Final Review
A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ________hours following the incident. A. 72 B. six C. 12 D. 24
A
A fractured femur can result in the loss of or more of blood into the soft tissues of the thigh. A. 1L B. 2L C. 500 ml D. 250 mL
A
An infant or small child's airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because: A. the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible. B. the tongue is proportionately small and can fall back into the throat. C. the back of the head is flat, which prevents a neutral position. D. he or she has a long neck, which makes the trachea prone to collapse.
A
As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: A. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician. B. place the patient in a high- visibility area and then respond to the call. C. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call. D. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once.
A
Bleeding from the nose following head trauma: A. is a sign of a skull fracture and should not be stopped. B. should be controlled by packing the nostril with gauze. C. is usually due to hypertension caused by the head injury. D. should be assumed to be caused by a fractured septum.
A
Distributive shock occurs when: A. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds. B. an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function. C. temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain. D. severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster.
A
Evaluation of the interior of a crashed motor vehicle during extrication will allow the EMT to: A. identify contact points and predict potential injuries. B. determine the vehicle's speed at the time of impact. C. recognize if the driver hit the brakes before impact. D. assess the severity of the third collision of the crash.
A
External bleeding from a vein is relatively easy to control because: A. veins are under a lower pressure. B. blood typically oozes from a vein. C. veins carry deoxygenated blood. D. veins hold smaller blood volume.
A
Gastrointestinal bleeding should be suspected if a patient presents with: A. hematemesis. B. hematuria. C. dyspnea. D. hemoptysis.
A
Heroin is an example of a(n): A. opioid. B. sympathomimetic. C. cholinergic. D. hypnotic.
A
Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: A. plasma. B. whole blood. C. platelets. D. red blood cells.
A
Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called: A. diffusion. B. breathing. C. ventilation. D. osmosis.
A
Potentially life-threatening consequences of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) include: A. ovarian abscess and ectopic pregnancy. B. ovarian cysts and gonorrhea. C. uterine rupture with severe bleeding. D. bacterial vaginosis and chlamydia.
A
Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than__of his or her total blood volume. Select one: A. 20% B. 10% C. 5% D. 15%
A
The electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the: A. sinoatrial node. B. bundle of His. C. atrioventricular node. D. Purkinje fibers.
A
The most serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: A. injury to you or your patient. B. causing patient anxiety or fear. C. unnecessarily wasting time. D. confusion among team members.
A
What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be delivered per minute to a 4-month-old infant? A. 100 B. 110 C. 120 D. 90
A
When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that: A. osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position. B. elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury. C. bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls. D. any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma.
A
Which of the following incidents does not require a report to be filed with local authorities? A. Cardiac arrest B. Gunshot wounds C. Animal bites D. Spousal abuse
A
Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma? A. Rapid transport to a trauma center B. Intravenous fluid administration C. Early administration of oxygen D. Elevation of the lower extremities
A
You are caring for a 52-year-old man who complains of chest discomfort. The patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Which of the following statements would be appropriate? A. "It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow." B. "We need to take you to the ED stat. We will give you ASA and NTG en route and then reassess your vitals. Do you have any questions?" C. "I notice that you are a retired paramedic, so I'm sure you will understand all of the things that we will be doing to you." D. "This is nothing to worry about. Please try to stay calm. The physician at the hospital will probably not find any signs of a heart problem."
A
A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the ____________________ forearm. A. dorsal B. distal C. proximal D. superior
B
A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should: A. determine if he has a valid living will. B. begin CPR until an AED is available. C. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated. D. start CPR and transport immediately.
B
A diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she: A. urinates frequently. B. is excessively thirsty. C. is unable to swallow D. has low blood sugar.
B
A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: A. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding. B. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. C. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. D. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract.
B
A patient should be placed in the recovery position when he or she: A. is semiconscious, injured, and breathing adequately. B. is unresponsive, uninjured, and breathing adequately, C. has experienced trauma but is breathing effectively. D. has a pulse but is unresponsive and breathing shallowly.
B
A patient's refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be: Select one: A. authorized by a judge. B. an informed refusal. C. witnessed by a notary. D. reported to the police
B
A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bite or sting is called: A. a pustule. B. a wheal. C. urticaria. D. purpura.
