Fluids & Electrolytes NCLEX Questions

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a loop diuretic for treatment of heart failure. Which of these actions will be included in the plan of care? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY. A. Assess daily weights. B. Encourage consumption of citrus fruits. C. Weigh the client weekly. D. Monitor serum potassium. E. Discourage intake of spinach. F. Monitor for bradycardia.

A, B, D RATIONALE: Actions for the nurse to include when caring for a client taking a loop diuretic for heart failure include: assessing daily weights, encouraging consumption of citrus fruits, and monitoring the client's serum potassium. High-ceiling (loop) diuretics remove excess fluid and are potassium-depleting drugs. Consuming citrus fruit, green leafy vegetables, cantaloupe, tomato, and other food with potassium is indicated while receiving this type of diuretic to compensate for urinary loss of potassium.The client must be weighed at the same time each day, using the same scale and wearing approximately the same amount of clothes. Green leafy vegetables such as spinach contain potassium and are encouraged. The diuretic itself has no effect on the heart rate, however potassium depletion caused by the diuretic may cause cardiac irritability with a weak and thready pulse.

The nurse is caring for a client who takes furosemide (Lasix) and digoxin (Lanoxin). The client's potassium (K+) level is 2.5 mEq/L (2.5 mmol/L). Which additional assessment will the nurse make? A. Heart rate B. Blood pressure (BP) C. Increases in edema D. Sodium level

A. Heart rate RATIONALE: The nurse must assess the heart rate for bradycardia related to digoxin and irritability or irregularity related to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the sensitivity of cardiac muscle to digoxin and may result in digoxin toxicity, even when the digoxin level is within the therapeutic range. The nurse also assesses for GI symptoms such as diarrhea, and other symptoms of toxicity to digoxin.The BP may decrease with low potassium level but monitoring the pulse is essential. The diuretic would reduce edema, therefore assessing the heart rate is the priority. High serum sodium levels would not be expected in this scenario unless fluid volume deficit is present.

The rapid response team (RRT) is called to the bedside of a client with heart rate of 38 beats per minute and a potassium level of 7.0 mEq/L (7.0 mmol/L). For which medication will the nurse anticipate a prescription? A. Insulin B. atropine C. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) D. potassium phosphate

A. Insulin RATIONALE: The rapid response nurse expects to administer a combination of 20 units of regular insulin in 100 mL of 20% dextrose in water. This may be prescribed to promote movement of potassium from the blood into the intracellular fluid.While atropine will treat bradycardia, it does not address the underlying cause of bradycardia which is likely hyperkalemia. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)may be used for hyperkalemia, but it will not act quickly enough in an emergency. Additional potassium such as contained in potassium phosphate will make the client's condition more critical.

Which action can the registered nurse (RN) who is caring for a critically ill patient with multiple IV lines and medications delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Flush a saline lock with normal saline. b. Verify blood products prior to administration. c. Remove the patient's central venous catheter. d. Titrate the flow rate of vasoactive IV medications.

ANS: A A LPN/LVN has the education, experience, and scope of practice to flush a saline lock with normal saline. Administration of blood products, adjustment of vasoactive infusion rates, and removal of central catheters in critically ill patients require RN level education and scope of practice.

The nurse at a long-term care facility is teaching a group of unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) about fluid intake principles for older adults. Which of these should be included in the education session? A. "Be careful not to overload them with too many oral fluids." B. "Offer fluids that they prefer frequently and on a regular schedule." C. "Restrict their fluids if they are incontinent." D. "Wake them every 2 hours during the night with a drink."

B. "Offer fluids that they prefer frequently and on a regular schedule." RATIONALE: The long-term care nurse teaches the UAPs to frequently offer older adults fluids that they prefer and on a regular basis. Because of the decreased thirst mechanism, older adults can become dehydrated and must be offered oral fluids every 2 hours. The likelihood of their accepting the fluid increases if it is one they prefer.Risk of overhydration, especially with oral fluids, is minimal. Fluids would never be restricted even if the client is incontinent. Restricting fluids to incontinent clients is a common mistake made by UAP in long-term care environments. It is not necessary to disturb older adults during their sleep to offer fluids. However, they should be offered a drink during waking hours at frequent intervals (e.g., every 2 hours).

An older adult is admitted to the medical surgical unit with dehydration. The nurse performs which of these assessments to determine whether the client is safe for independent ambulation? A. Assesses for dry oral mucous membranes B. Checks for orthostatic blood pressure changes C. Notes pulse rate is 72 beats/min and bounding D. Evaluates that the serum potassium level is 4.0 mEq/L (4.0 mmol/L)

B. Checks for orthostatic blood pressure changes RATIONALE: When caring an older adult admitted for dehydration, the nurse determines if the client is safe for independent ambulation by assessing for orthostatic blood pressure. Blood pressure measured with the client lying, then sitting, and finally standing is done to detect orthostatic or postural changes. During low blood volume states, especially when standing, insufficient blood flow to the brain may cause hypotension and tachycardia upon arising. This may cause light-headedness and dizziness, which increases the risk for falls, especially in older adults.Assessment of oral mucous membranes and the pulse rate can detect symptoms of dehydration, but these are not the best ways to assess for a fall risk. Checking serum potassium does ensure safety for ambulation nor assess for fall risk.

The charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is completing assignments for the day shift. Which client is most appropriate to assign to the LPN/LVN? A. A 44-year-old with congestive heart failure (CHF) who has gained 3 pounds (1.4 kg) since the previous day B. A 58-year-old with chronic renal failure (CRF) who has a serum potassium level of 6 mEq/L (6.0 mmol/L) C. A 76-year-old with poor skin turgor who has a serum osmolarity of 300 mOsm/kg (300 mmol/kg) D. An 80-year-old with 3+ peripheral edema and crackles throughout the posterior chest

C. A 76-year-old with poor skin turgor who has a serum osmolarity of 300 mOsm/kg (300 mmol/kg) RATIONALE: The most appropriate client for the nurse to assign to the LPV/LVN is the 76-year-old adult with poor skin turgor and a serum osmolarity of 300 mOsm/kg (300 mmol/kg). Although the 76-year-old client has poor skin turgor, the serum osmolarity indicates normal fluid balance. This client is the most stable of the four clients described.The 44-year-old with CHF who has gained 3 pounds (1.4 kg) since the previous day requires additional assessments and interventions which should be performed by an RN. The data about the 58-year-old client with CRF and a serum potassium level of 6 mEq/L (6.0 mmol/L) has a risk for dysrhythmia and instability. Assessments and interventions performed by an RN are also needed on this client. The data about the 80-year-old client with edema and congested lungs indicate that the client is not stable, requiring ongoing assessments and interventions by an RN.

Which client is most appropriate for the nurse manager of the medical-surgical unit to assign to the LPN/LVN? A. A client admitted with dehydration who has a heart rate of 126 beats/min B. A client just admitted with hyperkalemia who takes a potassium-sparing diuretic at home C. A client admitted yesterday with heart failure with dependent pedal edema D. A client who has just been admitted with severe nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

C. A client admitted yesterday with heart failure with dependent pedal edema The most appropriate client to assign to the LPN/LVN is the 64-year-old client admitted yesterday with heart failure and dependent pedal edema. This client is the most stable of all the four clients.Dehydration, tachycardia, potassium overload, and GI signs and symptoms in a client indicate that he or she is unstable. Care must be given by the RN who can carry out assessments, prescriptions, and participate interdisciplinary collaboration as needed.

The nurse is assessing a client with a sodium level of 118 mEq/L (118 mmol/L). Which activity takes priority? A. Monitoring urine output B. Encouraging sodium rich fluids and foods throughout the day C. Instructing the client not to ambulate without assistance D. Assessing deep tendon reflexes

C. Instructing the client not to ambulate without assistance RATIONALE: Safety is the priority in this instance. Instructing the client not to ambulate without assistance is the priority for a client with a sodium level of 118 mEq/L (118 mmol/L). This sodium level denotes severe hyponatremia which makes depolarization slower and cell membranes less excitable. This is manifested as general muscle weakness which is worse in the legs and arms. Additionally, this client may have developed confusion from cerebral edema.Monitoring urine output needs to be done but is not the priority action in this situation. Generally, fluid is restricted, rather than sodium rich foods offered, to minimize the hyponatremia. While the nurse may assess muscle strength and deep tendon reflex responses, safety is the priority.

The primary care provider writes prescriptions for a client who is admitted with a serum potassium level of 6.9 mEq/L (6.9 mmol/L). What does the nurse implement first? A. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) orally. B. Ensure that a potassium-restricted diet is ordered. C. Place the client on a cardiac monitor. D. Teach the client about foods that are high in potassium.

