILL?
TABLETS AND CAPSULES CAN REMAIN IN ESOPHAGUS FOR A PROLONGED PERIOD OF TIME. W/O WATER TO WASH IT DOWN CAN CAUSE TISSUE DAMAGE WHICH CAN LEAD TO ESOPHAGITIS-> NAUSEA-> VOMITING-> ULCERS AND MEGAESOPHAGUS
What stage of labor in the mare is explosive and starts when the mare's placenta ruptures and her "water breaks"?
Stage 2
BOWED TENDON
TENDON HEMMORRHAGES & INFLAMMATORY DEBRIS ACCUMULATES IN THE TENDON CAVITY "CORE LESION" RANGES FROM MILD EDEMA & INFLAMMATION TO TENDON FIBER TEARING PRIMARY SUPERFICIAL DIGITAL FLEXOR TENDON OF FRONT LIMBS AND OCCASIONALLY INVOLVES DEEP DIGITAL FLEXOR TENDON
Intramammary infusion is usually performed with the animal:
Standing
The preferred patient position for obtaining blood samples from the cranial vena cava is:
Standing on all four legs
A female of the porcine species that has a litter is called a:
Sow
Complete semen analysis involves examining what three characteristics?
Sperm motility, concentration, and morphology
You are examining a litter of neonatal puppies when you notice that one puppy has irregularities, including a hairless lump and other uneven patches of hair over his dorsum. You bring this to the attention of the veterinarian because this puppy needs to be assessed for the possible presence of:
Spina bifida
You are examining a litter of neonatal puppies when you notice that one puppy has irregularities, including a hairless lump and other uneven patches of hair over his dorsum. You bring this to the attention of the veterinarian because this puppy needs to be assessed for the possible presence of:
Spina bifida
Which of the following muscles are not important in the function of the mouth?
Splenuis
What is the postoperative care of the equine castration patient?
Strict stall confinement for 24 hours and then hand walking 1 or 2 times daily for 1 to 2 promote drainage
Postoperative care of the equine castration patient involves:
Strict stall confinement for 24 hours and then hand walking once or twice daily for 1 to 2 weeks to promote drainage.
Postoperative care of the equine castration patient involves
Strict stall confinement for 24 hours and then hand walking once or twice daily for 1 to 2 weeks to promote drainage.
_________is caused by serum seeping through a bandage and into the external environment
Strike-Through
________ is caused by serum seeping through a bandage and into the external environment.
Strike-through
When mastitis occurs in the absence of clinical signs and must be detected through special diagnostic tests it is referred to as:
Subclinical mastitis
It is common for the _______________to form a hematoma after drawing blood from this location so it is avoided for blood draws.
Subcutaneous abdominal (milk) vein
You notice that a coworker is preparing to administer a dextrose solution. Which of the following routes should he avoid and why?
Subcutaneous; to avoid tissue damage
Which salivary gland is palpable in the dog and cat?
Submandibular
Common causes of death in neonatal piglets include all but which one of the following?
Suffocation by other piglets
Pepper has an echocardiogram after surgery, and the veterinarian sees shadows that suggest the possibility of heart disease. Pepper has no symptoms, however, and is sent home after recovering well from surgery. Because Pepper is asymptomatic, the veterinarian instructs the owner to monitor for rapid breathing, or _____, which can be the first sign that heart disease has progressed to heart failure
Tachypnea
True breech in a horse is defined as _____ presentation of the foal.
Tail-first
What is the purpose of the carnassial tooth?
Tearing
________ can be used in a noninvasive way to measure the heart rates of the foal and mare during labor
Telementary
The use of elastrator bands to perform castration of calves has been associated with the development of
Tetanus
Both a goat and a sheep are scheduled for surgery. Which of the following presurgical injections will each animal be given?
Tetanus toxoid or antitoxin
Both a goat and a sheep are scheduled for surgery. Which of the following presurgical injections will each animal be given?
Tetanus toxoid or antitoxin
Which of the following sites is not ideal for applying transdermal medications?
The back of the untrimmed neck
Which of the following best describes the concept of preemptive analgesia?
The best way to treat pain is to prevent it.
Which of the following describes the transduction phase of nociception?
The conversion of energy into an electrical impulse
What is important to remember about January 1st?
The day when all horses are considered a year old
You are unsure whether a ferret that has received an adrenalectomy is experiencing a significant amount of pain. What is the best way to determine whether this patient needs analgesics?
The rule of thumb is that if a procedure would be painful for you to endure, it is likely that it is painful for the animal.
You are unsure whether a ferret that has received an adrenalectomy is experiencing a significant amount of pain. What is the best way to determine whether this patient needs analgesics?
The rule of thumb is that if a procedure would be painful for you to endure, it is likely that it is painful for the animal.
Ruminant necropsy is usually performed with the animal in left lateral recumbency because:
The rumen will be on the "down" side, where it interferes minimally with abdominal exploration
Checking the scleral color and the umbilicus for swelling or discharge should be more closely evaluated in which type of patient?
The sick foal
For contaminated or oncologic surgeris, it is important to remember that
The surgeon might change gloves during the surgery
Withdrawal time is:
The time it takes for a drug to be removed from the animal's system.
Why do animals that have undergone a tracheotomy or tracheostomy need hourly monitoring for the first 24 hours?
There is a risk of airway or tracheostomy obstruction leading to suffocation.
Foot and mouth disease is treated with which of the following?
There is no treatment for foot and mouth disease
When removing horn buds with a dehorning iron, what is one serious side effect of leaving the iron on too long
Thermal meningitis
When removing horn buds with a dehorning iron, what is one serious side effect of leaving the iron on too long?
Thermal meningitis
A client calls to report that her dog has just given birth to a litter of puppies. She tells you, "I'm worried that they're sleeping too much. About how often should the puppies be nursing?" What will you tell her?
They sleep 80% of the day and nurse every 2-4 hours
Why is it extremely important to exercise caution when using balling guns, dose syringes, and stomach tubes in cattle?
To prevent the development of pharyngeal cellulitis, abscess, or hematoma
During delivery of a piglet, only the piglet's snout is observed to extend from the sow's vulva; no feet or legs are visible. What is the proper course of action?
This is a normal delivery posture and should not be considered as a dystocia
Camelids have a _____-compartment stomach.
Three
What is the primary route of infection of caprine arthritis-encephalitis?
Through infected colostrum or milk of an infected dam
Bacteria are most likely to gain entrance to the udder:
Through the streak canal, just after milking
Blood samples drawn from the coccygeal vein should be obtained
Through the ventral aspect of the tail, in the proximal 1/3 of the tail
Blood samples drawn from the coccygeal (tail) vein should be obtained:
Through the ventral aspect of the tail, in the proximal third of the tail.
What is the bacterial infection that occurs in the frog of the hoof?
Thrush
TPLO stands for...... Plateau leveling osteomy
Tibial
A 6-year-old male Black and Tan Coonhound dog is brought for evaluation of marked lameness of the right hindlimb after he trapped the limb in a fence yesterday, and the owner had to pry him out. The dog is carrying the limb in flexion; only the toes touch the ground. Palpation of the limb elicits pain and shows joint effusion around the stifle joint. Which of the following additional diagnostic tests are most appropriate?
Tibial compression and cranial drawer tests
A foul odor emanating from any part of a cast indicates:
Tissue damage
Which of the following statements regarding the examination of a neonatal animal is false?
To evaluate the hydration of a neonate, check the skin turgor rather than the mucous membranes, because the mucous membranes in a neonate are extremely sensitive
Why is it extremely important to exercise caution when using balling guns, dose syringes, and stomach tubes in cattle?
To prevent the development of pharyngeal cellulitis, abcessation, or hematoma
Intramammary infusions are used to:
Treat mastitis
What is the benefit of ultra-sonic cleaning of instruments?
Ultrasonic cleaning uses cavitation to clean areas that are difficult to access by hand
What type of hernia is congenital and common in foals?
Umbilical
what type of hernia is congenital and common in foals?
Umbilical
DURING THE HYPODYNAMIC (UNCOMPENSATED) PHASE OF SHOCK, BLOOD FLOW IS PREFERENTIALLY DISTRIBUTED TO THE______________?
VITAL ORGANS (BRAIN AND HEART)
If a bandage is too tight, it can result in _______ compromise and skin _______.
Vascular; death
A patient being given intravenous (IV) fluids exhibits swollen front limbs; you speculate that the fluids are being administered too far forward in the _______ area, allowing the fluid to settle ventrally into the legs.
Ventral
The lateral auricular vein in pigs is accessed from the:
Ventral (nonhaired) aspect of the ear pinna.