B
Albuterol is a generic name for: A. Alupent B. Ventolin. C. Atrovent. D. Singulair.
B
Angina pectoris occurs when: A. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque. B. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply. C. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm. D. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand.
B
Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it: A. dissolves the coronary artery clot. B. prevents the aggregation of platelets. C. reduces the associated chest pain. D. causes direct coronary vasodilation.
B
At the onset of an acute asthma attack, patients commonly experience difficulty breathing and A. rales and rhonchi. B. expiratory wheezing. C. profound cyanosis. D. audible stridor
B
Common signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. abdominal cramps. B. drying of the eyes. C. flushing of the skin. D. persistent dry cough.
B
Early signs and symptoms of intra- abdominal bleeding include: A. bruising only B. pain and distention. C. widespread ecchymosis. D. significant hypotension.
B
Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when: A. the patient is anxious and tachycardic. B. wheezing and hypotension are present. C. a paramedic is present at the scene. D. the reaction produces severe urticaria.
B
General treatment for a woman with vaginal bleeding and shock following sexual assault includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. treating external lacerations with sterile compresses. B. carefully removing any foreign bodies from the vagina. C. refraining from placing any dressings into the vagina. D. supplemental oxygen and keeping the patient supine.
B
Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should: A. record the time and dose given. B. properly dispose of the syringe. C. reassess the patient's vital signs. D. notify medical control of your action.
B
Internal injuries caused by gunshot wounds are difficult to predict because: A. exit wounds caused by the bullet are usually small. B. the bullet may tumble or ricochet within the body. C. the area of damage is usually smaller than the bullet. D. the caliber of the bullet is frequently unknown.
B
Neurogenic shock occurs when: A. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging. B. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. C. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury. D. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container.
B
Perfusion is most accurately defined as the: A. ability of the systemic arteries to constrict as needed to maintain an adequate blood pressure. B. circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body's metabolic needs. C. effective removal of carbon dioxide and other metabolic waste products from the body's cells. D. effective transfer of oxygen from the venules across the systemic capillary membrane walls.
B
The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to: A. ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office. B. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed. C. focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient. D. administer punitive actions to EMTs who do not follow local protocols.
B
The most effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to: A. wear socks made of heavy-duty cotton. B. wear at least three layers of clothing. C. avoid outer clothing with zippers. D. wear a heavy, thick jacket or coat.
B
The stinger from a honeybee should be: A. squeezed with tweezers and removed. B. scraped away from the skin. C. left in place and covered. D. irrigated with copious amounts of water.
B
What medication form does oral glucose come in? A. Fine powder B. Gel C. Suspension D. Liquid
B
Which of the following is not a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patient's vital signs? A. Medications B. Increased weight C. Overall health D. Medical conditions
B
Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent death from a tension pneumothorax? A. Early administration of high- flow oxygen B. Decompression of the injured side of the chest C. Rapid administration of intravenous fluids D. Positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask
B
Which of the following medication routes delivers a drug through the skin over an extended period of time, such as a nitroglycerin or fentanyl patch? A. Intraosseous B. Transcutaneous C. Sublingual D. Subcutaneous
B
Which of the following patients has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment? A. A man who is staggering and states that he had three beers B. A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain C. A diabetic woman who has slurred speech and is not aware of the date D. A confused young male who says he is the president
B
Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS? A. A 64-year-old patient who is given aspirin for suspected cardiac chest pain B. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device C. A 53-year-old patient who is assisted with his prescribed nitroglycerin D. A 61-year-old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen
B
Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct? A. Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen. B. Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction. C. Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure. D. Anaphylactic shock is caused by immune system failure due to a toxic exposure.
B
Which of the following statements regarding the epinephrine auto-injector is correct? A. EMTs do not need physician authorization to use the auto-injector. B. The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug. C. The auto-injector delivers epinephrine via the subcutaneous route. D. The adult auto-injector delivers 0.5 to 1 mg of epinephrine.
B
A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood- soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should: A. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen. B. apply pressure to the brachial artery. C. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist. D. wrap the towel with pressure bandages.
C
A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being: A. unilateral. B. medial. C. bilateral. D. proximal
C
A patient who presents with a headache, fever, confusion, and red blotches on his or her skin should be suspected of having: A. MERS-CoV. B. tuberculosis. C. meningitis. D. hepatitis.