C. Place the client on a cardiac monitor. RATIONALE: The nurse must first place this client on a monitor. Because hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening bradycardia, placing the client on a cardiac monitor permits early intervention in the event of dysrhythmias.Administering a potassium-reducing medication, recommending a potassium-restricted diet, and teaching the client about diet are appropriate but will not immediately decrease the serum potassium level and do not need to be implemented as quickly as monitoring cardiac rhythm.

The nurse is caring for an older adult with hypernatremia. Which of these interventions does the nurse perform first? A. Restrict the client's intake of sodium B. Administer a diuretic C. Monitor the serum osmolarity D. Encourage fluid intake

D. Encourage fluid intake RATIONALE: When caring for an older adult with hypernatremia, the nurse first encourages the client to take more fluid. Encouraging fluids in the older adult is important to prevent dehydration with resulting concentrated sodium levels.Hypernatremia and fluid loss typically occur in tandem in the older adult. Restricting sodium does not replace fluids needed by many elderly clients. A diuretic will worsen the fluid volume deficit the client is experiencing. Monitoring the osmolarity will detect an abnormality, but not resolve the problem.

A client with mild hypokalemia caused by diuretic use is discharged home. The home health nurse delegates which of these interventions to the home health aide? A. Assessment of muscle tone and strength B. Education about potassium-rich foods C. Instruction on the proper use of drugs D. Measurement of the client's weight

D. Measurement of the client's weight RATIONALE: The intervention that can be delegated to the home health aide is to measure the client's weight. Measuring the client's intake and output and reporting it to the RN helps determines if the plan of care has been effective.Assessment, education, and instruction are higher-level nursing actions within the scope of practice of the professional nurse.

The nurse is planning care for a 72-year-old resident of a long-term care facility who has a history of dehydration. Which action does the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? A. Assessing oral mucosa for dryness B. Choosing appropriate oral fluids C. Monitoring skin turgor for tenting D. Offering fluids to drink every hour

D. Offering fluids to drink every hour RATIONALE: Offering oral fluids every hour is within the scope of practice for a UAP.Assessments of oral mucosa, selection of appropriate fluids, and assessment of skin turgor would be done by licensed nursing staff, who have the needed education and scope of practice to implement these more complex actions.

A postoperative patient who has been receiving nasogastric suction for 3 days has a serum sodium level of 125 mEq/L (125 mmol/L). Which of these prescribed therapies that the patient has been receiving should the nurse question? a. Infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 ml/hr. b. Administer IV morphine sulfate 4 mg every 2 hours PRN. c. Give IV metoclopramide (Reglan) 10 mg every 6 hours PRN for nausea. d. Administer 3% saline if serum sodium drops to less than 128 mEq/L.

a. Infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 ml/hr. Because the patients gastric suction has been depleting electrolytes, the IV solution should include electrolyte replacement. Solutions such as lactated Ringers solution would usually be ordered for this patient. The other orders are appropriate for a postoperative patient with gastric suction.

The nurse notes that a patient who was admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis has rapid, deep respirations. Which action should the nurse take? a. Notify the patients health care provider. b. Give the prescribed PRN lorazepam (Ativan). c. Start the prescribed PRN oxygen at 2 to 4 L/min. d. Encourage the patient to take deep, slow breaths.

a. Notify the patients health care provider. The rapid, deep (Kussmaul) respirations indicate a metabolic acidosis and the need for actions such as administration of sodium bicarbonate, which will require a prescription by the health care provider. Oxygen therapy is not indicated because there is no indication that the increased respiratory rate is related to hypoxemia. The respiratory pattern is compensatory, and the patient will not be able to slow the respiratory rate. Ativan administration will slow the respiratory rate and increase the level of acidosis.

When caring for a patient admitted with hyponatremia, which actions will the nurse anticipate taking? a. Restrict patients oral free water intake. b. Avoid use of electrolyte-containing drinks. c. Infuse a solution of 5% dextrose in 0.45% saline. d. Administer vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, [ADH]

a. Restrict patients oral free water intake. To help improve serum sodium levels, water intake is restricted. Electrolyte-containing beverages will improve the patients sodium level. Administration of vasopressin or hypotonic IV solutions will decrease the serum sodium level further.

The nurse obtains all of the following assessment data about a patient with deficient fluid volume caused by a massive burn injury. Which of the following assessment data will be of greatest concern? a. The blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg. b. Urine output is 30 ml over the last hour. c. Oral fluid intake is 100 ml for the last 8 hours. d. There is prolonged skin tenting over the sternum.

a. The blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg. The blood pressure indicates that the patient may be developing hypovolemic shock as a result of fluid loss. This will require immediate intervention to prevent the complications associated with systemic hypoperfusion. The poor oral intake, decreased urine output, and skin tenting all indicate the need for increasing the patients fluid intake but not as urgently as the hypotension.

Which assessment finding about a patient who has a serum calcium level of 7.0 mEq/L is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. The patient is experiencing laryngeal stridor. b. The patient complains of generalized fatigue. c. The patients bowels have not moved for 4 days. d. The patient has numbness and tingling of the lips.

a. The patient is experiencing laryngeal stridor. Laryngeal stridor may lead to respiratory arrest and requires rapid action to correct the patients calcium level. The other data also are consistent with hypocalcemia, but do not indicate a need for immediate action.

The nurse in the outpatient clinic who notes that a patient has a decreased magnesium level should ask the patient about a. daily alcohol intake. b. intake of dietary protein. c. multivitamin/mineral use. d. use of over-the-counter (OTC) laxatives

a. daily alcohol intake. Hypomagnesemia is associated with alcoholism. Protein intake would not have a significant effect on magnesium level. OTC laxatives (such as milk of magnesia) and use of multivitamin/mineral supplements would tend to increase magnesium level.

A patient with advanced lung cancer is admitted to the emergency department with urinary retention caused by renal calculi. Which of these laboratory values will require the most immediate action by the nurse? a. Arterial blood pH is 7.32. b. Serum calcium is 18 mEq/L. c. Serum potassium is 5.1 mEq/L. d. Arterial oxygen saturation is 91%.

b. Serum calcium is 18 mEq/L. The serum calcium is well above the normal level and puts the patient at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. The nurse should initiate cardiac monitoring and notify the health care provider. The potassium, oxygen saturation, and pH also are abnormal, and the nurse should notify the health care provider about these values as well, but they are not immediately life-threatening.

A patient who has been hospitalized for 2 days has been receiving normal saline IV at 100 ml/hr, has a nasogastric tube to low suction, and is NPO. Which assessment finding by the nurse is the priority to report to the health care provider? a. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L (138 mmol/L) b. Gradually decreasing level of consciousness (LOC) c. Oral temperature of 100.1 F with bibasilar lung crackles d. Weight gain of 2 pounds (1 kg) above the admission weight

b. Gradually decreasing level of consciousness (LOC) The patients history and change in LOC could be indicative of several fluid and electrolyte disturbances: extracellular fluid (ECF) excess, ECF deficit, hyponatremia, hypernatremia, hypokalemia, or metabolic alkalosis. Further diagnostic information will be ordered by the health care provider to determine the cause of the change in LOC and the appropriate interventions. The weight gain, elevated temperature, crackles, and serum sodium level also will be reported, but do not indicate a need for rapid action to avoid complications.

Intravenous potassium chloride (KCl) 60 mEq is prescribed for treatment of a patient with severe hypokalemia. Which action should the nurse take? a. Administer the KCl as a rapid IV bolus. b. Infuse the KCl at a rate of 20 mEq/hour. c. Give the KCl only through a central venous line. d. Add no more than 40 mEq/L to a liter of IV fluid.

b. Infuse the KCl at a rate of 20 mEq/hour. Intravenous KCl is administered at a maximal rate of 20 mEq/hr. Rapid IV infusion of KCl can cause cardiac arrest. Although the preferred concentration for KCl is no more than 40 mEq/L, concentrations up to 80 mEq/L may be used for some patients. KCl can cause inflammation of peripheral veins, but it can be administered by this route.

Which of these actions can the nurse who is caring for a critically ill patient with multiple intravenous (IV) lines delegate to an experienced LPN? a. Administer IV antibiotics through the implantable port. b. Monitor the IV sites for redness, swelling, or tenderness. c. Remove the patients nontunneled subclavian central venous catheter. d. Adjust the flow rate of the 0.9% normal saline in the peripheral IV line.

b. Monitor the IV sites for redness, swelling, or tenderness. An experienced LPN has the education, experience, and scope of practice to monitor IV sites for signs of infection. Administration of medications, adjustment of infusion rates, and removal of central catheters in critically ill patients require RN level education and scope of practice.