The correct technique to use when clamping bleeding vessels with hemostatic forceps is tips _____ initially, the direct the concave surface ____ for ligation ( tying a knot with suture around the vessel)
Vertical;up
Campylobacter fetus
Vibrosis
Which trait of Siberian huskies and Dobermans makes people think of them as more "sensitive" to pain than other breeds?
Vocalizing regularly
Postoperative incision infections and cellulitis can both be treated with:
Warm compresses and systemic antibiotics
What is it called when colostrum accumulates on the nipples before parturition?
Waxing
What is a foal that has been weaned from the mare?
Weanling
By the end of what week are puppies and kittens able to stand and have good postural reflexes?
Week 3
What are some indications of dental problems in a horse?
Weight loss, abnormal eating habits and excess salivation
Palpating the esophagus on the left side of the neck, visually observing the esophagus on the left side of the neck and obtaining negative pressure are ways of telling what?
When a nasogastric tube is properly placed
Which of the following statements regarding the intramuscular (IM) route of drug administration is false?
When injecting into the semimembranosus or semitendinosus muscles, the needle should enter the dorsal aspect of the muscle and be directed caudally.
You are working nights in an animal shelter during an unusually cold winter when a couple run into the emergency department with a litter of kittens they found in their barn. The kittens are all hypothermic. You treat them with appropriate ambient temperature and humidity, and four of them begin to recover. How soon can you give them food or water?
When the patient has audible gut sounds and is moderately warmed
You are working nights in an animal shelter during an unusually cold winter when a couple run into the emergency department with a litter of kittens they found in their barn. The kittens are all hypothermic. You treat them with appropriate ambient temperature and humidity, and four of them begin to recover. How soon can you give them food or water?
When the patient has audible gut sounds and is moderately warmed
Which of the following statements regarding methods of oral medication administration in large animals is false?
While it may seem like an intuitive solution to administering the medication, when using a syringe, never add sweeteners like molasses, maple syrup, or applesauce to the medication, as the viscosity can significantly change the absorption time.
Which nutritional myodegenerative disease may be caused by a deficiency of gestational vitamin E and/or selenium?
White muscle disease
Which nutritional myodegenerative disease may be caused by a deficiency of gestational vitamin E and/or selenium?
White muscle disease
A HBC dog showing signs of shock has a baseline PCV of 23% and a total protein of 4.0 g/dl. What is the best fluid choice for triage?
Whole blood
How does an equine lower-limb support bandage differ from a lower-limb wound bandage?
With a support bandage, the underlying wound dressing and inner conforming gauze layers are not used.
When should a mare be inseminated with frozen semen?
Within 12 hours of thawing
When should a newborn foal pass meconium (first feces)?
Within a few hours after birth
List two main causes of calf scours: (be specific, not just bacterial or viral give specific causative agents)
Within the first few days of life they are often infected with bacteria (Escherichia coli and Clostridium perfringens). 10-14 days of life are often infected with viruses (rotavirus and corona virus)
Compression of the cervical spinal cord by malformed or unstable cervical vertebrae is a neurological disease known by what name?
Wobbles
What preparatory actions are often taken before vaginal examination of the mare?
Wrap the tail and wash the perineal area.
what drug is most commonly used pre-anesthetic sedative drug in cattle
Xylazine
A serum sample from a horse is normally:
Yellow
Do limb bandages that are placed during orthopedic surgery need to be changed/replaced before the skin sutures are removed?
Yes
The specific antagonist of Xylazine is
Yohimbine
How long after anesthetic induction should you wait before removing a horse's shoes?
You don't. horses do not require anesthetic induction for shoe removal, mouth exams and I.V. catheter placement
A new client brings in a 14-year-old cat named Bob and a new kitten she has recently adopted, named Skippy. What is the most significant difference in how each will be examined during their new patient wellness checks? A. Bob will be examined for any present congenital defects, while Skippy is too young for that. B. Bob is checked for feline leukemia, while Skippy is more vulnerable to FIV and thus is tested for that. C. You recommend that Bob's teeth be check every six months or so, while Skippy is examined for congenital defects and receives a vaccination schedule D. There are no differences; medical concerns are consistent throughout the pet's lifespan; the owner should be queried about general pet care skills regarding the animals and educated about the risk of heartworm disease and flea infestation
You recommend that Bob's teeth be check every six months or so, while Skippy is examined for congenital defects and receives a vaccination schedule.
Which horses should be vaccinated for influenza and western encephalitis every 3 to 4 months?
Young horses and performance horses
All of the following are layers of embryonic development except:
Zona pellucida
first priority immediately after delivery is to ensure
a clear airway
excessively rapid IV administration of ________ can cause central nervous system dysfunction, such as severe depression and possible coma
bibarb
An example of an adjunctive analgesic is:
a corticosteroid
If severe depression is suspected in a grieving client, it is best for the veterinary professional to refer the client to:
a counselor or hotline.
In camelids, the urethral orifice is most easily located as:
a palpable groove on the floor of the vulva.
An animal that assumes a praying or play bowing position most likely has _____ pain.
abdominal
colic
abdominal pain
Please list 3 means of treatment or intervention for colic
abdominal surgery NSAID/ pain medication remove grain or hay until manure passes
You are monitoring a cat who is recovering from a spay procedure. Unfortunately, the veterinarian suspects that this patient is hemorrhaging from the surgery site. Which of the following procedures may be needed at this point?
abdominocentesis
A horse with a long history of severe pain prior to arrival often exhibits:
abrasions over the head, face, eyes, and bony prominences of the body
The veterinary surgeon has just completed enterotomy on a 5-year-old cat to retrieve an intestinal foreign obstruction. Which of the following suture materials is most appropriate to prepare for the surgeon to close the incision?
absorbable monofiliment
An osteoconductive material will:
act as a scaffold for new bone cells to traverse a defect
A 10-month-old Domestic Shorthaired cat was given pain medication after surgery, was very active in the recovery cage, and ate well and drank water within 24 hours of the procedure. A seroma has developed under the skin at the surgical wound site. Which of the following was the most likely cause of this finding?
activity level in recovery cage
One neonate that was just delivered has not started to breathe on her own even after being towel dried and briskly rubbed by the technician for 30 seconds. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step the technician should take?
administer positive pressure ventilation by mask
Which of the following tasks is not normally the responsibility of the surgical assistant
administering anesthesia to the patient
What equine neurologic disease is also known as wobbles?
c. Compression of the cervical spinal cord by malformed or unstable cervical vertebrae
A neonate cat that was just delivered via cesarotomy had a heartbeat for a few seconds after birth but now a heart beat can not be discerned. The technician attempts chest compressions on the animal, but they do not successfully restart the heart. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step the technician should take?
administration of epinephrine under the tonque
Intramammary infusion is best performed
after milking
You and the veterinarian are monitoring a horse who received an emergency transfusion 1 days ago. Now, before a next transfusion, the veterinarian directs you to help conduct a major crossmatch. You understand that this test will help detect:
agglutination reactions between the donor's RBCs and the recipient's plasma
_______ is a type of _______ and its grazing by ruminants can cause blaot
alfalfa and roughage
The pH of normal horse urine is:
alkaline (pH 7 to 9)
The pH of normal horse urine is:
alkaline (pH 7 to 9).
Before a patient is ready to be sent home after surgery, the veterinary technician must take responsibility for educating the owner about what is needed for the animals continued recovery. Which of the following considerations can help guide the technician in educating the owner at the time of discharge
all of the above
Which tissues contain a high concentration of nociceptors
all of the above
Extirpation refers to removal of
all the contents of the bony orbit
Extirpation refers to removal of:
all the contents of the bony orbit
Extirpation refers to removal of:
all the contents of the bony orbit.
differences between alpaca and llamas
alpaca are typically smaller and softer
The type of large animal practice performed by transporting veterinary supplies and equipment to the patient is known as _____________________ practice.
ambulatory
In the infection process, a reservoir refers to:
an animal, insect, or fomite in or on which a pathogen can survive
One common physiologic response to pain is:
an increased heart rate and blood pressure level.
The most immediate need of the newborn calf is
an open (patent) airway
Your patient, Miss Marple, a Persian cat, has been sneezing excessively. You most likely suspect that she has:
an upper respiratory infection.
penacilin can cause __________________ in a horse
anaphylactic shock
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for a cat that is apparently experiencing breakthrough pain after surgery?
anelgesic
A horse with anaplasmosis usually exhibits signs that include fever, edema and stiffness, icterus lethargy, and _____. It can be treated with _____.
anemia; oxytetracycline
In ewes, _____ (the period of no ovarian follicular activity) can be shortened by exposure to pheromones from a ram.
anestrus
The stages of the canine reproductive cycle, in the correct order of occurrence, are:
anestrus, proestrus, estrus, diestrus.