C
A patient who presents with rapid breathing, nausea and vomiting, ringing in the ears, and hyperthermia should be suspected of ingesting a significant quantity of: A. cocaine. B. acetaminophen. C. aspirin. D. ibuprofen.
C
A patient with a pneumothorax has unilateral chest expansion. This means that: A. his chest and his abdomen are moving in opposite directions. B. both of his lungs are expanding when he inhales. C. only one side of his chest rises when he inhales. D. both sides of his chest are moving minimally.
C
An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position? A. Dorsal B. Supine C. Prone D. Recumbent
C
Factors that increase the risk for developing methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) include: A. prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. B. a history of a respiratory illness within the past 6 to 8 weeks. C. prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit. D. failure to be vaccinated against any strain of hepatitis.
C
For a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must: A. be updated a minimum of every 6 months. B. be signed by the local justice of the peace. C. clearly state the patient's medical problem. D. be dated within the previous 24 months.
C
Harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sounds are characteristic of: A. rales. B. wheezing. C. stridor. D. rhonchi.
C
In nontrauma patients, an early indicator of internal bleeding is: A. rapid, shallow breathing. B. a decreasing blood pressure. C. dizziness upon standing. D. a rapid, thready pulse.
C
In older patients, the first indicator of nontraumatic internal bleeding might be: A. a heart rate over 120 beats/min. B. a low blood pressure. C. weakness or dizziness. D. diaphoresis and pale skin.
C
In which position should you restrain a physically uncooperative patient? A. With arms and legs bound together B. Prone C. Supine D. With hands tied behind the back
C
Internal bleeding into a fractured extremity is most often controlled by: A. applying chemical ice pack. B. keeping the patient warm. C. splinting the extremity. D. applying a tourniquet.
C
Most cases of external bleeding from an extremity can be controlled by: A. elevating the injured extremity. B. packing the wound with gauze. C. applying local direct pressure. D. compressing a pressure point.
C
Shock is the result of: A. the body's maintenance of homeostasis. B. temporary dysfunction of a major organ. C. hypoperfusion to the cells of the body. D. widespread constriction of the blood vessels.
C
The average pulse rate of persons between 19 and 40 years of age is typically: A. 90 beats/min. B. 80 beats/min. C. 70 beats/min. D. 60 beats/min.
C
The central nervous system is composed of the: A. motor and sensory nerves. B. brain and sensory nerves. C. brain and spinal cord. D. spinal cord and sensory nerves.
C
The medical term for a low blood glucose level is: A. hypertension. B. hypotension. C. hypoglycemia. D. hyperglycemia.
C
The most important consideration at the scene of a hazardous materials incident is: A. evacuating the bystanders. B. calling the hazardous materials team. C. ensuring your personal safety. D. identifying the hazardous material.
C
The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to: A. noncompliance with standard precautions. B. lack of proper immunizations. C. careless handling of sharps. D. excessive blood splashing or splattering.
C
Two of the MOST common signs of anaphylaxis are: A. hypertension and swollen hands. B. expiratory stridor and tachycardia C. urticaria and angioedema. D. watery eyes and localized itching.
C
What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR? A. 3:1 B. 30:2 C. 15:2 D. 5:1
C
Which of the following patients is in decompensated shock? A. A 32-year-old male with anxiety and a systolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg B. A 23-year-old restless male with cool, clammy skin and tachycardia C. A 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils D. A 28-year-old female with pale skin and rapid, shallow respirations
C
Which of the following statements regarding Good Samaritan laws is correct? A. Such laws guarantee that the EMT will not be held liable if he or she is sued. B. Such laws do not protect EMTS who are off duty. C. Such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence. D. Such laws provide the EMT with absolute immunity from a lawsuit.
C
Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock? A. Excessive sweating B. Repeated diarrhea C. Liver laceration D. Severe vomiting
C
Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? A. Radio B. Direct C. Online D. Off-line
C
A conscious and alert 29-year-old female with a history of asthma complains of difficulty breathing that began after her morning jog. The temperature outside is 40°F (5°C). On exam, you hear bilateral expiratory wheezing. After providing supplemental oxygen, you should: A. place her in a recumbent position to facilitate breathing. B. contact medical control and administer an antihistamine. C. call medical control and ask how to proceed with treatment. D. determine if she has been prescribed a beta-agonist inhaler.