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has a central venous access device (CVAD)? a. Avoid using friction when cleaning around the CVAD insertion site. b. Use the push-pause method to flush the CVAD after giving medications. c. Obtain an order from the health care provider to change CVAD dressing. d. Have the patient turn the head toward the CAVD during injection cap changes.

b. Use the push-pause method to flush the CVAD after giving medications. The push-pause enhances the removal of debris from the CVAD lumen and decreases the risk for clotting. To decrease infection risk, friction should be used when cleaning the CVAD insertion site. The dressing should be changed whenever it becomes damp, loose, or visibly soiled and the patient should turn away from the CVAD during cap changes.

When the nurse is evaluating the fluid balance for a patient admitted for hypovolemia associated with multiple draining wounds, the most accurate assessment to include is a. skin turgor. b. daily weight. c. presence of edema. d. hourly urine output.

b. daily weight. Daily weight is the most easily obtained and accurate means of assessing volume status. Skin turgor varies considerably with age. Considerable excess fluid volume may be present before fluid moves into the interstitial space and causes edema. Hourly urine outputs do not take account of fluid intake or of fluid loss through insensible loss, sweating, or loss from the gastrointestinal tract or wounds.

The home health nurse notes that an elderly patient has a low serum protein level. The nurse will plan to assess for a. pallor. b. edema. c. confusion. d. restlessness.

b. edema. Low serum protein levels cause a decrease in plasma oncotic pressure and allow fluid to remain in interstitial tissues, causing edema. Confusion, restlessness, and pallor are not associated with low serum protein levels.

When caring for an alert and oriented elderly patient with a history of dehydration, the home health nurse will teach the patient to increase fluid intake a. in the late evening hours. b. if the oral mucosa feels dry. c. when the patient feels thirsty. d. as soon as changes in level of consciousness (LOC) occur.

b. if the oral mucosa feels dry. An alert, elderly patient will be able to self-assess for signs of oral dryness such as thick oral secretions or dry-appearing mucosa. The thirst mechanism decreases with age and is not an accurate indicator of volume depletion. Many older patients prefer to restrict fluids slightly in the evening to improve sleep quality. The patient will not be likely to notice and act appropriately when changes in LOC occur.

A patient receiving isoosmolar continuous tube feedings develops restlessness, agitation, and weakness. Which laboratory result is most important to report to the health care provider? a. K+ 3.4 mEq/L (3.4 mmol/L) b. Ca+2 7.8 mg/dl (1.95 mmol/L) c. Na+ 154 mEq/L (154 mmol/L) d. PO4-3 4.8 mg/dl (1.55 mmol/L)

c. Na+ 154 mEq/L (154 mmol/L) The elevated serum sodium level is consistent with the patients neurologic symptoms and indicates a need for immediate action to prevent further serious complications such as seizures. The potassium and calcium levels vary slightly from the normal but do not require any immediate action by the nurse. The phosphate level is within the normal parameters.

A patient with renal failure who has been taking aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide suspension (Maalox) at home for indigestion is somnolent and has decreased deep tendon reflexes. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Notify the patients health care provider. b. Withhold the next scheduled dose of Maalox. c. Review the magnesium level on the patients chart. d. Check the chart for the most recent potassium level

c. Review the magnesium level on the patients chart. The patient has a history and symptoms consistent with hypermagnesemia; the nurse should check the chart for a recent serum magnesium level. Notification of the health care provider will be done after the nurse knows the magnesium level. The Maalox should be held, but more immediate action is needed to correct the patients decreased deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) and somnolence. Monitoring of potassium levels also is important for patients with renal failure, but the patients current symptoms are not consistent with hyperkalemia.

A patient who has an infusion of 50% dextrose prescribed asks the nurse why a peripherally inserted central catheter must be inserted. Which explanation by the nurse is correct? a. The prescribed infusion can be given much more rapidly when the patient has a central line. b. There is a decreased risk for infection when 50% dextrose is infused through a central line. c. The 50% dextrose is hypertonic and will be more rapidly diluted when given through a central line. d. The required blood glucose monitoring is more accurate when samples are obtained from a central line.

c. The 50% dextrose is hypertonic and will be more rapidly diluted when given through a central line. Shrinkage of red blood cells can occur when solutions with dextrose concentrations greater than 10% are administered intravenously. Blood glucose testing is not more accurate when samples are obtained from a central line. The infection risk is higher with a central catheter than with peripheral IV lines. Hypertonic or concentrated IV solutions are not given rapidly.

A recently admitted patient has a small cell carcinoma of the lung, which is causing the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse will monitor carefully for a. increased total urinary output. b. elevation of serum hematocrit. c. decreased serum sodium level. d. rapid and unexpected weight loss.

c. decreased serum sodium level. SIADH causes water retention and a decrease in serum sodium level. Weight loss, increased urine output, and elevated serum hematocrit may be associated with excessive loss of water, but not with SIADH and water retention.

Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is prescribed for a patient as a diuretic. Which statement by the patient indicates that the teaching about this medication has been effective? a. I will try to drink at least 8 glasses of water every day. b. I will use a salt substitute to decrease my sodium intake. c. I will increase my intake of potassium-containing foods. d. I will drink apple juice instead of orange juice for breakfast.

d. I will drink apple juice instead of orange juice for breakfast. Since spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, patients should be taught to choose low potassium foods such as apple juice rather than foods that have higher levels of potassium, such as citrus fruits. Because the patient is using spironolactone as a diuretic, the nurse would not encourage the patient to increase fluid intake. Teach patients to avoid salt substitutes, which are high in potassium.

A patient with hypercalcemia is being cared for on the medical unit. Nursing actions included on the care plan will include a. maintaining the patient on bed rest. b. auscultating lung sounds every 4 hours. c. monitoring for Trousseaus and Chvosteks signs. d. encouraging fluid intake up to 4000 ml every day.

d. encouraging fluid intake up to 4000 ml every day. To decrease the risk for renal calculi, the patient should have an intake of 3000 to 4000 ml daily. Ambulation helps decrease the loss of calcium from bone and is encouraged in patients with hypercalcemia. Trousseaus and Chvosteks signs are monitored when there is a possibility of hypocalcemia. There is no indication that the patient needs frequent assessment of lung sounds, although these would be assessed every shift.

A patient is taking a potassium-wasting diuretic for treatment of hypertension. The nurse will teach the patient to report symptoms of adverse effects such as a. personality changes. b. frequent loose stools. c. facial muscle spasms. d. generalized weakness.

d. generalized weakness. Generalized weakness progressing to flaccidity is a manifestation of hypokalemia. Facial muscle spasms might occur with hypocalcemia. Loose stools are associated with hyperkalemia. Personality changes are not associated with electrolyte disturbances, although changes in mental status are common manifestations with sodium excess or deficit.

A patient who has required prolonged mechanical ventilation has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.48, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and HCO3 25 mEq/L. The nurse interprets these results as a. metabolic acidosis. b. metabolic alkalosis. c. respiratory acidosis. d. respiratory alkalosis

d. respiratory alkalosis The pH indicates that the patient has alkalosis and the low PaCO2 indicates a respiratory cause. The other responses are incorrect based on the pH and the normal HCO3.

A client with hypokalemia has a prescription for parenteral potassium chloride (KCl). Which of these interventions does the nurse use to safely administer KCl? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY. A. Use a potassium infusion prepared by a registered pharmacist. B. Assess for burning or redness during infusion. C. Infuse at a rate of no more than 10 mEq per hour. D. Administer only through a central venous catheter. E. Administer by IV push only during cardiac arrest.

A, B, C RATIONALE: Interventions to safely administer KCl to a client with hypokalemia include: using a pharmacy prepared potassium infusion, checking the client for any burning or redness during infusion, and infusing the IV at not more than 10 mEq per hour. The Joint Commission's National Client Safety Goals mandates that concentrated potassium be diluted and added to IV solutions only in the pharmacy by a registered pharmacist and that vials of concentrated potassium not be available in client care areas. IV potassium solutions irritate veins and cause phlebitis. Assess the IV site hourly, and ask the client whether he or she feels burning or pain at the site. The presence of pain or burning at the insertion site may require a new intravenous to be started. A dose of KCl 5-10 mEq/hour, no more than 20 mEq/hr is recommended.Potassium may be administered by peripheral or central vein. There is no circumstance where potassium is given by IV push.

A client with diarrhea for 3 days and inability to eat or drink well is brought to the emergency department (ED) by her family. She states she has been taking her diuretics for congestive heart failure (CHF). What nursing actions are indicated at this time? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY. A. Place the client on bed rest. B. Evaluate the electrolyte levels. C. Administer the ordered diuretic. D. Assess for orthostatic hypotension E. Initiate cardiac monitoring.