Calves are normally delivered in:
anterior presentation("head-diving")
Uterine biopsy should be conducted under _____ conditions.
antiseptic
Increased serum _____ is a normal physiologic response in the fasted horse.
bilirubin
Which of the following surgical duties are not generally the responsibilities of a veterinary technician
billing the clients for procedures
In the recovery cage, a 3-year-old female Skye Terrier dog is bleeding from her surgical site. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the veterinary technician to take?
apply direct pressure to the wound
A client caring for a geriatric pet at home asks for guidance in performing bladder expression. You direct the client to place one hand on each side of the patient's abdomen, move the hands caudally to locate the bladder, and then:
apply gentle pressure directed toward the rear of the patient.
when approaching a horse you
approach at a 45 angle to the shoulder
What is the function of prostaglandin in the female?
binds to corpus luteum and lyses (destroys) it
A new client whose mare recently delivered a foal complains that he believes his previous veterinarian charged him for an unnecessary number of rectal examinations and transrectal ultrasound studies for the mare during gestation. When should a pregnant mare receive a rectal examination and transrectal ultrasound imaging?
around 15 days, 30 days, and then 90 days
The proper location to apply a hog snare or snubbing rope is...
around the upper jaw (maxilla)
what blood is often used for blood gas samples in horses
arterial blood
Bone spavin, high and low ringbone, and osselets are terms that all apply to different forms of
arthritis
Bone spavin, high and low ringbone, and osselets are terms that all apply to different forms of:
arthritis
Bone spavin, high and low ringbone, and osselets are terms that all apply to different forms of:
arthritis.
Which of these "centesis" procedures gives you fluid from a joint?
arthrocentesis
Trocar, sleeve, blunt obturator, triangulation, and light cable are all terms used in
arthroscopic surgery
what is most commonly used to collect semen from stallions
artificial vaginas (AV's)
Although always important, to ensure success, _____ is generally more closely regarded in orthopedic surgery than in soft tissue surgery.
asepsis
although always important, to ensure success, _____ is generally more closely regarded in orthopedic surgery than in soft tissue surgery
asepsis
You are monitoring a patient receiving IV chemotherapy when you notice that the patient is whimpering. You check the catheter and notice redness and swelling near the injection site. You should:
aspirate 5 ml of blood back through the catheter, infuse the tissue surrounding the site with 2% lidocaine, and add either cold or warm compresses.
the primary risk associated with regurgitation in ruminants is
aspiration of regurgitated material into the trachea and lungs
When evaluating semen in the laboratory, it is important to have all equipment:
at body temperature.
The foals respiratory rate after birth should be
at least 60 breaths per minute at 5 minutes after birth
to reduce the risk for potential complications, it is usually best to remove an animals horns
at the earliset possible age
reversal of detomidine
atipamezole
Variation in the PR interval may occur with:
atrioventricular dissociation
Avoiding buildup of which of the following best explains why the technician should pay special attention to surgical instruments' box locks, joints, and serrations during the decontamination process?
biologic debris
What breed of pig has erect ears?
b. Berkshire
An infectious cause of abortion in ruminants
b. Brucella spp. c. Listeria d. Leptospira
What crystal is normally present in large numbers in equine urine?
b. Calcium carbonate
The operation performed on some mares' vulvas to prevent air and feces from entering the vagina is known as:
b. Caslick's operation
When livestock are exposed constantly to rain, what epidemics often occur?
b. Coccidioidomycosis
Which of the following species receive no maternal antibody during gestation?
b. Cow
What is FIP and what kind of organism is it caused by?
b. Feline Infectious Peritonitis-coronavirus
_____ is a respiratory condition unique to horses.
b. Guttural pouch empyema
There are several immunoglobulins. Which is the one that is most important in humoral immunity?
b. IgG IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin and is really important in immunity.
What would constitute a malfunction of the immune system? (I.e. system isn't doing its job)?
b. Immunodeficiency c. Allergies d. Autoimmune disease
Which of the following is not true regarding Feline Leukemia Virus? Answers: a. It can stimulate a form of cancer. b. It can be eliminated from the body with administration of appropriate antibiotics. c. It is a very contagious cat-to-cat disease d. It is spread by body fluids.
b. It can be eliminated from the body with administration of appropriate antibiotics.
Which of the following statements is false regarding periparturient hypocalcemia?
b. It is caused by a severe increase in serum calcium levels.
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae or erysipelas is commonly called diamond skin disease. What species is it prevalent in?
b. Porcine
Calves dehorned after 6 months of age are at greater risk of developing
b. Sinusitis
A client calls with a concern about a cow giving birth. The cow entered stage 2 of labor and has been straining for 90 minutes without delivering the fetus. What is the proper course of action?
b. Straining to deliver for 90 minutes without delivering the fetus is cause for concern. The delivery should be treated as a dystocia, and a veterinarian should be immediately consulted
Horses affected with _____ must be maintained under a strict isolation protocol.
b. Strangles and diarrhea
Postoperative care of the equine castration patient involves:
b. Strict stall confinement for 24 hours and then hand walking 1 or 2 times daily for 1 to 2 weeks to promote drainage
When removing horn buds with a dehorning iron, what is one serious side effect of leaving the iron on too long?
b. Thermal meningitis
Prior to a standing surgical procedure, a veterinarian performs a proximal paravertebral block on the right side of an animal. Several minutes later, the animal is observed to have a lateral spine/body curvature (scoliosis) toward its right side (body bowed with right side convex, left side concave). What is the appropriate course of action?
b. This is a normal and expected response to a proximal paravertebral block; no action is
What does HUMORAL IMMUNITY mean?
b. production of antibody which becomes part of the body fluids
Which of the following surgical instruments is most appropriate to have ready for upcoming exploratory abdominal surgery on a Bernese Mountain dog?
balfour retractor
Diagnostic studies show a rubber ball in the stomach of an 8-month-old Labrador Retriever dog. Surgery is necessary to remove it. The veterinary technician need not prepare which of the following instruments for this emergency surgery?
beaver blade handle
The veterinary technician is looking at the surgical schedule for the day. A 4-month-old Maine Coon cat is scheduled for onychectomy. When is it most appropriate to begin analgesia on this cat
before surgery
When liquids must be administered with a syringe or dropper, the tip of the syringe or dropper is placed:
between the cheek and the gums and the muzzle is held at a neutral angle.
Bedding made from wood products must not contain
black walnut
What color is the normal discharge seen while a bitch is giving birth to puppies?
black-green
thrombosis
blood clot
the only available test that can provide identification of the species of bacteria in a foal's bloodstream is
blood culture
An animal that is dehydrated before surgery may require a _____ because _____ of the cell volume occurs after rehydration.
blood/plasma transfusion; dilution
stimulating/detecting estrus with a boar is called
boar effect
AU
both ears
OU
both eyes
In acute laminitis in the horse, digital pulses are
bounding
In acute laminitis in the horse, digital pulses are:
bounding
in acute in the horse, digital pulses are:
bounding
It is most appropriate for the veterinary technician to delay extubation after surgery on which of the following animals until the animal can lift the head by him- or herself?
brachycephalic
CSF collection is used to diagnose
brain and spinal cord disease and to differentiate peripheral nervous system disease
All of the following are signs of hemorrhage except
brick red gums
intact goats are infamous for their offensive smell called
buck odor
opoid (equine)
butorphanol
when monitory a patients feed intake, it is more important to record: a) type and amount of food that the patient eats b) type and amount of food that the patient does not eat c) Both a and b are equally important, and both should be recorded
c) both a and b are equally important, and both should be recorded
A 4-year-old pregnant female mixed-breed dog is brought for a wellness examination. Radiographs show that the fetuses are oversized. The veterinarian is most likely to suggest which of the following to the client?
c- section
It is imperative to a calf's survival to receive colostrum within the first _____ of life.
c. 6 to 8 hours
Which breed of cattle is used for its beef.
c. Angus
The humoral immune system involves
c. B cells
Which antigen-sensitive WBCs result in the formation of memory cells in secondary immune response?
c. B lymphocytes
Ionizing radiation:
causes cell death by disrupting the cell's DNA or by destroying important molecules required for normal cell function.
blindfolding a pig usually
causes it to walk backward
Swelling and infection along tissue planes in a postoperative incision that may be red, warm, and associated with elevated body temperature may be a sign of:
cellulitis
The most frequently used sites for IV injection in dogs are the _____ vein and _____ vein.
cephalic; lateral saphenous
You are trying to insert an OGT tube into a dog when the animal coughs. This means the tube:
may have entered the trachea and should be removed.