D
After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called: A. hemolysis. B. hemiplegia. C. hematemesis. D. hemostasis.
D
After ensuring his or her own safety, the EMT's next priority when caring for a patient with a behavioral emergency is to: A. diagnose the patient's problem and provide definitive treatment. B. transport the patient directly to a specialized psychiatric facility. C. determine the underlying cause of the problem and offer advice. D. assess the patient's response to his or her environment.
D
An EMT would most likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she: A. refused to care for a violent patient who is armed with a knife. B. terminated care of a competent adult patient at his or her request. C. remained at the hospital for 30 minutes to give a patient report. D. did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient.
D
Cardiogenic shock may result from all of the following, EXCEPT: A. increased afterload. B. poor contractility. C. heart attack. D. increased preload.
D
Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include: o A. altered mental status and bradycardia. B. anxiety, dizziness, and severe bradypnea. C. unilateral paralysis and slurred speech D. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities.
D
Gastric distention will MOST likely occur: A. when you deliver minimal tidal volume. B. in patients who are intubated. C. when the airway is completely obstructed. D. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.
D
Hypoperfusion is another name for: A. cyanosis. B. hypoxemia. C. cellular death. D. shock.
D
Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of: A. ecstasy. B. crack cocaine. C. amphetamine sulfate (Benzedrine). D. oxycodone (Percocet).
D
Hypovolemic shock occurs when: A. at least 10% of the patient's blood volume is lost. B. the clotting ability of the blood is enhanced. C. the patient's systolic BP is less than 100 mm Hg. D. low fluid volume leads to inadequate perfusion.
D
If one or more occupants in the same vehicle are killed in a crash, the EMT should: A. rapidly assess only the survivors who have experienced obvious trauma. B. transport the survivors only if they have injuries or complain of pain. C. allow the survivors to refuse transport if they have no obvious injuries. D. suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma.
D
In two-rescuer adult CPR, you should deliver a compression to ventilation ratio of: A. 15:2. B. 5:2. C. 5:1. D. 30:2.
D
The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the: A. pulmonary arteries. B. superior venae cavae. C. inferior venae cavae. D. pulmonary veins.
D
Urticaria is the medical term for: A. a wheal. B. swelling. C. burning. D. hives.
D
When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid: A. the use of a long backboard or scoop stretcher. B. flexing your body at the knees. C. the use of more than two EMTS. D. using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible.
D
When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: A. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water. B. use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces. C. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel. D. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions.
D
When documenting a call in which a female was sexually assaulted, you should: Select one: A. only use quotation marks when recording any statements made by witnesses. record your opinion only if you have reasonable proof to justify the statement. C. translate the patient's words or statements using proper medical terminology D. keep the report concise and record only what the patient stated in her own words.
D
Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) most affects EMS personnel? A. Preventing insurance fraud B. Ensuring access to insurance C. Controlling insurance costs D. Protecting patient privacy
D
Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia? A. Restlessness B. Tachycardia C. Anxiety D. Cyanosis
D
Which of the following maneuvers should be used to open a patient's airway when a spinal injury is suspected? A. Head tilt-neck lift B. Tongue-jaw lift C. Head tilt-chin lift D. Jaw-thrust
D
Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for complications caused by the influenza virus? A. 50-year-old woman with moderate obesity B. 12-year-old child with a fractured arm C. 39-year-old man with mild hypertension D. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes
D
Which of the following statements regarding pulse oximetry is correct? A. The pulse oximeter is a valuable assessment tool that measures the percentage of red blood cells that contain hemoglobin molecules. B. Caution must be exercised when using the pulse oximeter on a patient with carbon monoxide poisoning because falsely low readings are common. C. Most otherwise healthy patients can maintain adequate oxygenation and good skin color with oxygen saturation readings as low as 70% to 80%. D. Pulse oximetry measures the percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen but does not measure the actual hemoglobin content of the blood.
D
You are assessing a 13-month-old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will most likely find that she: A. will readily allow you to separate her from her mother. B. has bulging fontanelles secondary to severe dehydration. C. is unable to track your movements with her eyes. D. responds to her name but is fearful of your presence.
D