A, B, D, E RATIONALE: Nursing actions indicated at this time include: placing the client on bedrest and assisting the client out of bed, evaluating electrolyte levels, assessing for orthostatic hypotension, and applying a cardiac monitor. Safety is required to prevent falls due to weakness from a likely fluid volume deficit and electrolyte imbalance. The nurse should review the laboratory and diagnostic results to detect likely loss of sodium, potassium, and magnesium secondary to diarrhea and diuretic us. Fluid volume deficit is likely with diarrhea and diuretic use and leads to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, especially hypokalemia. Assessing for orthostatic changes will confirm presence of volume deficit. Monitoring for inverted T wave or presence of U wave on the ECG as well as dysrhythmias is indicated when hypokalemia is anticipated.Diuretics increase loss of fluids and electrolytes. The nurse would question this order in the presence of assessment data indicating fluid loss from the diuretics and diarrhea.

A client is admitted to the hospital with dehydration secondary to influenza and vomiting. The provider orders an intravenous (IV) potassium replacement for potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L (2.7 mmol/L). Which of these best practice techniques does the nurse include when administering this medication? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY. A. Ensuring that the concentration is no greater than 1?9?mEq/10?9?mL of solution B. Use a vein in the hand for better flow C. Use an IV pump to deliver the medication D. Check IV access for blood return after the infusion E. Push the medication over 5 minutes

A, C RATIONALE: Best practice technique for administering IV potassium replacement is to ensure that the concentration is no greater than 1 mEq/10 mL of solution. A pump or controller device must be used to deliver the medication to prevent rapid infusion and complications of hyperkalemia, including cardiac arrest.Potassium must be infused via a large vein with a high volume of flow, avoiding the hand. The maximum recommended infusion rate of potassium is 5 to 10 mEq/hr. This rate is never to exceed 20 mEq/hr. Potassium would never be administered via IV push. Assess the IV access for placement and an adequate blood return before administering potassium-containing solutions.

The nurse manager of a medical-surgical unit is completing assignments for the day shift staff. The client with which electrolyte laboratory value is assigned to the LPN/LVN? A. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL (2.4 mmol/L) B. Magnesium level of 4.1 mEq/L (2.1 mmol/L) C. Potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L (6.0 mmol/L) D. Sodium level of 120 mEq/L (120 mmol/L)

A. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL (2.4 mmol/L) RATIONALE: The client with a calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL (2.4 mmol/L), a normal value, would be assigned to the LPN/LVN.A magnesium level of 4.1 mEq/L (2.1 mmol/L) (normal is 1.8-2.6 mEq/L [0.74-1.07 mmol/L]) and potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L (6.0 mmol/L) pose risk for dysrhythmia, and a sodium level of 120 mEq/L (120 mmol/L) may cause serious cerebral dysfunction requiring assessments and/or interventions by the RN.

The RN is assessing a 70-year-old client admitted to the unit with severe dehydration. Which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse? A. Client behavior that changes from anxious to lethargic B. Deep furrows on the surface of the tongue C. Poor skin turgor with tenting remaining for 2 minutes after the skin is pinched D. Urine output of 950 mL for the past 24 hours

A. Client behavior that changes from anxious to lethargic RATIONALE: Immediate intervention by the nurse is required when a client's behavior changes from anxious to lethargic. This change in mental status suggests poor cerebral blood flow and fluid shifts within the brain cells. Immediate intervention is needed to prevent further cerebral dysfunction.Deep furrows on the surface of the tongue, poor skin turgor, and low urine output are all caused by the fluid volume deficit, but do not indicate complications of dehydration that are immediately life-threatening.

A postoperative patient who had surgery for a perforated gastric ulcer has been receiving nasogastric suction for 3 days. The patient now has a serum sodium level of 127 mEq/L (127 mmol/L). Which prescribed therapy should the nurse question? a. Infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr. b. Administer 3% saline at 50 mL/hr for a total of 200 mL. c. Administer IV morphine sulfate 4 mg every 2 hours PRN. d. Give IV metoclopramide (Reglan) 10 mg every 6 hours PRN for nausea.

ANS: A Because the patient's gastric suction has been depleting electrolytes, the IV solution should include electrolyte replacement. Solutions such as lactated Ringer's solution would usually be ordered for this patient. The other orders are appropriate for a postoperative patient with gastric suction.

When caring for a patient with renal failure on a low phosphate diet, the nurse will inform unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to remove which food from the patient's food tray? a. Skim milk c. Mixed green salad b. Grape juice d. Fried chicken breast

ANS: A Foods high in phosphate include milk and other dairy products, so these are restricted on low- phosphate diets. Green, leafy vegetables; high-fat foods; and fruits and juices are not high in phosphate and are not restricted.

A patient receives 3% NaCl solution for correction of hyponatremia. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to monitor for while the patient is receiving this infusion? a. Lung sounds c. Peripheral pulses b. Urinary output d. Peripheral edema

ANS: A Hypertonic solutions cause water retention, so the patient should be monitored for symptoms of fluid excess. Crackles in the lungs may indicate the onset of pulmonary edema and are a serious manifestation of fluid excess. Peripheral pulses, peripheral edema, or changes in urine output are also important to monitor when administering hypertonic solutions, but they do not indicate acute respiratory or cardiac decompensation.

A patient has a serum calcium level of 7.0 mEq/L. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. The patient is experiencing laryngeal stridor. b. The patient complains of generalized fatigue. c. The patient's bowels have not moved for 4 days. d. The patient has numbness and tingling of the lips.

ANS: A Hypocalcemia can cause laryngeal stridor, which may lead to respiratory arrest. Rapid action is required to correct the patient's calcium level. The other data are also consistent with hypocalcemia, but do not indicate a need for as immediate action as laryngospasm.

A patient who has been receiving diuretic therapy is admitted to the emergency department with a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. The nurse should alert the health care provider immediately that the patient is on which medication? a. Digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg/day b. Metoprolol (Lopressor) 12.5 mg/day c. Ibuprofen (Motrin) 400 mg every 6 hours d. Lantus insulin 24 U subcutaneously every evening

ANS: A Hypokalemia increases the risk for digoxin toxicity, which can cause serious dysrhythmias. The nurse will also need to do more assessment regarding the other medications, but they are not of as much concern with the potassium level.

A patient has a magnesium level of 1.3 mg/dL. Which assessment would help the nurse identify a likely cause of this value? a. Daily alcohol intake b. Dietary protein intake c. Multivitamin/mineral use d. Over-the-counter (OTC) laxative use

ANS: A Hypomagnesemia is associated with alcoholism. Protein intake would not have a significant effect on magnesium level. OTC laxatives (such as milk of magnesia) and use of multivitamin/mineral supplements tend to increase magnesium levels.

A patient with renal failure who arrives for outpatient hemodialysis is unresponsive to questions and has decreased deep tendon reflexes. Family members report that the patient has been taking aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide suspension (Maalox) at home for indigestion. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Notify the patient's health care provider. b. Obtain an order to draw a potassium level. c. Review the last magnesium level on the patient's chart. d. Teach the patient about magnesium-containing antacids.

ANS: A The health care provider should be notified immediately. The patient has a history and manifestations consistent with hypermagnesemia. The nurse should check the chart for a recent serum magnesium level and make sure that blood is sent to the laboratory for immediate electrolyte and chemistry determinations. Dialysis should correct the high magnesium levels. The patient needs teaching about the risks of taking magnesium-containing antacids. Monitoring of potassium levels also is important for patients with renal failure, but the patient's current symptoms are not consistent with hyperkalemia.

A patient who is lethargic and exhibits deep, rapid respirations has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.32, PaO2 88 mm Hg, PaCO2 37 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results? a. Metabolic acidosis c. Respiratory acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis d. Respiratory alkalosis

ANS: A The pH and HCO3 indicate that the patient has a metabolic acidosis. The ABGs are inconsistent with the other responses.

Following a thyroidectomy, a patient complains of "a tingling feeling around my mouth." Which assessment should the nurse complete? a. Presence of the Chvostek's sign b. Abnormal serum potassium level c. Decreased thyroid hormone level d. Bleeding on the patient's dressing

ANS: A The patient's symptoms indicate possible hypocalcemia, which can occur secondary to parathyroid injury or removal during thyroidectomy. There is no indication of a need to check the potassium level, the thyroid hormone level, or for bleeding.