2 basic types of animal restraint
chemical and physical
Gagging and excessive salivation are most often indications of:
choke
Gagging and excessive salivation are most often indications of:
choke.
the portion of a horseshoe nail that is folded over flat against the hood wall to hold the shoe securely to the hoof is called the
clinch
Disseminated intravascular coagulation is primarily a disorder of the body's _____ function.
clotting
You warn a coworker that using the _____ vein route to administer a particularly irritating drug can cause thrombosis and sloughing of the tail.
coccygeal
A 15-month-old male Domestic Shorthaired cat has undergone castration. Scrotal bleeding is noted by the technician while the cat is in the recovery cage. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
cold compress
Arthroscopic instruments to be used more than once per day are most often _____ between procedures.
cold sterilized
Unless otherwise instructed, a _____ surgery pack should be set up for a cesarean section.
colic
Unless otherwise instructed, a _________ surgery pack should be set up for a cesarean section.
colic
You are in charge of training personnel for the new isolation ward of your veterinary hospital. Your coverage of diseases will most likely include a thorough discussion of:
colitis, neurologic EHV-1, and strangles
You are in charge of training personnel for the new isolation ward of your veterinary hospital. Your coverage of diseases will most likely include a thorough discussion of:
colitis, neurologic EHV-1, and strangles.
A 3-year-old male Bearded Collie dog is scheduled for diagnostic study because of a history of tenesmus and frequent passage of mucus-laden feces, sometimes with frank blood. The veterinarian suspects lymphocytic plasmacytic colitis, a large bowel disease. It is most appropriate for the veterinary technician to prepare for which of the following diagnostic studies?
colonoscopy
A mare requires the removal of a nondiseased ovary. The veterinarian determines that the best method for this is through a flank incision or via an incision in the vaginal wall. This procedure is called a(n):
colpotomy.
First-degree AV block occurs when:
conduction through the AV node is delayed
Tests show that your patient, Peeps, a male cat, has decreased cardiac output. The veterinarian see signs, too, of tissue hypoxia, which is causing poor venous return leading to fluid overload. The most likely diagnosis for Peeps is:
congestive heart failure.
You notice a family of neonatal piglets establishing teat order. Naturally, the ______ mammary glands are most sought after.
cranial
A 6-year-old male Black and Tan Coonhound dog is brought for evaluation because of a 1-day history of marked lameness of the right hindlimb. The dog is carrying the limb in flexion; only the toes touch the ground. Palpation of the limb elicits pain and shows joint effusion around the stifle joint. Displacement of the tibia is noted. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
cranial cruciate ligament injury
The preferred urine collection method for culture and sensitivity is:
cystocentesis
An 8-year-old female Rottweiler dog is evaluated because of a 2-day history of hematuria, pollakiuria, stranguria, and dysuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this dog?
cystotomy
An incision into the bladder is known as a
cystotomy
What is Bang's disease?
d. Brucella abortus - bacteria causes infertility and abortion in cattle.
The normal rectal temperature of adult horses is approximately:
d. 37° C to 38.5° C (98.6° F to 101.3° F)
Fractious, anxious, or untrained horses are often most safely restrained by:
d. A handler holding a halter with a lead rope or chain
Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) functions as:
d. An antiinflammatory agent
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding anthrax?
d. Anthrax-contaminated carcasses should be buried in lime or incinerated and Contact the area's federal veterinarian immediately if an animal is suspected of having anthrax.
What technique is often used to increase the depth of equine breathing to accentuate lung sounds during thoracic auscultation (listening with a stethoscope)?
d. Application of a rebreathing bag
How are tablets usually administered to horses in the clinical setting?
d. By crushing the tablets, mixing the powder with a sweet substance such as molasses, adding water, and administering the mixture orally with water and By crushing the tablets and mixing the powder with the horse's feed
_____ occurs worldwide in all age-groups, is probably the most common cause of food- or waterborne diarrhea in the world and accounts for more than 2 million cases in the United States alone.
d. Campylobacteriosis
Which of the following are control programs currently used by producers who want to eliminate Johne disease from their herd?
d. Cull positive animals and clinically ill animals and Cull positive animals and clinically ill animals
Weight loss and abnormal eating habits such as dropping feed from the mouth and excessive salivation are most often indications of:
d. Dental problems
Ketosis in dairy cows may result from a primary deficiency of _____ intake or may be secondary to other diseases that cause _____.
d. Energy; anorexia
Acute laminitis may be due to excess, sudden ingestion of _____ or secondary to other diseases, which occur during the _____ period.
d. Grain; postparturient
Concentrates include _____ while forages include _____.
d. Grains and high-starch compounds; grass hays and legumes
What is the required treatment for abomasal volvulus?
d. Immediate surgical intervention
This dairy cow has the highest percentage of dairy fat in its milk.
d. Jersey
Abdominal distention in sick neonatal foals is most accurately determined by:
d. Measuring abdominal girth in the same location with a tape measure hourly
To initiate uterine involution, _____ is given.
d. Oxytocin
A 9-year-old female mixed-breed Retriever dog is being discharged after undergoing orthopedic surgery on her right hindlimb and pelvis. Which of the following are the most appropriate first words of instruction to give the client?
exercise should be restricted fr several weeks
You are nursing "Solitaire," a horse recovering from small-intestinal surgery performed yesterday. You know she may become violently ill and have been told to contact the attending clinician if this occurs. At 10 PM on Saturday night, you discover Solitaire covered in sweat with evidence of frequent rolling in her stall. You cannot reach the veterinarian. How can you best treat Solitaire until the veterinarian returns your call?
d. Pass a nasogastric tube to decompress her stomach.
An example of acquired natural active immunity is
d. Recovery from disease
Equine gastrointestinal sounds are evaluated with auscultation over the:
d. Right and left dorsal and ventral abdomen
What allows the ruminant animal to convert nonprotein nitrogen sources into a significant amount of usable protein?
d. Rumen microorganisms
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding calves with diarrhea?
d. Stress, poor sanitation, and poor nutrition can contribute to the development of diarrhea and Warm intravenous fluids should be administered and supplemented with dextrose and bicarbonate as needed.
What is the primary route of infection of caprine arthritis-encephalitis?
d. Through infected colostrum or milk of the infected dam
Which of the following is false with regard to vaccine therapy? Answers: a. Recombinant vaccines are very effective and safe b. Vaccines may be resposible for certain types of anemia in dogs c. Vaccines may not be effective when given to a patient that is currently not showing clinical signs but incubating a disease d. Vaccines are an example of acquired natural active immunity
d. Vaccines are an example of acquired natural active immunity
Acute anaphylaxis can often result in shock-like symptoms. It is characterized as
d. a localized reaction and exaggerated systemic allergic reaction.
What may precipitate malignant hyperthermia (MH) or pale soft exudative pork (PSE)?
d. stress and halothane
Ewes start to cycle as:
daylight length becomes shorter.
Cleaning and sterilization are two of the three cornerstones to providing instruments in the surgery room. Which of the following is the third cornerstone?
decontamination
In determining the amount of IV fluids to administer, knowing the percent dehydration is important when calculating
deficit replacement
Vaginal examination in a late-term mare is not recommended unless:
delivery is imminent
Which of the following is not generally the responsibility of the surgical assistant regarding patient suturing
determining which suture pattern to use
Diseases like bladder infections, vertebral disk disease, and hip dysplasia can all be associated with:
diet
In homeopathy, extremely diluted herbs are called:
dilutions?
A man brings to the clinic a dog he found by the side of the road. The animal is malnourished, markedly dehydrated, and frightened. Examination shows an active infection with purulent exudate in a laceration on the dog's right flank. The wound has started to heal over, and the veterinarian thinks the animal sustained the wound 2 days ago. Which of the following is the most likely wound classification?
dirty
A new veterinary technician is instructed by her supervisor to properly clean the movable equipment in the surgery room. Which of the following is the most appropriate cleaning solution and methodology for the technician to use?
disinfectant
When performing a dental occlusion evaluation of a dog or cat, the shape of the skull must be evaluated. A narrow skull and long maxilla are found in _______ breeds.
dolicocephalic
In an effort to improve your patient's blood pressure, you administer, ______, a synthetic catecholamine, in hopes of causing peripheral vasoconstriction.
dopamine
Arterial blood samples should be drawn from the _____ or femoral artery.
dorsal metatarsal
Which of the following is the most appropriate position to place a Domestic Shorthaired cat that is about to undergo exploratory abdominal surgery?
dorsal recumbancy
The majority of colic surgeries are performed with the horse:
dorsal recumbent position
The majority of colic surgeries are performed with the the horse:
dorsal recumbent position
In situations in which the veterinary staff is having difficulty stimulating a calf to breathe, _____ can be injected under the animal's _____.
doxapram hydrochloride; tongue
A 5-year-old cat is scheduled for enterotomy because of an intestinal foreign obstruction. Which of the following surgical instruments should the veterinary technician prepare?
doyen clamps
Seromas and hematomas that form post pot can be treated with
drainage warm compress hydrotherapy
Quidding
dropping food from the mouth
Calf scours is caused by
e.coli, salmonella, clostridium perfringens
the most common method of identifying swine is by
ear notching
After surgery on a 4-year-old Scottish Terrier dog, the technician turns off the anesthetic vaporizer. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to take
eave on oxygen for 5 min
the large size of the equine heart tend to amplify the sound of blood moving through the heart valves,, producing a common heart murmur known as a(n)
ejection murmur
most common method for semen collection in cows
electroejaculation
Semen collection from the bull, ram, and buck can be performed using an artificial vagina and condom, or by a(n):
electroejaculator.
9-year-old female Domestic Shorthaired cat is about to undergo amputation of the left forelimb because of an irreparable fracture she sustained when she was hit by a bicycle. Which of the following is most appropriate to administer to this cat throughout the amputation surgery?
electrolyte solution
All crystalloid IV solutions contain _____ in water and are characterized by their ______.
electrolytes; osmolality
what surgical item is designed specifically for castration in large animals?
emasculators
Radiographs of a 5-year-old cat show a small smooth toy in its stomach. Which of the following surgical procedures is the veterinarian most likely to perform to remove the toy?
endoscopy
A 7-year-old female intact Vizsla dog is referred to the emergency clinic because of open pyometra discovered by her veterinarian. In addition to septicemia, which of the following conditions is this dog most likely to develop if she does not receive immediate medical treatment?
endotoxemia
toxin line is caused by
endotoxic shock
Ketosis in dairy cows may result from a primary deficiency of _____ intake or may be secondary to other diseases that cause _____.
energy; anorexia
Ketosis in dairy cows may result from a primary deficiency of _____ intake or may be secondary to other diseases that cause _____.
energy; anorexia
Ketosis in dairy cows may result from a primary deficiency of _____ intake or may be secondary to other diseases that cause _____.
energy; anorexia
For which condition is treatment is being described? "One technique involves placement of two or three vertical mattress sutures in the lower lid to roll the lid margin out."
entropion
A 2-year-old female Chinese Shar Pei dog is brought for evaluation because of a 6-month history of ocular irritation. Physical examination shows excessive tearing, squinting, and keratitis. Topical anesthetic does not resolve the signs. The veterinarian determines the irritation is caused by facial hairs adjacent to the eyelid that are rubbing the conjunctiva and cornea. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?
entropion repair
nosebleed
epistaxis
Vaginal cytology is used to evaluate:
epithelial cells
Pregnant broodmares should be vaccinated for _____ to prevent abortion caused by this disease.
equine herpes virus infection
Pregnant broodmares should be vaccinated for _____ to prevent abortion caused by this disease.
equine herpesvirus infection
Male horses usually have four canine teeth that:
erupt at about 4 to 6 years of age
Male horses usually have four canine teeth that:
erupt at about 4 to 6 years of age.
Diarrhea within the first few days of a lambs life is usually caused by
escherichia coli
In large animal medicine, what bandage is used to assist with homeostasis during surgery of the limb?
esmarch banage
Which of the following information is most appropriate to exclude from the aftercare instructions given to a client upon discharge of the client's pet?
estimated cost
A 2-year-old Bernese mountain dog is biting, licking, and scratching at the bandage placed over the site of a recent surgical cranial cruciate-ligament repair. The best way to handle him is to:
evaluate him for pain, treat his pain as necessary, and then restrain him from chewing.
Pain assessment should be made ___ throughout hospitalization.
every 4-6 hours
the first step performed by the veterinarian when attending a dystocia is
examine the mare for emergency conditions such as shock
Hepatic encephalopathy can be caused by:
exposure of the brain to gastrointestinal (GI) toxins as a consequence of decreased liver function or portosystemic shunts
A dog is brought to the emergency clinic after being struck by a motorcycle. The surgeon is set to perform abdominal surgery on this dog. Which of the following should NOT be done before surgery?
express the dog's bladder
Commercial "foal predicator" kits are generally unreliable, and their use by clients should be discouraged.
false
T/FThermoregulation only needs to be monitored intra-operatively
false
True or false Grade "B" milk is used for drinking
false
True or false Mohair is produced from sheep
false
True or false: Veins are deeper in the body than arteries are?
false
true or false the purpose of a prepurchase exam is to predict the future performance of a horse
false
true or false finding calcium carbonate crystals in horse urine indicates antifreeze poisoning
false
ture or false finding mucus in horse urine is a sign of renal failure
false
true or false when artificially inseminating camelids, it is best to place the sperm in the right horn.
false, left horn is more fertile
True or false: A newborn foal that goes from suckling every 30 minutes to suckling every 3 hours is displaying normal behavior?
false. failure to suckle is the first sign of a problem and the foal should be seen by a vet ASAP!
taking the rectal temperature of a horse immediately following a rectal examination will likely result in a
falsely lowered temperature reading
A 5-year-old cat is scheduled for laparoscopic surgery. The cat's bladder will be expressed. Which of the following is also most appropriate to prepare this cat for surgery?
fasting for 12 hours
Which of the following is most likely to deactivate the effects of a chlorine-based disinfectant?
fecal matter
If sand colic is suspected in a horse, a(n) ______ may be used as a diagnostic test.
fecal sedimentation test
meconium
fetal feces
fetotomy
fetus is dead
The term antipyretic is used to describe a drug that relieves:
fever
During routine surgery on a 10-year-old cat, the assistant uses a sponge to wipe away blood from a hemorrhaging site, but the patient continues to bleed excessively. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the veterinary assistant to take?
firmly blot the site
when do most umbilical infections occur in lambs and kids
first 2 weeks of birth
distention of the jugular vein on the cow should be performed with the
fist or with all the fingers
The veterinarian suspects a horse has Salmonella infection. To detect this, you collect a total of _____ fecal samples for culture at least _____ hours between samplings.
five; 12
The majority of abdominal surgical procedures in the bovine patient may be performed via a _____ incision in the _____ patient
flank; standing
________ is word for the removal of enamel points and hooks on upper and lower molars
floating
What organ or structure produces estrogen?
follicle
What is the term for an infection that is transmitted by food dishes, litter pans, and clothing?
fomite
A mixed-breed Terrier dog underwent internal fixation of the right radius. Which of the following postoperative care considerations is NOT appropriate for this animal?
food reduction for 5-7 days
In most cases, the single best way to track changes in hydration and body water is through:
frequent monitoring of body weight.
A 4-year-old dog is undergoing surgical debridement. Which of the following must occur before the veterinary technician knows the procedure is complete
fresh bleeding edges are exposed
Attrition refers to wear:
from teeth contacting teeth
Guttural pouch mycosis is caused by a
fungus
Guttural pouch mycosis is caused by a:
fungus
Guttural pouch mycosis is caused by a:
fungus.
what muscles are avoided in sheep and goats
gluteal muscles
A woman brings to a veterinary clinic a mixed-breed Terrier dog that she found lying by the side of the road. Physical examination shows a fracture of the right radius with a small puncture hole in the skin around the fracture site. The bone is not exposed. Which of the following types of fracture is this?
grade 1 open
Acute laminitis may be due to sudden excess ingestion of _____, or secondary to other diseases, which occur during the _____ period
grain; postparturient
Acute laminitis may be due to sudden excess ingestion of _____, or secondary to other diseases, which occur during the _____ period.
grain; postparturient
To accurately administer medication into a dog's ear canal:
grasp the pinna and pull it upward and slightly out laterally and insert the tip of the dispenser.