The nurse notes a serum calcium level of 7.9 mg/dL for a patient who has chronic malnutrition. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Monitor ionized calcium level. b. Give oral calcium citrate tablets. c. Check parathyroid hormone level. d. Administer vitamin D supplements.

ANS: A This patient with chronic malnutrition is likely to have a low serum albumin level, which will affect the total serum calcium. A more accurate reflection of calcium balance is the ionized calcium level. Most of the calcium in the blood is bound to protein (primarily albumin). Alterations in serum albumin levels affect the interpretation of total calcium levels. Low albumin levels result in a drop in the total calcium level, although the level of ionized calcium is not affected. The other actions may be needed if the ionized calcium is also decreased.

The home health nurse cares for an alert and oriented older adult patient with a history of dehydration. Which instructions should the nurse give this patient related to fluid intake? a. "Drink more fluids in the late evening." b. "Increase fluids if your mouth feels dry." c. "More fluids are needed if you feel thirsty." d. "If you feel confused, you need more to drink."

ANS: B An alert older patient will be able to self-assess for signs of oral dryness such as thick oral secretions or dry-appearing mucosa. The thirst mechanism decreases with age and is not an accurate indicator of volume depletion. Many older patients prefer to restrict fluids slightly in the evening to improve sleep quality. The patient will not be likely to notice and act appropriately when changes in level of consciousness occur.

A patient comes to the clinic complaining of frequent, watery stools for the past 2 days. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Obtain the baseline weight. b. Check the patient's blood pressure. c. Draw blood for serum electrolyte levels. d. Ask about extremity numbness or tingling.

ANS: B Because the patient's history suggests that fluid volume deficit may be a problem, assessment for adequate circulation is the highest priority. The other actions are also appropriate, but are not as essential as determining the patient's perfusion status.

A patient is receiving a 3% saline continuous IV infusion for hyponatremia. Which assessment data will require the most rapid response by the nurse? a. The patient's radial pulse is 105 beats/min. b. There are crackles throughout both lung fields. c. There is sediment and blood in the patient's urine. d. The blood pressure increases from 120/80 to 142/94 mm Hg.

ANS: B Crackles throughout both lungs suggest that the patient may be experiencing pulmonary edema, a life-threatening adverse effect of hypertonic solutions. The increased pulse rate and blood pressure and the appearance of the urine should also be reported, but they are not as dangerous as the presence of fluid in the alveoli.

A patient with multiple draining wounds is admitted for hypovolemia. Which assessment would be the most accurate way for the nurse to evaluate fluid balance? a. Skin turgor c. Urine output b. Daily weight d. Edema presence

ANS: B Daily weight is the most easily obtained and accurate means of assessing volume status. Skin turgor varies considerably with age. Considerable excess fluid volume may be present before fluid moves into the interstitial space and causes edema. Urine outputs do not take account of fluid intake or of fluid loss through insensible loss, sweating, or loss from the gastrointestinal tract or wounds.

A patient who has a small cell carcinoma of the lung develops syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse should notify the health care provider about which assessment finding? a. Serum hematocrit of 42% b. Serum sodium level of 120 mg/dL c. Reported weight gain of 2.2 lb (1 kg) d. Urinary output of 280 mL during past 8 hours

ANS: B Hyponatremia is the most important finding to report. SIADH causes water retention and a decrease in serum sodium level. Hyponatremia can cause confusion and other central nervous system effects. A critically low value likely needs to be treated. At least 30 mL/hr of urine output indicates adequate kidney function. The hematocrit level is normal. Weight gain is expected with SIADH because of water retention.

IV potassium chloride (KCl) 60 mEq is prescribed for treatment of a patient with severe hypokalemia. Which action should the nurse take? a. Administer the KCl as a rapid IV bolus. b. Infuse the KCl at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. c. Only give the KCl through a central venous line. d. Discontinue cardiac monitoring during the infusion.

ANS: B IV KCl is administered at a maximal rate of 10 mEq/hr. Rapid IV infusion of KCl can cause cardiac arrest. KCl can cause inflammation of peripheral veins, but it can be administered by this route. Cardiac monitoring should be continued while patient is receiving potassium because of the risk for dysrhythmias.

A patient has a parenteral nutrition infusion of 25% dextrose. A student nurse asks the nurse why a peripherally inserted central catheter was inserted. Which response by the nurse is accurate? a. "The prescribed infusion can be given more rapidly when the patient has a central line." b. "The hypertonic solution will be more rapidly diluted when given through a central line." c. "There is a decreased risk for infection when 25% dextrose is infused through a central line." d. "The required blood glucose monitoring is based on samples obtained from a central line."

ANS: B The 25% dextrose solution is hypertonic. Shrinkage of red blood cells can occur when solutions with dextrose concentrations greater than 10% are administered IV. Blood glucose testing is not more accurate when samples are obtained from a central line. The infection risk is higher with a central catheter than with peripheral IV lines. Hypertonic or concentrated IV solutions are not given rapidly.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a massive burn injury and possible hypovolemia. Which assessment data will be of most concern to the nurse? a. Urine output is 30 mL/hr. b. Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg. c. Oral fluid intake is 100 mL for the past 8 hours. d. There is prolonged skin tenting over the sternum.

ANS: B The blood pressure indicates that the patient may be developing hypovolemic shock as a result of intravascular fluid loss because of the burn injury. This finding will require immediate intervention to prevent the complications associated with systemic hypoperfusion. The poor oral intake, decreased urine output, and skin tenting all indicate the need for increasing the patient's fluid intake but not as urgently as the hypotension.

When assessing a pregnant patient with eclampsia who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate, which finding should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately? a. The bibasilar breath sounds are decreased. b. The patellar and triceps reflexes are absent. c. The patient has been sleeping most of the day. d. The patient reports feeling "sick to my stomach."

ANS: B The loss of the deep tendon reflexes indicates that the patient's magnesium level may be reaching toxic levels. Nausea and lethargy are also side effects associated with magnesium elevation and should be reported, but they are not as significant as the loss of deep tendon reflexes. The decreased breath sounds suggest that the patient needs to cough and deep breathe to prevent atelectasis.

An older adult patient who is malnourished presents to the emergency department with a serum protein level of 5.2 g/dL. The nurse would expect which clinical manifestation? a. Pallor c. Confusion b. Edema d. Restlessness

ANS: B The normal range for total protein is 6.4 to 8.3 g/dL. Low serum protein levels cause a decrease in plasma oncotic pressure and allow fluid to remain in interstitial tissues, causing edema. Confusion, restlessness, and pallor are not associated with low serum protein levels.

A patient with new-onset confusion and hyponatremia is being admitted. When making room assignments, the charge nurse should take which action? a. Assign the patient to a semi-private room. b. Assign the patient to a room near the nurse's station. c. Place the patient in a room nearest to the water fountain. d. Place the patient on telemetry to monitor for peaked T waves..

ANS: B The patient should be placed near the nurse's station if confused for the staff to closely monitor the patient. To help improve serum sodium levels, water intake is restricted. Therefore a confused patient should not be placed near a water fountain. Peaked T waves are a sign of hyperkalemia, not hyponatremia. A confused patient could be distracting and disruptive for another patient in a semiprivate room.

A patient who had a transverse colectomy for diverticulosis 18 hours ago has nasogastric suction. The patient complains of anxiety and incisional pain. The patient's respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min, and the arterial blood gases (ABGs) indicate respiratory alkalosis. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Check to make sure the nasogastric tube is patent. b. Give the patient the PRN IV morphine sulfate 4 mg. c. Notify the health care provider about the ABG results. d. Teach the patient how to take slow, deep breaths when anxious.

ANS: B The patient's respiratory alkalosis is caused by the increased respiratory rate associated with pain and anxiety. The nurse's first action should be to medicate the patient for pain. The health care provider may be notified about the ABGs but is likely to instruct the nurse to medicate for pain. The patient will not be able to take slow, deep breaths when experiencing pain. Checking the nasogastric tube can wait until the patient has been medicated for pain.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a central venous access device (CVAD). Which action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Avoid using friction when cleaning around the CVAD insertion site. b. Use the push-pause method to flush the CVAD after giving medications. c. Obtain an order from the health care provider to change CVAD dressing. d. Position the patient's face toward the CVAD during injection cap changes.

ANS: B The push-pause enhances the removal of debris from the CVAD lumen and decreases the risk for clotting. To decrease infection risk, friction should be used when cleaning the CVAD insertion site. The dressing should be changed whenever it becomes damp, loose, or visibly soiled. A provider's order is not necessary. The patient should turn away from the CVAD during cap changes.