In the bitch, vaginal cultures are best performed with a:
guarded, sterile culture swab.
major parasite of sheep and goats that causes anemia
haemonchus contortus
location for microchip in horse
halfway between the withers and poll, 1 1/2 in below crest of the neck, approximately 1-1 1/2 in beneath the skin
typical signs of most uterine infections in the mare include
no external signs, but failure to conceive or experiences early loss of the embryo
which anesthetic gas has been associated with the development of malignant hyperthermia in swine
halothane
Feeding magnets is a prevention for which of the following diseases
hardware's disease
A 6-year-old Sussex Spaniel dog is being discharged after undergoing cystotomy to remove urethral stones. The client should be cautioned that which of the following is most likely to occur during the next 12 to 36 hours
hematuria
A 3-year-old male Shetland Sheepdog is recovering from castration. In addition to scrotal hematoma, which of the following complications is most common?
hemorrhage
Calves dehorned after 6 months of age are at greater risk of developing
hemorrhage
Young horses and performance horses are at high risk of contracting _____ and should be vaccinated every 3 to 4 months.
herpes virus infection
Your equine patient develops rhinopneumonitis, caused by _____, which produces respiratory disease, abortion, and neonatal and neurologic disease (ascending paralysis) in horses
herpesvirus
Your equine patient develops rhinopneumonitis, caused by _____, which produces respiratory disease, abortion, and neonatal and neurologic disease (ascending paralysis) in horses.
herpesvirus
Young horses and performance horses are at high risk of contracting _____ and should be vaccinated every 3 to 4 months.
herpesvirus infection
most common type of milking parlor
herring bone
You have been directed to take a radiograph of the abdomen of a sick puppy, along with that of one of his healthy littermates. You know that for a successful image, you will need to use ____-detail intensifying screens and ____-emulsion film.
high; single
Lactulose has been added to your patient's enema solution. You will:
hold the rectum closed with a gloved hand for the allotted time and then remove the catheter and let the intestine evacuate.
During anastomosis on a cat, the surgeon is most likely to ask the veterinary technician to do which of the following just before suturing begins?
hold the two segments of intestines in alignment
Hh
horned
h
horned gene
the cecum has little function in most animals except
horsees
Joint supplements are used more commonly in _____ than in any other species.
horses
you are nursing Solitaire, a horse recovering from small - intestine surgery performed yesterday. At 10:00pm on Saturday night, you discover Solitaire covered in sweat, with evidence of frequent rolling in her stall. why does a horse like solitaire, with a build up of fluid in her stomach, experience such pain?
horses cannot vomit to relieve the gastric pressure
milk withdrawal period
how long to milk a cow separately and dump their milk
The most common breed of alpacas are:
huacaya.
A horse needs immediate resuscitation. In response, it is best to deliver:
hypertonic saline followed by isotonic crystalloids
Addison's disease, or _____, primarily affects dogs and is characterized by _____.
hypoadrenocorticism; inadequate secretion of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids, primarily cortisol and aldosterone
lambs and kids are especially susceptible to
hypothermia
neonatal foals are highly sensitive to
hypothermia
Young horses and performance horses (engaged in racing, showing, or off-site training) are at high risk of contracting _________ and should be vaccinated every three to four months for these diseases.
influenza and rhinopneumonitis
Which of the following is not an ideal characteristic of wrapping material for a surgical pack?
impermeable
The majority of colic surgeries are performed with the horse
in the dorsal recumbent position
The majority of colic surgeries are performed with the horse:
in the dorsal recumbent position.
A 6-year-old male Bloodhound dog is brought for evaluation because of a 5-day history of scratching excessively at his ears. The veterinarian diagnoses an aural hematoma caused by otitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step in treatment?
incision drainage
castration (open)
incision is made over teste
Mesh may used in the repair of which type of larger hernias?
incisional
Ataxia is:
incoordination.
llamas and alpacas are what type of ovulators
induced ovulators
thrombophlebitis
inflammation of the vein
Which of the following is most appropriate for rinsing after the scrub during surgical prep
isoproply alcohol
A mixed-breed Terrier dog is about to undergo internal fixation because of a fractured radius. The surgeon is going to place intramedullary pins. Which of the following surgical instruments is most appropriate to have ready?
jacob's chuck
Fluids or drugs that have an osmolality greater than 600 mOsm/L should be administered through a ______vein.
jugular
Of all the blood vessels available, which is used most often to collect large amounts of blood?
jugular
most common IV injection site for horses
jugular vein
the most common location for venous sampling of caprine and ovine is the
jugular vein
venipuncture sites in horse
jugular, cephalic, lateral thoracic, saphenous and coccygeal veins
Which practice helps ensure adequate steam penetration in the autoclave?
keeping pack size smaller than 30' 30' 50cm
If using an aminoglycoside antimicrobial agent to treat a patient, it is important to monitor the patient because these agents are known to cause:
kidney problems
If using an aminoglycoside antimicrobial agent to treat a patient, it is important to monitor the patient because these agents are known to cause:
kidney problems.
Even if lambs survive an acute hemolytic crisis of copper toxicity, there is often significant irreversible damage to the _____ due to _____.
kidneys; hemoglobinuria
Even if lambs survive an acute hemolytic crisis of copper toxicity, there is often significant irreversible damage to the _____ due to _____.
kidneys; hemoglobinuria
the common location for tattooing horses is
labial aspect of the upper lip
When tissues don't receive enough oxygen because of decreased tissue perfusion, the levels of ______________________ increase
lactate
A mixed-breed dog is scheduled for surgery later today. The veterinarian wants to examine the peritoneal cavity and its viscera in this dog. Which of the following is the veterinarian most likely to perform on this dog?
laparoscopy
During abdominal exploratory surgery on a mixed-breed dog, it is most appropriate for the technician to ensure the animal's exposed organs are kept moist and covered with which of the following?
laparotomy sponges
In a gravity-fed IV fluid system, the rate of administration is:
largely dependent on the patient's position and manually adjusted by opening or closing a clamp.
The most common location for subcutaneous injections in the horse is under the skin of the
lateral aspect of neck
if given IM injections on cattle always give in the
lateral cervical muscles
When performing chest compressions on an animal that weighs more than 15 lb, the animal should be placed in a:
lateral recumbent position
A 5-year-old Chow Chow dog is evaluated because of a 1-year history of chronic otitis externa. The veterinarian has scheduled surgery for this dog. In addition to clipping and aseptically preparing both sides of the pinna and the adjacent skin, which of the following is the most appropriate presurgical treatment?
lavage
A horse rancher wants several of his healthiest animals to donate blood to be stored for future emergencies. The maximum blood collection volume should be calculated based on:
lean body weight
Ruminal distention is best seen on the _____ side of the animal when standing from behind.
left
AS
left ear
OS
left eye
In the QRS complex, a tall R wave indicates:
left ventricular enlargement
when restraining a foal in lateral recumbency grasp
legs above carpus or tarsus
Intrarectal drug administration:
may have both local and systemic effects.
most cmmonly used local anesthetic drugs in cattle
lidocaine mepivacaine bupivacaine
A veterinary team has finished exploratory abdominal surgery on a 12-year-old male Mustang horse. Which of the following anatomical structures on the patient is sutured in a way that ensures strength of the closure?
linea alba
A 4-year-old cat is brought for evaluation because the client suspects the cat ate some string that was left lying in her sewing room. The veterinarian says she is concerned about possible plication and checks under the cat's tongue. Which of the following is the most likely obstruction type in this cat?
linear only
In bovine rumen fluid collection, the placement of the tube within the rumen can be confirmed by blowing into the tube and:
listening for gurgling.
Listeriosos
listeria monocytogenes
Black Disease
liver flukes
Acessive anesthetic depth may be indicated by
loss of anal tone
transtracheal aspiration and bronchoalveolar lavage are used to collect samples from the
lower airways of the lungs
Cerebrospinal (CSF) fluid from a horse is collected at the:
lumbosacral space
Cerebrospinal (CSF) fluid from a horse is collected at the:
lumbosacral space.
The two types of ultrasonic scalers include:
magnetostrictive and piezoelectric
A 3-year-old male German Shepherd police dog is diagnosed with a left metatarsal transverse fracture that he sustained while helping to subdue a criminal. The veterinarian places a cast, and the technician advises the dog's handler to bring the animal back in 1 week for recheck. During that time, the handler is advised to check the animal's paw several times per day to ensure no swelling of the toes, and if that happens, to come back to the clinic immediately. It is most appropriate to also tell handler to watch for which of the following in the dog
malodor
most common cause of dystocia in the horse is
malposition of the fetus
The efficacy of a disinfectant is affected by all of the following EXCEPT:
manufacturer
After a surgical pack is complete, which of the following is the most appropriate next step
mark with an expiration date
What is the single most common disease syndrome in adult dairy cows?
mastitis
Abdominal distention in sick neonatal foals is most accurately determined by:
measuring abdominal girth in the same location with a tape measure hourly.
the most common cause of colic in neonatal foals is
meconium impaction
While drawing a small volume of blood from a dog, you place the dog in the lateral recumbent position and grasp the lower leg, applying circumferential pressure to occlude and distend the _____ vein.
medial saphenous
The neonates of a mixed-breed dog are transferred to the recovery room still in the uterus. The technician needs to incise the uterus to extract the animals. He tents the uterus and uses which of the following scissors to release the neonates?
metzenbaum
Which of the following statements is false regarding calves with diarrhea?
milk production
constricted pupil
miotic
The analgesic effect of NSAIDs is due to:
modification of the inflammatory response.