A patient is admitted to the emergency department with severe fatigue and confusion. Laboratory studies are done. Which laboratory value will require the most immediate action by the nurse? a. Arterial blood pH is 7.32. b. Serum calcium is 18 mg/dL. c. Serum potassium is 5.1 mEq/L. d. Arterial oxygen saturation is 91%.

ANS: B The serum calcium is well above the normal level and puts the patient at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. The nurse should initiate cardiac monitoring and notify the health care provider. The potassium, oxygen saturation, and pH are also abnormal, and the nurse should notify the health care provider about these values as well, but they are not immediately life threatening.

The long-term care nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of protein supplements for an older resident who has a low serum total protein level. Which assessment finding indicates that the patient's condition has improved? a. Hematocrit 28% c. Decreased peripheral edema b. Absence of skin tenting d. Blood pressure 110/72 mm Hg

ANS: C Edema is caused by low oncotic pressure in individuals with low serum protein levels. The decrease in edema indicates an improvement in the patient's protein status. Good skin turgor is an indicator of fluid balance, not protein status. A low hematocrit could be caused by poor protein intake. Blood pressure does not provide a useful clinical tool for monitoring protein status.

A nurse is assessing a newly admitted patient with chronic heart failure who forgot to take prescribed medications and seems confused. The patient has peripheral edema and shortness of breath. Which assessment should the nurse complete first? a. Skin turgor c. Mental status b. Heart sounds d. Capillary refill

ANS: C Increases in extracellular fluid (ECF) can lead to swelling of cells in the central nervous system, initially causing confusion, which may progress to coma or seizures. Although skin turgor, capillary refill, and heart sounds may also be affected by increases in ECF, these are signs that do not have as immediate impact on patient outcomes as cerebral edema.

An older patient receiving iso-osmolar continuous tube feedings develops restlessness, agitation, and weakness. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately? a. K + 3.4 mEq/L (3.4 mmol/L) c. Na+ 154 mEq/L (154 mmol/L) b. Ca+2 7.8 mg/dL (1.95 mmol/L) d. PO4 -3 4.8 mg/dL (1.55 mmol/L)

ANS: C The elevated serum sodium level is consistent with the patient's neurologic symptoms and indicates a need for immediate action to prevent further serious complications such as seizures. The potassium, phosphate, and calcium levels vary slightly from normal but do not require immediate action by the nurse.

Which action should the nurse take first when a patient complains of acute chest pain and dyspnea soon after insertion of a centrally inserted IV catheter? a. Notify the health care provider. b. Offer reassurance to the patient. c. Auscultate the patient's breath sounds. d. Give prescribed PRN morphine sulfate IV.

ANS: C The initial action should be to assess the patient further because the history and symptoms are consistent with several possible complications of central line insertion, including embolism and pneumothorax. The other actions may be appropriate, but further assessment of the patient is needed before notifying the health care provider, offering reassurance, or administration of morphine.

After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient with serum potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L who is complaining of abdominal cramping b. Patient with serum sodium level of 145 mEq/L who has a dry mouth and is asking for a glass of water c. Patient with serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes d. Patient with serum phosphorus level of 4.5 mg/dL who has multiple soft tissue calcium-phosphate precipitates

ANS: C The low magnesium level and neuromuscular irritability suggest that the patient may be at risk for seizures. The other patients have mild electrolyte disturbances or symptoms that require action, but they are not at risk for life-threatening complications.

The nurse assesses a patient who has been hospitalized for 2 days. The patient has been receiving normal saline IV at 100 mL/hr, has a nasogastric tube to low suction, and is NPO. Which assessment finding would be a priority for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Oral temperature of 100.1°F b. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L (138 mmol/L) c. Gradually decreasing level of consciousness (LOC) d. Weight gain of 2 pounds (1 kg) over the admission weight

ANS: C The patient's history and change in LOC could be indicative of fluid and electrolyte disturbances: extracellular fluid (ECF) excess, ECF deficit, hyponatremia, hypernatremia, hypokalemia, or metabolic alkalosis. Further diagnostic information is needed to determine the cause of the change in LOC and the appropriate interventions. The weight gain, elevated temperature, crackles, and serum sodium level also will be reported but do not indicate a need for rapid action to avoid complications.

During the admission process, the nurse obtains information about a patient through a physical assessment and diagnostic testing. Based on the data shown in the accompanying figure, which nursing diagnosis is appropriate? a. Deficient fluid volume c. Risk for injury: seizures b. Impaired gas exchange d. Risk for impaired skin integrity

ANS: C The patient's muscle cramps and low serum calcium level indicate that the patient is at risk for seizures, tetany, or both. The other diagnoses are not supported by the data because the skin turgor is good. The lungs are clear, arterial blood gases are normal, and there is no evidence of edema or dehydration that might suggest that the patient is at risk for impaired skin integrity.

Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is prescribed for a patient. Which statement by the patient indicates that the teaching about this medication has been effective? a. "I will try to drink at least 8 glasses of water every day." b. "I will use a salt substitute to decrease my sodium intake." c. "I will increase my intake of potassium-containing foods." d. "I will drink apple juice instead of orange juice for breakfast."

ANS: D Because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, patients should be taught to choose low- potassium foods (e.g., apple juice) rather than foods that have higher levels of potassium (e.g., citrus fruits). Because the patient is using spironolactone as a diuretic, the nurse would not encourage the patient to increase fluid intake. Teach patients to avoid salt substitutes, which are high in potassium.

A patient who is taking a potassium-wasting diuretic for treatment of hypertension complains of generalized weakness. Which action is appropriate for the nurse to take? a. Assess for facial muscle spasms. b. Ask the patient about loose stools. c. Recommend the patient avoid drinking orange juice with meals. d. Suggest that the health care provider order a basic metabolic panel.

ANS: D Generalized weakness is a manifestation of hypokalemia. After the health care provider orders the metabolic panel, the nurse should check the potassium level. Facial muscle spasms might occur with hypocalcemia. Orange juice is high in potassium and would be advisable to drink if the patient is hypokalemic. Loose stools are associated with hyperkalemia.

A patient who was involved in a motor vehicle crash has had a tracheostomy placed to allow for continued mechanical ventilation. How should the nurse interpret the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.48, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and HCO3 25 mEq/L? a. Metabolic acidosis c. Respiratory acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis d. Respiratory alkalosis

ANS: D The pH indicates that the patient has alkalosis and the low PaCO2 indicates a respiratory cause. The other responses are incorrect based on the pH and the normal HCO3

The nurse notes that a patient who was admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis has rapid, deep respirations. Which action should the nurse take? a. Give the prescribed PRN lorazepam (Ativan). b. Encourage the patient to take deep slow breaths. c. Start the prescribed PRN oxygen at 2 to 4 L/min. d. Administer the prescribed normal saline bolus and insulin.

ANS: D The rapid, deep (Kussmaul) respirations indicate a metabolic acidosis and the need for correction of the acidosis with a saline bolus to prevent hypovolemia followed by insulin administration to allow glucose to reenter the cells. Oxygen therapy is not indicated because there is no indication that the increased respiratory rate is related to hypoxemia. The respiratory pattern is compensatory, and the patient will not be able to slow the respiratory rate. Lorazepam administration will slow the respiratory rate and increase the level of acidosis.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL. Which nursing action should the nurse include on the care plan? a. Maintain the patient on bed rest. b. Auscultate lung sounds every 4 hours. c. Monitor for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs. d. Encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day.

ANS: D To decrease the risk for renal calculi, the patient should have a fluid intake of 3000 to 4000 mL daily. Ambulation helps decrease the loss of calcium from bone and is encouraged in patients with hypercalcemia. Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs are monitored when there is a possibility of hypocalcemia. There is no indication that the patient needs frequent assessment of lung sounds, although these would be assessed every shift.

A client is brought to the emergency department for increasing weakness and muscle twitching. The laboratory results include a potassium level of 7.0 mEq/L (7.0 mmol/L). Which assessments does the nurse make? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY. A. History of liver disease B. Use of salt substitute C. Use of an ACE inhibitor D. Potassium-sparing diuretics E. Prescription for insulin

B, C, D, RATIONALE: When caring for an ED client with an elevated potassium level, the nurse needs to assess the client for any use of salt substitutes, any use of ACE inhibitors or potassium-sparing diuretics, as well as kidney disease.History of liver disease does not increase the client's potassium level. Insulin, which moves potassium into the cell, can be used as a treatment for hyperkalemia, in addition to diabetes. Taking insulin would lower the potassium level.