The colostrum of beef cows is ________ concentrated with immunoglobulins than dairy cows.
more
What percentage of heart disease in cats is caused by myocardial disease?
more than 80%
Eastern, Western, and Venezuelan viral encephalitis (EVE, WVE, VVE) are transmitted to horses by:
mosquitoes
Eastern, Western, and Venezuelan viral encephalitis (EVE, WVE, VVE) are transmitted to horses by:
mosquitos
Using combinations of analgesic drugs to alter more than one phase of pain by using the synergistic effects of the drugs is called:
multimodal analgesia
Llamas cycle:
multiple times per year.
Horses undergoing surgery lying down are particularly prone to ______ damage during the procedure
muscle
Myositis is damage to or inflammation of:
muscles
the most common procedure used to treat dysocia in the mare is
mutation and traction
dilated pupil
mydriasis
What type of damage can occur to a horse that is has undergone surgery lying down?
myositis (muscle damage)
reversal of butorphanol
nalozone
the proper pathway for passing flexible tubing to perform nasogastric intubation is from
nasal cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach
What side should horses be lead from?
near side (left side)
most common IM injection in horse is in the
neck
Which of the following is most appropriate to use to place a blade into a scalpel handle
needle holder
To prepare for a neuter surgery, we will shave the scrotum for which of the following patients
neither the cat or the dog
What should you do if you find calcium carbonate crystals in a horse's urine?
nothing, they are normally present in large numbers
The most common nutritional disease of pot-bellied pigs is
obesity
The most common nutritional disease of pot-bellied pigs is:
obesity
Because technicians do most of the hands-on care of hospitalized patients, which skill is most important in patient care?
observation
Estrus detection in ewes is accomplished by:
observing the vulva and urination patterns.
Eyedrops should be administered _____, whereas ointment forms are administered _____.
onto the sclera; onto the upper sclera or lower palpebral border
One advantage to using ______or ______ is that their effects can be reversed by admin of a specific reversal agent
opioids and alpha 2 adrenergic agonists
Which of these feeding tube techniques passes a tube into the stomach via the mouth?
orogastric
the most common route of tracheal intubation in horses is
orotracheal
Electromagnetic pulsed signal therapy (PST) has been shown to improve:
osteoarthritis.
evalutate manure _______ and ________
output and consistency
The veterinarian is treating a cow with dystocia using a left-flank approach. After closure, the uterus is lavaged and replaced within the abdomen before routine closure of the laparotomy site. Now, to initiate uterine involution, _____ is given.
oxytocin
what is the most important aspect of external caoptation
padding
uses of butorphanol
pain
analgesia
pain control
Abdominocentesis performed on the __________ reduces the likelihood of tapping the spleen (in horses) or the rumen (in ruminants).
paramedian site to the right of the midline
The ampulla is:
part of the oviduct.
Whelping is:
parturition in a canine.
You and your colleagues attend a lecture on the _____ of a disease to which animals in your patient's farming community have been exposed recently. This particular lecture, then, gives you increased understanding of the mechanism for the development of this particular disease.
pathogenesis
Arterial blood collection is used to determine a:
patient's ability to oxygenate
A caudal epidural provides loss of sensation to the:
perineal area
neonatal period in horse
period following birth
During which phase of milk production do we try to maintain peak milk production
phase 2
You are about to administer medication to a 24-month-old dairy cow. You understand that one drug that is prohibited for this patient is:
phenylbutazone.
when bandaging, casting, or splinting a fracture in a horse, you need to make sure that which of the following occurs?
place the bandage, cast or splint at least one joint above injury.
A pregnant mare in your clinic's care begins exhibiting a vaginal discharge you had not noticed before. This may indicate:
placentitis or urine pooling.
A pregnant mare in your clinic's care begins exhibiting a vaginal discharge you had not noticed before. This may indicate:
placentitis or urine pooling.
if a nasogastric tube goes down the trachea it can cause
pneumonia
The condition in which air becomes trapped between the body wall and the lung is called:
pneumothorax
caslick
pneumovagina repair
HH
polled
Hh when H is dominant
polled
H
polled gene
A dog begins exhibiting _____, or excessive thirst, which can be an indication of diabetes.
polydipsia
Septic arthritis in calves may be treated with
polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) beads implanted subcutaneously near the infected joints
Septic arthritis in calves may be treated with:
polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) beads implanted subcutaneously near the infected joints
To prevent blood and other surgical debris from drying on the instruments, it is most appropriate for the veterinary technician to take which of the following steps?
pre soaking
An autoclave uses which of the following to do its job?
pressuraized steam
give one clinical indication for Caslick Sx
prevent pneumovagina
another name for excessive granulation tissue that occurs in horses
proud flesh
Bronchoalveolar lavage:
provides lung fluid samples that are better for a cytologic assessment than samples obtained by transtracheal aspiration.
When administering fluids intraosseously to a feline neonate, an 18- or 19-gauge needle can be placed in the _____ tibia or _____ femur.
proximal for both
An 8-month-old Labrador Retriever dog is brought for evaluation because of a 1-day history of vomiting, lethargy, and anorexia. Palpation of the abdomen elicits pain. The animal seems depressed. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test to administer to this dog?
radiography
An 8-year-old female Rottweiler dog is evaluated because of a 2-day history of hematuria, pollakiuria, stranguria, and dysuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic study to perform on this animal?
radiography
ROM
range of motion
In the cow, pregnancy is most frequently diagnosed using:
rectal palpation or ultrasound.
Perineal surgery is performed in mares with
rectovaginal tears
Perineal surgery is performed in mares with:
rectovaginal tears
An allergic disease associated with airway inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and excessive mucous production is
recurrent airway obstruction
An allergic disease associated with airway inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and excessive mucous production is:
recurrent airway obstruction.
Ovulation is the:
release of the oocyte from the ovarian follicle.
Owners of horses diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) need to be counseled that the most important aspect of treatment
removal of the offending allergens (usually hay or straw) from the horse's environment.
A few days after surgery, fibroblasts and granular tissue invade a wound site. At which of the following wound-healing stages is this animal most likely to be?
repair
blood gas analysis is used most often in assessing patients with
respiratory diseases and for monitoring patients under general anesthesia
A technician is giving instructions to a client who is bringing her cat home from the clinic after declawing. Which of the following instructions should NOT be given to the client?
restrict pain medication for the next 24 hours
AD
right ear
OD
right eye
when a ruminant is placed in lateral recumbency for a procedure, the preferred position to minimize risk of developing bloat is
right lateral recumbency
An abnormal P wave likely indicates:
right or left atrial enlargement
abdominocentesis is performed on the
right side of midline
The veterinarian wants to check the urinary bladder of a dog using a minimally invasive method. Which of the following instruments is the veterinarian most likely to ask the technician to prepare?
rigid endoscope
An example of a quaternary amine-based disinfectant is:
rocall- d
The folds of the upper palate are referred to as:
rugae
Major fractures of long bones are best repaired with
screws and bone plates
Major fractures of long bones are best repaired with
screws and bone plates.
what type of estrus cycle do sheep have
seasonally polyestrus, short-day breeders, breed dependent
A veterinary team is called to a ranch after the rancher found a cow that had been lost for the past week. The cow is down and has a severely contaminated wound on the neck; the wound most likely was caused by the bite of a wolf. Examination shows granulation tissue has begun to form in and around the wound. Which of the following methodologies for wound closure is most appropriate to treat this cow?
secondary closure
Which grooming tool can most safely be used on all parts of a horse's body
soft-bristled brush
Dairy calves are typically
separated from the dam after they suckle colostrum or are removed in the first few days of life
Beef calves normally remain with the dam and suckle naturally until they are weaned at _______ of age
several months
Dystocia is common in ______ and uncommon in ______
sheep, goats
what is facing
sheering the face to improve vision of their young
Bovine respiratory disease syndrome (BRDS), commonly called _____, is caused by a combination of respiratory bacteria, viruses, and _____.
shipping fever; stress
Concerning the use of corticosteroids in treatment of pain, which statement is most accurate
should not be used with NSAIDS and significant impairment of wound healing
tie a horse up to a sturdy object at _________ level or higher with a quick release knot
shoulder
the preferred bedding for a patient with respiratory allergies would be
shredded paper
In small animals, loud, persistent vocalizing after an operation is generally considered a:
sign of significant pain and/or anxiety that needs attention.