The nurse is caring for a client receiving lactated Ringer's solution IV for rehydration. Which assessments will the nurse monitor during intravenous therapy? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY A. Blood serum glucose B. Blood pressure C. Pulse rate and quality D. Urinary output E. Urine specific gravity

B, C, D, E RATIONALE: The two most important areas to monitor during rehydration are pulse rate and quality and urine output. In addition, decreasing specific gravity of urine is also an indication of rehydration. Blood pressure is another important vital sign to monitor during rehydration.Blood glucose changes do not have a direct relation to a client's hydration status; lactated ringers are free from glucose.

The nurse is teaching a client who is taking a potassium-sparing diuretic about precautions while taking this medication. Which of these does the nurse teach the client to avoid or use cautiously? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY. A. Apples B. Bananas C. ACE inhibitors D. Grapes E. Salt substitute

B, C, E RATIONALE: While taking a potassium-sparing diuretic, the nurse teaches the client to avoid bananas, ACE inhibitors, and salt substitutes. Other foods high in potassium include cantaloupe, kiwi, oranges, avocados, broccoli, dried beans, lima beans, mushrooms, potatoes, seaweed, soybeans, and spinach. Salt substitutes contain potassium and may predispose the client to hyperkalemia.Apples and grapes are considered lower potassium-containing foods.

The nurse is infusing 3% saline for a client with syndrome of inappropriate secretion (SIADH). Which of these complications does the nurse report to the primary care provider? A. Peripheral edema B. Crackles ½ way up the lung fields C. Serum osmolarity of 294 mOsm/kg D. Urine output of 1300 mL over 24 hours

B. Crackles ½ way up the lung fields RATIONALE: The nurse needs to report to the PCP crackles heard ½ way up the lung fields when assessed on a client with SIADH receiving an infusion of 3% saline. When a hyperosmotic IV solution such as 3% saline is infused, the interstitial fluid is pulled into the circulation in an attempt to dilute the blood. As a result, the plasma volume expands. The nurse needs to evaluate the client for fluid volume excess and symptoms of heart failure including crackles.Peripheral edema may occur with SIADH. A serum osmolarity of 294 mOsm/kg (294 mmol/kg) is normal. A urine output of 1300 mL over 24 hours is considered normal.

A client develops fluid overload while in the intensive care unit. Which nursing intervention does the nurse perform first? A. Draws blood for laboratory tests B. Elevates the head of the bed C. Places the extremities in a dependent position D. Puts the client in a side-lying position

B. Elevates the head of the bed The nurse first needs to elevate the client's head of bed when caring for a client with fluid overload. Remember to follow the ABC's and perform interventions that promote lung expansion and oxygenation to relieve symptoms of fluid overload.Drawing blood for laboratory tests may be indicated, but would not be performed first. Placing the extremities in a dependent position increases peripheral edema, and positioning the client in a side-

The nurse is discussing safety when administering bumetanide with a nursing student. The nurse recognizes that the student understands side effects of this medication when the student makes which statement? A. "The client's PT and INR may be prolonged while taking this medication." B. "The client may develop hypoglycemia during treatment." C. "Inverted T waves and a U wave may appear on the ECG." D. "I need to tell the client to avoid salt substitutes."

C. "Inverted T waves and a U wave may appear on the ECG." RATIONALE: The nursing student understands the side effects of Bumex when commenting that inverted T waves and a U wave may appear on the EKG. Hypokalemia may cause depressed ST segments, flat or inverted T waves or the presence of a U wave on the ECG as well as dysrhythmias. High-ceiling (loop) diuretics, such as furosemide (Lasix, furosemide), promote loss of water, sodium, and potassium.PT and INR are typically prolonged with therapy with warfarin (Coumadin) or individuals with liver disease. Hypoglycemia may occur with oral hypoglycemic medications or insulin. Salt substitutes are typically avoided when the client has hyperkalemia or is taking an ACE inhibitor because many substitutes contain potassium chloride.

After receiving change-of-shift report, which client does the RN assess first? A. A client with nausea and vomiting who complains of abdominal cramps B. A client with a nasogastric (NG) tube who has dry oral mucosa and is complaining of thirst C. A client receiving intravenous (IV) diuretics whose blood pressure is 88/52 mm Hg D. A client with normal saline infusing at 150 mL/hr whose hourly urine output has been averaging 75 mL

C. A client receiving intravenous (IV) diuretics whose blood pressure is 88/52 mm Hg RATIONALE: The nurse must first assess the client receiving IV diuretics whose blood pressure is 88/52 mm Hg. This client with hypotension may have developed hypoperfusion caused by hypovolemia. Immediate interventions are needed.The client with nausea and vomiting, the client with an NG tube complaining of thirst, and the client receiving normal saline with an hourly urine output of 75 mL/hr have problems which are not urgent at this time.

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intravenous (IV) magnesium sulfate. Which assessment parameter is critical? A. Monitoring 24-hour urine output B. Asking the client about feeling depressed C. Assessing the blood pressure hourly D. Monitoring the serum calcium levels

C. Assessing the blood pressure hourly RATIONALE: Assessing hourly blood pressures is critical when caring for a client receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Hypotension is a sign/symptom of hypermagnesemia during magnesium infusion.Most clients who have fluid and electrolyte problems will be monitored for intake and output, and will not immediately indicate problems with magnesium overdose. Low magnesium levels can cause psychological depression, but assessing this parameter as the levels are restored would not safely assess a safe dose or an overdose. Although administration of magnesium sulfate can cause a drop in calcium levels, this occurs over a period of time and would not be the best way to assess magnesium toxicity.

The step down unit receives a new admission who has uncontrolled diabetes, polyuria, and a blood pressure of 86/46 mm Hg. Which staff member is assigned to care for her? A. LPN/LVN who has floated from the hospital's long-term care unit B. LPN/LVN who frequently administers medications to multiple clients C. RN who has floated from the intensive care unit D. RN who usually works as a diabetes educator

C. RN who has floated from the intensive care unit RATIONALE: The RN who has floated from the intensive care unit needs to care for this clinically unstable woman with uncontrolled diabetes. The clinical manifestations suggest that the client is experiencing hypovolemia and possible hypovolemic shock from osmotic diuresis. The RN from the intensive care unit will have extensive experience caring for clients with hypovolemia, hyperglycemia, and fluid volume deficit/shock.The LPN/LVN who has floated from the long-term care unit or who frequently administers medications to multiple clients will not be as familiar with care for critically ill clients, or qualified to care for this clinically unstable client. Although the resource on diabetes is helpful, the RN who works as a diabetes educator will not be as familiar with care for acutely or critically ill clients.

Furosemide (Lasix) has been ordered for a client with heart failure, shortness of breath, and 3+ pitting edema of the lower extremities. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the medication has been effective? A. The client's potassium level is 5.1 mEq/L (5.1 mmol/L). B. The client's heart rate is 101 beats per minute. C. The client is free from adventitious breath sounds. D. The client has experienced a weight gain of 1 pound (0.5 kg).

C. The client is free from adventitious breath sounds. RATIONALE: The nurse recognizes that Furosemide is effective when the client is free from adventitious breath sounds such as crackles. Other positive outcomes to the diuretic include normal heart rate, weight loss with resolution of edema, and increased urine output.A potassium value of 5.1 mEq/L or (5.1 mmol/L) is normal. Changes in potassium levels such as hypokalemia are side effects of furosemide, not therapeutic effects. Although a fall in the client's BP may occur with the decrease in body fluid, this is not the priority. Tachycardia may occur during episodes of fluid volume excess or deficit and does not directly indicate the medication has been effective. Weight loss, rather than weight gain, is often the effect of Furosemide, caused by the diuresis.

The nurse is caring for a group of clients with electrolytes and blood chemistry abnormalities. Which client will the nurse see first? A. The client with a random glucose reading of 123 mg/dL (6.8 mmol/L) B. The client who has a magnesium level of 2.1 mEq/L (1.0 mmol/L) C. The client whose potassium is 6.2 mEq/L (6.2 mmol/L) D. The client with a sodium level of 143 mEq/L (143 mmol/L)

C. The client whose potassium is 6.2 mEq/L (6.2 mmol/L) RATIONALE: The first client the nurse sees with electrolyte and blood chemistry abnormalities is the client whose potassium is 6.2 mEq/L (6.2 mmol/L). A potassium value of 6.2 mEq/L (6.2 mmol/L) is elevated and the client has potential for cardiac dysrhythmias.A random or casual glucose, taken at any time of day, is elevated if ≥200mg/dL(>11.1mmol/L); a random value of 123 mg/dL (6.9 mmol/L) does not require intervention. The other clients with a magnesium value of 2.1 mEq/L (1.0 mmol/L) and a sodium value of 143 mEq/L (143 mmol/L) demonstrate normal laboratory values and do not require intervention.