Which of the following is not an ideal characteristic of a disinfectant product?
single spectrum
Calves dehorned after 6 months of age are at greater risk of developing
sinusitis
Calves dehorned after 6 months of age are at greater risk of developing:
sinusitis
How do you tell the difference between a no.3 and no.4 scalpel handle
size
The technician is looking at the surgical schedule for the day and sees an ovariohysterectomy is slated for this morning. Which of the following surgical instruments is most appropriate to prepare for the procedure?
snook hook
Actinobacillosis is usually treated with antibiotics, an antiinflammatory drug, and intravenous administration of:
sodium iodide
Actinobacillosis is usually treated with antibiotics, an antiinflammatory drug, and intravenous administration of:
sodium iodide.
A 10-year-old cat had a tooth extraction. Which of the following is the most appropriate feeding instruction to give the client?
soft food
swine red blood cells are
somewhat fragile
Castration (closed)
spermatic cord and vaginal tunic are emasculated
in which stage of labor is the fetus delivered
stage 2
bulk tank
stainless steel tank for milk storage
Intramammary infusion is usually performed with the animal in:
standing
what position is used for jugular venipuncture in goats
standing
when performing nerve blocks what nerves do you start with
start with the most distal nerves first, if you start proximally you will bloc the distal nerves
It is most appropriate to seal a surgical instrument pack with which of the following types of tape
steam indicater
Which of the following processes is most likely to rid an object of all living microbes
sterilization
What is the LAST step in instrument cleaning
sterilizing
cows tpr and gestation
t= 100-102 p= 40-80 bpm r= 10-30 g= 283
True breech in a horse is defined as _____ presentation of the foal
tail first
true breech in a horse is defined as ______ presentation of the foal.
tail first
True breech in a horse is defined as _____ presentation of the foal.
tail- first
True breech in a horse is defined as __________ presentation of the foal.
tail-first
Which of the following lavage solutions is not sterile and therefore should be used only on external wounds that do not penetrate the body cavity?
tap water
Casper, a sheepdog, has been diagnosed with primary immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA). This means that his immune system has
targeted the red blood cells as foreign (antigens) and developed autoantibodies against red blood cell membrane components
A technician is preparing a patient for endoscopy. She enters the patient data into the computer and turns on the endoscope. She ensures there is an adequate amount of distilled water for flushing. She next covers the air/water valve in water to test for insufflation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this endoscopy preparation?
test the endoscope tip for suction
A 3-year-old intact male Shetland Sheepdog is about to undergo orchiectomy. Which of the following anatomic structures should be examined and palpated before an anesthetic agent is administered to this dog?
testicles
The use of elastrator bands to perform castration of calves has been associated with the development of
tetanus
The use of elastrator bands to perform castration of calves has been associated with the development of:
tetanus
What is the ultimate goal when drawing a blood sample?
that it represents the patient's condition
A new veterinary technician is taking packs out of the autoclave. How does she know the conditions for sterilization have been met?
the chemical indicator tape has changed color
If you observe sweating around the shoulders of a mare in labor:
the mare will foal in the next half hour or so
The veterinary technician must use caution when handling mares immediately after caudal epidural anesthesia because
the mare's rear legs are uncoordinated
The veterinary technician must use caution when handling mares immediately after caudal epidural anesthesia because:
the mare's rear legs are uncoordinated.
Vet techs must use caution when handling mares immediately after caudal epidural anesthesia because
the mares rear legs are uncoordinated
the veterinary technician must use caution when handling mares immediately after a caudal epidural anesthesia because
the mares rear legs are uncoordinated
The veterinarian performs a "chest tap" on a horse. This most likely indicates that:
the pleural space of a horse with pneumothorax was reduced to normal volume through thoracocentesis.
why is transcervical insemination is difficult in sheep and goats because...
the presence of numerous cervical rings
In a volumetric pump fluid system:
the required volume of fluids can be programmed to be delivered over a set amount of time
crutching
the shearing of wool from the vulva and udder
Concerning assisting in hollow organ surgery, which statement is most accurate
the surgeon places "stay" sutures and the suture ends are held up by the assistant to prevent the leakage of inner-organ contents
The QT interval represents:
the total electrical systole
The presence of both hyperalgesia and allodynia collectively is called:
the wind-up phenomenon.
The veterinarian suspects a horse has Salmonella infection. To detect this, you collect a total of _____ fecal samples for culture at least _____ hours between samplings.
three; 12
The ST segment indicates the _____ repolarization.
time interval from ventricular depolarization to
A neonate puppy has a bloated stomach that needs decompression. Before inserting an orogastric (OGT) tube, determine the correct length by measuring from the:
tip of the nose to the 13th rib.
why do you flush with heparin
to prevent clotts
purple gum line along the margins of the teeth is called
toxic line
Life-threatening upper respiratory tract obstruction can be alleviated on an emergency basis by
tracheostomy
Life-threatening upper respiratory tract obstruction can be alleviated on an emergency basis by:
tracheostomy.
The pain pathway begins at the site of tissue trauma or other chemical or surgical injury where pain receptors are stimulated and convert the energy into electrical impulses. This conversion to electrical impulses is called:
transduction
The required distance for a jugular catheter insertion is estimated by measuring the distance from the intended insertion site to the caudal edge of the _____ muscle.
triceps
Which two muscle sites should not be used when giving IM injections in race training
triceps and gleuteal muscles
Many long-bone fractures in adult horses are correctable due to advances in surgical techniques.
true
True or false Rambouillet sheep can breed out of season
true
true or false Stress and antibiotics can affect the somatic cell count used for detection of mastitis
true
true or false brucellosis is zoonotic
true
true or false sheep and goats are especially sensitive to lidocaine
true
true or false sheep are rarely dehorned, while common in goats
true
true or false in a lame forelimb, a horse nods on the leg that is not sore
true
A client is bringing home her dog after surgery. It is most appropriate for the technician to instruct the client to monitor the dog's wound site at least how often?
twice daily
Intravenous catheters should be monitored ______ a day and flushed with heparinized saline every ______ hours
twice; 6
Intravenous catheters should be monitored ______ a day and flushed with heparinized saline every ______ hours.
twice; 6
Both ___ and ____ are susceptible to contamination with ergot, which can lead to necrosis of the lower limbs
tye and barley
Kappa and mu are:
types of opioid receptors in the central nervous system.
After decontamination of surgical instruments, which of the following is the most appropriate next step
ultrasonic cleaner
What type of hernia is congenital and common in foals
umbilical
retained placentas are what in porcine
uncommon
You have been asked to administer two medications simultaneously, but you have noticed that the two drugs may not be compatible. Assuming the veterinarian still wants these administered, you will:
use a central-line catheter
external coaptation
use of bandages, splints and casts
The magnetostrictive scaler:
uses a tip that moves in an elliptical pattern with energy dispersion providing vibrations on all surfaces
use and side effects of delta 2 (equine)
uses: sedation and pain control side effects: decrease HR, Resp, b.p
Acepromazine (uses + side effects) (equine)
uses: tranqulization side effects: no pain control, do not use in stallions (causes penile paralysis) ** no reversal
most common cause of infertility in a horse is
uterine infection
Owners who use artificial insemination and have limited access to a male dog or own bitches with erratic estrous behavior will need to be told exactly when to breed. The exact day of ovulation is best predicted by:
vaginal cytology for progesterone levels by observing for white blood cells and noncornified epithelial cells.
Brucellosis is both a _______ disease and a _______ disease.
venereal, zoonotic
Pain is considered to play such an important role in overall health and well-being that it is now considered a fifth:
vital sign.
Which of the following is a physiologic sign of pain?
vocalizing
It is most appropriate to do which of the following to the surgery room floor at the end of the day?
wet vacume
Roaring/Laryngeal Hemiplegia (causative agent and clinical signs)
whistle/wheeze during respiration, caused by broken rings in the trachea, or paralysis of muscles that control vocal cord tension *surgically corrected
Which nutritional myodegenerative disease may be caused by a deficiency of gestational vitamin E and/or selenium?
white muscle disease
When selecting a cuff to use to indirectly measure a cat's or dog's blood pressure, the _____ of the cuff should be approximately _____ of the circumference of the limb at the site of cuff placement.
width; 40%
How are laparoscopic instruments cleaned after use
with gauze and alcohol
first point of contact on a horse should be its
withers
meconium in goats and sheep should be passed
within 24 hours
the equine placenta normally should be passed
within 4-6 hours after delivery of the foal
If the skin surrounding a wound is very tight and under tension:
wound contraction will be limited.
A patient is diagnosed with __________, which is a deviation of the incisive bone, maxilla, and nasal septum laterally from the midline.
wry nose
delta 2 agonists (equine)
xylazine detomidine
what type of estrus cycle do cows have
year-round polyestrus
reversal of xylazine
yohimbine