The nurse is preparing a client a diagnosis of congestive heart failure (CHF) for discharge. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of self-management of CHF? A. "I can gain 2 pounds (1 kg) of water a day without risk." B. "I should call my provider if I gain more than 1 pound (0.5 kg) a week." C. "Weighing myself daily can determine if my caloric intake is adequate." D. "Weighing myself daily can reveal increased fluid retention."

D. "Weighing myself daily can reveal increased fluid retention." RATIONALE: The client with CHF should weigh himself daily to observe for increasing fluid retention, which may not be visible. Rapid weight gain is the best indicator of fluid retention and overload. Each pound (0.5 kg) of weight gained (after the first half-pound [0.2 kg]) equates to 500 mL of retained water. The client must be weighed at the same time every day (before breakfast), and on the same scale.The client would call the primary care provider if more than 1 or 2 pounds (0.5 or 1 kg) are gained in a 24-hour period or if more than 3 pounds (1.4 kg) are gained in 1 week. Daily weights are not an indication of effective dieting for purposes of weight loss or gain. They will show fluid retention after an especially high sodium intake (in a client with fluid retention problems), but caloric intake is related to food intake rather than fluid retention problems.

The nurse is caring for a group of clients on a medical surgical unit. Which newly written prescription will the nurse administer first? A. Intravenous normal saline to a client with a serum sodium of 132 mEq/L (132 mmol/L) B. Oral calcium supplements to a client with severe osteoporosis C. Oral phosphorus supplements to a client with acute hypophosphatemia D. Oral potassium chloride to a client whose serum potassium is 3 mEq/L (3 mmol/L)

D. Oral potassium chloride to a client whose serum potassium is 3 mEq/L (3 mmol/L) RATIONALE: The nurse must first administer oral potassium supplements to the client with hypokalemia. Even minor changes in serum potassium levels can cause life-threatening dysrhythmias.The electrolyte disturbances (sodium level of 132 and low phosphorus level) and the need for calcium in the other clients are not immediately life-threatening.

A client with hypermagnesemia is seen in the emergency department (ED). Which of these interventions is most appropriate? A. Monitor for hyperactive reflexes B. prepare for endotracheal intubation C. Institute teaching on avoiding magnesium rich foods D. Place the client on a cardiac monitor

D. Place the client on a cardiac monitor RATIONALE: Hypermagnesemia causes changes in cardiac rhythm and may result in cardiac arrest, therefore instituting cardiac monitoring is most appropriate.Reflexes are typically reduced in the presence of hypermagnesemia. There is no indication that the client has signs and symptoms of respiratory distress at this time, however the nurse would monitor the client for respiratory weakness and respiratory failure. The nurse will institute teaching after the emergency passes and the cause of the magnesium excess is determined.

The RN is caring for a client who is severely dehydrated. Which nursing action can be delegated to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? A. Consulting with a health care provider about a client's laboratory results B. Infusing 500 mL of normal saline over 60 minutes C. Monitoring IV fluid to maintain the drip rate at 75 mL/hr D. Providing oral care every 1 to 2 hours

D. Providing oral care every 1 to 2 hours RATIONALE: Appropriate intervention by an UAP to a client who is severely dehydrated is to provide oral care every 1 to 2 hours. Frequent oral care is important for a client with fluid volume deficit.Consulting with a primary care provider about a client's laboratory results, infusing 500 mL of normal saline, and monitoring IV fluids are complex actions and would be performed by licensed personnel.

The nurse is assessing fluid balance in the client with heart failure. Which of these strategies will the nurse employ? A. Ask the client how much fluid was consumed yesterday. B. Place an indwelling catheter to measure urine output. C. Auscultate the lungs for adventitious sounds. D. Weigh the client daily, at the same time.

D. Weigh the client daily, at the same time. When assessing fluid balance on a client with heart failure the nurse must weigh the client at the same time every day. Changes in daily weights are the best indicators of fluid losses or gains. A weight change of 1 pound (0.5 kg) corresponds to a fluid volume change of about 500 mL therefore the weight must be compared to intake and output.The nurse must weigh the client rather than rely on client estimate or memory. An indwelling catheter poses a risk for catheter associated urinary tract infection, and is reserved for specific reasons. Auscultating for adventitious lung sounds or crackles will demonstrate fluid overload, but may not immediately show up.

When teaching a patient with renal failure about a low phosphate diet, the nurse will include information to restrict a. ingestion of dairy products. b. the amount of high-fat foods. c. the quantity of fruits and juices. d. intake of green, leafy vegetables.

a. ingestion of dairy products. Foods high in phosphate include milk and other dairy products, so these are restricted on low-phosphate diets. Green, leafy vegetables; high-fat foods; and fruits/juices are not high in phosphate and are not restricted.

A patient is receiving 3% NaCl solution for correction of hyponatremia. During administration of the solution, the most important assessment for the nurse to monitor is a. lung sounds. b. urinary output. c. peripheral pulses. d. peripheral edema.

a. lung sounds. Hypertonic solutions cause water retention, so the patient should be monitored for symptoms of fluid excess. Crackles in the lungs may indicate the onset of pulmonary edema and are the most serious of the symptoms of fluid excess listed. Bounding peripheral pulses, peripheral edema, or changes in urine output also are important to monitor when administering hypertonic solutions, but they do not indicate acute respiratory or cardiac decompensation.

A patient has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.32, PaO2 88 mm Hg, PaCO2 37 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. The nurse interprets these results as a. metabolic acidosis. b. metabolic alkalosis. c. respiratory acidosis. d. respiratory alkalosis

a. metabolic acidosis. The pH and HCO3 indicate that the patient has a metabolic acidosis. The ABGs are inconsistent with the other responses.

A patient who has been receiving diuretic therapy is admitted to the emergency department with a serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. Of the following medications that the patient has been taking at home, the nurse will be most concerned about a. oral digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily. b. ibuprofen (Motrin) 400 mg every 6 hours. c. metoprolol (Lopressor) 12.5 mg orally daily. d. lantus insulin 24 U subcutaneously every evening.

a. oral digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily. Hypokalemia increases the risk for digoxin toxicity, which can cause serious dysrhythmias. The nurse also will need to do more assessment regarding the other medications, but there is not as much concern with the potassium level.

Following a thyroidectomy, a patient complains of a tingling feeling around my mouth. The nurse will immediately check for a. an elevated serum potassium level. b. the presence of Chvosteks sign. c. a decreased thyroid hormone level. d. bleeding on the patients dressing.

b. the presence of Chvosteks sign. The patients symptoms indicate possible hypocalcemia, which can occur secondary to parathyroid injury/removal during thyroidectomy. There is no indication of a need to check the potassium level, the thyroid hormone level, or for bleeding.

The long-term care nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of protein supplements on a patient who has low serum total protein level. Which of these data indicate that the patients condition has improved? a. Hematocrit 28% b. Good skin turgor c. Absence of peripheral edema d. Blood pressure 110/72 mm Hg

c. Absence of peripheral edema Edema is caused by low oncotic pressure in individuals with low serum protein levels; the absence of edema indicates an improvement in the patients protein status. Good skin turgor is an indicator of fluid balance, not protein status. A low hematocrit could be caused by poor protein intake. Blood pressure does not provide a useful clinical tool for monitoring protein status.

hen assessing a patient with increased extracellular fluid (ECF) osmolality, the priority assessment for the nurse to obtain is a. skin turgor. b. heart sounds. c. mental status. d. capillary refill.

c. mental status. Changes in ECF osmolality lead to swelling or shrinking of cells in the central nervous system, initially causing confusion, which may progress to coma or seizures. Although skin turgor, capillary refill, and heart sounds also may be affected by ECF osmolality changes and resultant fluid shifts, these are signs that occur later and do not have as immediate an impact on patient outcomes.

postoperative patient who is receiving nasogastric suction is complaining of anxiety and incisional pain. The patients respiratory rate is 32 breaths/minute and the arterial blood gases (ABGs) indicate respiratory alkalosis. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Discontinue the nasogastric suctions for a few hours. b. Notify the health care provider about the ABG results. c. Teach the patient about the need to take slow, deep breaths. d. Give the patient the PRN morphine sulfate 4 mg intravenously.

d. Give the patient the PRN morphine sulfate 4 mg intravenously. The patients respiratory alkalosis is caused by the increased respiratory rate associated with pain and anxiety. The nurses first action should be to medicate the patient for pain. Although the nasogastric suction may contribute to the alkalosis, it is not appropriate to discontinue the tube when the patient needs gastric suction. The health care provider may be notified about the ABGs but is likely to instruct the nurse to medicate for pain. The patient will not be able to take slow, deep breaths when experiencing pain.